HOMEOSTASIS - ENDOCRINE Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse reviews the arterial blood gas results of a client and notes the following:

Pco2: 30mmhg
HCO3-: 20mEq/L
pH: 7.45

The nurse notes this is a sign of:
A/ Metabolic Acidosis, compensated
B/ Respiratory Alkalosis, compensated
C/ Metabolic Alkalosis, uncompensated
D/ Respiratory Acidosis, uncompensated
A

B/ Respiratory Alkalosis

It is compensated because the pH is normal. The Pco2 is low. Therefore it is respiratory Alkalosis and the kidneys have begun to compensate by the excretion of bicarbonate to counteract the expiration of CO2 from the lungs.

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2
Q
The nurse is caring for a client with an NG tube that is attached to low suction. The nurse monitors the client knowing that they are at risk for which acid-base disorder?
A/ Metabolic Acidosis
B/ Metabolic Alkalosis
C/ Respiratory Acidosis
D/ Respiratory Alkalosis
A

B/ Metabolic Alkalosis

A deficit or loss of hydrogen ions or acids or an excess of bicarbonate. This results in conditions such as hypovolemic shock, loss of gastric fluids, excessive bicarbonate intake, massive transfusion of whole blood, and hyperaldosteronism. Loss of gastric fluids from suctioning or vomiting causes metabolic alkalosis as a result of the loss of hydrochloric acids in the stomach.

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3
Q
A client with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting presents to the emergency department. The client is hypoventilating and has a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. The ECG displays tachycardia, with a heart rate of 120 beats/minute. Arterial blood gasses are drawn and the nurse reviews the results expecting to note which finding?
A/ Decreased pH and increased CO2
B/ Increased pH and decreased CO2
C/ Decreased pH and decreased HCO3-
D/ Increased pH with increased HCO3-
A

D/ Increased pH with increased HCO3-

CLients with nausea and vomiting would most likely present is metabolic alkalosis resulting from the loss of gastric juices, thus causing the HCO3 and pH to increase. Symptoms would include hypoventilation and tachycardia to compensate for acid loss.

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4
Q
The nurse is caring for a client with an ileostomy and understandings that the client is most at risk for developing which complication?
A/ Metabolic acidosis
B/ Metabolic Alkalosis
C/ Respiratory Acidosis
D/ Respiratory Alkalosis
A

A/ Metabolic Acidosis

This is because the patient is losing intestinal secretions high in bicarbonate through their drainage tubes or ileostomy or diarrhea. In this case the patient is losing bicarb from their ileostomy.

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5
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis and documents that the client is experiencing Kussmaul’s respirations. Which pattern did the nurse observe?
A/ Respirations that cease for several seconds
B/ Regular respirations that are slow
C/ Respirations that are laboured and increased in depth and rate
D/ Abnormally deep respirations that are regular and increased in rate

A

D/ Abnormally deep, regular and increased

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6
Q

A client is found unresponsive and has an arterial blood gas drawn and the results indicate the following:

pH: 7.12
Pco2: 90 mmhg
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L
The nurse knows the means which of the following:
A/ Metabolic Acidosis, compensated
B/ Respiratory Alkalosis, compensated
C/ Metabolic Alkalosis, uncompensated
D/ Respiratory Acidosis, uncompensated
A

D/ Respiratory Acidosis uncompensated

Normal Pco2 is 35-45mmhg, and in Respiratory acidosis the Pco2 is elevated with a decreased pH value below 7.35. Normal bicarbonate levels are 22-27 mEq/L, and because the patient’s levels are within normal range, we can identify their condition as uncompensated, especially since their pH level is abnormal.

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7
Q
The nurse notes a client's arterial blood gasses reveal apH of 7.50 and a Pco2 of 30mmhg. The nurse monitors the client for which of the following clinical manifestations associated with these findings? Select all that apply:
A/ Nausea
B/ Confusion
C/ Bradypnea
D/ Tachycardia
E/ Hyperkalemia
F/ Lightheadedness
A

A/ Nausea
B/ Confusion
D/ Tachycardia
F/ Lightheadedness

Respiratory alkalosis is the deficit of carbonic acid and a decrease in hydrogen ions that result in the accumulation of base or the loss of acid. This occurs in conditions that cause the overstimulation of the respiratory system. Other clinical conditions include:
Lethargy
Dysrhythmias related to hypokalemia
Vomiting
Epigastric pain
Numbness and tingling
Tachypnea
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8
Q
The nurse is caring for a client on a mechanical ventilator. Blood gasses indicate a pH of 7.50 and Pco2 of 30mmhg. The nurse has determined the patient is experiencing respiratory alkalosis. Which lab value is most likely to be noted in this condition?
A/ Na 145 mEq/L
B/ K 3.0 mEq/L
C/ Mg 2.0 mg/L
D/ Ph 4.0 mg/L
A

B/ K 3.0 mEq/L

Respiratory alkalosis occurs with the overstimulation of the respiratory system that causes nausea and vomiting which can lead to hypokalemia.

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9
Q
The nurse is planning care for a client with COPD. Understanding that they are likely to experience what type of acid-base imbalance?
A/ Metabolic Acidosis
B/ Metabolic Alkalosis
C/ Respiratory Acidosis
D/ Respiratory Alkalosis
A

C/ Respiratory Acidosis

Respiratory acidosis is caused by hypoventilation in a client with COPD. Respiratory Alkalosis is associated with hyperventilation and is unlikely in a client with COPD.

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10
Q

A school-aged child with type i Diabetes has soccer practice three afternoons per week. The nurse provides instructions regarding how to prevent hypoglycemia during practice. What should to nurse tell the child to do?
A/ Eat twice the amount normally eaten at lunch
B/ Take half the amount of prescribed insulin on practice days
C/ Take the prescribed insulin at noon rather than in the morning
D/ Eat a small box of raisins or drink a cup of orange juice before practice.

A

D/ Have a sugar snack before practice

Hypoglycemia is a low blood sugar, so an extra snack of 15-30g of carbohydrates before activity would help prevent hypoglycemia.

Insulin should not be adjusted nor should meal amounts change.

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11
Q

The mother of a 6-year-old with Type 1 diabetes calls the clinic nurse and states her child is sick and reports ketones in the child’s urine. What should the nurse instruct the mother to do?
A/ Hold next dose of insulin
B/ Come to the clinic immediately
C/ Encourage the child to drink liquids
D/ Administer additional dose of regular insulin

A

C/ Drink fluids

When the child is sick, the mother should check urinary ketones with each voiding. If ketones are present, it is essential to aid in the clearing of ketones; therefore they should drink fluids.

Bringing them to the clinic is unnecessary. Insulin should not be adjusted!

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12
Q
A HCP prescribes IV infusion of D5W in 0.45% Normal Saline with 40 mEq of KCl for a child with hypotonic dehydration. The nurse performs which priority assessment before administration?
A/ Obtain a weight
B/ Take temperature
C/ Takes their Blood pressure
D/ Checks amount of urinary output
A

D/ Urinary output

In hypotonic dehydration, electrolyte loss exceeds water loss. The priority assessment before administering KCl IV woul;d be to assess the status of the urine output. Never administer KCl in the presence of oliguria or anuria. If less than 1-2 mL/kg/hour, hold KCl.

1,2,3 are correct for the diagnosis, they do not specifically relate to the administration of this medication.

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13
Q

An adolescent with type 1 Diabetes is admitted to the ER for treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis. Which assessment finding is expected?
A/ Sweating and tremors
B/ Hunger and Hypertension
C/ Cold, Clammy skin and irritability
D/ Fruity breath odour and decreasing LOC

A

D/ Fruity and LOC changes

Complication of Diabetes that occurs when severe insulin deficiency occurs known as Hyperglycemia.

Hunger can be a sign of both Hypo and Hyperglycemia

Hypertension is not a sign of DKA. Hypotension occurs because of decreased blood volume related to the dehydrated state that occurs during DKA.

Cold, clammy, irritability, sweating and tremors are all signs of Hypoglycemia.

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14
Q

A mother brings her 3-week-old infant to a clinic for a phenylketonuria re-screening blood test. The test indicates a serum phenylalanine level of 1 mg/dL. The nurse reviews this result and makes which interpretation?
A/ it is positive
B/ It is negative
C/ It is inconclusive
D/ It requires re-screening at 6 weeks of age

A
  1. Negative reading

phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder that results in CNS damage from toxic levels of Phenylalanine in the blood. Characterized by Phenylalanine levels greater than 20mg/dL

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15
Q
A child with type 1 diabetes mellitus is brought to the emergency department by the mother, who states that the child has been complaining of abdominal pain and has been lethargic. Diabetic ketoacidosis is diagnosed. Anticipating the plan of care, the nurse prepares to administer which type of intravenous (IV) infusion?
A/ K+ Infusion
B/ NPH Insulin Infusion
C/ D5W infusion
D/ Normal Saline Infusion
A

D/ NS 0.9% infusion

DKA is a complication of Hyperglycemia where re-hydration is the initial step in resolving the issue.

NPH Insulin is NEVER administered IV.

Dextrose Solutions are added to treat decreased glucose levels… not increased like in DKA.

IV K+ may be required, but is not part of initial treatment

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16
Q

The nurse should implement which interventions for a child older than 2 years with type 1 diabetes mellitus who has a blood glucose level of 3.3mmol/L? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A/ Administer Regular Insulin
B/ Encourage child to ambulate
C/ Give Child Teaspoon of Honey
D/ Provide Electrolyte replacement therapy IV
E/ Wait 30 minutes and confirm Blood glucose testing
F/ Prepare to administer Glucagon SC if unconsciousness occurs

A

C/ Honey
F/ Glucagon

Child is hypoglycemic and needs sugars. If possible, the nurse should confirm hypoglycemia with a blood glucose reading. Glucose is administered orally immediately; rapid-releasing glucose is followed by a complex carbohydrate and protein, such as a slice of bread or a peanut butter cracker.

If the child becomes unconscious, cake frosting or glucose paste is squeezed onto the gums, and the blood glucose level is retested in 15 minutes; if the reading remains low, additional glucose is administered. If the child remains unconscious, administration of glucagon may be necessary, and the nurse should be prepared for this intervention.

Encouraging the child to ambulate and administering regular insulin would result in a lowered blood glucose level. Providing electrolyte replacement therapy intravenously is an intervention to treat diabetic ketoacidosis. Waiting 30 minutes to confirm the blood glucose level delays necessary intervention.

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17
Q

A client is brought to the emergency department in an unresponsive state, and a diagnosis of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome is made. The nurse would immediately prepare to initiate which anticipated health care provider’s prescription?
A/ Endotracheal intubation
B/ 100 units of NPH insulin
C/ Intravenous infusion of normal saline
D/ Intravenous infusion of sodium bicarbonate

A

C/ IV NS

The primary goal of treatment in (HHNS) is to rehydrate the client to restore fluid volume and to correct electrolyte deficiency. Intravenous fluid replacement is similar to that administered in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and begins with IV infusion of normal saline. Regular insulin, not NPH insulin, would be administered. The use of sodium bicarbonate to correct acidosis is avoided because it can precipitate a further drop in serum potassium levels. Intubation and mechanical ventilation are not required to treat HHNS.

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18
Q

An external insulin pump is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus and the client asks the nurse about the functioning of the pump. The nurse bases the response on which information about the pump?
A/ Is timed to release programmed doses of short-duration or NPH insulin into the bloodstream at specific intervals
B/ Continuously infuses small amounts of NPH insulin into the bloodstream while regularly monitoring blood glucose levels
C/ Is surgically attached to the pancreas and infuses regular insulin into the pancreas, which in turn releases the insulin into the bloodstream
D/ Gives a small continuous dose of short-duration insulin subcutaneously, and the client can self-administer a bolus with an additional dose from the pump before each meal

A

D/ Continuous dose of Short-duration insulin, with the option for elective bolus from client

An insulin pump provides a small continuous dose of short-duration (rapid or short-acting) insulin subcutaneously throughout the day and night, and the client can self-administer a bolus with an additional dose from the pump before each meal as needed. Short-duration insulin is used in an insulin pump. An external pump is not attached surgically to the pancreas.

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19
Q

A client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is being treated in the emergency department. Which findings would the nurse expect to note as CONFIRMING this diagnosis? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

  1. Increase in pH
  2. Comatose state
  3. Deep, rapid breathing
  4. Decreased urine output
  5. Elevated blood glucose level
  6. Low plasma bicarbonate level
A
  1. Deep, rapid breathing
  2. Elevated blood glucose level
  3. Low plasma bicarbonate level

In DKA, the arterial pH is lower than 7.35, plasma bicarbonate is lower than 15 mEq/L, the blood glucose level is higher than 250 mg/dL, and ketones are present in the blood and urine. The client would be experiencing polyuria, and Kussmaul’s respirations (deep and rapid breathing pattern) would be present. A comatose state may occur if DKA is not treated, but coma would not confirm the diagnosis.

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20
Q

The nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus about differentiating between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. The client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching by stating that a form of glucose should be taken if which symptoms develop?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

  1. Polyuria
  2. Shakiness
  3. Palpitations
  4. Blurred vision
  5. Lightheadedness
  6. Fruity breath odor
A
  1. Shakiness
  2. Palpitations
  3. Lightheadedness

Shakiness, palpitations, and lightheadedness are signs of hypoglycemia and would indicate the need for food or glucose. Polyuria, blurred vision, and a fruity breath odor are signs of hyperglycemia.

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21
Q

A client is admitted to a hospital with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The initial blood glucose level was 53 mmol/L. A continuous intravenous infusion of short-acting insulin is initiated, along with intravenous rehydration with normal saline. The serum glucose level is now 13.3 mmol/L. The nurse would next prepare to administer which item?
A/ Ampule of 50% dextrose
B/ NPH insulin subcutaneously
C/ Intravenous fluids containing dextrose
D/ Phenytoin (Dilantin) for the prevention of seizures

A

C/ Intravenous fluids containing dextrose

During management of DKA, when the blood glucose level falls to 13.8 to 16.6 mmol/L, the infusion rate is reduced and a dextrose solution is added to maintain a blood glucose level of about 13.8 mmol/L, or until the client recovers from ketosis. Fifty percent dextrose is used to treat hypoglycemia. NPH insulin is not used to treat DKA. Phenytoin (Dilantin) is not a usual treatment measure
for DKA.

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22
Q
The nurse is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus for signs of complications. Which sign, if exhibited in the client, would indicate hyperglycemia?
A/ Polyuria
B/ Diaphoresis
C/ Hypertension
D/ Increased pulse rate
A

A/ Polyuria

Classic symptoms of hyperglycemia include polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia. Diaphoresis may occur in hypoglycemia.

Remember the 3 P’s with hyperglycemia
Gotta pee, gotta eat, gotta drink.

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23
Q
The nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with diabetes mellitus who has hyperglycemia. The nurse places highest priority on which client problem?
A/ Lack of knowledge
B/ Inadequate fluid volume
C/ Compromised family coping
D/ Inadequate consumption of nutrients
A

B/ Inadequate fluid volume

An increased blood glucose level will cause the kidneys to excrete the glucose in the urine. This glucose is accompanied by fluids and electrolytes, causing an osmotic diuresis leading to dehydration. This fluid loss must be replaced when it becomes severe.

Fluid loss is a major complication in hyperglycemia (Polyuria)

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24
Q
The nurse is caring for a client after hypophysectomy and notes clear nasal drainage from the client’s nostril. The nurse should take which initial action?
A/ Lower the head of the bed.
B/ Test the drainage for glucose.
C/ Obtain a culture of the drainage. 
D/ Continue to observe the drainage.
A

B/ Test the drainage for glucose.

After hypophysectomy, the client should be monitored for rhinorrhea, which could indicate a cerebrospinal fluid leak. If this occurs, the drainage should be collected and tested for the presence of cerebrospinal fluid. The head of the bed should not be lowered to prevent increased intracranial pressure. Clear nasal drainage would not indicate the need for a culture. Continuing to observe the drainage without taking action could result in a serious complication.

Option 1 can be eliminated first by recalling that this action can increase intracranial pressure. Option 3 can be eliminated also, because the drainage is clear.

25
Q
After several diagnostic tests, a client is diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. The nurse performs an assessment on the client, knowing that which symptom is most indicative of this disorder?
A/ Fatigue
B/ Diarrhea 
C/ Polydipsia
D/ Weight gain
A

C/ Polydipsia

Diabetes insipidus is characterized by hyposecretion of antidiuretic hormone, and the kidney tubules fail to reabsorb water. Polydipsia and polyuria are classic symptoms of diabetes insipidus. The urine is pale, and the specific gravity is low. Anorexia and weight loss occur. Option 1 is a vague symptom. Options 2 and 4 are not specific to this disorder.

26
Q

A client is admitted to an emergency department, and a diagnosis of myxedema coma is made. Which action would the nurse prepare to carry out initially?
A/ Warm the client.
B/ Maintain a patent airway.
C/ Administer thyroid hormone. D/ Administer fluid replacement.

A

B/ Maintain a patent airway.

The initial nursing action would be to maintain a patent airway. Oxygen would be administered, followed by fluid replacement, keeping the client warm, monitoring vital signs, and administering thyroid hormones by the intravenous route.
All the options are appropriate interventions, but use the ABCs—airway, breathing, and circulation—in selecting the correct option.

27
Q

The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In the acute phase, the nurse plans for which priority intervention?
A/ Correct the acidosis.
B/ Administer 5% dextrose intravenously.
C/ Apply a monitor for an electrocardiogram.
D/ Administer short-duration insulin intravenously.

A

D/ Administer short-duration insulin intravenously.

Lack (absolute or relative) of insulin is the primary cause of DKA. Treatment consists of insulin administration (short or rapid-acting), intravenous fluid administration (normal saline initially), and potassium replacement, followed by correcting acidosis. Applying an electrocardiogram monitor is not the priority action.
Remember that in DKA, the initial treatment is short or rapid-acting insulin. Normal saline is administered initially; therefore, option 2 is incorrect.

28
Q
The nurse is completing an assessment on a client who is being admitted for a diagnostic workup for primary hyperparathyroidism. Which client complaint would be characteristic of this disorder?
A/ Diarrhea
B/ Polyuria
C/ Polyphagia 
D/ Weight gain
A

B/ Polyuria

Hypercalcemia is the hallmark of hyperparathyroidism. Elevated serum calcium levels produce osmotic diuresis and thus polyuria. This diuresis leads to dehydration (weight loss rather than weight gain).

Remember that hypercalcemia is associated with this disorder and that hypercalcemia leads to diuresis.

29
Q
The nurse is caring for a postoperative parathyroidectomy client. Which client complaint would indicate that a life-threatening complication may be developing, requiring notification of the health care provider immediately?
A/ Laryngeal stridor
B/ Abdominal cramps
C/ Difficulty in voiding
D/ Mild to moderate incisional pain
A

A/ Laryngeal stridor

During the postoperative period, the nurse carefully observes the client for signs of hemorrhage, which causes swelling and compression of adjacent tissue. Laryngeal stridor is a harsh, high-pitched sound heard on inspiration and expiration; stridor is caused by compression of the trachea, leading to respiratory distress. Stridor is an acute emergency situation that requires immediate attention to avoid complete obstruction of the airway.

30
Q

A client is diagnosed with pheochromocytoma. The nurse understands that pheochromocytoma is a condition that has which characteristic?
A/ Causes profound hypotension
B/ Is manifested by severe hypoglycemia
C/ Is not curable and is treated symptomatically
D/ Causes the release of excessive amounts of catecholamines

A

D/ Causes the release of excessive amounts of catecholamines

Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-producing tumor and causes secretion of excessive amounts of epinephrine and norepinephrine. Hypertension is the principal manifestation, and the client has episodes of high blood pressure accompanied by pounding headaches. The excessive release of catecholamine also results in excessive conversion of glycogen into glucose in the liver. Consequently, hyperglycemia and glucosuria occur during attacks. Pheochromocytoma is curable.

31
Q

The nurse is monitoring a client who was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus and is being treated with NPH and regular insulin. Which client complaint(s) would alert the nurse to the presence of a possible hypoglycemic reaction? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

  1. Tremors
  2. Anorexia
  3. Irritability
  4. Nervousness
  5. Hot, dry skin
  6. Muscle cramps
A
  1. Tremors
  2. Irritability
  3. Nervousness

Decreased blood glucose levels produce autonomic nervous system symptoms, which are manifested classically as nervousness, irritability, and tremors. Hot, dry skin is more likely to occur with hyperglycemia. Anorexia and Muscle cramps are unrelated to the signs of hypoglycemia. In hypoglycemia, usually the client feels hunger.

32
Q

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client with pheochromocytoma. Which assessment data would indicate a potential complication associated with this disorder?
A/ A coagulation time of 5 minutes
B/ A urinary output of 50 mL/hour
C/ A blood urea nitrogen level of 20 mg/dL
D/ A heart rate that is 90 beats/minute and irregular

A

D/ A heart rate that is 90 beats/minute and irregular

The complications associated with pheochromocytoma include hypertensive retinopathy and nephropathy, myocarditis, increased platelet aggregation, and stroke. Death can occur from shock, stroke, kidney failure, dysrhythmias, or dissecting aortic aneurysm. An irregular heart rate indicates the presence of a dysrhythmia. A coagulation time of 5 minutes is normal. A urinary output of 50 mL/hour is an adequate output. A blood urea nitrogen level of 20 mg/dL is a normal finding.

33
Q

The nursing instructor asks a student to describe the pathophysiology that occurs in Cushing’s disease. Which statement by the student indicates an accurate understanding of this disorder?
A/ “Cushing’s disease results from an over-secretion of insulin.”
B/ “Cushing’s disease results from an under-secretion of corticotropic hormones.”
C/ “Cushing’s disease results from an under-secretion of mineralocorticoid hormones.”
D/ “Cushing’s disease results from an increased pituitary secretion of adrenocorticotropic
hormone.”

A

D/ “Cushing’s disease results from an increased pituitary secretion of adrenocorticotropic
hormone.”

Cushing’s disease is a metabolic disorder characterized by abnormally increased secretion (endogenous) of cortisol,
caused by increased amounts of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) secreted by the pituitary gland. Addison’s disease is characterized by the hyposecretion of adrenal cortex hormones (glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids) from the adrenal gland, resulting in deficiency of the corticosteroid hormones.

34
Q
The nurse performs a physical assessment on a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Findings include a fasting blood glucose level of 6.6 mmol/L, temperature of 38.3° C, pulse of 88 beats/minute, respirations of 22 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 100/72 mm Hg. Which finding would be of most concern to the nurse?
A/ Pulse
B/ Respiration 
C/ Temperature
D/ Blood pressure
A

C/ Temperature

An elevated temperature may indicate infection. Infection is a leading cause of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome or diabetic ketoacidosis. The other findings noted in the question are within normal limits.

35
Q

The nurse is interviewing a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the treatment for this disorder?
A/ “I take oral insulin instead of shots.”
B/ “By taking these medications, I am able to eat more.”
C/ “When I become ill, I need to increase the number of pills I take.”
D/ “The medications I’m taking help release the insulin I already make.”

A

D/ “The medications I’m taking help release the insulin I already make.”

Clients with type 2 diabetes mellitus have decreased or impaired insulin secretion. Oral hypoglycemic agents are given to these clients to facilitate glucose uptake. Oral insulin is not available because of the breakdown of the insulin by digestion

36
Q

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has Cushing’s syndrome. Which client statement indicates that instructions related to dietary management are understood?
A/ “I will need to limit the amount of protein in my diet.”
B/ “I should eat foods that have a lot of potassium in them.”
C/ “I am fortunate that I can eat all the salty foods I enjoy.”
D/ “I am fortunate that I do not need to follow any special diet.”

A

B/ “I should eat foods that have a lot of potassium in them.”

A diet low in carbohydrates and sodium but ample in protein and potassium is encouraged for a client with Cushing’s syndrome. Such a diet promotes weight loss, reduction of edema and hypertension, control of hypokalemia, and rebuilding of wasted tissue.

eliminate option 3 because excess sodium is not normally healthy.

37
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following an abdominal hysterectomy. The client has a history of diabetes mellitus and has been receiving regular insulin according to capillary blood glucose testing four times a day. A carbohydrate- controlled diet has been prescribed but the client has been complaining of nausea and is not eating. On entering the client’s room, the nurse finds the client to be confused and diaphoretic. Which action is most appropriate at this time?
A/ Call a code to obtain needed assistance immediately.
B/ Obtain a capillary blood glucose level and perform a focused assessment.
C/ Ask the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to stay with the client while obtaining 15 to
30 g of a carbohydrate snack for the client to eat.
D/ Stay with the client and ask the UAP to call the health care provider (HCP) for a prescription for intravenous 50% dextrose.

A

B/ Obtain a capillary blood glucose level and perform a focused assessment.

Diaphoresis and confusion are signs of moderate hypoglycemia. A likely cause of the client’s change in condition could be related to the administration of insulin without the client eating enough food. However, an assessment is necessary to confirm the presence of hypoglycemia. The nurse would obtain a capillary blood glucose level to confirm the hypoglycemia and perform a focused assessment to determine the extent and cause of the client’s condition. Once hypoglycemia is confirmed, the nurse stays with the client and asks the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to obtain the appropriate carbohydrate snack. A code is called if the client is not breathing or if the heart is not beating.

38
Q
The nurse is caring for a client with pheochromocytoma who is scheduled for adrenalectomy. In the preoperative period, what should the nurse monitor as the priority?
A/ Vital signs
B/ Intake and output
C/ Blood urea nitrogen results 
D/ Urine for glucose and ketones
A

A/ Vital signs

Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-producing tumor. Hypertension is the hallmark of pheochromocytoma. Severe hypertension can precipitate a stroke or sudden blindness. Although all the options are accurate nursing interventions for the client with pheochromocytoma, the priority nursing action is to monitor the vital signs, particularly the blood pressure.

39
Q

The nurse is preparing a client with a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism for discharge. The nurse determines that the client understands discharge instructions if the client states that which symptoms are associated with this diagnosis? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

  1. Tremors
  2. Weight loss
  3. Feeling cold
  4. Loss of body hair
  5. Persistent lethargy
  6. Puffiness of the face
A
  1. Feeling cold
  2. Loss of body hair
  3. Persistent lethargy
  4. Puffiness of the face

Feeling cold, hair loss, lethargy, and facial puffiness are signs of hypothyroidism. Tremors and weight loss are signs of hyperthyroidism.

Options 1 and 2 can be eliminated if you remember that in hypothyroidism there is an under-secretion of thyroid hormone that causes the metabolism to slow down.

40
Q

A client has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which signs and symptoms may indicate thyroid storm, a complication of this disorder? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

  1. Fever
  2. Nausea
  3. Lethargy
  4. Tremors
  5. Confusion
  6. Bradycardia
A
  1. Fever
  2. Nausea
  3. Tremors
  4. Confusion

Thyroid storm is an acute and life-threatening condition that occurs in a client with uncontrollable hyperthyroidism. Symptoms of thyroid storm include elevated temperature (fever), nausea, and tremors. In addition, as the condition progresses, the client becomes confused. The client is restless and anxious and experiences tachycardia.

Options 3 and 6 can be eliminated if you remember that thyroid storm is caused by the release of thyroid hormones into the bloodstream, causing uncontrollable hyperthyroidism.

41
Q

The nurse is teaching a client how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which action, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching?
A/ Withdraws the NPH insulin first
B/ Withdraws the regular insulin first
C/ Injects air into NPH insulin vial first
D/ Injects an amount of air equal to the desired dose of insulin into each vial

A

A/ Withdraws the NPH insulin first

When preparing a mixture of short-acting insulin such as regular insulin with another insulin preparation, the short-acting insulin is drawn into the syringe first. This sequence will avoid contaminating the vial of short-acting insulin with insulin of another type.

Short-acting is clear, NPH (intermediate) is cloudy.

42
Q

The home care nurse visits a client recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily. The client asks the nurse how to store the unopened vials of insulin. The nurse should tell the client to take which action?
A/ Freeze the insulin.
B/ Refrigerate the insulin.
C/ Store the insulin in a dark, dry place.
D/ Keep the insulin at room temperature.

A

B/ Refrigerate the insulin.

Insulin in unopened vials should be stored under refrigeration until needed. Vials should not be frozen. When stored unopened under refrigeration, insulin can be used up to the expiration date on the vial.

43
Q

The health care provider (HCP) prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. The nurse should plan to take which most appropriate intervention?
A/ Withhold the medication and call the HCP, questioning the prescription for the client.
B/ Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
C/ Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administering the medication.
D/ Withdraw the insulin from the pre-filled pen into an insulin syringe to prepare for
administration.

A

A/ Withhold the medication and call the HCP, questioning the prescription for the client.

Exenatide (Byetta) is an incretin mimetic used for type 2 diabetes mellitus only. It is not recommended for clients taking insulin. Hence, the nurse should withhold the medication and question the HCP regarding this prescription. Although options 2 and 3 are correct statements about the medication, in this situation the medication should not be administered. The medication is packaged in prefilled pens ready for injection without the need for drawing it up into another syringe.

44
Q

A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin and regular insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instructions to the client?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

  1. Hypoglycemia may be experienced before dinnertime.
  2. The insulin dose should be decreased if illness occurs.
  3. The insulin should be administered at room temperature.
  4. The insulin vial needs to be shaken vigorously to break up the precipitates.
  5. The NPH insulin should be drawn into the syringe first, then the regular insulin.
A
  1. Hypoglycemia may be experienced before dinnertime.
  2. The insulin should be administered at room temperature.

Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin. The onset of action is 1.5 hours, it peaks in 4 to 12 hours, and its duration of action is 24 hours. Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin. Depending on the type, the onset of action is 0.5 hour, it peaks in 2 to 5.5 hours, and its duration is 5 to 8 hours. Hypoglycemic reactions most likely occur during peak time. Insulin should be at room temperature when administered. Clients may need their insulin dosages increased during times of illness. Insulin vials should never be shaken vigorously. Regular insulin is always drawn up before NPH.

45
Q

The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should provide which instructions to the client?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

  1. Diarrhea may occur secondary to the metformin.
  2. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
  3. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
  4. A simple sugar food item is carried and used to treat mild hypoglycemia episodes.
  5. Metformin increases hepatic glucose production to prevent hypoglycemia associated with
    repaglinide.
  6. Muscle pain is an expected effect of metformin and may be treated with acetaminophen
    (Tylenol).
A
  1. Diarrhea may occur secondary to the metformin.
  2. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
  3. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
  4. A simple sugar food item is carried and used to treat mild hypoglycemia episodes.

Repaglinide, a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic agent that stimulates pancreatic insulin secretion, should be taken before meals (approximately 30 minutes before meals) and should be withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide and the client should always be prepared by carrying a simple sugar with her or him at all times. Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic given in combination with repaglinide and works by decreasing hepatic glucose production. A common side effect of metformin is diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect from metformin but it might signify a more serious condition that warrants health care provider notification, not the use of acetaminophen.

46
Q

The community health nurse visits a client at home. Prednisone, 10 mg orally daily, has been prescribed for the client and the nurse teaches the client about the medication. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is necessary?
A/ “I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it.”
B/ “I need to take the medication every day at the same time.”
C/ “I need to avoid coffee, tea, cola, and chocolate in my diet.”
D/ “If I gain more than 5 pounds a week, I will call my health care provider (HCP).”

A

A/ “I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it.”

Aspirin and other over-the-counter medications should not be taken unless the client consults with the HCP. The client needs to take the medication at the same time every day and should be instructed not to stop the medication. A slight weight gain as a result of an improved appetite is expected, but after the dosage is stabilized, a weight gain of 5 pounds or more weekly should be reported to the HCP. Caffeine-containing foods and fluids need to be avoided because they may contribute to steroid-ulcer development.

47
Q
A patient returns to the ER, 7 days after being in a minor car accident. The client states that his lower back pain has had little relief, and complains of feeling lethargic. Upon assessment, the nurse notes his urine sample is brownish-red and that he cannot lift his hands or legs without tremendous effort. Based upon these assessment findings, the nurse suspects the client is suffering from:
A/ Acute Renal injury
B/ Undiagnosed Spinal cord compression
C/ Rhabdomyolysis
D/ Multiple Myeloma
A

C/ Rhabdomyolysis

Rhabdomyolysis is a serious syndrome due to direct or indirect muscle injury. As muscle fibres die, they release their contents into their blood stream, which can lead to renal failure. As the kidney’s cannot excrete these toxins as fast as they are produced, these toxins build up in the blood stream and can lead to possible death. The classic triad of Rhabdomyolysis is Muscle pain, Muscle weakness or trouble moving extremities, and dark red or brown urine or dysuria.

Blood tests for creatine kinase (product of muscle breakdown) and urine tests for myoglobin (released from damaged muscles)

48
Q
A nurse is caring for a client with Rhabdomyolysis, while waiting for the client's lab results to return, the nurse can anticipate the client to be experiencing which of the follow?
A/ Anemia
B/ Hyperkalemia
C/ Hypoaldosteronism
D/ Hyponatremia
A

B/ Hyperkalemia

This typically due to either renal insufficiency or failure and the amount of muscle injury releasing Potassium in the ECF. Hypocalemica is another common metabolic sequelae.

Treatment includes IV fluids to prevent further kidney damage and prevent kidney failure, along side maintaining metabolic homeostasis (Potassium, calcium, phosphorus, etc).

49
Q

A nurse in the ER is expecting a patient with Diabetic ketoacidosis. What signs and symptoms will they expect to see?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A/ Diaphoresis
B/ Retinopathy
C/ Acetone Breath
D/ Increased Bicarbonate levels
E/ Decreased arterial CO2
F/ Kussmaul's Respirations
A

C/ Acetone Breath
E/ Decreased arterial CO2
F/ Kussmaul’s Respirations

Fruity odor on the breath (acetone) is expected as ketone levels increase. Metabolic acidosis forces respiratory compensation in the form of Kussmaul’s Respirations which try to counteract the increase in Acidic Ketones; thus reducing CO2 levels.

Diaphoresis occurs in hypoglycemia as the SNS is activated and epinephrine is released causing the person to sweat. Serum Bicarbonate is decreased in an effort to neutralize ketones in an effort to maintain homeostasis.

50
Q
A client with Type 1 diabetes is wondering what may have precipitated their recent diagnosis of Diabetic Ketoacidosis. The nurse notes that which of the following likely contributed?
A/ Increased exercise
B/ Decreased food intake
C/ Working the night shift
D/ Upper respiratory tract infection
A

D/ Upper respiratory tract infection

Infection causes the release of adrenocortical secretions of glucocorticoids that increase blood glucose levels.

Exercise decreases blood glucose levels as will decreased food intake.

51
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with Cushing’s syndrome. Why should the nurse monitor for clinical signs of diabetes mellitus?
A/ Cortical Hormones stimulate rapid weight loss
B/ Tissue catabolism results in a negative nitrogen balance
C/ Glucocorticoids accelerate the process of gluco-neogenesis
D/ Excessive adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion (ACTH) damages pancreatic tissues needed for blood sugar control

A

C/ Glucocorticoids accelerate the process of gluco-neogenesis

Excessive glucocorticoids causes hyperglycemia and signs of diabeetus.

Weight gain is expected.

ACTH causes sodium retention and subsequent weight gain and is usually caused by diabeetus.

52
Q

A client with Addisonian crisis exhibits severe manifestations of glucocorticoid and mineralcorticoid deficiencies. Which of the following does the nurse expect to see in the client?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A/ Bradycardia
B/ Hypertension
C/ Hyperkalemia
D/ Hyponatremia
E/ Postural Hypotension
A

C/ Hyperkalemia
D/ Hyponatremia
E/ Postural Hypotension

Hyponatremia also coincides with Hyperkalemia and hyponatremia occurs because of glucocorticoid and mineral corticoid deficiency.

Tachycardia, NOT bradycardia is expected and occurs as a result of severe hypovolemia. Hypotension occurs instead of HTN due to sodium and water losses that accompany glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiencies.

53
Q
Which clinical indicator should the nurse expect to find in a patient with Diabetic Ketoacidosis?
A/ Increase pH
B/ Decreased PO2
C/ Increased PCO2
D/ Decreased HCO3-
A

D/ Decreased HCO3-

The bicarbonate buffer system helps to maintain pH and in metabolic acidosis there is a decline in Bicarbonate due to the increase in metabolic acids.

pH is decreased (acidic)
Oxygen pressure is not decreased in DKA, and carbon dioxide would be decreased to help compensate for the acidotic state.

54
Q

Hydrocortisone is prescribed for a client with Addison’s Disease. Before discharge, the nurse teaches the client about this medication. What did the nurse state as a therapeutic effect of this drug?
A/ Supports a better response to stress
B/ Promotes a decrease in blood pressure
C/ Decreases episodes of shortness of breath
D/ Controls an excessive loss of K+ from the body

A

A/ Supports a better response to stress

Hydrocortisone is a glucocorticoid that has an anti-inflammatory action that aids in the metabolism of carbs, fats, and proteins, thus causing an elevation in blood glucose levels. This enables the body to adapt to stress.

It may promote fluid retention that results in edema and hypertension. It may cause K+ depletion.

55
Q

Which of the following indicates the client is experiencing Hyperglycemia?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A/ Poluria
B/ Polydipsia
C/ Paralytic Ileus
D/ Serum glucose of 5.8mmol/L
E/ Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min
A

A/ Poluria
B/ Polydipsia

Glucose that is being filtered by the kidneys acts as an osmotic diuretic; glycosuria promotes polyuria.

Polydipsia is a response to rapid fluid loss related to polyuria.

Paralytic ileus is not related. Their glucose reading is normal.

With hyperglycemia, there may be hyperventilation in an attempt to blow off CO2 if ketones are produced.

56
Q
A client with newly diagnosed type I diabetes is given 15g of simple sugars as prescribed. Why would they be given this when experiencing hypoglycemia?
A/ Inhibits glycogenesis
B/ Stimulates release of insulin
C/ Increases blood glucose levels
D/ Provides mores storage of glucose
A

C/ Increases blood glucose levels

A simple sugar provides glucose to the blood for rapid action. It does NOT inhibit glycogenesis or stimulates the release of insulin in a patient with Type I. It does NOT stimulate the storage of glucose.

57
Q
A client is scheduled for an adrenalectomy. Which nursing intervention should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed for the client?
A/ IV steroids
B/ High-protein diet
C/ Collect 24-hr urine specimen
D/ Withhold all medications for 48 hours
A

A/ IV steroids

Steroid therapy is started preoperatively and continued intraoperatively to prepare for the acute adrenal insufficiency that follows surgery. The diet must be ample, not high in protein and potassium; low in calories and carbs and sodium to promote weight loss and reduce fluid retention. 24-hr urine is not needed.

58
Q

Immediately after a subtotal thyroidectomy, the nurse plans to assess a client for unilateral injury of the laryngeal nerve every 30-60 minutes by:
A/ Checking the throat for edema
B/ Asking the client to say what the current time is
C/ Eliciting spasms of the facial muscles
D/ Palpating the neck for seepage of blood

A

B/ Asking the client to say what the current time is

If the laryngeal nerve is damaged, the client’s voice will be hoarse and they will have difficulty speaking. Checking the throat for edema does not indicate damage to the laryngeal nerve; this would assess for throat swelling.