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CBT- Internal med Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Hectic (exhaustive) fever is defined as:
    1. Various irregular deviations of temperature during 24 hours
    2. Acute increase and decrease of temperature (deviations more than 3 – 5 ^C during 24 hours with wasting sweating)
    3. Deviations of temperature during 24 hours less than 10 C
    4. Temperature during 24 hours not more than 370 C
    5. Undulant gradual increase and decrease of temperature
A
  1. Acute increase and decrease of temperature (deviations more than 3 – 5 ^C during 24 hours with wasting sweating)
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2
Q
  1. For central cyanosis is typical:
    1. diffuse cyanosis
    2. warm cyanosis
    3. acrocyanosis
    4. cold cyanosis
    5. hypoxemia
A
  • 1.diffuse cyanosis
    * 2.warm cyanosis
    * 5.hypoxemia
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3
Q
  1. What leads to the development of edema:
    1. hypoalbuminemia
    2. venous congestion in case of heart failure
    3. lymphostasis
    4. deep venous thrombosis
    5. sodium retention
A
  • 1.hypoalbuminemia
    * 2.venous congestion in case of heart failure
    * 3.lymphostasis
    * 4.deep venous thrombosis
    * 5.sodium retention
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4
Q
  1. Body mass index is determined according to:
    1. Patient’s weight
    2. Ratio of body mass (kg) to squared height (m)
    3. Ratio of waist to hip circumferences
    4. Ratio of body mass (kg) to height (m)
    5. Skinfold thickness
A
  1. ratio of body mass (kg) to squared height (m)
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5
Q
  1. The right statement about chest pain in case of respiratory tract diseases is:
    1. The most common cause is the involvement of pleura in pathological process
    2. Increases during inspiration and cough
    3. Increases in case of bending to the healthy side
    4. Decreases after appearance of fluid in pleural cavity
    5. Rapid relief of symptoms after intake of nitroglycerin
A
  • 1.the most common cause is the involvement of pleura in pathological process
    * 2.increases during inspiration and cough
    * 3.increases in case of bending to the healthy side
    * 4.decreases after appearance of fluid in pleural cavity
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6
Q
  1. During inspection of the patient we can reveal:
    1. barrel-shaped chest
    2. nails in the form of “watch-glass”
    3. clubbing
    4. diffuse cyanosis
    5. acrocyanosis
A
  • 1.barrel-shaped chest
    * 2.nails in the form of “watch-glass”
    * 3.clubbing
    * 4.diffuse cyanosis
    * 5.acrocyanosis
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7
Q
  1. During percussion of the chest we can determine:
    1. Clear lung sound in a healthy person
    2. Weakening of percussion sound in case of decreased airiness of lung tissue
    3. Dull percussion sound in case of pleural effusion
    4. Tympanic percussion sound in lung consolidation syndrome
    5. Bandbox percussion sound in case of high accumulation of air in the lungs
A
  • 1.clear lung sound in a healthy person
    * 2.weakening of percussion sound in case of decreased airiness of lung tissue
    * 3.dull percussion sound in case of pleural effusion
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8
Q
  1. Choose the right statements about increase of vocal fremitus:
    1. Occur in a healthy person in case of thin chest wall
    2. Is revealed in lung emphysema
    3. Is determined over the area of infiltration in lung tissue
    4. Occur in case of hydrothorax
    5. is determined in case of obturator atelectasis
A
  • 1.occur in a healthy person in case of thin chest wall

* 3.is determined over the area of infiltration in lung tissue

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9
Q
  1. weakening of percussion sound appears in case of:
    1. Pleural effusion
    2. Cavity full of fluid
    3. Infiltration of lung tissue
    4. Cavity full of air
    5. Massive development of connective tissue in the lung
A
  • 1.pleural effusion
  • 2.cavity full of fluid
  • 3.infiltration of lung tissue
  • 5.massive development of connective tissue in the lung
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10
Q
  1. Choose the right statements about harsh breathing:
    1. Is a variant of pathological vesicular breathing
    2. Inspiration and expiration are equally sonorous
    3. Is due to uneven thickening of bronchial wall
    4. Commonly can be heard in case of bronchitis
    5. Is an added respiratory sound
A
  • 1.is a variant of pathological vesicular breathing
    * 2.inspiration and expiration are equally sonorous
    * 3.is due to uneven thickening of bronchial wall
    * 4.commonly can be heard in case of bronchitis
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11
Q
  1. Choose the right statements about “silent (mute)” lung:
    1. Conduction of respiratory sounds on the surface of chest wall is absent
    2. It is a maximal decrease of bronchial breathing
    3. Air does not reach alveoli
    4. Develops in asthmatic status
    5. Mechanic restoration of bronchial passability (conductance) is needed
A
  • 1.conduction of respiratory sounds on the surface of chest wall is absent
    * 3.air does not reach alveoli
    * 4.develops in asthmatic status
    * 5.mechanic restoration of bronchial passability (conductance) is needed
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12
Q
  1. Choose the situation that causes appearance of pathological bronchial breathing:
    1. Consolidation of lung tissue and preserved passability (conductance) of ventilating bronchi
    2. Consolidation of lung tissue and obstruction of ventilating bronchi
    3. Presence of cavity that is connected with bronchus
    4. Hyperinflation of lung tissue
    5. Presence of fluid in pleural cavity
A
  • 1.consolidation of lung tissue and preserved passability (conductance) of ventilating bronchi
  • 3.presence of cavity that is connected with bronchus
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13
Q
  1. Choose the right statements about the symptom of prolonged expiration:
    1. May occur in a healthy person during auscultation
    2. Commonly is associated with dry whistling rales (wheezes)
    3. Is a variant of pathological bronchial breathing
    4. Is the evidence of decreased bronchial conductance
    5. Is the evidence of pleural effusion
A
  • 2.commonly is associated with dry whistling rales (wheezes)
  • 4.is the evidence of decreased bronchial conductance
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14
Q
  1. Sonority of moist rales (crackles) depends on:
    1. Bronchial caliber
    2. Density and character of masses in bronchial tube lumen
    3. Development of subcutaneous fat
    4. Infiltration of surrounding lung tissue
    5. Presence of fluid in pleural cavity
A

*4.infiltration of surrounding lung tissue

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15
Q
  1. Crepitation is heard in case of:
    1. Alveolitis
    2. Exudative pleurisy
    3. Lung atelectasis
    4. Croupous (lobar) pneumonia
    5. Dry pleurisy
A
  • 1.alveolitis
  • 3.lung atelectasis
  • 4.croupous (lobar) pneumonia
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16
Q
  1. For syndrome of broncho-pulmonary infection is characteristic:
    1. Cough with purulent sputum
    2. Increase of temperature
    3. Presence of Curschmann’s spirals in sputum
    4. Leukocytosis
    5. Increase of ESR
A
  • 1.cough with purulent sputum
    * 2.increase of temperature
    * 4.leukocytosis
    * 5.increase of ESR
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17
Q
  1. The features of lung consolidation syndrome are:
    1. Increase of vocal fremitus
    2. Decrease of bronchophony
    3. Weakening of percussion sound above the area of consolidation
    4. Bronchial breathing
    5. Consonant moist rales
A
  • 1.increase of vocal fremitus
    * 3.weakening of percussion sound above the area of consolidation
    * 4.bronchial breathing
    * 5.consonant moist rales
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18
Q
  1. Characteristic features for obstructive type of respiratory failure are:
    1. Difficulties in passage of air through the bronchi
    2. Expiratory dyspnea
    3. Reduced peak expiratory flow
    4. Decrease of vital capacity
    5. Reduced Tiffeneau index
A
  1. difficulties in passage of air through the bronchi
    1. expiratory dyspnea
    2. reduced peak expiratory flow
    3. reduced Tiffeneau index
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19
Q
  1. For restrictive type of respiratory failure is typical:
    1. Decrease of forced expiratory volume
    2. Decrease of vital capacity
    3. Occur in the syndrome of lung tissue consolidation
    4. Occur in the bronchoobstractive syndrome
    5. Occur in the case of pathology of ventilation mechanism (chest deformation, ribs fractures, pathology of respiratory muscles)
A
  • 2.decrease of vital capacity
    * 3.occur in the syndrome of lung tissue consolidation
    * 5.occur in the case of pathology of ventilation mechanism (chest deformation, ribs fractures, pathology of respiratory muscles)
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20
Q
  1. For the syndrome of air accumulation in pleural cavity is characteristic:
    1. Retardation of affected half of the chest during respiration
    2. Weakening of vocal fremitus
    3. Tympanic percussion sound
    4. Dull percussion sound
    5. Breathing sounds are sharply decreased or absent
A
  • 1.retardation of affected half of the chest during respiration
    * 2.weakening of vocal fremitus
    * 3.tympanic percussion sound
    * 5.breathing sounds are sharply decreased or absent
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21
Q
  1. For transudate is characteristic:
    1. Protein content < 30 g/L
    2. Density of fluid < 1015
    3. Occur in heart failure
    4. Occur due to hypoalbuminemia
    5. Positive Rivalt test
A
  • 1.protein content < 30 g/L
    * 2.density of fluid < 1015
    * 3.occur in heart failure
    * 4.occur due to hypoalbuminemia
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22
Q
  1. During examination of the patient with exudative pleurisy we can detect:
    1. Weakening or absence of vocal fremitus on the affected side
    2. Pleural friction rub
    3. Weakening or absolute (“stone”) dullness of percussion sound
    4. Sharp weakening of vesicular breathing
    5. Bronchial breathing over the area of collapsed lung
A
  • 1.weakening or absence of vocal fremitus on the affected side
    • 3.weakening or absolute (“stone”) dullness of percussion sound
    • 4.sharp weakening of vesicular breathing
    • 5.bronchial breathing over the area of collapsed lung
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23
Q
  1. Clinical features of hyperinflated lungs are:
    1. Weakening of percussion sound over the area of lung apexes
    2. Barrel-shaped chest
    3. Shift of the lower borders of the lungs down
    4. Symmetrical weakening of vocal fremitus
    5. Widespread bandbox percussion sound over the lungs
A
  • 2.barrel-shaped chest
  • 3.shift of the lower borders of the lungs down
  • 4.symmetrical weakening of vocal fremitus
  • 5.widespread bandbox percussion sound over the lungs
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24
Q
  1. The features of bronchial obstruction are:
    1. Increase of Tiffneau index
    2. Decrease of peak expiratory flow
    3. Prolonged expiration
    4. Dry whistling rales (wheezes)
    5. Decrease of Tiffeneau index
A
  • 2.decrease of peak expiratory flow
    • 3.prolonged expiration
    • 4.dry whistling rales (wheezes)
    • 5.decrease of Tiffeneau index
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25
Q
  1. Clinical picture of chronic bronchitis include:
    1. Duration of cough more than 3 months per year in the last 2 years
    2. Presence of “silent (mute)” lung symptom
    3. Features of bronchial obstruction
    4. Development of obstructive type of respiratory failure
    5. Development of restrictive type of respiratory failure
A
  • 1.duration of cough more than 3 months per year in the last 2 years
  • 3.features of bronchial obstruction
  • 4.development of obstructive type of respiratory failure
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26
Q
  1. For the attack of bronchial asthma is typical:
    1. Suffocation with difficulty in expiration
    2. A lot of wheezes against a background of prolonged expiration
    3. Participation of ancillary respiratory musculature in resrpiration
    4. Consonant (sonorous) fine moist rales (crackles)
    5. Positive effect from inhalation sympathomimetics
A
  • 1.suffocation with difficulty in expiration
    • 2.a lot of wheezes against a background of prolonged expiration
    • 3.participation of ancillary respiratory musculature in resrpiration
    • 5.positive effect from inhalation sympathomimetics
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27
Q
  1. For asthmatic status is typical:
    1. It is a very sever attack of bronchial obstruction in patients with bronchial asthma when the bronchodilators are ineffective
    2. A lot of sonorous (consonant) large bubbling rales during auscultatiopn
    3. Development of “silent (mute)” lung clinical picture is quite often
    4. It is the indication for parenteral administration of glucocorticoids
    5. Special methods for restoration of bronchial conductance may be needed
A
  • 1.it is a very sever attack of bronchial obstruction in patients with bronchial asthma when the bronchodilators are ineffective
    * 3.development of “silent (mute)” lung clinical picture is quite often
    * 4.it is the indication for parenteral administration of glucocorticoids
    * 5.special methods for restoration of bronchial conductance may be needed
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28
Q
  1. “Pink puffers” are called the patients with:
    1. Bronchial asthma
    2. Chronic obstructive disease of the lungs with predominance of emphysema
    3. Chronic obstructive disease of the lungs with predominance of bronchitis
    4. Pneumonia
    5. Exudative pleurisy
A

*2.chronic obstructive disease of the lungs with predominance of emphysema

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29
Q
  1. For lung emphysema typical is:
    1. Barrel-shaped chest
    2. Prolonged expiration
    3. Increased bronchophonia
    4. Bandbox percussion sound
    5. Shift of the lower borders of the lungs down
A
  • 1.barrel-shaped chest
    * 2.prolonged expiration
    * 4.bandbox percussion sound
    * 5.shift of the lower borders of the lungs down
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30
Q
  1. For lung hypertension is typical:
    1. May occurs in patients with chronic obstructive disease of the lungs
    2. Basic pathogenic factors are hypoxia and hypoxemia
    3. BP in lung artery is more than 25/15 mm Hg
    4. Application of oxygen is ineffective
    5. Accentuation of II sound on lung artery, P-pulmonale on ECG
A
  • 1.may occurs in patients with chronic obstructive disease of the lungs
    * 2.basic pathogenic factors are hypoxia and hypoxemia
    * 3.BP in lung artery is more than 25/15 mm Hg
    * 5.accentuation of II sound on lung artery, P-pulmonale on ECG
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31
Q
  1. Clinical picture of sleep apnoea syndrome include:
    1. Duration of apnoea episodes while sleeping > 10 sec
    2. Loud snoring
    3. Sleepiness in the daytime
    4. High risk of sudden death
    5. Cheyne-Stokes respiration
A
  • 1.duration of apnoea episodes while sleeping > 10 sec
    • 2.loud snoring
    • 3.sleepiness in the daytime
    • 4.high risk of sudden death
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32
Q
  1. Which symptom is not characteristic for a patient of 35 with croupous pneumonia?
    1. Retardation of affected half of the chest during respiration
    2. Bronchial breathing above the lesion focus
    3. Dull percussion sound
    4. Weakening of vesicular breathing with prolonged expiration
    5. Leukocytosis with shift to the left
A

*4.weakening of vesicular breathing with prolonged expiration

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33
Q
  1. For lung abscess without drainage is typical:
    1. Severe state of the patient
    2. Hectic fever, diffuse sweating
    3. Expectoration of sputum with “full mouth”
    4. Leukocytosis with shift to the left
    5. Cavity with horizontal level of fluid on the roentgenogram
A
  • 1.severe state of the patient
    * 2.hectic fever, diffuse sweating
    * 4.leukocytosis with shift to the left
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34
Q

Choose the right definition for every of listed term:

  1. Carotid shudder (dance)
    1. Apex beat
    2. Heart aneurism
    3. Heart beat
    4. Aneurysm of aortic arch, aneurysm of pulmonary artery

a. Localized regular pulsation in the 5 intercostal space 1 – 1.5 cm to the right from midclavicular line”
b. Pronounced pulsation of carotid arteries in case of aortic insufficiency
c. Pulsation in the jugular fossa
d. Pulsation on the left side of sternum with spreading on epigastriñ region
e. Pulsation in the 3 – 4 intercostal spaces on the left side of sternum in a patient after myocardial infarction

A
  • 2a.Localized regular pulsation in the 5 intercostal space 1 – 1.5 cm to the right from midclavicular line”
    * 1b.Pronounced pulsation of carotid arteries in case of aortic insufficiency
    * 5c.Pulsation in the jugular fossa
    * 4d.Pulsation on the left side of sternum with spreading on epigastriñ region
    • 3e.Pulsation in the 3 – 4 intercostal spaces on the left side of sternum in a patient after myocardial infarction
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35
Q
  1. The I sound is formed by:
    1. Tension and vibration of concurrently closing leaflets of mitral and tricuspid valves
    2. Vibration of tense myocardium of left and right ventricles in the phase of closed valves
    3. Tension and vibration of atrial myocardium
    4. Vibration of aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves during their closure
    5. Vibration of proximal parts of aorta and pulmonary artery during systole
A
  • 1.tension and vibration of concurrently closing leaflets of mitral and tricuspid valves
    * 2.vibration of tense myocardium of left and right ventricles in the phase of closed valves
    * 3.tension and vibration of atrial myocardium
    * 5.vibration of proximal parts of aorta and pulmonary artery during systole
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36
Q
  1. Give the Latin equivalent to the characteristics of arterial pulse:
    1. High
    2. Small
    3. Quick
    4. Rapid
    5. thread-like
    a. Filiformis
    b. Frequens
    c. Altus
    d. Parvus
    e. Celer
A
  • 5a.Filiformis
  • 3b.Frequens
  • 1c.Altus
  • 2d.Parvus
  • 4e.Celer
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37
Q
  1. Point out what kind of pathology corresponds with following pulse characteristics:
    1. Incompetence of aortic valve
    2. Aortic stenosis
    3. Takayasu’s syndrome
    4. Atrial fibrillation
    5. Shock, acute blood loss
    a. pulsus parvus et tardus
    b. pulsus dificiens
    c. pulsus differens
    d. pulsus celer et altus
    e. pulsus filiformis
A
  • 2a.pulsus parvus et tardus
    • 4b.pulsus dificiens
    • 3c.pulsus differens
    • 1d.pulsus celer et altus
      * 5e.pulsus filiformis
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38
Q
  1. Choose the grade of intensity of murmurs according to description of their features:
    1. 2 grade
    2. 3 grade
    3. 4 grade
    4. 5 grade
    5. 6 grade
    a. Loud murmur usually with a trill of the chest, may be heard as well through the palm placed on the chest
    b. Murmur that is constantly detected in course of heart auscultation
    c. Very loud murmur that is heard not only in the heart region but in every point of the chest
    d. Loud murmur that is constantly detected in course of heart auscultation but without trill
    e. Very loud murmur that is heard from the body surface outside the chest
A
  • 3a.Loud murmur usually with a trill of the chest, may be heard as well through the palm placed on the chest
    * 1b.Murmur that is constantly detected in course of heart auscultation
    * 4c.Very loud murmur that is heard not only in the heart region but in every point of the chest
    * 2d.Loud murmur that is constantly detected in course of heart auscultation but without trill
    * 5e.Very loud murmur that is heard from the body surface outside the chest
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39
Q
  1. Choose the murmur that is typical for:
    1. Aortic regurgitation
    2. Aortic stenosis
    3. Mitral stenosis
    4. Mitral regurgitation
    5. Tricuspid regurgitation
    a. Systolic murmur on the apex with radiation to the axilla
    b. Systolic murmur in the 2-d intercostal space on the right side of sternum with radiation to neck vessels
    c. Systolic murmurs at the base of xiphoid process which increases with inspiration
    d. Diastolic murmur on the apex with presystolic increase
    e. Diastolic decrescendo murmur in the 2-d intercostal space on the right side of sternum with radiation to the Botkin-Erb point
A
  • 4a.Systolic murmur on the apex with radiation to the axilla
    * 2b.Systolic murmur in the 2-d intercostal space on the right side of sternum with radiation to neck vessels
    * 5c.Systolic murmurs at the base of xiphoid process which increases with inspiration
    * 3d.Diastolic murmur on the apex with presystolic increase
    * 1e.Diastolic decrescendo murmur in the 2-d intercostal space on the right side of sternum with radiation to the Botkin-Erb point
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40
Q
  1. For mitral stenosis is typical:
    1. Loud I sound on the apex
    2. Opening snap of mitral valve
    3. Signs of left ventricular hypertrophy on ECG
    4. Diastolic murmur on the apex
    5. “Ï”-like movements of mitral valve leaflets on echocardiogram
A
  • 1.loud I sound on the apex
    * 2.opening snap of mitral valve
    * 4.diastolic murmur on the apex
    * 5. “Ï”-like movements of mitral valve leaflets on echocardiogram
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41
Q
  1. ECG signs of complete left bundle branch block are:
    1. Prolongation of QRS complex more than 0.12 sec
    2. High and wide R wave in V1 – V3
    3. Deformation QRS complex
    4. High and wide R wave in V5 – V6
    5. Wide S wave in V1 – V2
A
  • 1.prolongation of QRS complex more than 0.12 sec
    1. Deformation QRS complex
  • 4.high and wide R wave in V5 – V6
  • 5.wide S wave in V1 – V2
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42
Q
  1. ECG signs of left ventricular hypertrophy are:
    1. Increased amplitude of R wave in leads V1 – V2
    2. Shift of electric axis of the heart to the left
    3. Shift of electric axis of the heart to the right
    4. Shifting of transitional zone to V5
    5. SV1 + RV5/RV6 more than 35 mm
A

*2.shift of electric axis of the heart to the left

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43
Q
  1. The signs of complete atrioventricular block are:
    1. Atrial rhythm is quicker than ventricular rhythm
    2. Atrial rhythm is slower than ventricular rhythm
    3. Atria and ventricles are activated independently
    4. May be associated with Morgagni-Adams-Stokes attacks
    5. Absence of P wave on ECG
A
  • 1.atrial rhythm is quicker than ventricular rhythm
    • 3.atria and ventricles are activated independently
    • 4.may be associated with Morgagni-Adams-Stokes attacks
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44
Q
  1. Choose the right statements about ventricular tachycardia:
    1. The rate of ventricular beats is more than 100 per minute
    2. May be accompanied by heamodynamic disorders
    3. It is not a life-threatening state
    4. Broadness of QRS complexes is 0, 12 – 0.14 sec and more
    5. Different R-R intervals
A
  • 1.the rate of ventricular beats is more than 100 per minute
    * 2.may be accompanied by heamodynamic disorders
    * 4.broadness of QRS complexes is 0, 12 – 0.14 sec and more
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45
Q
  1. Point out the causes of signs that are revealed in course of inspection of neck vessels (choose the correspondences):
    1. Pronounced pulsation of carotid arteries (carotid shudder or dance)
    2. Jugular venous distension
    3. Jugular venous distension and their pulsation during systole (positive venous pulse)
    4. Sharp venous distension on the neck and upper extremities, pronounced cyanosis and neck swelling (Stokes’s collar)
    5. Pronounced pulsation in jugular fossa
      a. Blood regurgitation from right ventricle in right atrium and jugular veins during systole
      b. Significant increase of pulse BP
      c. Right ventricular failure
      d. Aneurysm of aortic arch
      e. Difficulty of venous outflow in case of thrombosis or compression of vena cava superior with tumor
A
  • 3a.Blood regurgitation from right ventricle in right atrium and jugular veins during systole
    * 1b.Significant increase of pulse BP
    * 2c.Right ventricular failure
    * 5d.Aneurysm of aortic arch
    * 4e.Difficulty of venous outflow in case of thrombosis or compression of vena cava superior with tumor
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46
Q
  1. What changes of the tongue may be found out in following situations?
    1. in a healthy person
    2. in case of chronic inflammation of mucous coat of stomach (chronic gastritis)
    3. in case of peritonitis
    4. in case of B-12 deficiency anemia
    5. in case of hypothyroidism
    a. Smooth raspberry (red) polished tongue with atrophy of papillae
    b. Clean moist pink tongue
    c. Dry tongue (brush-like)
    d. Tongue with white coating
    e. Enlarged tongue with teeth mark’s along the edges
A
  • 4a.Smooth raspberry (red) polished tongue with atrophy of papillae
    * 1b.Clean moist pink tongue
    * 3c.Dry tongue (brush-like)
    * 2d.Tongue with white coating
    * 5e.Enlarged tongue with teeth mark’s along the edges
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47
Q
  1. Choose the probable localization of pathological process in following clinical situations:
    1. Intensive burning epigastric pains 5 – 15 minutes after eating
    2. Acute intensive epigastric pains 30 – 40 minutes after eating
    3. Intensive epigastric pains at night or towards morning abating after eating
    4. Pains in interscapular and retrosternal regions while eating
    5. Intensive pains in the upper part of abdomen of encircling character
    a. Pancreas involvement
    b. Esophagus involvement
    c. Pathology in pyloroduodenal zone
    d. Injury in the body of stomach
    e. Lesion of subcardial part of stomach
A
  • 5a.Pancreas involvement
    * 4b.Esophagus involvement
    * 3c.Pathology in pyloroduodenal zone
    * 2d.Injury in the body of stomach
    * 1e.Lesion of subcardial part of stomach
48
Q
  1. Percussion of abdomen can reveal:
    1. Loud tympanic sound above stomach and bowels
    2. Free fluid in abdominal cavity
    3. Intestinal peristalsis
    4. Disappearance of liver dullness
    5. Enlargement of liver and spleen
A
  • 1.loud tympanic sound above stomach and bowels
  • 2.free fluid in abdominal cavity
  • 4.disappearance of liver dullness
  • 5.enlargement of liver and spleen
49
Q
  1. Choose the right statements regarding free fluid in abdominal cavity:
    1. Dull percussion sound in lateral parts (flanks) of abdomen
    2. In vertical position dull sound is determined at the bottom of abdomen
    3. To determine large volumes of fluid percussion in knee-elbow position is recommended
    4. Low amount of fluid is detected with method of fluctuation
    5. In lateral recumbent (decubitus) position above the upper flank dull sound changes to tympanic
A
  • 1.dull percussion sound in lateral parts (flanks) of abdomen
    * 2.in vertical position dull sound is determined at the bottom of abdomen
    *5.in lateral recumbent (decubitus) position above the upper flank dull sound changes to tympanic
50
Q
  1. Radiography of gastrointestinal tract gives the opportunity to reveal:
    1. Esophageal narrowing or dilation
    2. Malabsorption
    3. Filling defect in stomach
    4. Impaired evacuation function of the stomach
    5. Levels of fluid and accumulation of gas in case of small bowel obstruction
A
  • 1.esophageal narrowing or dilation
  • 3.filling defect in stomach
  • 4.impaired evacuation function of the stomach
  • 5.levels of fluid and accumulation of gas in case of small bowel obstruction
51
Q
  1. Xanthelasma is a:
    1. Local dilation of capillaries and fine vessels
    2. Spot of yellow-orange color under the skin of leads and auricles
    3. Bumpy formations (tophus) in the area of auricles
    4. Net-like skin design of bleu-violet color (marbled skin)
    5. Haemorrhagic skin rash on lower extremities
A

*2.spot of yellow-orange color under the skin of leads and auricles

52
Q
  1. Aggressive factors promoting development of stomach and duodenal ulcer are:
    1. Hydrochloric acid
    2. Bile acids
    3. Helicobacter pylori
    4. Regeneration of mucous membrane cells
    5. Well-developed microvasculature
A
  • 1.hydrochloric acid
  • 2.bile acids
  • 3.Helicobacter pylori
53
Q
  1. Protective factors for stomach mucous membrane are:
    1. Mucobicarbonate barrier
    2. Pepsin
    3. Prostaglandins
    4. Gastrin hypersecretion
    5. Regeneration ability of mucous membrane cells
A
  • 1.mucobicarbonate barrier
  • 3.prostaglandins
  • 5.regeneration ability of mucous membrane cells
54
Q
  1. For peptic ulcer is typical:
    1. Connection between epigastric pain and food intake
    2. Aggravation of pain and more frequent attacks of pain in autumnal and spring periods
    3. Symptom of “niche” on X-ray [roentgen] examination
    4. Defect of mucous membrane in course of gastroduodenoscopy
    5. Rare association with Helicobacter pylori
A
  • 1.connection between epigastric pain and food intake
    * 2.aggravation of pain and more frequent attacks of pain in autumnal and spring periods
    * 3.symptom of “niche” on X-ray [roentgen] examination
    * 4.defect of mucous membrane in course of gastroduodenoscopy
55
Q
  1. Complication of peptic ulcer may be:
    1. Hemorrhage
    2. Perforation
    3. Gastritis
    4. Pyloric stenosis
    5. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
A
  • 1.hemorrhage
    * 2.perforation
    * 4.pyloric stenosis
56
Q
  1. Concerning carcinoma of the stomach it is right:
    1. Predisposing disease is gastric polyposis
    2. Progressive unmotivated weakness, weight loss
    3. Anemia
    4. Decrease of appetite, aversion to food
    5. In course of gastroscopy mucous membrane is pink, smooth, covered with thin layer of mucus
A
  • 1.predisposing disease is gastric polyposis
  • 2.progressive unmotivated weakness, weight loss
  • 3.anemia
  • 4.decrease of appetite, aversion to food
57
Q
  1. For malabsorbtion syndrome is typical:
    1. Diarrhea
    2. Edema
    3. Steatorrhea
    4. Obesity
    5. Anemia
A
  • 1.diarrhea
    * 2.edema
    * 3.steatorrhea
    * 5.anemia
58
Q
  1. The reasons for malabsorption syndrome may be:
    1. Resection of small intestine, gastrectomy
    2. Lymphomas
    3. Chronic pancreatitis
    4. Duodenal ulcer
    5. Small intestine diseases
A
  • 1.resection of small intestine, gastrectomy
  • 2.lymphomas
  • 3.chronic pancreatitis
  • 5.small intestine diseases
59
Q
  1. Laboratory manifestations of malabsorption syndrome are:
    1. Hypoproteinemia
    2. Hyperkalaemia
    3. Iron-deficiency anemia
    4. Hypocalcemia
    5. Hypernatremia
A
  • 1.hypoproteinemia
    * 3.iron-deficiency anemia
    * 4.hypocalcemia
60
Q
  1. Coprological signs of malabsorption syndrome are:
    1. Constipation
    2. Amylorrhea
    3. Steatorrhea
    4. Creatorrhea
    5. Melena
A
  • 2.amylorrhea
    * 3.steatorrhea
    * 4.creatorrhea
61
Q
  1. For the stenocardia syndrome is typical:
    1. Retrosternal localization of pain with radiation to the left shoulder
    2. Pressing, burning character of pain
    3. Duration of pain – 30 minutes
    4. Provoking effect of physical activity
    5. Rapid relief after intake of nitrates
A
  • 1.retrosternal localization of pain with radiation to the left shoulder
    * 2.pressing, burning character of pai
    * 4.provoking effect of physical activity
    * 5.rapid relief after intake of nitrates
62
Q
  1. For irritable bowel syndrome it is typical:
    1. Functional disorder of small intestine
    2. Young age of patients
    3. Constipation with pain and change to diarrhea
    4. Unfavourable course
    5. Signs of occult bleeding
A
  • 1.functional disorder of small intestine

* 3.constipation with pain and change to diarrhea

63
Q
  1. Risk factors for liver diseases are:
    1. Blood transfusion, surgical procedures
    2. Smoking
    3. Alcohol abuse
    4. Intravenous introduction of narcotics
    5. Intake of medicines
A
  1. Risk factors for liver diseases are:
    • 1.blood transfusion, surgical procedures
    • 3.alcohol abuse
    • 4.intravenous introduction of narcotics
    • 5.intake of medicines
64
Q
  1. Complaints of patients with liver cirrhosis are:
    1. Increase of abdominal volume
    2. Nasal bleeding
    3. Hemoptysis
    4. Pronounced weakness
    5. Diarrhea
A
  • 1.increase of abdominal volume
    * 2.nasal bleeding
    * 4.pronounced weakness
65
Q
  1. To determine the risk of cardiovascular complications development in a patient with arterial hypertension it is necessary to:
    1. Estimate degree of hypertension
    2. Evaluate risk factors
    3. Evaluate target organs damage
    4. Ascertain the duration of hypertension
    5. Reveal the associated clinical states
A
    1. estimate degree of hypertension
        1. evaluate risk factors
        1. evaluate target organs damage
        1. reveal the associated clinical states
66
Q
  1. The stigmas of chronic alcoholic intoxication are;
    1. Dupuytren’s contracture
    2. Acrocyanosis
    3. Polyneuropathy
    4. Multiple telangiectasias
    5. Gynecomastia
A
  • 1.Dupuytren’s contracture
    * 3.polyneuropathy
    * 4.multiple telangiectasias
    * 5.gynecomastia
67
Q
  1. The features of portal hypertension are:
    1. Dilated varicose veins of esophagus and stomach
    2. Splenomegaly
    3. Hepatomegaly
    4. Increased diameter of portal vein
    5. Ascites
A
  • 1.dilated varicose veins of esophagus and stomach
    * 2.splenomegaly
    * 4.increased diameter of portal vein
    * 5.ascites
68
Q
  1. Complications of portal hypertension may be:
    1. Bleeding from esophageal veins
    2. Development of “shunt” hepatic encephalopathy
    3. hepatorenal syndrome
    4. Systemic arterial hypertension
    5. Rectal bleeding
A
  • 1.bleeding from esophageal veins

* 5.rectal bleeding

69
Q
  1. Hypersplenism is a:
    1. Congenital spleen malformation
    2. Combination of cytopenia and possible spleen enlargement
    3. Mandatory reduce of spleen in combination with leucocytosis
    4. Mandatory spleen enlargement in combination with leucocytosis
    5. Spleen enlargement in patients with hepatitis
A

*2.combination of cytopenia and possible spleen enlargement

70
Q
  1. Features of hepatocellular failure are:
    1. Encephalopathy
    2. Increase of jaundice
    3. Hypercholesterolemia
    4. Hypoalbuminemia
    5. Hypoprothrombinemia
A
  • 1.encephalopathy
    * 2.increase of jaundice
    * 4.hypoalbuminemia
    * 5.hypoprothrombinemia
71
Q
  1. For “suprahepatic” (hemolytic) jaundice is characteristic:
    1. Predominant increase of direct bilirubin
    2. Splenomegaly
    3. Reticulocytosis
    4. Predominant increase of indirect bilirubin
    5. Decoloration of stool
A
  • 2.splenomegaly
    * 3.reticulocytosis
    * 4.predominant increase of indirect bilirubin
72
Q
  1. Clinical features of cholestasis are:
    1. Skin itch
    2. Jaundice
    3. Xanthelasma
    4. Telangiectasias
    5. Liver palm
A
  • 1.skin itch
    * 2.jaundice
    * 3.xanthelasma
73
Q
  1. Increase in which enzymes is a marker of hepatocyte cytolysis?
    1. ALT
    2. MB-CK
    3. AST
    4. Amylase
    5. Cholinesterase
A
  • 1.ALT

* 3.AST

74
Q
  1. Name the clinical features of early stages of hepatic encephalopathy
    1. Sleep disturbance
    2. Coma
    3. Lapping tremor
    4. Spoor
    5. Emotional liability
A
  • 1.sleep disturbance
    * 3.lapping tremor
    * 5.emotional liability
75
Q
  1. The significant part in development of ascites in liver diseases plays:
    1. Portal hypertension
    2. Hyperalbuminemia
    3. Rennin-aldosterone system
    4. Hyperbilirubinemia
    5. Hypoalbuminemia
A
  • 1.portal hypertension
    * 3.rennin-aldosterone system
    * 5.hypoalbuminemia
76
Q
  1. It is characteristic for cholestasis
    1. Predominant increase of direct bilirubin
    2. Increase in cholesterol
    3. Increase in alkaline phosphatase
    4. Increase in urine urobilinogen
    5. Decrease in urine bilirubin
A
  • 1.predominant increase of direct bilirubin
    * 2.increase in cholesterol
    * 3.increase in alkaline phosphatase
77
Q
  1. The right statements regarding isolated systolic arterial hypertension are:
    1. Is diagnosed when SBP =140 mm Hg and DBP= 90 mm Hg
    2. Is diagnosed when SBP= 160 mm Hg and DBP =90 mm Hg
    3. Most common type of hypertension in elderly people
    4. May be observed in young people
    5. There is no need of antihypertensive treatment
A
  • 1.is diagnosed when SBP =140 mm Hg and DBP= 90 mm Hg

* 3.most common type of hypertension in elderly people

78
Q
  1. What kind of proteinuria point out kidney affection:
    1. Feverish
    2. Orthostatic
    3. Microalbuminuria
    4. March (straine)
    5. Proteinuria more than 3 g/L
A
  • 3.microalbuminuria

* 5.proteinuria more than 3 g/L

79
Q
  1. Choose the right statement:
    1. Criteria of high blood pressure depend on age
    2. Systolic blood pressure is the main index in diagnostics of hypertension
    3. Systolic and diastolic blood pressure are of equal worth in diagnostics of hypertension
    4. Isolated systolic arterial hypertension in elderly persons doesn’t need any treatment
    5. Target organs in case of arterial hypertension are: heart, brain, kidneys, vessels
A
  • 3.systolic and diastolic blood pressure are of equal worth in diagnostics of hypertension
    * 5.target organs in case of arterial hypertension are: heart, brain, kidneys, vessels
80
Q
  1. Preserved renal functional capacity is proved by:
    1. Density in a random urine test 1018 (in absence of glucosuria and massive proteinuria)
    2. Density in a random urine test 1013
    3. Variations of urine density between 1005 –1009 and prevalence of nocturnal diuresis in Zimnitsky test
    4. Glomerular filtration rate 110 ml/min
    5. Glomerular filtration rate 40 ml/min
A
  • 1.density in a random urine test 1018 (in absence of glucosuria and massive proteinuria)
  • 4.glomerular filtration rate 110 ml/min
81
Q
  1. Choose the normal level of glomerular filtration rate:
    1. 40 – 60 ml/min
    2. 90 - 140 ml/min
    3. 140 - 160 ml/min
    4. 5 - 10 ml/min
    5. More than 160 ml/min
A

*2.90 - 140 ml/min

82
Q
  1. Nechiporenko test allows detecting:
    1. 24-hour protein excretion
    2. Level of glomerular filtration rate
    3. Level of creatinine in urine
    4. Level of leukocyturia and erythrocyturia
    5. Level of tubular reabsorption
A

*4.level of leukocyturia and erythrocyturia

83
Q
  1. Urine culture test allows to:
    1. Evaluate the level of bacteriuria
    2. Determine the type of microorganism
    3. Detect the antibiotic susceptibility of pathogenic organism
    4. Confirm the effect of given therapy
    5. Evaluate renal functional capacity
A
  • 1.evaluate the level of bacteriuria
    * 2.determine the type of microorganism
    * 3.detect the antibiotic susceptibility of pathogenic organism
    * 4.confirm the effect of given therapy
84
Q
  1. Choose the right statements concerning urinary syndrome:
    1. It is the marker of latent course of kidney disease
    2. Asymptomatic hematuria and proteinuria are typical
    3. 24-hour protein excretion is more than 3 g
    4. Rapid development of kidney failure
    5. High arterial hypertension is typical
A
  • 1.it is the marker of latent course of kidney disease

* 2.asymptomatic hematuria and proteinuria are typical

85
Q
  1. Choose the causes that may lead to development of acute renal failure:
    1. Shock of any etiology
    2. Acute urinary tract obstruction
    3. Systemic diseases (SLE, systemic vasculitis, polyarteritis nodosa)
    4. Cystitis
    5. High activity of glomerulonephritis
A
  • 1.shock of any etiology
    * 2.acute urinary tract obstruction
    * 3.systemic diseases (SLE, systemic vasculitis, polyarteritis nodosa)
    * 5.high activity of glomerulonephritis
86
Q
  1. Diagnostic criteria of acute myocardial infarction are:
    1. Status anginosus
    2. Appearance of pathological Q wave on ECG
    3. Increased levels of enzymes MB-CK, troponin
    4. Increase of glucose
    5. Increase of cholesterol
A
  • 1.status anginosus
    * 2.appearance of pathological Q wave on ECG
    * 3.increased levels of enzymes MB-CK, troponin
87
Q
  1. Choose the characteristic features for acute nephritic syndrome;
    1. Edema and olyguria
    2. Hematuria (of “meat slops” color)
    3. Hypoalbuminemia
    4. Arterial hypertension
    5. Hyperlipidemia
A
  • 1.edema and olyguria
    * 2.hematuria (of “meat slops” color)
    * 4.arterial hypertension
88
Q
  1. Choose the typical signs for acute glomerulonephritis:
    1. Development of symptoms 12 -14 days after tonsillitis, pharyngitis, scarlet fever or exposure to other damaging factors
    2. Hematuria and proteinuria
    3. Edema, decreased urinary production
    4. Increase of BP
    5. Anamnesis of similar episodes
A
  • 1.development of symptoms 12 -14 days after tonsillitis, pharyngitis, scarlet fever or exposure to other damaging factors
    * 2.hematuria and proteinuria
    * 3.edema, decreased urinary production
    * 4.increase of BP
89
Q
  1. Point out the signs of cardiogenic shock:
    1. Systolic blood pressure < 80 mm Hg
    2. Decrease of pulse pressure < 30 mm Hg
    3. Oliguria, anuria
    4. Polyuria
    5. Thready pulse
A
  • 1.systolic blood pressure < 80 mm Hg
    * 3.oliguria, anuria
    * 5.thready pulse
90
Q
  1. It is characteristic for crescentic glomerulonephritis:
    1. Malignant course of arterial hypertension
    2. Creatinine doubling during 3 months
    3. Acute nephritic syndrome
    4. Asymptomatic disease course
    5. Treatment with superhigh doses of corticosteroids and cytostatics is indicated
A
  • 1.malignant course of arterial hypertension
    * 2.creatinine doubling during 3 months
    * 3.acute nephritic syndrome
    * 5.treatment with superhigh doses of corticosteroids and cytostatics is indicated
91
Q
  1. It is characteristic for latent glomerulonephritis:
    1. Massive proteinuria
    2. Moderate proteinuria and hematuria
    3. Arterial hypertension
    4. Slow progressive course
    5. Syndrome of edema
A
  • 2.moderate proteinuria and hematuria

* 4.slow progressive course

92
Q
  1. Main signs of chronic nephritic glomerulonephritis
    1. Hypoalbuminemia
    2. Proteinuria more than 3/5 g/24 h
    3. Arterial hypertension
    4. Syndrome of edema
    5. Rare infectious complications
A
  • 1.hypoalbuminemia
    * 2.proteinuria more than 3/5 g/24 h
    * 4.syndrome of edema
93
Q
  1. Set up a correspondence between functional class of chronic heart failure and clinical description:
    1. I class
    2. II class
    3. III class
    4. IV class
    a. Dyspnea at rest
    b. Minimal physical activity causes dyspnea, palpitation
    c. Usual physical activity doesn’t cause tiredness, dyspnea
    d. Usual physical activity causes tiredness, palpitation, dyspnea
A
  • 4a.Dyspnea at rest
    * 3b.Minimal physical activity causes dyspnea, palpitation
    * 1c.Usual physical activity doesn’t cause tiredness, dyspnea
    * 2d.Usual physical activity causes tiredness, palpitation, dyspnea
94
Q
  1. Development of nephritic syndrome may be caused by following diseases:
    1. Acute and chronic glomerulonephritis
    2. Diabetes mellitus
    3. Chronic pyelonephritis
    4. Renal amyloidosis
    5. Systemic diseases (SLE, systemic vasculitis)
A
  • 1.acute and chronic glomerulonephritis

* 5.systemic diseases (SLE, systemic vasculitis)

95
Q
  1. It is characteristic for clinical picture of hypertensive chronic glomerulonephritis:
    1. Rapid development of kidney failure
    2. Stable arterial hypertension
    3. Meager urinary syndrome
    4. Hypertonic angiopathy, left ventricular hypertrophy
    5. Pronounced edema syndrome
A
  • 2.stable arterial hypertension
    * 3.meager urinary syndrome
    * 4.hypertonic angiopathy, left ventricular hypertrophy
96
Q
  1. For pronounced CKF (chronic kidney failure) the following clinical signs are characteristic:
    1. Skin itch
    2. Hemorrhagic syndrome
    3. Dyspepsia
    4. Arterial hypotension
    5. Arterial hypertension
A
    1. skin itch
        1. hemorrhagic syndrome
        1. dyspepsia
        1. arterial hypertension
97
Q
  1. What doesn’t correspond with diagnosis of CKF (chronic kidney failure):
    1. Erythrocytosis
    2. Increase of creatinine level
    3. Anaemia
    4. Hyperkalaemia
    5. Hyperbilirubinemia
A
  • 1.erythrocytosis

* 5.hyperbilirubinemia

98
Q
  1. Signs of urinary tract infections exacerbation are:
    1. Increase of temperature with chill
    2. Haematuria
    3. Pronounced edema
    4. Leukocyturia
    5. Dysuric disorders
A
  • 1.increase of temperature with chill
    * 4.leukocyturia
    * 5.dysuric disorders
99
Q
  1. In course of physical examination of a hypertensive patient it is possible to discover:
    1. Increased resistant apex beat
    2. Accentuation of S2 on aorta
    3. Shift of relative heart borders to the left and to the right
    4. Accentuation of S2 on lung artery
    5. Pulsus durus
A
  • 1.increased resistant apex beat
    * 2.accentuation of S2 on aorta
    * 5.pulsus durus
100
Q
  1. Signs of cardiovascular system damage in case of toxic goiter are:
    1. Continuous tachycardia
    2. Atrial fibrillation
    3. Hypotension
    4. Systolic arterial hypertension
    5. Bradycardia
A
  • 1.continuous tachycardia
    * 2.atrial fibrillation
    * 4.systolic arterial hypertension
101
Q
  1. Signs of nervous system damage in case of thyrotoxicosis are:
    1. Increased excitability
    2. Tearfulness
    3. Body tremor, especially tremor of fingers
    4. Increased tendinous reflexes
    5. Drowsiness
A
  • 1.increased excitability
    * 2.tearfulness
    * 3.body tremor, especially tremor of fingers
    * 4.increased tendinous reflexes
102
Q
  1. It is characteristic for clinical picture of hypothyrosis:
    1. Drowsiness, depression
    2. Skin dryness, shedding of hair
    3. Solid edema of shins
    4. Persistent constipation
    5. Low grade fever
A
  • 1.drowsiness, depression
    * 2.skin dryness, shedding of hair
    * 3.solid edema of shins
    * 4.persistent constipation
103
Q
  1. Choose the right statements concerning type 1 diabetes mellitus:
    1. Develops in a young age
    2. Production of autoantibodies to cells of pancreas is typical
    3. More common in elderly persons
    4. Absolute insulin insufficiency is characteristic
    5. High predisposition to ketoacidosis
A
  • 1.develops in a young age
    * 2.production of autoantibodies to cells of pancreas is typical
    * 4.absolute insulin insufficiency is characteristic
    * 5.high predisposition to ketoacidosis
104
Q
  1. It is characteristic for type 2 diabetes mellitus:
    1. Slow disease development
    2. Insulin resistance
    3. Increased serum level of insulin
    4. Develops in a young persons
    5. Low predisposition to ketoacidosis
A
  • 1.slow disease development
    * 2.insulin resistance
    * 3.increased serum level of insulin
    * 5.low predisposition to ketoacidosis
105
Q
  1. Laboratory signs of iron deficiency anemia are:
    1. Decrease of iron level in serum
    2. Increase in TIBC (total iron binding capacity)
    3. Decrease in TIBC (total iron binding capacity)
    4. Decrease in transferrin saturation
    5. Decrease of ferritin
A
  • 1.decrease of iron level in serum
    * 2.increase in TIBC (total iron binding capacity)
    * 4.decrease in transferrin saturation
    * 5.decrease of ferritin
106
Q
  1. During examination of a patient with iron deficiency anemia we reveal:
    1. Reticulocytosis
    2. Splenomegaly
    3. Microcytosis
    4. Increase in serum indirect bilirubin
    5. Increase in serum direct bilirubin
A

*3. Microcytosis

107
Q
  1. Diagnostic criteria for B-12 deficiency anemia are:
    1. Macrocytosis and hyperchromic anemia
    2. High number of megaloblasts in sternal punctuate
    3. High level of reticulocytes before treatment
    4. Low content of vitamin B 12 in blood
    5. Microcytosis and hypochromic anemia
A
  • 1.macrocytosis and hyperchromic anemia
    * 2.high number of megaloblasts in sternal punctuate
    * 4.low content of vitamin B 12 in blood
108
Q
  1. It is characteristic for acute leukaemia:
    1. Appearance of high number of blast cells in blood and marrow
    2. Revelation of hiatus leukaemicus in course of blood and marrow smear investigation
    3. Identification of leukemia variant with help of cytochemical investigations
    4. Discovery of Philadelphia chromosome
    5. Revelation of Beresovsky- Sternberg (Sternberg-Reed) cells
A
  • 1.appearance of high number of blast cells in blood and marrow
    * 2.revelation of hiatus leukaemicus in course of blood and marrow smear investigation
    * 3.identification of leukemia variant with help of cytochemical investigations
109
Q
  1. Choose the right statements concerning chronic myeloleukemia:
    1. M-gradiant is revealed on blood and urine electrophoresis
    2. Neutrophilic leukocytosis with left shift up to promyelocytes in peripheral blood
    3. In most of patients Philadelphia chromosome is found
    4. Pronounced absolute lymphocytosis is discovered
    5. Leukemic infiltration appears in spleen, lever and other organs
A
  • 2.neutrophilic leukocytosis with left shift up to promyelocytes in peripheral blood
    * 3.in most of patients Philadelphia chromosome is found
    * 5.leukemic infiltration appears in spleen, lever and other organs
110
Q
  1. It is characteristic for chronic lymphatic leukemia:
    1. Enlargement of lymph nodes
    2. Absolute lymphocytosis in peripheral blood and marrow
    3. Increase (more than 15%) of plasmacytes content in marrow
    4. Revelation of Botkin-Gumprecht shadows
    5. Relatively benign course
A
  • 1.enlargement of lymph nodes
    * 2.absolute lymphocytosis in peripheral blood and marrow
    * 4.revelation of Botkin-Gumprecht shadows
    * 5.relatively benign course
111
Q
  1. Pick out the cardiospecific laboratory markers of myocardial infarction:
    1. AST
    2. ALT
    3. MB-fraction of CK
    4. Myoglobin
    5. Troponin I
A
  • 3.MB-fraction of CK

* 5.troponin I

112
Q
  1. Set up a correspondence between functional class of chronic heart failure (1 - 4) and clinical description (A – D):
    1. I class
    2. II class
    3. III class
    4. IV class

a. Dyspnea at rest
b. Minimal physical activity causes dyspnea, palpitation
c. Dyspnea appears in course of high physical activity
d. Usual physical activity causes tiredness, palpitation, dyspnea

A
  • 4a.Dyspnea at rest
    * 3b.Minimal physical activity causes dyspnea, palpitation
    * 1c.Dyspnea appears in course of high physical activity
    * 2d.Usual physical activity causes tiredness, palpitation, dyspnea
113
Q
  1. Pick out the features of lesser circulation heart failure:
    1. Hepatomegaly
    2. Dyspnea
    3. Non-consonating rales in the lower parts of lungs
    4. Ascites
    5. Orthopnea position
A
  • 2.dyspnea
    * 3.non-consonating rales in the lower parts of lungs
    * 5.orthopnea position
114
Q
  1. Pick out the features of greater circulation heart failure:
    1. Aascites
    2. Hepatomegaly
    3. Non-consonating rales in the lower parts of lungs
    4. Edema of lower extremities
    5. Dilation of neck veins
A
  • 1.ascites
    * 2.hepatomegaly
    * 4.edema of lower extremities
    * 5.dilation of neck veins
115
Q
  1. Most significant constitutional risk factor for cardiovascular diseases is:
    1. Body mass index > 25 kg/m2
    2. Ratio of waist to hip circumference >1 in men and >0.85 in women
    3. Waist circumference in men > 102 cm, in women > 88 cm
    4. Thickness of abdominal skinfold > 2 cm
    5. Hypersthenic type of constitution
A

*3.waist circumference in men > 102 cm, in women > 88 cm

116
Q
  1. In course of examination of patients with liver cirrhosis it may be detected:
    1. spider naevi (angiomas)
    2. jaundice
    3. Haemorrhagic pleural effusion
    4. ascites
    5. dilation of anterior abdominal wall veins
A
  • 1.spider naevi (angiomas)
    * 2.jaundice
    * 4.ascites
    * 5.dilation of anterior abdominal wall veins

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