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Hospital therapy Flashcards

1
Q
  1. the most authentic attribute of idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis (IHSS) is:
    1. Left ventricular hypertrophy
    2. Right ventricular hypertrophy
    3. Systolic murmur in epigastrium
    4. Septal hypertrophy
A

*4.septal hypertrophy

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2
Q
  1. Laboratory diagnostics of pheochromocytoma is based on:
    1. Spirography
    2. Computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
    3. Chatecholamines and vanilil almond acid levels detection in urine
    4. Treadmill test
A

*3.chatecholamines and vanilil almond acid levels detection in urine

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3
Q
  1. Which drugs are contra-indicated in heart failure treatment?
    1. Calcium channel blockers
    2. Diuretics
    3. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
    4. Beta-blockers
A

*1.calcium channel blockers

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is a complication of essential hypertension?
    1. Stroke
    2. Nephrolithiasis
    3. Pulmonary embolism
    4. Acute right ventricle insufficiency
A

*1.stroke

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5
Q
  1. Alcohol-induced heart disease is complicated by:
    1. Rhythm disturbances
    2. Septal hypertrophy
    3. Sub-aortal stenosis
    4. Aortic insufficiency
A

*1.rhythm disturbances

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6
Q
  1. Acute viral fibrinous pericarditis manifests with:
    1. Pericardial pain associated with breath and body position
    2. ST-segment depression in the majority of ECG leads
    3. Paradoxical pulse
    4. Second sound of the pulmonary artery increase
A

*1.pericardial pain associated with breath and body position

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7
Q
  1. Secondary infectious endocarditis most commonly occurs as a complication of:
    1. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis
    2. Essential hypertension
    3. Rheumatic heart disease
    4. Diabetes mellitus
A

*3.rheumatic heart disease

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8
Q
  1. Which one of the listed diseases complicates with exudative pericarditis:
    1. Acute stage of myocardial infarction
    2. Tuberculosis
    3. Amyloidosis
    4. Thyrotoxicosis
A

*2.tuberculosis

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9
Q
  1. Prolonged chest pain in patients with climacteric (menopausal) cardiopathy is typically combined with:
    1. Elevated troponin-M
    2. Negative T-waves in right or the majority of ECG-leads
    3. Pathological Q-waves in chest-leads
    4. Positive effect by nitrates
A

*2.negative T-waves in right or the majority of ECG-leads

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10
Q
  1. Constrictive pericarditis should be treated with:
    1. Non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs
    2. Antagonists of calcium
    3. Glucocorticoids
    4. Resection of a pericardium
A

*4.resection of a pericardium

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11
Q
  1. Ventricular tachycardia should be treated with (at absence of effect from lidocaine):
    1. Verospiron (spironolactone)
    2. Cardioversion
    3. Verapamil
    4. Digoxin
A

*2.cardioversion

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12
Q
  1. Instable angina pectoris includes:
    1. Rest angina
    2. Silent stenocardia
    3. Exertional angina of III functional class
    4. Variant angina
A

*4.variant angina

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13
Q
  1. Most typical late complication of myocardial infarction is:
    1. Thromboendocarditis
    2. Cardiogenic shock
    3. Dressler’s syndrome
    4. Pulmonary embolism
A

*3.Dressler’s syndrome

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14
Q
  1. Stage acutissimus of myocardial infarction could be complicated with:
    1. Pericarditis
    2. Tietze’s syndrome
    3. Cardiogenic shock
    4. Pulmonary embolism
A
  1. Cardiogenic shock
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15
Q
  1. Hiatal hernia is characterized by:
    1. Positive treadmill test
    2. Fast relief of retrosternal pain at nitroglycerine intake
    3. Reduction of retrosternal pain at transition from horizontal position to vertical
    4. Connection of retrosternal pain with physical exertion
A

*3. Reduction of retrosternal pain at transition from horizontal position to vertical

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16
Q
  1. Atrial fibrillation occurs at:
    1. Fallot’s tetrad
    2. Hypothyroidism
    3. Alcohol cardiomyopathy
    4. Fibrinous pericarditis
A

*3.alcohol cardiomyopathy

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17
Q
  1. the most effective antiarhythmic drug indicated in all types of rhythm disturbances is:
    1. novocainamid
    2. Amiodarone
    3. Digoxin
    4. Quinidine
A

*2.amiodarone

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18
Q
  1. Heart rate in paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia ranges in (beats per minute):
    1. 90 - 140
    2. 100 - 180
    3. 140 - 220
    4. 90 - 250
A

*3.140 - 220

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19
Q
  1. Initial therapy for non-complicated paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia could be:
    1. i/v introduction of Digoxin
    2. carotid sinus massage
    3. i/v introduction of Verapamil
    4. i/v introduction of Novocainamid
A

*2.carotid sinus massage

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20
Q
  1. Systolic blood pressure elevation is typical for:
    1. Pericarditis
    2. Mitral regurgitation
    3. Hypothyroidism
    4. Full atrioventricular heart block
A

*4.full atrioventricular heart block

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21
Q
  1. Significant diastolic blood pressure elevation is observed at:
    1. Aortic regurgitation
    2. Full atrioventricular heart block
    3. Arteriovenous shunt
    4. Glomerulonephritis
A

*4.glomerulonephritis

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22
Q
  1. Renovascular hypertensions are characterized by:
    1. Frequent hypertensive crises
    2. High level of catecholamine in blood
    3. High level of renin’s activity in plasma
    4. Hyponatremia
A

*3.high level of renin’s activity in plasma

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23
Q
  1. The symptomatic arterial hypertension takes place in:
    1. Myxoedema
    2. Chronic glomerulonephritis
    3. Dressler’s syndrome
    4. Wilson disease
A

*2.chronic glomerulonephritis

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24
Q
  1. Choose the way diabetic renal angiopathy manifistates:
    1. Proteinuria and oedema
    2. Hypotonia and dehydration
    3. Jaundice and hepatomegaly
    4. Haematuria
A

*1.proteinuria and oedema

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25
Q
  1. Choose a target organ affected in essential hypertension:
    1. Retina
    2. Spleen
    3. Large joints
    4. Adrenal glands
A

*1.retina

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26
Q
  1. Coarctation of thoracic aorta is characterized by:
    1. Higher elevation of blood pressure on the upper extremities, than on the lower
    2. Cervical veins pulsation
    3. P-mitrale on ECG
    4. Traube’s double tone
A

*1. Higher elevation of blood pressure on the upper

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27
Q
  1. Echocardiography can reveal one of the following features in patients with idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis:
    1. Hypertrophy of the inter-ventricular septum
    2. Aortic regurgitation
    3. Aortic narrowing
    4. Left atrial reduction
A

*1.hypertrophy of the inter-ventricular septum

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28
Q
  1. Choose medication group to treat essential hypertension:
    1. Diuretics
    2. Sulfonylureas
    3. Sympathomimetic
    4. Anticholinergic
A

*1.diuretics

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29
Q
  1. Restrictive cardiomyopathy develops at:
    1. Myocarditis
    2. Amyloidosis
    3. fibropericarditis
    4. Alcoholism
A

*2.amyloidosis

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30
Q
  1. Dilative cardiomyopathy should be differentiated with:
    1. Alcoholic cardiomyopathy
    2. Infective endocarditis
    3. Mitral stenosis
    4. Pulmonary heart disease
A

*1.alcoholic cardiomyopathy

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31
Q
  1. Fibrinous pericarditis can develop due to:
    1. Rheumatism
    2. Hemochromatosis
    3. Tuberculosis
    4. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
A

*3.tuberculosis

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32
Q
  1. Restrictive pericarditis is characterized by:
    1. Heart rhythm disorder
    2. Pulmonary embolism
    3. Right ventricular failure
    4. Aortic systolic murmur
A

*3.right ventricular failure

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33
Q
  1. Hepatomegaly and ascites in patients with constrictive pericarditis develop due to:
    1. Hepatitis-cirrhosis
    2. Pressure rise in inferior caval vein and hepatic veins
    3. Inflammation of the Glisson’s capsule
    4. Portal pressure rise
A

*2.pressure rise in inferior caval vein and hepatic veins

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34
Q
  1. Syncope can accompany:
    1. Extrasystoles
    2. Blood pressure elevation
    3. Left bundle branch block
    4. Complete atrio-ventricular block
A

*4.complete atrio-ventricular block

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35
Q
  1. Frederick’s syndrome is a combination of:
    1. Atrial fibrillation and complete heart block
    2. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and right bundle branch block
    3. Atrio-ventricular block of first degree and extrasystoles
    4. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and left bundle branch block
A

*1.atrial fibrillation and complete heart block

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36
Q
  1. Risk factors of essential hypertension are:
    1. Contraceptives
    2. Obesity and excessive consumption of salt
    3. Lack of iodine in food
    4. Predominance of protein in food
A

*2.obesity and excessive consumption of salt

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37
Q
  1. A patient with complete heart block (heart rate of 38 bpm) and initial signs of heart failure should be treated with:
    1. Atropine
    2. Corticosteroids
    3. Artificial pace-maker
    4. Diuretics
A

*3.artificial pace-maker

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38
Q
  1. the most informative tool to diagnose COPD:
    1. Central venous pressure measurement
    2. Spirography
    3. Angiography
    4. Skin prick test
A

*2.spirography

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39
Q
  1. Decompensated cor pulmonale is an indication for:
    1. Peripheral vasodilators
    2. Cardiac glycosides
    3. Sympathomimetic
    4. Oxygen therapy
A

*4.oxygen therapy

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40
Q
  1. Autoimmune background of Goodpasture’s syndrome is characterized by production of antibodies to cellular receptors in the basement membranes of:
    1. Alveolus
    2. Alveolus and glomeruli
    3. Glomeruli
    4. Bronchial mucosa
A

*2.alveolus and glomeruli

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41
Q
  1. Choose the correct description of multiple bronchiectasis:
    1. Presented by chronic production of sputum
    2. Bronchial breathing is auscultated
    3. Located mainly in the root of the lung
    4. Glucocorticoids are the treatment of choice
A

*1.presented by chronic production of sputum

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42
Q
  1. Choose the manifestation of eusinophilic pneumonia:
    1. Lymphocyte infiltration of the lung
    2. Spontaneously resolving eosinophilic infiltration in the lung
    3. Honeycomb pattern viewd on the lung x-ray
    4. Decrease in Tiffeneau’s index (FEV1/VC)
A

*2.spontaneously resolving eosinophilic infiltration in the lung

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43
Q
  1. A female patient, 32 years old, takes oral contraceptives, manifested with dyspnoea, chest pain in the right side, coughing blood. The symptoms repeated within a year. ECG showed right ventricular overload. Choose the correct diagnosis:
    1. Bronchial asthma exacerbation
    2. Bronchogenic cancer
    3. Pulmonary embolism
    4. Acute left ventricular failure
A

*3.pulmonary embolism

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44
Q
  1. Bronchial obstruction can be caused by:
    1. Atelectasis
    2. COPD and bronchial asthma
    3. Emphysema
    4. Dry pleuritis
A

*2.COPD and bronchial asthma

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45
Q
  1. A maximum total daily dose of salbutamol administered to control bronchial asthma should not exceed (puffs):
    1. 2-4
    2. 4-6
    3. 6-8
    4. 8-10
A

*2.4-6

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46
Q
  1. What is the minimal time interval between administrations, when treating bronchospasm with Berotec (0.2mg-1-2 puffs)?
    1. 20 minutes
    2. 1 hour
    3. 3 hours
    4. 6 hours
A

*3.3 hours

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47
Q
  1. Pain in pneumonia is caused by:
    1. Parietal pleura lesion
    2. Visceral pleura lesion
    3. Stimulation of nerve endings in lung parenchyma
    4. Stimulation of nerve endings in bronchial walls
A

*2.visceral pleura lesion

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48
Q
  1. the most reliable way of identifying the offending organism in pneumonia is:
    1. Antigens’ immune-enzyme assay
    2. Antigens’ radio-immune assay
    3. Investigation of the bacterial content of the urine
    4. Culture of bronchoalveolar fluid
A

*4.culture of bronchoalveolar fluid

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49
Q
  1. Coughing mouth-full of purulent sputum with blood is typical for:
    1. Lung cancer
    2. Multilobar pneumonia
    3. Lung abscess
    4. Pulmonary infarction
A

*3.lung abscess

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50
Q
  1. Choose clinical manifestations of the lung abscess ruptured into pleural cavity:
    1. Sharp chest pain, breathlessness
    2. Normal body temperature
    3. Involving additional muscles in breathing act
    4. Mouth-full of purulent sputum with blood
A

*1.sharp chest pain, breathlessness

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51
Q
  1. Eosinophilic pneumonia can be caused by the invasion of:
    1. Fungus
    2. Parasite
    3. Virus
    4. Bacteria
A

*2.parasite

52
Q
  1. Infectious-toxic shock in acute severe pneumonia develops due to:
    1. The invader’s high pathogenicity
    2. Insufficiency of antibacterial treatment
    3. Massive lysis of the bacteria under the treatment
    4. Changes of the immune status under the treatment
A

*3.massive lysis of the bacteria under the treatment

53
Q
  1. Spontaneous Pneumothorax is accompanied by:
    1. Chest pain and dyspnea
    2. Auscultated grating sound (friction rib)
    3. Small babbling rales
    4. Severe coughing
A

*1.chest pain and dyspnea

54
Q
  1. When treating pneumonia with antibiotics fever resolution is expected in (if effectively treated):
    1. 12 hours
    2. 24 hours
    3. 48 hours
    4. 72 hours
A

*4.72 hours

55
Q
  1. Choose possible complications of pneumonia:
    1. Pulmonary edema
    2. Lung abscess
    3. Atelectasis
    4. Pulmonary embolism
A

*2.lung abscess

56
Q
  1. Lung infiltration is common in:
    1. Atelectasis
    2. Bronchial asthma
    3. Pneumonia and a tuberculosis
    4. Echinococcosis
A

*3.pneumonia and a tuberculosis

57
Q
  1. Duodenal and gastric ulcer diagnostic standard includes:
    1. Abdominal US
    2. Abdominal X-ray
    3. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
    4. Gastric juice analysis
A

*3.esophagogastroduodenoscopy

58
Q
  1. Omeprazole belongs to the group of
    1. Adrenoblockers
    2. M-cholinoblockers
    3. Spasmolytic
    4. Proton pump inhibitors
A

*4.proton pump inhibitors

59
Q
  1. Ischemic colitis may develop due to:
    1. Occlusion and embolism of the inferior mesenteric artery
    2. Crohn’s disease
    3. Whipple’s disease
    4. Liver cirrhosis
A

*1.occlusion and embolism of the inferior mesenteric artery

60
Q
  1. Chronic pancreatitis can be caused by:
    1. Chronic alcohol intake
    2. Duodenal ulcer
    3. Biliary obstruction
    4. Duodenal papillary adenoma
A

*1.chronic alcohol intake

61
Q
  1. Cobblestone appearance on endoscopy is specific for:
    1. Colon cancer
    2. Irritable colon syndrome
    3. Crohn’s disease of the colon
    4. Nonspecific ulcerative colitis
A

*3.Crohn’s disease of the colon

62
Q
  1. Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia can be induced by:
    1. Hemolysis
    2. Drug-induced cholestasis
    3. Cholestatic hepatitis
    4. Postoperative intrahepatic cholestasis
A

*1.hemolysis

63
Q
  1. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia may develop at:
    1. Cholestatic hepatitis
    2. Haemolytic anemia
    3. Gilbert’s disease
    4. Marked glucuronyl transferase deficiency
A

*1.cholestatic hepatitis

64
Q
  1. Obstructive jaundice is characterized by:
    1. Itchy skin and white stool
    2. Increase of stercobilin
    3. Decrease of conjugated bilirubin
    4. Increase of troponin-T
A

*1.itchy skin and white stool

65
Q
  1. Hypersplinism in liver cirrhosis is characterized by:
    1. Absolute and relative lymphocytosis
    2. Anaemia and a thrombocytopenia with leucocytosis
    3. Anaemia with leucocytosis and thrombocytosis
    4. Pancytopenia
A

*4.pancytopenia

66
Q
  1. The syndrome of cholestasis is characterized by elevation of:
    1. Bile acids and conjugated bilirubin
    2. Unconjugated bilirubin
    3. ALT, AST
    4. LDH
A

*1.bile acids and conjugated bilirubin

67
Q
  1. The syndrome of cytolysis is characterized by elevation of:
    1. ALT, AST, LDH
    2. Alkaline phosphatase
    3. GGT
    4. Prothrombin
A

*1.ALT, AST, LDH

68
Q
  1. Impairment of protein synthesis function of liver leads to the decrease of blood levels of:
    1. Albumin
    2. Glucose
    3. Transaminase
    4. Cholesterol
A

*1.albumin

69
Q
  1. Edema in nephrotic syndrome develops due to:
    1. Hypoalbuminemia
    2. Hypercholesterolemia
    3. Increase of capillary permeability
    4. Acceleration of glomerular filtration
A

*1.hypoalbuminemia

70
Q
  1. Nephrotic syndrome develops in:
    1. Sarcoidosis
    2. Budd-Chiari syndrome
    3. Chronic glomerulonephritis
    4. Chronic pyelonephritis
A

*3.chronic glomerulonephritis

71
Q
  1. Renal calyces and pelvis disorders can be assessed by:
    1. Blood creatinine level
    2. Zimnitskiy’s test
    3. Kidneys ultrasound
    4. Radioisotope renography
A

*3.kidneys ultrasound

72
Q
  1. Chronic pyelonephritis exacerbation is characterized by:
    1. Leucocyturia and bacteriuria
    2. Renal colic
    3. Gross proteinuria
    4. Gross hematuria
A

*1.leucocyturia and bacteriuria

73
Q
  1. Chronic glomerulonephritis manifistates by:
    1. Arterial hypertension and edema
    2. Fever and bacteriuria
    3. leucocyturia
    4. Hypotension
A

*1.arterial hypertension and edema

74
Q
  1. Graves’ disease (thyrotoxicosis) manifistates with:
    1. Hyperthermia and a tachycardia
    2. Constipation
    3. Dry skin
    4. bradycardia
A

*1.hyperthermia and a tachycardia

75
Q
  1. Myxedema manifistates with:
    1. Bradycardia and hypothermia
    2. Diarrhoea
    3. Tachycardia
    4. Loss of weight
A

*1.bradycardia and hypothermia

76
Q
  1. Conn’s syndrome manifistates with:
    1. Hyponatremia
    2. Hyperkalaemia
    3. High muscle tone
    4. None of above
A

*4.none of above

77
Q
  1. Diabetes control quality can be assessed with the help of:
    1. Antibodies to insulin
    2. Glycated hemoglobin
    3. Plasma glucose
    4. Triglyceride level
A

*2.glycated hemoglobin

78
Q
  1. What is Somogyi phenomenon?
    1. Liver impairment in diabetes
    2. Condition caused by chronic overdose of insulin
    3. Lipodystrophy in diabetes
    4. Retinopathy in diabetes
A

*2.condition caused by chronic overdose of insulin

79
Q
  1. Ketoacidotic coma should be treated with intravenous administration of:
    1. Hypotonic solutions of sodium chloride, glucose and adrenaline
    2. Sulfonylurea drugs and isotonic solution
    3. Insulin and liquids
    4. Blood substitutes
A

*3.insulin and liquids

80
Q
  1. HbA1c (glycated hemoglobin) levels correspond with:
    1. Type of diabetes (I or II)
    2. Risk degree of diabetic complications
    3. Level of antibodies to insulin
    4. Level of antibodies to pancreatic beta-cells
A

*2.risk degree of diabetic complications

81
Q
  1. Diabetes type II in high risk patients can be prevented with the help of:
    1. Prophylactic drug therapy
    2. Regular physical activity and weight loss
    3. Physiotherapy
    4. beta-cells transplantation
A

*2.regular physical activity and weight loss

82
Q
  1. Choose a way to reduce the dose of hypoglycemic drugs, as well as insulin, in patients with diabetes type I and II:
    1. Often changes of preparations
    2. Changes of treatment pattern
    3. Regular physical activities
    4. Haemodialysis
A

*3.regular physical activities

83
Q
  1. Lactate acidotic coma develops in:
    1. Diabetes type I
    2. Diabetes insipidus
    3. Diabetes type II
    4. Gestational diabetes
A

*3.diabetes type II

84
Q
  1. C-peptide absence or its significant drop is specific for:
    1. Cushing’s syndrome
    2. Diabetes type I
    3. Diabetes type II
    4. Pheochromocytoma
A

*2.diabetes type I

85
Q
  1. At revealing the increased size of a thyroid gland without clinical manifestations of its dysfunction it is necessary to:
    1. Carry out ultrasound of thyroid gland
    2. Perform thyroidectomy
    3. Administer thyreostatic drugs
    4. Start hormone replacement therapy
A

*1.carry out ultrasound of thyroid gland

86
Q
  1. Choose drugs not recommended in diabetes:
    1. Hypothiazide
    2. Glurenorm
    3. Glibenclamide
    4. Gentamicin
A

*1.hypothiazide

87
Q
  1. Hypoglycaemia can be caused by:
    1. Insulin overdose
    2. Glucocorticoids
    3. Hypothiazide
    4. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
A

*1.insulin overdose

88
Q
  1. Heberden’s nodes are usually develop in:
    1. Back surface of higher extremities
    2. Back surface of lower extremities
    3. Finger’s distal phalanges
    4. Large joints
A

*3.finger’s distal phalanges

89
Q
  1. Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes are specific for:
    1. Rheumatoid arthritis
    2. Gout
    3. Pseudogout
    4. Deforming osteoarthrosis
A

*4.deforming osteoarthrosis

90
Q
  1. Positive rheumatoid factor is specific for:
    1. SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus)
    2. Fanconi’s syndrome
    3. Rheumatic fever
    4. Goodpasture’s syndrome
A

*1.SLE (systemic lupus erythematosus)

91
Q
  1. Which of the listed below is used in rheumatoid arthritis diagnostics?
    1. Ñ-reactive protein
    2. Antinuclear antibodies
    3. Serum complement
    4. Antibodies to DNA
A

*1.Ñ-reactive protein

92
Q
  1. Polyarteritis nodosa affects:
    1. Large arteries of legs
    2. Eye-ground vessels
    3. Middle and small arteries of organs
    4. Abdominal aorta
A

*3.middle and small arteries of organs

93
Q
  1. Gout is characterized by:
    1. Hyperuricemia
    2. Hypoalbuminemia
    3. Hypercholesterolemia
    4. Hyperproduction of calcium pyrophosphate
A

*1.hyperuricemia

94
Q
  1. Accelerated phase of chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) is characterized by:
    1. Splenomegaly
    2. Polyneuropathy
    3. Lymphadenopathy
    4. Reticulocytosis
A

*1.splenomegaly

95
Q
  1. Blood test in patients with myelofibrosis may show:
    1. Pancytopenia
    2. Thrombocytosis
    3. “Left shift” of the blood count (up to myelocytes)
    4. hyper-leucocytosis
A

*3. “Left shift” of the blood count (up to myelocytes)

96
Q
  1. Choose clinical manifestation of erythraemia:
    1. Lymphadenopathy
    2. Red face and scleral injection
    3. Pronounced hepatomegaly
    4. Hyperthermia
A

*2.red face and scleral injection

97
Q
  1. Blood test of patients with chronic lymphoid leukemia may reveal:
    1. Agranulocytosis
    2. Thrombocytosis
    3. Relative lymphocytosis
    4. Botkin-Gumprecht cells
A

*4.Botkin-Gumprecht cells

98
Q
  1. the most frequent cause of death in patients with chronic lymphoid leukemia is:
    1. Progressive anemia
    2. Infectious complications
    3. Transformation to acute leukemia
    4. Transformation to lymphoma (Richter’s syndrome)
A

*2.infectious complications

99
Q
  1. Which of the hematology tests changes in case of hemophilia:
    1. Activated partial thromboplastin time
    2. Bleeding time
    3. prothrombin time
    4. Thrombin time
A

*1.activated partial thromboplastin time

100
Q
  1. the most common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in male patients is:
    1. Intestinal bleeding
    2. Chronic gastritis with low acid secretion
    3. Parasitic infection
    4. Insufficient dietary intake of iron
A

*1. Intestinal bleeding

101
Q
  1. Pernicious anemia (Addison-Biermer anemia) develops due to:
    1. Insufficient dietary intake of vitamin B-12
    2. Impaired absorption of vitamin B-12
    3. Impaired metabolism of vitamin B-12
    4. Lacks of folic acid in food
A

*2.impaired absorption of vitamin B-12

102
Q
  1. The leading feature of sickle cell anemia is:
    1. Anaemic syndrome
    2. Thrombotic syndrome
    3. increased bleeding
    4. Splenomegaly and related symptoms
A

*2.thrombotic syndrome

103
Q
  1. Henoch-Schonlein purpura (allergic purpura) is characterized:
    1. Arthralgia
    2. Intestinal disorders
    3. Renal disorders
    4. Instant effect of NSAIDs
A

*4.instant effect of NSAIDs

104
Q
  1. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA) diagnostics include:
    1. Acid hemolysis test (Ham’s test)
    2. Osmotic resistance of erythrocytes test
    3. Direct Coombs test (direct antiglobulin test)
    4. Haemoglobin electrophoresis
A

*3.direct Coombs test (direct antiglobulin test)

105
Q
  1. Erythrocytes hemolysis in Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency can be caused by:
    1. Exposure to cold
    2. Reduction of parcial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere when climbing mountains
    3. Antibiotics and steroids intake
    4. Antimaralials and aspirin intake
A

*4.antimaralials and aspirin intake

106
Q
  1. Haemolytic anaemia is characterized by:
    1. Increase of direct bilirubin in blood
    2. Pancytopenia
    3. Haematuria and proteinuria
    4. Reticulocytosis and splenomegaly
A

*4.reticulocytosis and splenomegaly

107
Q
  1. Unilateral renal function decrease can be viewed on:
    1. Isotope scintigraphy
    2. Kidneys x-ray
    3. Kidneys ultrasound
    4. Kidneys CT
A

*1.isotope scintigraphy

108
Q
  1. Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by:
    1. hypocholesterolemia
    2. proteinuria and edema
    3. hypokalemia
A

*2.proteinuria and edema

109
Q
  1. Asymmetric excretion revealed on kidneys radiography is common in:
    1. Kimmelstiel-Wilson syndrome
    2. Renal amyloidosis
    3. Chronic glomerulonephritis
    4. Chronic pyelonephritis
A

*4.chronic pyelonephritis

110
Q
  1. Diastolic murmur may be present at:
    1. Tricuspid insufficiency
    2. Mitral insufficiency
    3. Aortic insufficiency
    4. Aortic valve stenosis
A

*3.aortic insufficiency

111
Q
  1. Which of the listed below belongs to Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?
    1. Apical hypertrophy
    2. Papillary muscle hypertrophy
    3. Septal hypertrophy
    4. Left ventricle’s external walls hypertrophy
A

*3.septal hypertrophy

112
Q
  1. Sudden cardiac death in dilative cardiomyopathy is more often caused by:
    1. Heart failure
    2. Thromboembolism
    3. Ventricular arrhythmia
    4. Atrial arrhythmia
A

*3.ventricular arrhythmia

113
Q
  1. Esophageal achalasia is characterized by:
    1. Oesophageal hyperperistalsis
    2. esophageal varices
    3. Lower esophageal sphincter spasm
    4. esophageal diverticula
A

*3.lower esophageal sphincter spasm

114
Q
  1. The cause of esophageal ulcer may be:
    1. Mallory-Weiss syndrome
    2. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
    3. Hiatal hernia
    4. cardiospasm
A

*2.gastroesophageal reflux disease

115
Q
  1. Helicobacter pylori is sensitive to:
    1. Antacids
    2. Mercury
    3. Metronidazole
    4. Tetracycline
A

*3.metronidazole

116
Q
  1. the most reliable diagnostic data in duodenitis are those of:
    1. Palpation of the abdomen
    2. Abdominal X-ray
    3. Clinical picture
    4. Needle biopsy
A

*4.needle biopsy

117
Q
  1. Choose aggressive factor involved in gastroduodenal ulcer:
    1. Increased acidity of gastric juice and bile reflux
    2. Low pepsin activity of gastric juice
    3. legionellosis
    4. Alcohol consumption
A

*1.increased acidity of gastric juice and bile reflux

118
Q
  1. The main cause of sudden cardiac death in ischemic heart disease is:
    1. Ventricular fibrillation
    2. Paroxysmal tachycardia
    3. Atrial fibrillation
    4. Extrasystoles
A

*1.ventricular fibrillation

119
Q
  1. The countdown of sudden cardiac death begins from the moment of:
    1. Absence of pulse in the large vessels
    2. mydriasis
    3. Respiratory arrest
    4. Loss of consciousness
A

*1.absence of pulse in the large vessels

120
Q
  1. Antiarhythmic drug of the first line used during cardiopulmonary resuscitation in patients with ventricular fibrillation is:
    1. Procainamid
    2. Lidocaine
    3. Verapamil
    4. Amiodarone
A

*4.amiodarone

121
Q
  1. The term “stunned myocardium” in patients with ischemic heart disease refers to:
    1. Segmental dysfunction persistent after a period of ischemia
    2. Chronic restriction in myocardial blood supply
    3. Chronic impairment of myocardial contractility
    4. Unviable myocardium
A

*1.segmental dysfunction persistent after a period of ischemia

122
Q
  1. Hibernating myocardium is a state of:
    1. Reversible impairment of myocardial contractility
    2. Irreversible impairment of myocardial contractility
    3. Necrotic changes of myocardium
    4. Cardiac arrest
A

*1.reversible impairment of myocardial contractility

123
Q
  1. Paroxysmal form of the atrial fibrillation lasts no longer than:
    1. 12 hours
    2. 24 hours
    3. 24-72 hours
    4. 7 days
A

*4. 7 days

124
Q
  1. The main cause of sudden cardiac death in ischemic heart disease is:
    1. Ventricular fibrillation
    2. Paroxysmal tachycardia
    3. Atrial fibrillation
    4. Extrasystoles
A

*1.ventricular fibrillation

125
Q
  1. The countdown of sudden cardiac death begins from the moment of:
    1. Absence of pulse in the large vessels
    2. Mydriasis
    3. Respiratory arrest
    4. Loss of consciousness
A

*1.absence of pulse in the large vessels

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