General Surgery Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The cause of shin trophic ulcer can be:
    1. Chronic venal insufficiency of the lower extremity.
    2. Chronic arterial insufficiency of the lower extremity.
    1. Acute tromboflebitis of shin superficial veins.
    2. Thromboemboli of popliteal artery.
A
  • 1.Chronic venal insufficiency of the lower extremity.

* 2.Chronic arterial insufficiency of the lower extremity.

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2
Q
  1. Basic causes of soft tissues necrosis are:
    1. Impaired peripheral blood circulation in diabetes mellitus.
    2. Trauma of soft tissues on condition of chronic arterial
      Or vein of insufficiency.
    3. Physical -emotional strain
    4. Acute physical exertion
A

*1.Impaired peripheral blood circulation in diabetes mellitus.
*2.Trauma of soft tissues on condition of chronic arterial
Or vein of insufficiency.

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3
Q
  1. Complete outside small intestinal fistula is characterized by:
    1. Constant chimus allocation on forward abdominal wall from
      Fistula of a course informed with intestine.
    2. Fistula of a course informed with thin intestine
      Without allocation intestinal of contents.
    3. Constant allocation made out stool mass on forward abdominal
      Wall through fistula a course informed with intestine.
A

*1.Constant chimus allocation on forward abdominal wall from
Fistula of a course informed with intestine.

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4
Q
  1. Incomplete outside large intestinal fistula is characterized by:
    1. Short-term allocation of bilious contents on forward
    Abdominal a wall from fistula of a course informed with intestine.
    1. Fistula of a course informed with small intestine without
      Allocation of intestinal contents.
    2. Short-term allocation made out stool mass on forward abdominal wall through fistula a course informed with intestine fistula.
A

*3.Short-term allocation made out stool mass on forward abdominal wall through fistula a course informed with intestine fistula.

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5
Q
  1. Wet gangrene is characterized by:
    1. Occurrence of tissue edema.
    2. Presence of symptoms of intoxication.
    3. Coagulation necrosis of tissues. 4.Callicvation(coliquative) necrosis of tissues.
A
  • 1.Occurrence of tissue edema.

* 2.Presence of symptoms of intoxication. *4.Callicvation(coliquative) necrosis of tissues.

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6
Q
  1. Dry gangrene is characterized by:
    1. Occurrence in chronic venous insufficiency.
    1. Occurrence in chronic arterial insufficiency
    2. Absence of intoxication symptoms
    3. Callicvation necrosis.
    4. Coagulation necrosis of tissues.
A
  • 2.Occurrence in chronic arterial insufficiency

* 3.Absence of intoxication symptoms

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7
Q
  1. A patient in a satisfactory status presents with a cut wound in the anterior abdominal wall. Medical tactics in the case will include:
    1. Diagnostic laparatomy.
    2. Primary debridement to determine the character of a wound.
    3. Administration of anticeptic solution and aseptic bandaging with patient’s follow up.
    4. Tight suturing of the wound
    5. Diagnostic laparascopy.
A

*2.Primary debridement to determine the character of a wound.

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8
Q
  1. Spleen damage is characterized by:
    1. Hypertension
    2. Hypotension
    3. Hemoperitoneum
    4. Pneumoperitoneum
    5. Subcutaneous emphysema
A

*2.Hypotension *3.Hemoperitoneum.

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9
Q
  1. Rupture of the hollow abdominal organ is characterized by:
    1. Low parameters of hemoglobin and hemotocrit.
    2. Chetkin-Bluemberg symptom. 3. Pneumoperitoneum.
    3. Retetention of urine
    4. Extra-abdominal hematoma.
A
  • 2.Chetkin-Bluemberg symptom.

* 3.Pneumoperitoneum.

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10
Q
  1. A patient in 25 hours after a blunt trauma of the stomach and fracture of the left IX-X ribs suddenly develops fall arterial pressure, abdominal pains, tachycardia, your likely diagnosis is:
    1. Hemothorax
    2. Pneumothorax
    3. Dubletime rupture of the spleen.
    4. Acute pancreatitis.
    5. Acute heart attack myocardial infarction
A

*3.Dubletime rupture of the spleen.

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11
Q
  1. To remove air from the pleural cavity the puncture is to be performed:
    1. in 8-9 ribs along back axillary line.
    2. in 2 ribs along midleclavical line.
    3. in 5-th ribs along midleclavical line.
    4. in the area of jugular notch.
    5. in the upperclavical area.
A

*2. In 2 ribs along midleclavical line.

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12
Q
  1. Intracranial hematoma requires:
    1. Conservative therapy.
    2. Puncture of the hematomy.
    3. Cerebro spinal puncture.
      4 .Skull trepanation and removal of the hematoma
A

*4.Skull trepanation and removal of the hematoma

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13
Q
  1. Instrumental diagnostic methods of craniocerebral trauma include:
    1. X-ray of a skull (craniography).
    2. Computer tomography.
    3. Carotid angiography.
    4. Ultrasound.
    5. All methods of research
A

*5.All methods of research

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14
Q
  1. Intracranial hematoma presents:
    1. Symptoms of blood loss.
    2. Anisocoria.
    3. Light interval
    4. Loss of consciousness.
    5. Hypotension.
A
  • 2.Anisocoria.
    * 3.Light interval
    * 4.Loss of
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15
Q
  1. Blood loss is characterized by:
    1. Hypotension
    2. Hypertension
    3. Tachycardia.
    4. Bradycardia.
    5. Redness of a skin and mucous membranes
A
  • 1.Hypotension

* 3.Tachycardia.

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16
Q
  1. The parameter of hematocritis defines(determines):
    1. Contents of hemoglobin in blood.
    2. Size of blood loss.
    3. Parity (ratio) of plasma and blood cells.
    4. Volume of circulating blood.
    5. Volume of red blood cells.
A

*3.Parity (ratio) of plasma and blood cells.

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17
Q
  1. The ways to a temporary stop of a bleeding concern:
    1. Imposing tourniquet.
    2. Imposing a clip on a bleeding vessel.
    3. To insert sutures to the bleeding vessel.
    4. Angioplastics.
    5. Manual pressing of the main blood vessels.
A
  • 1.Imposing tourniquet.
    * 2.Imposing a clip on a bleeding vessel.
    * 5.Manual pressing of the main blood vessels.
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18
Q
  1. The final stop of a bleeding is carried out:
    1. Bandaging a bleeding vessel in a wound.
    2. Bandaging a vessel on an extent.
    3. Imposing pressing bandages.
    4. Inserting suture to the blood vessel.
    5. All specified ways.
A
  • 1.Bandaging a bleeding vessel in a wound.
    * 2.Bandaging a vessel on an extent.
    * 4.Inserting suture to the blood vessel.
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19
Q
  1. The biological methods to stop the bleeding concern:
    1. Transfusion of packed platelet.
    2. Introduction of fibrinogen.
    3. Electric coagulation.
    4. Local use of hydrogen peroxide.
A
  • 1.Transfusion of packed platelet.

* 2.Introduction of fibrinogen.

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20
Q
  1. at hemorragic shock:
    1. Decreases circulating blood volume.
    2. Increases circulating blood volume.
    3. The process of microcirculation is broken.
    4. The intimate emission of blood is reduced.
    5. Increases central venous pressure.
A
  • 1.Decreases circulating blood volume.
    * 3.The process of microcirculation is broken.
    * 4.The intimate emission of blood is reduced.
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21
Q
  1. At definition of groups of blood ABO the following groups of mistakes are possible (probable):
    1. Technical character.
    2. Use of serum with the expired working life.
    3. Biological.
    4. Use of substandard wheys.
A
  • 1.Technical character.

* 4.Use of substandard wheys.

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22
Q
  1. More often hemotransfusial shock arises at:
    1. Incompatibility of blood on AB0 system.
    2. Incompatibility of blood under the rhesus-factor.
    3. Massive hemotrnsfusion.
    4. Transfusion of tinned blood.
A

*1.Incompatibility of blood on AB0 system.

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23
Q
  1. to preparations of blood concern:
    1. Albumin.
    2. Plasma,
    3. Packed red blood cells.
    4. Protein.
    5. Donor blood.
A
  • 1.Albumin.

* 4.Protein.

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24
Q
  1. to components of blood concern:
    1. Protein.
    2. Plasma.
    3. Albumin.
    4. Packed white blood cells.
    5. Packed red blood cells.
A
  • 2.Plasma.
    * 4.Packed white blood cells.
    * 5.Packed red blood cells.
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25
Q
  1. The preparations for parenteral feeding concern:
    1. Preparations containing aminoacids.
    2. Physiological solution.
    3. Fat emulsions.
    4. Solution.
    5. Packed red blood cells.
A
  • 1.Preparations containing aminoacids.

* 3.Fat emulsions.

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26
Q
  1. At realization of tests on individual compatibility of the donor and recipient mixing when:
    1. Donor with red blood cells of the recipient.
    2. Recipient with red blood cells of the donor.
    3. Donor and recipient with standard red blood cells.
    4. Recipient and blood of the donor.
A

*4.Recipient and blood of the donor.

27
Q
  1. Processing hands of the surgeon pervomur lasts:
    1. 1 minutes.
    2. 3 minutes.
    3. 5 minutes.
    4. 10 minutes.
A

*1.1 minutes.

28
Q
  1. Thermal factor for sterilization is used at:
    1. Autoclave.
    2. Use of an antibacterial lamp.
    3. Use fluid pair.
    4. Use ethylene oxide.
    5. Dry heat.
A
  • 1.Autoclave.
    * 3.Use fluid pair.
    * 5.Dry heat.
29
Q
  1. Which of the following concerns to cold sterilization?
    1. Antibacterial a lamp.
    2. Fluid pairs.
    3. Ionizing radiation.
    4. Formalin stream.
    5. Ethylene oxide.
A
  • 1.Antibacterial a lamp.
    * 3.Ionizing radiation.
    * 4.Formalin stream.
    * 5.Ethylene oxide.
30
Q
  1. What is included into structure of pervomur, used for processing hands of the surgeon?
    1. Solution of 1:1000.
    2. Hydrogen peroxide and formic acid.
    3. 70 % ethyl alcohol.
    4. Potassium permanganate.
A

*2.Hydrogen peroxide and formic acid.

31
Q
  1. to physical antiseptics concerns:
    1. Surgical processing of a wound.
    2. Wound drainage.
    3. Wound packing.
    4. Using hydrogen peroxide.
A

*2.Wound drainage.

32
Q
  1. Preparations concerning to chemical antiseptics:
    1. Alkali
    2. Dyes
    3. Oxidizers
    4. Salt of heavy metals
    5. Sulfanilamides
A
  • 1.Alkali
    * 2.Dyes
    * 3.Oxidizers
    * 4.Salt of heavy metals
    * 5.Sulfanilamides
33
Q
  1. Means physical antiseptics:
    1. Boric acid.
    2. Ultrasonic cavitation.
    3. Vacuum wound drainage.
    4. Vaccine.
    5. Whey.
A
  • 2.Ultrasonic cavitation.

* 3.Vacuum wound drainage.

34
Q
  1. to biological antiseptics concern:
    1. Antibiotics.
    2. Sulphanilamide.
    3. Vacuum wound drainage.
    4. Vaccine.
    5. Spirits.
A
  • 1.Antibiotics.

* 4.Vaccine.

35
Q
  1. What operations concern to open?
    1. Appendectomy.
    2. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
    3. Reposition of a dislocation.
    4. Stomach resection.
    5. Right hemicolectomy(right colonic resection).
A
  • 1.Appendectomy.
    * 4.Stomach resection.
    * 5.Right hemicolectomy(right colonic resection).
36
Q
  1. What operations concern to close?
    1. Appendectomy.
    2. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
    3. Reposition of a dislocation.
    4. Stomach resection.
    5. Right hemicolectomy(right colonic resection)
A
  • 2.Laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

* 3.Reposition of a dislocation.

37
Q
  1. Basic stages of surgical operation:
    1. Stacking the patient on an operational table.
    2. Access.
    3. Operative reception.
    4. Arrest of bleeding.
    5. Layered (level-by-level) closure of a wound.
A
  • 2.Access.
    * 3.Operative reception.
    * 5.Layered (level-by-level) closure of a wound.
38
Q
  1. Basic tasks of preoperative period:
    1. Specification of the diagnosis.
    2. Definition of the indications to operation.
    3. Revealing contra-indications to operation.
    4. Definition of terms of performance and character of operation.
    5. The rating operational & anaesthetic risks.
    6. All listed above.
A

*6.All listed above.

39
Q
  1. What complications of operation concern to local?
    1. Festering of an operational wound.
    2. Pulmonary embolism.
    3. Postcholecystectomic syndrom.
    4. Pneumonia.
    5. Formation (education) of hematoma in the wound area.
A
  • 1.Festering of an operational wound.

* 5.Formation (education) of hematoma in the wound area.

40
Q
  1. What complications of operation concern to general (common)?
    1. Festering of postoperative wound.
    2. Paresis of gastrointestinal tract.
    3. Early adhesive intestinal obstruction.
    4. Peritoneal comissures.
    5. Pulmonary embolism.
A
  • 2.Paresis of gastrointestinal tract.
    * 3.Early adhesive intestinal obstruction.
    * 4.Peritoneal comissures.
    * 5.Pulmonary embolism.
41
Q
  1. The plastic operations can be executed with the help of:
    1. Autoplasty.
    2. Homoplasty.
    3. Heteroplasty.
    4. Alloplasty.
    5. All above is correct.
A

*5.All above is correct.

42
Q
  1. Main medical action at necrotic form of erysipelas:
    1. Antibiotic therapy.
    2. Ultra-violet irradiation of the centre of inflammation.
    3. Surgical method of treatment.
    4. Ointment bandages.
    5. Detoxification therapy.
A

*3.Surgical method of treatment.

43
Q
  1. For opening of an abscess cavity, located in one quadrant of the pectoral gland it is necessary to use:
    1. Radial cut (section).
    2. An arcuate cut (section).
    3. S - figurative cut (section).
    4. Paraareolar cut (section).
A

*1.Radial cut (section).

44
Q
  1. Basic treatment at carbuncle in abscess formation stage:
    1. Processing 70 % ethyl alchohol.
    2. Antibiotic therapy.
    3. Purpose (assignment) of sulfanilamids
    4. Ultrahigh frequency- therapy.
    5. Opening a purulent cavity.
A

*5.Opening a purulent cavity.

45
Q
  1. In what stage of inflammatory process the conservative treatment is shown?
    1. Alteration.
    2. Infiltrative exudative
    3. In abscess formation stage.
    4. In a stage of regeneration.
A
  • 1.Alteration.
    * 2.Infiltrative exudative
    * 4.In a stage of regeneration.
46
Q
  1. In what stage of inflammatory process the operative treatment is shown?
    1. Alteration.
    2. Infiltrative exudative
    3. In abscess formation stage.
    4. in a stage of regeneration.
A

*3.In abscess formation stage.

47
Q
  1. On prevalence distinguish the following forms peritonitis:
    1. Local limited.
    2. Local diffused.
    3. General (common).
    4. All answers correct.
A

*4.All answers correct.

48
Q
  1. Specify a correct designation of classification of burns on a degree:
    1. I, II, III, IIIA, IV.
    2. I A, I, II, III, IV.
    3. I, II, III A, III, IV.
    4. I, II, III, IV A, IV Á.
    5. I, II A, II, III, IV.
A

*3.I, II, III A, III, IV.

49
Q
  1. to superficial burns of a skin concern:
    1. Burns of I, II degree.
    2. Burns of I degree.
    3. Burns of III A degree.
    4. Burns of III.Á degree.
A

*2.Burns of I degree.

50
Q
  1. Local symptoms at a burn of a skin of the first degree:
    1. Fever.
    2. Morbidity.
    3. Reddening.
    4. Swelling.
    5. Formation of a necrosis site.
A
  • 1.Fever.
    * 2.Morbidity.
    * 4.Swelling.
51
Q
  1. to deep burns of a skin concern:
    1. Burns of II degree.
    2. Burns of I degree.
    3. Burns of III A degree.
    4. Burns of III Б degree.
    5. Burns of IV degree.
A
  • 3.Burns of III A degree.
    * 4.Burns of III Б degree.
    * 5.Burns of IV degree.
52
Q
  1. Area of a palm of an adult man from the general area of a skin consists:
    1. 0.5 - 0.6 %
    2. 1.0 - 1.2 %
    3. 2 - 2.1 %
    4. 3 - 3.1 %
A

*2.1.0 - 1.2 %

53
Q
  1. Specify the exactest method of definition of the area of a burn of a leather(skin):
    1. Rule of a palm
    2. Rule of nineth
    3. Method of Postnikov
    4. Method of Viliavin
    5. under the special tables
A

*3.Method of Postnikov

54
Q
  1. At a burn shock arises:
    1. Hemoconcentration
    2. Oligouria and anuria
    3. Increase of relative density wet
    4. Azotemia
    5. Increase circulating blood volume.
A
  • 1.Hemoconcentration
    * 2. Oligouria and anuria
    * 3.Increase of relative density wet
    * 4.Azotemia
55
Q
  1. Volume of first aid at burns:
    1. Introduction of analgesic preparations.
    2. Imposing dry aseptic bandages
    3. Imposing ointment bandages
    4. Preventive maintenance asphyxia at a burn of respiratory ways
A
  • 1.Introduction of analgesic preparations.
    * 2.Imposing dry aseptic bandages
    * 4.Preventive maintenance asphyxia at a burn of respiratory ways
56
Q
  1. at superficial burns of a skin burn disease at the adult Develops at the area of a defeat:
    1. 5 %
    2. 10 %
    3. 15 %
    4. 20 %
    5. 25 - 30 %
A

*5.25 - 30 %

57
Q
  1. Low temperature promotes tissue frostbite at:
    1. Damp air.
    2. Strong wind.
    3. Exhaustion of fabrics.
    4. Anemia.
    5. All answers are correct.
A

*5.All answers are correct.

58
Q
  1. Border of pathological process at frostbite is shown through:
    1. 1-2 day.
    2. 3-4 day.
    3. 5-7 day.
    4. 9 day
    5. 12 day.
A

*3.5-7 day.

59
Q
  1. The open way of treatment of burns includes:
    1. Often change ïîâÿçîê.
    2. Using ultraviolet irradiation at bandagings.
    3. Use nonbacterial air environment.
A

*3.Use nonbacterial air environment.

60
Q
  1. For preventive maintenance of development of an anaerobic infection in tissues is necessary:
    1. To sew up a wound tightly.
    2. To use active wound drainage.
    3. It is wide cut of a tissue.
A

*3.It is wide cut of a tissue.

61
Q
  1. Hematogenous osteomyelitis arises at the patients:
    1. Children’s age.
    2. Elderly age.
    3. The age has no value.
A
  • 1.Children’s age.
    2. Elderly age.
    3. The age has no value.
62
Q
  1. The clinical picture at chronic osteomyelitis is shown:
    1. Formation of purulent fistulas.
    2. Redness and edema of the skin.
    3. Presence of sequestration.
    4. All answers correct.
A
  • 1.Formation of purulent fistulas.

* 3.Presence of sequestration.

63
Q
  1. to special methods of research concern:
    1. Palpation.
    2. Survey.
    3. Manual research of a rectum. 4. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (endoscopy).
A

*4.Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (endoscopy).