Hospital therapy

Question 1

1. the most authentic attribute of idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) is:
   
   1. Left ventricular hypertrophy
   2. Right ventricular hypertrophy
   3. Systolic murmur in epigastrium
   4. Septal hypertrophy

Answer 1

*4.septal hypertrophy

Question 2

2. Laboratory diagnostics of pheochromocytoma is based on:
   
   1. Spirography
   2. Computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
   3. Chatecholamines and vanilil almond acid levels detection in urine
   4. Treadmill test

Answer 2

*3.chatecholamines and vanilil almond acid levels detection in urine

Question 3

3. Which drugs are contra-indicated in heart failure treatment?
   
   1. Calcium channel blockers
   2. Diuretics
   3. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
   4. Beta-blockers

Answer 3

*1.calcium channel blockers

Question 4

4. Which of the following is a complication of essential hypertension?
   
   1. Stroke
   2. Nephrolithiasis
   3. Pulmonary embolism
   4. Acute right ventricle insufficiency

Answer 4

*1.stroke

Question 5

5. Alcohol-induced heart disease is complicated by:
   
   1. Rhythm disturbances
   2. Septal hypertrophy
   3. Sub-aortal stenosis
   4. Aortic insufficiency

Answer 5

*1.rhythm disturbances

Question 6

6. Acute viral fibrinous pericarditis manifests with:
   
   1. Pericardial pain associated with breath and body position
   2. ST-segment depression in the majority of ECG leads
   3. Paradoxical pulse
   4. Second sound of the pulmonary artery increase

Answer 6

*1.pericardial pain associated with breath and body position

Question 7

7. Secondary infectious endocarditis most commonly occurs as a complication of:
   
   1. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis
   2. Essential hypertension
   3. Rheumatic heart disease
   4. Diabetes mellitus

Answer 7

*3.rheumatic heart disease

Question 8

8. Which one of the listed diseases complicates with exudative pericarditis:
   
   1. Acute stage of myocardial infarction
   2. Tuberculosis
   3. Amyloidosis
   4. Thyrotoxicosis

Answer 8

*2.tuberculosis

Question 9

9. Prolonged chest pain in patients with climacteric (menopausal) cardiopathy is typically combined with:
   
   1. Elevated troponin-M
   2. Negative T-waves in right or the majority of ECG-leads
   3. Pathological Q-waves in chest-leads
   4. Positive effect by nitrates

Answer 9

*2.negative T-waves in right or the majority of ECG-leads

Question 10

10. Constrictive pericarditis should be treated with:
    
    1. Non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs
    2. Antagonists of calcium
    3. Glucocorticoids
    4. Resection of a pericardium

Answer 10

*4.resection of a pericardium

Question 11

11. Ventricular tachycardia should be treated with (at absence of effect from lidocaine):
    
    1. Verospiron (spironolactone)
    2. Cardioversion
    3. Verapamil
    4. Digoxin

Answer 11

*2.cardioversion

Question 12

12. Instable angina pectoris includes:
    
    1. Rest angina
    2. Silent stenocardia
    3. Exertional angina of III functional class
    4. Variant angina

Answer 12

*4.variant angina

Question 13

13. Most typical late complication of myocardial infarction is:
    
    1. Thromboendocarditis
    2. Cardiogenic shock
    3. Dressler’s syndrome
    4. Pulmonary embolism

Answer 13

*3.Dressler’s syndrome

Question 14

14. Stage acutissimus of myocardial infarction could be complicated with:
    
    1. Pericarditis
    2. Tietze’s syndrome
    3. Cardiogenic shock
    4. Pulmonary embolism

Answer 14

3. Cardiogenic shock

Question 15

15. Hiatal hernia is characterized by:
    
    1. Positive treadmill test
    2. Fast relief of retrosternal pain at nitroglycerine intake
    3. Reduction of retrosternal pain at transition from horizontal position to vertical
    4. Connection of retrosternal pain with physical exertion

Answer 15

*3. Reduction of retrosternal pain at transition from horizontal position to vertical

Question 16

17. Atrial fibrillation occurs at:
    
    1. Fallot’s tetrad
    2. Hypothyroidism
    3. Alcohol cardiomyopathy
    4. Fibrinous pericarditis

Answer 16

*3.alcohol cardiomyopathy

Question 17

18. the most effective antiarhythmic drug indicated in all types of rhythm disturbances is:
    
    1. novocainamid
    2. Amiodarone
    3. Digoxin
    4. Quinidine

Answer 17

*2.amiodarone

Question 18

16. Heart rate in paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia ranges in (beats per minute):
    
    1. 90 - 140
    2. 100 - 180
    3. 140 - 220
    4. 90 - 250

Answer 18

*3.140 - 220

Question 19

19. Initial therapy for non-complicated paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia could be:
    
    1. i/v introduction of Digoxin
    2. carotid sinus massage
    3. i/v introduction of Verapamil
    4. i/v introduction of Novocainamid

Answer 19

*2.carotid sinus massage

Question 20

20. Systolic blood pressure elevation is typical for:
    
    1. Pericarditis
    2. Mitral regurgitation
    3. Hypothyroidism
    4. Full atrioventricular heart block

Answer 20

*4.full atrioventricular heart block

Question 21

21. Significant diastolic blood pressure elevation is observed at:
    
    1. Aortic regurgitation
    2. Full atrioventricular heart block
    3. Arteriovenous shunt
    4. Glomerulonephritis

Answer 21

*4.glomerulonephritis

Question 22

23. Renovascular hypertensions are characterized by:
    
    1. Frequent hypertensive crises
    2. High level of catecholamine in blood
    3. High level of renin’s activity in plasma
    4. Hyponatremia

Answer 22

*3.high level of renin’s activity in plasma

Question 23

24. The symptomatic arterial hypertension takes place in:
    
    1. Myxoedema
    2. Chronic glomerulonephritis
    3. Dressler’s syndrome
    4. Wilson disease

Answer 23

*2.chronic glomerulonephritis

Question 24

25. Choose the way diabetic renal angiopathy manifistates:
    
    1. Proteinuria and oedema
    2. Hypotonia and dehydration
    3. Jaundice and hepatomegaly
    4. Haematuria

Answer 24

*1.proteinuria and oedema

Question 25

27. Choose a target organ affected in essential hypertension: 1. Retina 2. Spleen 3. Large joints 4. Adrenal glands

Answer 25

*1.retina

Question 26

22. Coarctation of thoracic aorta is characterized by: 1. Higher elevation of blood pressure on the upper extremities, than on the lower 2. Cervical veins pulsation 3. P-mitrale on ECG 4. Traube’s double tone

Answer 26

*1. Higher elevation of blood pressure on the upper

Question 27

29. Echocardiography can reveal one of the following features in patients with idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis: 1. Hypertrophy of the inter-ventricular septum 2. Aortic regurgitation 3. Aortic narrowing 4. Left atrial reduction

Answer 27

*1.hypertrophy of the inter-ventricular septum

Question 28

28. Choose medication group to treat essential hypertension: 1. Diuretics 2. Sulfonylureas 3. Sympathomimetic 4. Anticholinergic

Answer 28

*1.diuretics

Question 29

31. Restrictive cardiomyopathy develops at: 1. Myocarditis 2. Amyloidosis 3. fibropericarditis 4. Alcoholism

Answer 29

*2.amyloidosis

Question 30

30. Dilative cardiomyopathy should be differentiated with: 1. Alcoholic cardiomyopathy 2. Infective endocarditis 3. Mitral stenosis 4. Pulmonary heart disease

Answer 30

*1.alcoholic cardiomyopathy

Question 31

32. Fibrinous pericarditis can develop due to: 1. Rheumatism 2. Hemochromatosis 3. Tuberculosis 4. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

Answer 31

*3.tuberculosis

Question 32

33. Restrictive pericarditis is characterized by: 1. Heart rhythm disorder 2. Pulmonary embolism 3. Right ventricular failure 4. Aortic systolic murmur

Answer 32

*3.right ventricular failure

Question 33

34. Hepatomegaly and ascites in patients with constrictive pericarditis develop due to: 1. Hepatitis-cirrhosis 2. Pressure rise in inferior caval vein and hepatic veins 3. Inflammation of the Glisson’s capsule 4. Portal pressure rise

Answer 33

*2.pressure rise in inferior caval vein and hepatic veins

Question 34

35. Syncope can accompany: 1. Extrasystoles 2. Blood pressure elevation 3. Left bundle branch block 4. Complete atrio-ventricular block

Answer 34

*4.complete atrio-ventricular block

Question 35

36. Frederick’s syndrome is a combination of: 1. Atrial fibrillation and complete heart block 2. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and right bundle branch block 3. Atrio-ventricular block of first degree and extrasystoles 4. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and left bundle branch block

Answer 35

*1.atrial fibrillation and complete heart block

Question 36

26. Risk factors of essential hypertension are: 1. Contraceptives 2. Obesity and excessive consumption of salt 3. Lack of iodine in food 4. Predominance of protein in food

Answer 36

*2.obesity and excessive consumption of salt

Question 37

37. A patient with complete heart block (heart rate of 38 bpm) and initial signs of heart failure should be treated with: 1. Atropine 2. Corticosteroids 3. Artificial pace-maker 4. Diuretics

Answer 37

*3.artificial pace-maker

Question 38

38. the most informative tool to diagnose COPD: 1. Central venous pressure measurement 2. Spirography 3. Angiography 4. Skin prick test

Answer 38

*2.spirography

Question 39

39. Decompensated cor pulmonale is an indication for: 1. Peripheral vasodilators 2. Cardiac glycosides 3. Sympathomimetic 4. Oxygen therapy

Answer 39

*4.oxygen therapy

Question 40

40. Autoimmune background of Goodpasture’s syndrome is characterized by production of antibodies to cellular receptors in the basement membranes of: 1. Alveolus 2. Alveolus and glomeruli 3. Glomeruli 4. Bronchial mucosa

Answer 40

*2.alveolus and glomeruli

Question 41

41. Choose the correct description of multiple bronchiectasis: 1. Presented by chronic production of sputum 2. Bronchial breathing is auscultated 3. Located mainly in the root of the lung 4. Glucocorticoids are the treatment of choice

Answer 41

*1.presented by chronic production of sputum

Question 42

42. Choose the manifestation of eusinophilic pneumonia: 1. Lymphocyte infiltration of the lung 2. Spontaneously resolving eosinophilic infiltration in the lung 3. Honeycomb pattern viewd on the lung x-ray 4. Decrease in Tiffeneau’s index (FEV1/VC)

Answer 42

*2.spontaneously resolving eosinophilic infiltration in the lung

Question 43

43. A female patient, 32 years old, takes oral contraceptives, manifested with dyspnoea, chest pain in the right side, coughing blood. The symptoms repeated within a year. ECG showed right ventricular overload. Choose the correct diagnosis: 1. Bronchial asthma exacerbation 2. Bronchogenic cancer 3. Pulmonary embolism 4. Acute left ventricular failure

Answer 43

*3.pulmonary embolism

Question 44

44. Bronchial obstruction can be caused by: 1. Atelectasis 2. COPD and bronchial asthma 3. Emphysema 4. Dry pleuritis

Answer 44

*2.COPD and bronchial asthma

Question 45

45. A maximum total daily dose of salbutamol administered to control bronchial asthma should not exceed (puffs): 1. 2-4 2. 4-6 3. 6-8 4. 8-10

Answer 45

*2.4-6

Question 46

46. What is the minimal time interval between administrations, when treating bronchospasm with Berotec (0.2mg-1-2 puffs)? 1. 20 minutes 2. 1 hour 3. 3 hours 4. 6 hours

Answer 46

*3.3 hours

Question 47

47. Pain in pneumonia is caused by: 1. Parietal pleura lesion 2. Visceral pleura lesion 3. Stimulation of nerve endings in lung parenchyma 4. Stimulation of nerve endings in bronchial walls

Answer 47

*2.visceral pleura lesion

Question 48

48. the most reliable way of identifying the offending organism in pneumonia is: 1. Antigens’ immune-enzyme assay 2. Antigens’ radio-immune assay 3. Investigation of the bacterial content of the urine 4. Culture of bronchoalveolar fluid

Answer 48

*4.culture of bronchoalveolar fluid

Question 49

49. Coughing mouth-full of purulent sputum with blood is typical for: 1. Lung cancer 2. Multilobar pneumonia 3. Lung abscess 4. Pulmonary infarction

Answer 49

*3.lung abscess

Question 50

50. Choose clinical manifestations of the lung abscess ruptured into pleural cavity: 1. Sharp chest pain, breathlessness 2. Normal body temperature 3. Involving additional muscles in breathing act 4. Mouth-full of purulent sputum with blood

Answer 50

*1.sharp chest pain, breathlessness

Question 51

51. Eosinophilic pneumonia can be caused by the invasion of: 1. Fungus 2. Parasite 3. Virus 4. Bacteria

Answer 51

*2.parasite

Question 52

52. Infectious-toxic shock in acute severe pneumonia develops due to: 1. The invader's high pathogenicity 2. Insufficiency of antibacterial treatment 3. Massive lysis of the bacteria under the treatment 4. Changes of the immune status under the treatment

Answer 52

*3.massive lysis of the bacteria under the treatment

Question 53

53. Spontaneous Pneumothorax is accompanied by: 1. Chest pain and dyspnea 2. Auscultated grating sound (friction rib) 3. Small babbling rales 4. Severe coughing

Answer 53

*1.chest pain and dyspnea

Question 54

54. When treating pneumonia with antibiotics fever resolution is expected in (if effectively treated): 1. 12 hours 2. 24 hours 3. 48 hours 4. 72 hours

Answer 54

*4.72 hours

Question 55

55. Choose possible complications of pneumonia: 1. Pulmonary edema 2. Lung abscess 3. Atelectasis 4. Pulmonary embolism

Answer 55

*2.lung abscess

Question 56

56. Lung infiltration is common in: 1. Atelectasis 2. Bronchial asthma 3. Pneumonia and a tuberculosis 4. Echinococcosis

Answer 56

*3.pneumonia and a tuberculosis

Question 57

57. Duodenal and gastric ulcer diagnostic standard includes: 1. Abdominal US 2. Abdominal X-ray 3. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy 4. Gastric juice analysis

Answer 57

*3.esophagogastroduodenoscopy

Question 58

58. Omeprazole belongs to the group of 1. Adrenoblockers 2. M-cholinoblockers 3. Spasmolytic 4. Proton pump inhibitors

Answer 58

*4.proton pump inhibitors

Question 59

59. Ischemic colitis may develop due to: 1. Occlusion and embolism of the inferior mesenteric artery 2. Crohn’s disease 3. Whipple’s disease 4. Liver cirrhosis

Answer 59

*1.occlusion and embolism of the inferior mesenteric artery

Question 60

60. Chronic pancreatitis can be caused by: 1. Chronic alcohol intake 2. Duodenal ulcer 3. Biliary obstruction 4. Duodenal papillary adenoma

Answer 60

*1.chronic alcohol intake

Question 61

61. Cobblestone appearance on endoscopy is specific for: 1. Colon cancer 2. Irritable colon syndrome 3. Crohn's disease of the colon 4. Nonspecific ulcerative colitis

Answer 61

*3.Crohn's disease of the colon

Question 62

62. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia can be induced by: 1. Hemolysis 2. Drug-induced cholestasis 3. Cholestatic hepatitis 4. Postoperative intrahepatic cholestasis

Answer 62

*1.hemolysis

Question 63

63. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia may develop at: 1. Cholestatic hepatitis 2. Haemolytic anemia 3. Gilbert’s disease 4. Marked glucuronyl transferase deficiency

Answer 63

*1.cholestatic hepatitis

Question 64

64. Obstructive jaundice is characterized by: 1. Itchy skin and white stool 2. Increase of stercobilin 3. Decrease of conjugated bilirubin 4. Increase of troponin-T

Answer 64

*1.itchy skin and white stool

Question 65

65. Hypersplinism in liver cirrhosis is characterized by: 1. Absolute and relative lymphocytosis 2. Anaemia and a thrombocytopenia with leucocytosis 3. Anaemia with leucocytosis and thrombocytosis 4. Pancytopenia

Answer 65

*4.pancytopenia

Question 66

66. The syndrome of cholestasis is characterized by elevation of: 1. Bile acids and conjugated bilirubin 2. Unconjugated bilirubin 3. ALT, AST 4. LDH

Answer 66

*1.bile acids and conjugated bilirubin

Question 67

67. The syndrome of cytolysis is characterized by elevation of: 1. ALT, AST, LDH 2. Alkaline phosphatase 3. GGT 4. Prothrombin

Answer 67

*1.ALT, AST, LDH

Question 68

68. Impairment of protein synthesis function of liver leads to the decrease of blood levels of: 1. Albumin 2. Glucose 3. Transaminase 4. Cholesterol

Answer 68

*1.albumin

Question 69

69. Edema in nephrotic syndrome develops due to: 1. Hypoalbuminemia 2. Hypercholesterolemia 3. Increase of capillary permeability 4. Acceleration of glomerular filtration

Answer 69

*1.hypoalbuminemia

Question 70

70. Nephrotic syndrome develops in: 1. Sarcoidosis 2. Budd-Chiari syndrome 3. Chronic glomerulonephritis 4. Chronic pyelonephritis

Answer 70

*3.chronic glomerulonephritis

Question 71

71. Renal calyces and pelvis disorders can be assessed by: 1. Blood creatinine level 2. Zimnitskiy’s test 3. Kidneys ultrasound 4. Radioisotope renography

Answer 71

*3.kidneys ultrasound

Question 72

74. Chronic pyelonephritis exacerbation is characterized by: 1. Leucocyturia and bacteriuria 2. Renal colic 3. Gross proteinuria 4. Gross hematuria

Answer 72

*1.leucocyturia and bacteriuria

Question 73

75. Chronic glomerulonephritis manifistates by: 1. Arterial hypertension and edema 2. Fever and bacteriuria 3. leucocyturia 4. Hypotension

Answer 73

*1.arterial hypertension and edema

Question 74

76. Graves’ disease (thyrotoxicosis) manifistates with: 1. Hyperthermia and a tachycardia 2. Constipation 3. Dry skin 4. bradycardia

Answer 74

*1.hyperthermia and a tachycardia

Question 75

77. Myxedema manifistates with: 1. Bradycardia and hypothermia 2. Diarrhoea 3. Tachycardia 4. Loss of weight

Answer 75

*1.bradycardia and hypothermia

Question 76

78. Conn’s syndrome manifistates with: 1. Hyponatremia 2. Hyperkalaemia 3. High muscle tone 4. None of above

Answer 76

*4.none of above

Question 77

79. Diabetes control quality can be assessed with the help of: 1. Antibodies to insulin 2. Glycated hemoglobin 3. Plasma glucose 4. Triglyceride level

Answer 77

*2.glycated hemoglobin

Question 78

80. What is Somogyi phenomenon? 1. Liver impairment in diabetes 2. Condition caused by chronic overdose of insulin 3. Lipodystrophy in diabetes 4. Retinopathy in diabetes

Answer 78

*2.condition caused by chronic overdose of insulin

Question 79

81. Ketoacidotic coma should be treated with intravenous administration of: 1. Hypotonic solutions of sodium chloride, glucose and adrenaline 2. Sulfonylurea drugs and isotonic solution 3. Insulin and liquids 4. Blood substitutes

Answer 79

*3.insulin and liquids

Question 80

82. HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) levels correspond with: 1. Type of diabetes (I or II) 2. Risk degree of diabetic complications 3. Level of antibodies to insulin 4. Level of antibodies to pancreatic beta-cells

Answer 80

*2.risk degree of diabetic complications

Question 81

83. Diabetes type II in high risk patients can be prevented with the help of: 1. Prophylactic drug therapy 2. Regular physical activity and weight loss 3. Physiotherapy 4. beta-cells transplantation

Answer 81

*2.regular physical activity and weight loss

Question 82

84. Choose a way to reduce the dose of hypoglycemic drugs, as well as insulin, in patients with diabetes type I and II: 1. Often changes of preparations 2. Changes of treatment pattern 3. Regular physical activities 4. Haemodialysis

Answer 82

*3.regular physical activities

Question 83

85. Lactate acidotic coma develops in: 1. Diabetes type I 2. Diabetes insipidus 3. Diabetes type II 4. Gestational diabetes

Answer 83

*3.diabetes type II

Question 84

86. C-peptide absence or its significant drop is specific for: 1. Cushing’s syndrome 2. Diabetes type I 4. Diabetes type II 5. Pheochromocytoma

Answer 84

*2.diabetes type I

Question 85

87. At revealing the increased size of a thyroid gland without clinical manifestations of its dysfunction it is necessary to: 1. Carry out ultrasound of thyroid gland 2. Perform thyroidectomy 3. Administer thyreostatic drugs 4. Start hormone replacement therapy

Answer 85

*1.carry out ultrasound of thyroid gland

Question 86

88. Choose drugs not recommended in diabetes: 1. Hypothiazide 2. Glurenorm 3. Glibenclamide 4. Gentamicin

Answer 86

*1.hypothiazide

Question 87

89. Hypoglycaemia can be caused by: 1. Insulin overdose 2. Glucocorticoids 3. Hypothiazide 4. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

Answer 87

*1.insulin overdose

Question 88

90. Heberden’s nodes are usually develop in: 1. Back surface of higher extremities 2. Back surface of lower extremities 3. Finger's distal phalanges 4. Large joints

Answer 88

*3.finger's distal phalanges

Question 89

91. Heberden’s and Bouchard's nodes are specific for: 1. Rheumatoid arthritis 2. Gout 3. Pseudogout 4. Deforming osteoarthrosis

Answer 89

*4.deforming osteoarthrosis

Question 90

92. Positive rheumatoid factor is specific for: 1. SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus) 2. Fanconi’s syndrome 3. Rheumatic fever 4. Goodpasture’s syndrome

Answer 90

*1.SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus)

Question 91

93. Which of the listed below is used in rheumatoid arthritis diagnostics? 1. Ñ-reactive protein 2. Antinuclear antibodies 3. Serum complement 4. Antibodies to DNA

Answer 91

*1.Ñ-reactive protein

Question 92

97. Polyarteritis nodosa affects: 1. Large arteries of legs 2. Eye-ground vessels 3. Middle and small arteries of organs 4. Abdominal aorta

Answer 92

*3.middle and small arteries of organs

Question 93

98. Gout is characterized by: 1. Hyperuricemia 2. Hypoalbuminemia 3. Hypercholesterolemia 4. Hyperproduction of calcium pyrophosphate

Answer 93

*1.hyperuricemia

Question 94

99. Accelerated phase of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is characterized by: 1. Splenomegaly 2. Polyneuropathy 3. Lymphadenopathy 4. Reticulocytosis

Answer 94

*1.splenomegaly

Question 95

100. Blood test in patients with myelofibrosis may show: 1. Pancytopenia 2. Thrombocytosis 3. “Left shift” of the blood count (up to myelocytes) 4. hyper-leucocytosis

Answer 95

*3. “Left shift” of the blood count (up to myelocytes)

Question 96

101. Choose clinical manifestation of erythraemia: 1. Lymphadenopathy 2. Red face and scleral injection 3. Pronounced hepatomegaly 4. Hyperthermia

Answer 96

*2.red face and scleral injection

Question 97

102. Blood test of patients with chronic lymphoid leukemia may reveal: 1. Agranulocytosis 2. Thrombocytosis 3. Relative lymphocytosis 4. Botkin-Gumprecht cells

Answer 97

*4.Botkin-Gumprecht cells

Question 98

103. the most frequent cause of death in patients with chronic lymphoid leukemia is: 1. Progressive anemia 2. Infectious complications 3. Transformation to acute leukemia 4. Transformation to lymphoma (Richter's syndrome)

Answer 98

*2.infectious complications

Question 99

104. Which of the hematology tests changes in case of hemophilia: 1. Activated partial thromboplastin time 2. Bleeding time 3. prothrombin time 4. Thrombin time

Answer 99

*1.activated partial thromboplastin time

Question 100

105. the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in male patients is: 1. Intestinal bleeding 2. Chronic gastritis with low acid secretion 3. Parasitic infection 4. Insufficient dietary intake of iron

Answer 100

*1. Intestinal bleeding

Question 101

107. Pernicious anemia (Addison-Biermer anemia) develops due to: 1. Insufficient dietary intake of vitamin B-12 2. Impaired absorption of vitamin B-12 3. Impaired metabolism of vitamin B-12 4. Lacks of folic acid in food

Answer 101

*2.impaired absorption of vitamin B-12

Question 102

108. The leading feature of sickle cell anemia is: 1. Anaemic syndrome 2. Thrombotic syndrome 3. increased bleeding 4. Splenomegaly and related symptoms

Answer 102

*2.thrombotic syndrome

Question 103

109. Henoch-Schonlein purpura (allergic purpura) is characterized: 1. Arthralgia 2. Intestinal disorders 3. Renal disorders 4. Instant effect of NSAIDs

Answer 103

*4.instant effect of NSAIDs

Question 104

110. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) diagnostics include: 1. Acid hemolysis test (Ham’s test) 2. Osmotic resistance of erythrocytes test 3. Direct Coombs test (direct antiglobulin test) 4. Haemoglobin electrophoresis

Answer 104

*3.direct Coombs test (direct antiglobulin test)

Question 105

111. Erythrocytes hemolysis in Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency can be caused by: 1. Exposure to cold 2. Reduction of parcial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere when climbing mountains 3. Antibiotics and steroids intake 4. Antimaralials and aspirin intake

Answer 105

*4.antimaralials and aspirin intake

Question 106

112. Haemolytic anaemia is characterized by: 1. Increase of direct bilirubin in blood 2. Pancytopenia 3. Haematuria and proteinuria 4. Reticulocytosis and splenomegaly

Answer 106

*4.reticulocytosis and splenomegaly

Question 107

113. Unilateral renal function decrease can be viewed on: 1. Isotope scintigraphy 2. Kidneys x-ray 3. Kidneys ultrasound 4. Kidneys CT

Answer 107

*1.isotope scintigraphy

Question 108

114. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by: 1. hypocholesterolemia 2. proteinuria and edema 3. hypokalemia

Answer 108

*2.proteinuria and edema

Question 109

115. Asymmetric excretion revealed on kidneys radiography is common in: 1. Kimmelstiel-Wilson syndrome 2. Renal amyloidosis 3. Chronic glomerulonephritis 4. Chronic pyelonephritis

Answer 109

*4.chronic pyelonephritis

Question 110

116. Diastolic murmur may be present at: 1. Tricuspid insufficiency 2. Mitral insufficiency 3. Aortic insufficiency 4. Aortic valve stenosis

Answer 110

*3.aortic insufficiency

Question 111

117. Which of the listed below belongs to Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy? 1. Apical hypertrophy 2. Papillary muscle hypertrophy 3. Septal hypertrophy 4. Left ventricle’s external walls hypertrophy

Answer 111

*3.septal hypertrophy

Question 112

118. Sudden cardiac death in dilative cardiomyopathy is more often caused by: 1. Heart failure 2. Thromboembolism 3. Ventricular arrhythmia 4. Atrial arrhythmia

Answer 112

*3.ventricular arrhythmia

Question 113

119. Esophageal achalasia is characterized by: 1. Oesophageal hyperperistalsis 2. esophageal varices 3. Lower esophageal sphincter spasm 4. esophageal diverticula

Answer 113

*3.lower esophageal sphincter spasm

Question 114

120. The cause of esophageal ulcer may be: 1. Mallory-Weiss syndrome 2. Gastroesophageal reflux disease 3. Hiatal hernia 4. cardiospasm

Answer 114

*2.gastroesophageal reflux disease

Question 115

121. Helicobacter pylori is sensitive to: 1. Antacids 2. Mercury 3. Metronidazole 4. Tetracycline

Answer 115

*3.metronidazole

Question 116

122. the most reliable diagnostic data in duodenitis are those of: 1. Palpation of the abdomen 2. Abdominal X-ray 3. Clinical picture 4. Needle biopsy

Answer 116

*4.needle biopsy

Question 117

123. Choose aggressive factor involved in gastroduodenal ulcer: 1. Increased acidity of gastric juice and bile reflux 2. Low pepsin activity of gastric juice 3. legionellosis 4. Alcohol consumption

Answer 117

*1.increased acidity of gastric juice and bile reflux

Question 118

124. The main cause of sudden cardiac death in ischemic heart disease is: 1. Ventricular fibrillation 2. Paroxysmal tachycardia 3. Atrial fibrillation 4. Extrasystoles

Answer 118

*1.ventricular fibrillation

Question 119

125. The countdown of sudden cardiac death begins from the moment of: 1. Absence of pulse in the large vessels 2. mydriasis 3. Respiratory arrest 4. Loss of consciousness

Answer 119

*1.absence of pulse in the large vessels

Question 120

126. Antiarhythmic drug of the first line used during cardiopulmonary resuscitation in patients with ventricular fibrillation is: 1. Procainamid 2. Lidocaine 3. Verapamil 4. Amiodarone

Answer 120

*4.amiodarone

Question 121

127. The term “stunned myocardium” in patients with ischemic heart disease refers to: 1. Segmental dysfunction persistent after a period of ischemia 2. Chronic restriction in myocardial blood supply 3. Chronic impairment of myocardial contractility 4. Unviable myocardium

Answer 121

*1.segmental dysfunction persistent after a period of ischemia

Question 122

128. Hibernating myocardium is a state of: 1. Reversible impairment of myocardial contractility 2. Irreversible impairment of myocardial contractility 3. Necrotic changes of myocardium 4. Cardiac arrest

Answer 122

*1.reversible impairment of myocardial contractility

Question 123

129. Paroxysmal form of the atrial fibrillation lasts no longer than: 1. 12 hours 2. 24 hours 3. 24-72 hours 4. 7 days

Answer 123

*4. 7 days

Question 124

124. The main cause of sudden cardiac death in ischemic heart disease is: 1. Ventricular fibrillation 2. Paroxysmal tachycardia 3. Atrial fibrillation 4. Extrasystoles

Answer 124

*1.ventricular fibrillation

Question 125

125. The countdown of sudden cardiac death begins from the moment of: 1. Absence of pulse in the large vessels 2. Mydriasis 3. Respiratory arrest 4. Loss of consciousness

Answer 125

*1.absence of pulse in the large vessels