CARDIAC Flashcards

1
Q
A nurse is monitoring an infant with congenital heart disease closely for signs of heart failure. What should the nurse assess as an early sign of HF in infants?
A/ Pallor
B/ Cough
C/ Tachycardia
D/ Slow and Shallow Breathing
A

C/ Tachycardia

HF is the inability of the heart to effectively pump blood to meet oxygen and metabolic demand. Early signs include:
Tachycardia
Tachypnea
Profuse Scalp Sweating
Fatigue and irritability
Sudden weight gain
Respiratory distress

A cough may occur as a result of mucosal swelling and irritation, but not an early sign.

Pallor may also be noted, but is not an early sign.

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2
Q
The nurse reviews the lab results of a child suspected of having Rheumatic Fever. Knowing this, which lab result should the nurse study in confirming the diagnosis?
A/ Immunoglobulin
B/ RBC count
C/ WBC count
D/ Anti-steptolysin O titer
A

D/ Anti-steptolysin O titer

Rheumatic fever affects connective tissues of the heart, joints, skin, blood vessels, and CNS.
Evidence of a recent Streptococcal infection if confirmed by a positive Anti-steptolysin O titer.

All other options would not indicate this specific diagnosis.

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3
Q

The nurse provides home care instructions to the parents of a child with heart failure regarding the procedure for administration of digoxin. Which statement made by the parent indicates the need for further instruction?
A/ “I will not mix the medication with food”
B/ “I will take my child’s pulse before administering the medication”
C/ “If more than one dose is missed, i will call the HCP”
D/ “If my child vomits after administration, I should repeat the dose”

A

D/ Emesis + repeat dose

Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that makes more calcium available for contractile proteins; thereby resulting in increased cardiac output, increased force of contractions, decreased HR, and decreased AV conduction speed.

They should not repeat a dose after emesis. Digoxin toxicity is a dangerous and medical emergency

Options A/B/C are correct responses

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4
Q

The nurse is closely monitoring the intake and output of an infant with heart failure who is receiving diuretic therapy. The nurse should use which most appropriate method to assess the urine output?
A/ Weighing the diapers
B/ Inserting a foley Catheter
C/ Comparing intake with output
D/ Measuring the amount of water added to formula

A

A/ Weighing Diapers

HF is the inability of the heart to pump effectively to meet the demands of the body. The most appropriate method is the weigh diapers.

Comparing intake and output would not be accurate measure of urine output.

Measuring formula water dose not gain urinary output

Foley catheter may be most accurate, it places infant at the risk of infection and is not the most appropriate.

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5
Q
The clinic nurse reviews the record of a child just seen by a health care provider and diagnosed with suspected aortic stenosis. The nurse expects to note documentation of which clinical manifestation specifically found in this disorder?
A/ Pallor
B/ Hyperactivity
C/ Exercise intolerance
D/ Gastrointestinal Disturbances
A

C/ Exercise intolerance

Aortic stenosis is a narrowing or stricture of the aortic valve, causing resistance to blood flow in the left ventricle, decreased cardiac out, left ventricular hypertrophy, and pulmonary vascular congestion. This child will shows signs of exercise intolerance, chest pain, and dizziness when standing for long periods.

Pallor may be noted, but is not specific to this type of disorder alone.

B/D are not related

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6
Q

The nurse has provided home care instructions to the parents of a child who is being discharged after cardiac surgery. Which statement made by the parents indicates a need for further instructions?
A/ “A balance of rest and exercise is important.”
B/ “I can apply lotion or powder to the incision if it is itchy.”
C/ “Activities in which my child could fall need to be avoided for 2 to 4 weeks.”
D/ “Large crowds of people need to be avoided for at least 2 weeks after surgery.”

A

B/ Lotion & powder

Lotions and powders should not be applied if itchy of uncomfortable. These can irritate the skin and lead to skin breakdown and subsequent infection of the incision site.

All other options are okay postoperatively.

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7
Q

A child with rheumatic fever will be arriving in the nursing unit for admission. On admission assessment, the nurse should ask the parents which question to elicit assessment information specific to the development of rheumatic fever?
A/ “Has the child complained of back pain?”
B/ “Has the child complained of headaches?”
C/ “Has the child had any nausea or vomiting?”
D/ “Did the child have a sore throat or fever within the last 2 months?”

A

D/ Sick in last 2 months?

Rheumatic fever is an inflammatory autoimmune disease that affects the connective tissues of the heart, koints, skin, blood vessels, and CNS. It manifests characteristically 2-6 weeks after an untreated or partially treated group A Beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection of the upper respiratory tract.

All other options are unrelated to illness.

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8
Q

A health care provider has prescribed oxygen as needed for an infant with heart failure. In which situation should the nurse administer the oxygen to the infant?
A/ During sleep
B/ When changing the infant’s diapers
C/ When the mother is holding the infant
D/ When drawing blood for electrolyte level testing

A

D/ When drawing blood

Cyring exhausts the baby’s limited energy supply and increases the workload of the heart along with O2 demands. O2 should be administered during stressful periods

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9
Q
A client returns from a left heart catheterization. The right groin was used for catheter access. Which which location should the nurse palpate the distal pulse on this client?
A/ Anterior to the right tibia
B/ Dorsal surface of the right foot
C/ Posterior to the right knee
D/ Right mid-inguinal area
A

B/ Dorsal foot

When the left side of the heart is catheterized, the cannula enters an artery. While all the options are arteries on the right leg, the foot provides the most dorsal location. Blood may be actively pumping at other regions but be less present or absent at the most dorsal region (the foot).

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10
Q
A client is admitted with chest pain and kept overnight for stress testing in the morning. Prior to sending the client to the stress test, the nurse reviews the lab work for the client. The nurse should report an elevation of which lab value to the HCP prior to the test?
A/ Cholesterol
B/ Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
C/ Prothrombin Time
D/ Troponin
A

D/ Troponin

Elevated troponin levels indicated myocardial tissue damage and would be contraindicated in stress testing.

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11
Q
A client with chest pain is given IV nitroglycerin. Which assessment if of greatest concern for the nurse initiating the IV drip?
A/ Serum K+ of 3.5mEq/L
B/ Blood pressure 88/46 mmHg
C/ ST elevation is present on the ECG
D/ Heart rate is 61 bpm
A

B/ Blood pressure 88/46 mmHg

The client is hypotensive and nitroglycerin will greatly increase this affect.

Although an elevated ST is concerning, it could also be expected if the client is receiving nitro drip.

All other values are within normal ranges.

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12
Q

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with an anterior MI 2 days ago. Upon assessment, the nurse notes a systolic murmur at the apex. The nurse should first:
A/ Assess for changes in vital signs
B/ Draw arterial blood gases
C/ Evaluate heart sounds with client leaning forward
D/ Obtain a 12-lead ECG

A

A/ Assess for changes in vital signs

Obtaining Vitals will reflect the severity of the sudden drop in cardiac out:
Decrease in BP
Tachycardia
Tachypnea

Infarction of the papillary muscles is a potential complication post-MI, and causes ineffective Mitral valve operation during systole. Mitral regurgitation results when the Left ventricle contracts and blood flows back into the Left atrium. This can be heard in the 5th intercostal space, left midclavicular line.

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13
Q

A client with acute chest pain is given IV morphine. Which of the following is an expected effect of morphine?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

1/ Reduced myocardial oxygen consumption
2/ Promotes reduction in respiratory rate
3/ Prevents ventricular remodelling
4/ Reduces BP and HR
5/ Reduces Anxiety and Fear
A

1/ Reduced myocardial oxygen consumption
4/ Reduces BP and HR
5/ Reduces Anxiety and Fear

Morphine acts as an analgesic and sedative, and reduces myocardial oxygen consumption, blood pressure, and heart rate. It also reduces anxiety and fear due to its sedative effects and by slowing heart rate.

It can depress respirations, however such an effect may lead to hypoxia and would not be an EXPECTED effect during this course of treatment.

ACE-inhibitors prevent cardiac remodelling, not morphine.

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14
Q

The nurse as completed the assessment on a client with decreased cardiac output. Which finding should receive the highest priority?
A/ BP 110/62, A-fib with HR 82, Bilateral basilar crackles
B/ Confusion, urine output 15mL over last 2 hours, orthopnea
C/ Sp02 92% on 2L nasal cannula, respirations 20/min, 1+ edema in lower extremities
D/ Weight gain of 1kg in 3 days, BP 130/80, mild dyspnea with exercise

A

B/ Confusion, urine output 15mL over last 2 hours, orthopnea

A low urine output and confusion are signs of decreased tissue perfusion. Orthopnea is a sign of L-sided HF. Crackles, edema, and weight gain should be monitored closely, but are not at the highest priority. With A-fib, there is a loss of atrial kick, but the BP and their HR are normal.

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15
Q
The nurse observes the clients Heart rate drop from 62 bpm to 50 bpm on the monitor. The nurse should first:
A/ Give atropine 0.5mg IV push
B/ Auscultate for abnormal heart sounds
C/ Prepare for transcutaneous pacing
D/ Take the client's BP
A

D/ Take the client’s BP

Assess their tolerance to the recent bradycardia by checking their BP and level of consciousness to determine if atropine is needed.

If they are symptomatic, Atropine and transcutaneous pacing are interventions for bradycardia.

Transcutaneous pacing is the placement of Resuscitation pads on the client that directly traces cardiac rate and rhythm

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16
Q
A 60-year-old comes to the Emergency room complaining os severe mid-sternal chest pain that radiates to her left shoulder and arm. The initial diagnosis is an acute MI. Admission prescriptions include O2 by nasal cannula at 4L/min, CBC tests, chest radiograph, and morphine given IV. The nurse should first:
A/ Give Morphine IV
B/ Obtain 12- lead ECG
C/ Obtain blood work
D/ Prescribe chest radiograph
A

A/ Morphine

Although an ECG, Chest XRAY, and blood work are important, managing their severe pain is of upmost importance. Especially since pain elevates pulse, blood pressure, and respiratory effort.

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17
Q

A client admitted for an acute MI has developed cardiogenic shock. An arterial line is inserted. Which prescription should the nurse verify with the HCP prior to giving?
A/ Call for urine out less than 30mL/h for 2 hours
B/ Give Metoprolol 5mg IV push
C/ Prepare for a pulmonary artery catheter insertion
D/ Titrate dobutamine to keep systolic BP above 100mmHg.

A

B/ Give Metoprolol 5mg IV push

Metoprolol is indicated in the treatment of hemodynamically stable clients with acute MI to reduce cardiovascular mortality. Cardiogenic shock causes severe hemodynamic instability and a beta-blocker like Metoprolol will further depress myocardial contractility. The decrease in cardiac output will impair kidney perfusion.

Dobutamine will improve cardiac contracility and increase cardiac output that is depressed due to cardiogenic shock

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18
Q

The HCP prescribes continuous nitroglycerin IV infusion for a client with Myocardial infarction. The nurse should:
A/ Obtain an infusion pump for the medication
B/ Take blood pressure q4h
C/ Monitor urine output hourly
D/ Obtain serum K+ levels daily

A

A/ Obtain an infusion pump for the medication

Nitroglycerin always needs an electronic fusion pump to ensure accuracy. Blood pressure should be done with a continuous system and much more frequently than q4h.

C/ and D/ are not associated with Nitroglycerin IV

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19
Q
While caring for a client who has sustained an MI, the nurse notes 8 PVCs in a 1 minute time period on the ECG. The client is receiving an IV infusion of D5W 125mL/h and O2 at 2L/min. The nurse should first:
A/ Increase IV fluids to 150mL/hr
B/ Notify the HCP
C/ Increase oxygen to 4L/min
D/ Administer prescribed analgesic
A

B/ Notify the HCP

PVCs are often the precursor of life-threatening arrhythmias and V-fib. Occasional PVCs are not considered dangerous until you reach around 6/min, especially in a post MI client.

The HCP should be notified, and this will usually call for decreasing ventricular irritability which is done through the administration of Lidocaine hydrochloride

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20
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who recently had an MI and is currently on Clopidogrel. The nurse should develop a teaching plan that includes which points?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A/ Report unexpected bleeding or bleeding that lasts a long time
B/ Take Clopidogrel with food
C/ Client may bruise more easily and may experience bleeding gums
D/ Clopidogrel works by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots
E/ Drink a glass of water after taking Clopidogrel

A

A/ Report unexpected bleeding or bleeding that lasts a long time
C/ Client may bruise more easily and may experience bleeding gums
D/ Clopidogrel works by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots

It is generally well absorbed when taken with food and can be taken without. Should be taken at the same time each day.

Bleeding is the most common side effect, and they must understand the importance of reporting any unwanted bleeding or profuse bleeding.

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21
Q

Who is at the greatest risk for Coronary artery disease?
A/ 32-year-old female with Mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago
B/ 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and a cholesterol level of 8.8mmol/L
C/ 56-year-old male with an HDL of 3.3mmol/L who takes atorvastatin
D/ 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 10.4mmol/L

A

D/ 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 10.4mmol/L

The combination of postmenopausal, obesity, high LDL places this client at greatest risk.

Men over 45, women over 55, smoking, and obesity increases the risk for CAD.

Atorvastatin reduces LDL and decreased the risk of CAD

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22
Q
When monitoring a client who is given t-PA theray, the nurse should have resuscitation equipment nearby because of the re-perfusion of cardiac tissue can result in:
A/ Cardiac arrhythmias
B/ Hypertension
C/ Seizures
D/ Hypothermia
A

A/ Cardiac arrhythmias

These arrhythmias are associated with re-perfusion of cardiac tissue. Hypotension is commonly associated with t-PA, not hypertension. Options C/ and D/ are not associated.

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23
Q
Prior to giving t-PA therapy to a client, the nurse should monitor for which contraindication to therapy?
A/ Age over 60 years
B/ History of cerebral hemorrhage
C/ History of HF
D/ Cigarette smoking
A

B/ History of cerebral hemorrhage

t-PA therapy increases the risk of hemorrhaging.

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24
Q
A 56-year-old male is being admitted to the hospital with a history of hypertension and informs the nurse that his father died from a heart attack at 60 years old. The client reports having indigestion. The nurse connects the client to an ECG monitor which then reveals 8 PVCs in the course of 1 minute. The nurse should next:
A/ Contact the HCP immediately
B/ Start 2 IV lines
C/ Obtain a portable chest XRAY
D/ Draw blood for lab results
A

B/ Start 2 IV lines

Advanced cardiac life support recommends at least 1 or 2 IV lines are started in antecubital spaces (Elbow pit).

All other options are important and should be done quickly, however, IV is most important in this condition.

Why? From my experiences in the ER, I was told it is “easier to start any IV on someone alive then dead.”

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25
Q

A 68-year-old on day 2 after hip-surgery states he is having chest heaviness. He has no history of cardiac issues. The nurse should first:
A/ Inquire about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness
B/ Give oxygen via nasal cannula
C/ Offer pain medications for chest heaviness
D/ Inform the HCP of the symptom

A

A/ Inquire about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness

It is too early to initiate other actions until more information is gathered. Inquiring about onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness will provide you more information to convey to the HCP if needed.

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26
Q

Which symptom should the nurse teach the client with unstable angina to report immediately the the HCP?
A/ A change in the pattern of chest pain
B/ Pain during sexual activity
C/ Pain during an argument
D/ Pain during or after physical activity

A

A/ A change in the pattern of chest pain

A change in pain patterns may indicate increasing severity of coronary occlusion and disease.

Pain may be expected with all other activities, and Nitro should be taken prior to each one if possible.

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27
Q

A client complains to the nurse that every time they take their Nitroglycerin, they get a severe headache. The nurse should instruct the client that:
A/ Tylenol or Advil can be taken for this common side effect
B/ Nitroglycerin should be avoided if the headache interrupts activities of daily living
C/ Taking your nitroglycerin with a few glasses of water will alleviate this issue.
D/ The client should lie in a supine position to avoid this side effect

A

A/ Tylenol or Advil can be taken for this common side effect

This is a common side effect. Give Tylenol or Advil

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28
Q
A client with Chronic Heart failure also has A-fib and left ventricular ejection fraction of 15%. The client is taking warfarin. The expected outcome of the drug is to:
A/ Decrease circulatory overload
B/ Improve myocardial workload
C/ Prevent thrombus formation
D/ Regulate cardiac rhythm
A

C/ Prevent thrombus formation

Warfarin is an anticoagulant used in the treatment of A-fib and left ventricular ejection fractions below 20%. They prevent thrombus formation.

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29
Q
A client with a history of Heart failure has been prescribed Lasix, Digoxin, and KCl. The client has nausea, blurred vision, headache and weakness. The nurse notes the client is also confused. Based on these findings, the nurse should expect this outcome as a result of:
A/ Hyperkalemia
B/ Digoxin Toxicity
C/ Fluid deficit
D/ Pulmonary edema
A

B/ Digoxin Toxicity

Early signs of toxicity with Digoxin include:
Anorexia
Nausea and Vomiting
Visual disturbances can also occur (blurred or double)

Hypokalemia is associated with Digoxin toxicity.

Pulmonary edema is manifested by dyspnea and coughing

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30
Q
The nurse should assess the client with Left sided Heart failure for which findings?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A/ Dyspnea 
B/ Jugular vein distention
C/ Crackles
D/ RUQ pain
E/ Oliguria
F/ Decreased Oxygen Saturation levels
A

A/ Dyspnea
C/ Crackles
E/ Oliguria
F/ Decreased Oxygen Saturation levels

These are all signs of symptoms associated with pulmonary congestion and inadequate tissue perfusion associated with L sided HF.

31
Q

Which of the following are indications that a client with Left-sided heart failure is developing pulmonary edema?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A/ Distended Jugular veins
B/ Dependent edema
C/ Anorexia
D/ Coarse Crackles
E/ Tachycardia
A

D/ Coarse Crackles
E/ Tachycardia

Signs of pulmonary edema are identical to those of acute heart failure. Signs and symptoms are generally apparent in the respiratory system and include coarse crackles, severe dyspnea, and tachypnea.

Blood pressure may be elevated or decreased depending on the severity of the edema.

32
Q

Which position is best for a client with heart failure experiencing orthopnea?
A/ Low fowler’s with legs elevated on pillows
B/ Lying on right side with a pillow between their legs
C/ High Fowler’s with legs resting on bed
D/ Trendelenburg’s position and legs elevated

A

C/ High Fowler’s with legs resting on bed

Sitting almost upright in bed with the feet and legs resting on the bed decreases venous return to the heart, thus reducing myocardial workload. Sitting also allows for maximal lung expansion.

33
Q
What is the major goal of nursing care for a client with heart failure and pulmonary edema?
A/ Increase cardiac output
B/ Improve respiratory status
C/ Decrease peripheral edema
D/ Enhance comfort
A

A/ Increase cardiac output

Increasing cardiac output is a main goal associated with heart failure (why people are given digoxin to improve contractility and therefore output)

Pulmonary edema is a medical emergency requiring intervention; however, Respiratory status and comfort will be improved when cardiac output is increased.

34
Q
How soon should a nurse see evidence of furosemide IV therapy working in her client?
A/ 5-10 minutes
B/ 30-60 minutes
C/ 2-4 hours
D/ 6-8 hours
A

A/ 5-10 minutes

When given IV, furosemide works within 5 minutes with the peak around 30 minutes. The effects of the drug given IV can last for a few hours. When taken PO or IM, the drug is slower to work but lasts longer in the system.

35
Q
The nurse should assess the client for Digoxin toxicity if serum levels indicate:
A/ Hyponatremia
B/ Hyperglycemia
C/ Hypercalcemia
D/ Hypokalemia
A

D/ Hypokalemia

A low serum potassium predisposes the client to Digoxin toxicity because potassium inhibits cardiac excitability. Therefore, a low potassium levels would mean the client is at an increased risk of cardiac excitability.

36
Q

When assessing an older adult, the nurse notes the presence of the apical pulse at the 6th intercostal space. The nurse should further assess the client for:
A/ Left atrial enlargement
B/ Left ventricular enlargement
C/ Mediastinal shift secondary to pulmonary edema
D/ Nothing as this is expected in older clients

A

B/ Left ventricular enlargement

Normally the apex is located at the base of the heart which is the 5th intercostal space mid-clavicular line. Any apical noting below the 5th intercostal space may indicate left ventricular enlargement.

37
Q
A client has been diagnosed with hypomagnesemia and QT interval of 0.5 seconds. Which of these, if noted on the cardiac monitor, is an indication that the patient's condition is worsening?
A/ Premature ventricular contractions
B/ Narrow QRS complex
C/ An R-R interval of 1 second
D/ A polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
A

D/ A polymorphic ventricular tachycardia

The patient’s history of hypomagensemia and prolonged QT interval puts the patient at risk of developing Torsades de Pointes, which is a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can potentially degenerate into V-fib

A R-R interval of 1 seconds indicated a HR of roughly 60bpm, which is normal

A Narrow QRS complex is associated with a variety of tachycardic-symptoms, but is not expected in this situation

38
Q

The HCP is examining an ECG and notes the PR interval is 6 small boxes in length. What is the significance of this finding?
A/ Stress is causing sympathetic stimulation
B/ This is an expected finding
C/ There could be scar tissue in the ventricles
D/ There may be a delay through the AV node

A

D/ There may be a delay through the AV node

The PR interval is longer than normal, which is an indication of a delay in impulse conduction through the AV node.

A normal PR interval is roughly 0.12-0.2 seconds, which is 3-5 small boxes. A small box equals 0.04 seconds.

39
Q
When caring for a patient with a cardiac dysrhythmia, which lab value is a priority for the nurse?
A/ BUN and creatinine
B/ Na+, K+, Ca+
C/ Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
D/ Prothrombin and INR
A

B/ Na+, K+, Ca+

Abnormalities in Sodium, potassium and calcium can affect depolarization and repolarization of cardiac cells, it is important to monitor these values.

PT and INR are important for patients on Warfarin.

BUN and creatinine are important to monitor for patients who are receiving any drug. It is a measure of Renal function.

40
Q
The HCP has ordered Indomethacin to an infant with a patent ductus arteriosus. Which intervention is a priority to implement?
A/ Assess peripheral pulses
B/ Auscultate Lung sounds
C/ Monitor Urine output
D/ Monitor Heart rate and Rhythm
A

C/ Monitor Urine output

One function of endogenous prostaglandins is the maintenance of glomerular filtration, so the HCP will want to ensure adequate urine output before the drug is given. Discontinue if there is a dramatic decline in urine volume.

Indomethacin inhibits prostaglandins, which are essential compounds for the body.

41
Q
A client arrives in the ER complaining of chest pain and dizziness. They have a history of Angina. The HCP prescribed an ECG and lab tests. A change in what component of the ECG tracing should the nurse recognize as a sign of a Myocardial Infarction?
A/ QRS complex
B/ ST segment
C/ P wave
D/ R wave
A

B/ ST segment

A displacement of the ST segment is cased by active ischemic injury in the myocardium.

42
Q
A nurse is listening to the client's heart sounds. Which values close when the first heart sounds are produced?
A/ Mitral and Tricuspid
B/ Aortic and Tricuspid
C/ Mitral and Pulmonic
D/ Aortic and Pulmonic
A

A/ Mitral and Tricuspid

Closure of the atrioventricular valves produces the first heart sounds (S1). These are semi-lunar valves; closure of these valves produces the second Heart sound.

43
Q

A patient is experiencing postoperative hemorrhaging, and the ECG does not produce a pulse. What actions should be initiated to resolve this patient’s problem?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A/ Defibrillation
B/ IV fluids
C/ Epinephrine
D/ CPR
E/ Vasoconstrictors
F/ Synchronized cardioversion
A

B/ IV fluids
C/ Epinephrine
D/ CPR
E/ Vasoconstrictors

The client is experiencing Pulseless Electrical activity (PEA) and is not a shockable rhythm. To resolve the underlying cause of PEA is the priority action; therefore, the underlying cause in this situation is hypovolemia due to hemorrhagic blood loss. This can be treated by IV fluids, Epinephrine, CPR, and vasoconstrictors.

44
Q

What criteria will the nurse use to identify atrial flutter for a patient on a cardiac monitor?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A/ Presence of a saw-tooth pattern
B/ Irregular R-R intervals
C/ QRS complex is normal
D/ PR interval is unmeasurable
E/ Presence of PVCs
A

A/ Presence of a saw-tooth pattern
C/ QRS complex is normal
D/ PR interval is unmeasurable

The atrial rate is roughly 250-400 bpm and is so fast the AV node can’t conduct all the impulses to the ventricles, the ventricular rate is typically 75-150bpm. This means the ventricular rate will be normal, so the R-R interval is NOT irregular. The characteristic pattern in A-flutter is a saw-toothed pattern, normal QRS, regular R-R intervals.

45
Q
An infant is scheduled for closure of their VSD. Which of the following problems is therefore prevented the following problem:
A/ Failure to thrive
B/ Ventricular dysrhythmias
C/ Heart block
D/ Respiratory Alkalosis
A

A/ Failure to thrive

Infants with congenital defects often find it challenging to feed when pulmonary circulation is increased because it makes it harder for them to coordinate sucking, swallowing, and breathing. They also have increased metabolic needs. Both these factors increase the likelihood of inadequate weight gain and possible failure to thrive.

46
Q

A client admitted to the hospital with chest pain and a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for cardiac catheterization. Which medication would need to be withheld for 24 hours before the procedure and for 48 hours after the procedure?

  1. Regular insulin
  2. Glipizide
  3. Repaglinide
  4. Metformin
A
  1. Metformin

Metformin (Glucophage) needs to be withheld 24 hours before and for 48 hours after cardiac catheterization because of the injection of contrast medium during the procedure. If the contrast medium affects kidney function, with metformin in the system, the client would be at increased risk for lactic acidosis. The medications in the remaining options do not need to be withheld 24 hours before and 48 hours after cardiac catheterization.

47
Q

A client in sinus bradycardia, with a heart rate of 45 beats/minute, complains of dizziness and
has a blood pressure of 82/60 mm Hg. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate will be prescribed?
1. Defibrillate the client.
2. Administer digoxin (Lanoxin).
3. Continue to monitor the client.
4. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing.

A
  1. Prepare for transcutaneous pacing.

Hypotension and dizziness are signs of decreased cardiac output. Transcutaneous pacing provides a temporary measure to increase the heart rate and thus perfusion in the symptomatic client. Defibrillation is used for treatment of pulseless ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. Digoxin will further decrease the client’s heart rate. Continuing to monitor the client delays necessary intervention.

48
Q

The nurse in a medical unit is caring for a client with heart failure. The client suddenly develops extreme dyspnea, tachycardia, and lung crackles and the nurse suspects pulmonary edema. The nurse immediately asks another nurse to contact the health care provider and prepares to implement which priority interventions? Select all that apply.

  1. Administering oxygen
  2. Inserting a Foley catheter
  3. Administering furosemide (Lasix)
  4. Administering morphine sulfate intravenously
  5. Transporting the client to the coronary care unit
  6. Placing the client in a low Fowler’s side-lying position
A
  1. Administering oxygen
  2. Inserting a Foley catheter
  3. Administering furosemide (Lasix)
  4. Administering morphine sulfate intravenously

Pulmonary edema is a life-threatening event that can result from severe heart failure. In pulmonary edema, the left ventricle fails to eject sufficient blood, and pressure increases in the lungs because of the accumulated blood. Oxygen is always prescribed, and the client is placed in a high Fowler’s position to ease the work of breathing. Furosemide, a rapid-acting diuretic, will eliminate accumulated fluid. A Foley catheter is inserted to measure output accurately. Intravenously administered morphine sulfate reduces venous return (preload), decreases anxiety, and also reduces the work of breathing. Transporting the client to the coronary care unit is not a priority intervention. In fact, this may not be necessary at all if the client’s response to treatment is successful.

49
Q

A client with myocardial infarction is developing cardiogenic shock. Because of the risk of myocardial ischemia, what condition should the nurse carefully assess the client for?

  1. Bradycardia
  2. Ventricular dysrhythmias
  3. Rising diastolic blood pressure
  4. Falling central venous pressure
A
  1. Ventricular dysrhythmias

Classic signs of cardiogenic shock as they relate to myocardial ischemia include low blood pressure and tachycardia. The central venous pressure would rise as the backward effects of the severe left ventricular failure became apparent. Dysrhythmias commonly occur as a result of decreased oxygenation and severe damage to greater than 40% of the myocardium.

50
Q

A client has frequent bursts of ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor. What should the nurse be most concerned about with this dysrhythmia?

  1. It can develop into ventricular fibrillation at any time.
  2. It is almost impossible to convert to a normal rhythm.
  3. It is uncomfortable for the client, giving a sense of impending doom.
  4. It produces a high cardiac output that quickly leads to cerebral and myocardial ischemia.
A
  1. It can develop into ventricular fibrillation at any time.

Ventricular tachycardia is a life-threatening dysrhythmia that results from an irritable ectopic focus that takes over as the pacemaker for the heart. The low cardiac output that results can lead quickly to cerebral and myocardial ischemia. Clients frequently experience a feeling of impending doom. Ventricular tachycardia is treated with antidysrhythmic medications, cardioversion (if client is awake), or defibrillation (loss of consciousness). Ventricular tachycardia can deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation at any time.

51
Q

A client has developed atrial fibrillation, with a ventricular rate of 150 beats/minute. The nurse should assess the client for which associated signs/symptoms?

  1. Flat neck veins
  2. Nausea and vomiting
  3. Hypotension and dizziness
  4. Hypertension and headache
A
  1. Hypotension and dizziness

The client with uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate more than 100 beats/minute is at risk for low cardiac output because of loss of atrial kick. The nurse assesses the client for palpitations, chest pain or discomfort, hypotension, pulse deficit, fatigue, weakness, dizziness, syncope, shortness of breath, and distended neck veins.

52
Q

The nurse is assisting to defibrillate a client in ventricular fibrillation. After placing the paddles on the client’s chest and before discharging them, which intervention should be done?

  1. Ensure that the client has been intubated.
  2. Set the defibrillator to the “synchronize” mode.
  3. Administer an amiodarone bolus intravenously.
  4. Confirm that the rhythm is actually ventricular fibrillation.
A
  1. Confirm that the rhythm is actually ventricular fibrillation.

Until the defibrillator is attached and charged, the client is resuscitated by using cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Once the defibrillator has been attached, the electrocardiogram is checked to verify that the rhythm is ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Leads also are checked for any loose connections. A nitroglycerin patch, if present, is removed. The client does not have to be intubated to be defibrillated. The machine is not set to the synchronous mode because there is no underlying rhythm with which to synchronize. Amiodarone may be given subsequently but is not required before defibrillation.

53
Q

The nurse is evaluating the condition of a client after pericardiocentesis performed to treat cardiac tamponade. Which observation would indicate that the procedure was unsuccessful?

  1. Rising blood pressure
  2. Clearly audible heart sounds
  3. Client expressions of relief
  4. Rising central venous pressure
A
  1. Rising central venous pressure

Following pericardiocentesis, a rise in blood pressure and a fall in central venous pressure are expected. The client usually expresses immediate relief. Heart sounds are no longer muffled or distant.

In this case, the CVP remains increased or increases… which is undesired.

54
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who had a resection of an abdominal aortic aneurysm yesterday. The client has an intravenous infusion at a rate of 150 mL/hour, unchanged for the last 10 hours. The client’s urine output for the last 3 hours has been 90, 50, and 28 mL (28 mL most recent). The client’s blood urea nitrogen level is 35 mg/dL and the serum creatinine level is 1.8 mg/dL, measured this morning. Which nursing action is the priority?

  1. Check the urine specific gravity.
  2. Call the health care provider (HCP).
  3. Check to see if the client had a sample for a serum albumin level drawn.
  4. Put the intravenous (IV) line on a pump so that the infusion rate is sure to stay stable.
A
  1. Call the health care provider (HCP).

Following abdominal aortic aneurysm resection or repair, the nurse monitors the client for signs of acute kidney injury. Acute kidney injury can occur because often much blood is lost during the surgery and, depending on the aneurysm location, the renal arteries may be hypoperfused for a short period during surgery. Urine output lower than 30 mL/hour is reported to the HCP!

55
Q

A client with angina complains that the anginal pain is prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day, most often at rest in the absence of precipitating factors. How would the nurse best describe this type of anginal pain?

  1. Stable angina
  2. Variant angina
  3. Unstable angina
  4. Nonanginal pain
A
  1. Variant angina

Variant angina, or Prinzmetal’s angina, is prolonged and severe and occurs at the same time each day, most often at rest. Stable angina is induced by exercise and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin tablets. Unstable angina occurs at lower levels of activity or at rest, is less predictable, and is often a precursor of myocardial infarction.

56
Q

A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving a continuous heparin infusion at 1000 units/hour. The nurse determines that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect based on which results?

  1. Prothrombin time of 12.5 seconds
  2. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 60 seconds
  3. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 28 seconds
  4. Activated partial thromboplastin time longer than 120 seconds
A
  1. Activated partial thromboplastin time of 60 seconds

Common laboratory ranges for activated partial thromboplastin time are 20 to 36 seconds. Because the activated partial thromboplastin time should be 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value, the client’s activated partial thromboplastin time would be considered therapeutic if it was 60 seconds.

57
Q

A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. The health care provider prescribes determination of the serum digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. The nurse checks the results, knowing that which value is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin?

  1. 0.5 to 2 ng/mL
  2. 1.2 to 2.8 ng/mL
  3. 3.0 to 5.0 ng/mL
  4. 3.5 to 5.5 ng/mL
A
  1. 0.5 to 2 ng/mL
58
Q

A client is being treated with procainamide for a cardiac dysrhythmia. Following intravenous administration of the medication, the client complains of dizziness. What intervention should
the nurse take first?
1. Measure the heart rate on the rhythm strip.
2. Administer prescribed nitroglycerin tablets.
3. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram immediately.
4. Auscultate the client’s apical pulse and obtain a blood pressure.

A
  1. Auscultate the client’s apical pulse and obtain a blood pressure.

Signs of toxicity from procainamide include confusion, dizziness, drowsiness, decreased urination, nausea, vomiting, and tachydysrhythmias. If the client complains of dizziness, the nurse should assess the vital signs first. Although measuring the heart rate on the rhythm strip and obtaining a 12-lead EKG may be interventions, these would be done after the vital signs are taken.
Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator and will lower the blood pressure.

59
Q

The nurse is monitoring a client who is taking propranolol. Which assessment data indicates a potential serious complication associated with this medication?

  1. The development of complaints of insomnia
  2. The development of audible expiratory wheezes
  3. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication
  4. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/minute followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/minute after two doses of the medication
A
  1. The development of audible expiratory wheezes

Audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm. β-Blockers may induce this reaction, particularly in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. Normal decreases in blood pressure and heart rate are expected. Insomnia is a frequent mild side effect and should be monitored.

60
Q

A client with atrial fibrillation secondary to mitral stenosis is receiving a heparin sodium infusion at 1000 units/hour and warfarin sodium (Coumadin) 7.5 mg at 5:00 PM daily. The morning laboratory results are as follows: activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) = 32 seconds; internationalized normalized ratio (INR) = 1.3. The nurse should plan to take which action based on the client’s laboratory results?

  1. Collaborate with the health care provider (HCP) to discontinue the heparin infusion and administer the warfarin sodium as prescribed.
  2. Collaborate with the HCP to obtain a prescription to increase the heparin infusion and administer the warfarin sodium as prescribed.
  3. Collaborate with the HCP to withhold the warfarin sodium since the client is receiving a heparin infusion and the aPTT is within the therapeutic range.
  4. Collaborate with the HCP to continue the heparin infusion at the same rate and to discuss use of Pradaxa in place of warfarin sodium.
A
  1. Collaborate with the HCP to obtain a prescription to increase the heparin infusion and administer the warfarin sodium as prescribed.

When a client is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) for clot prevention due to atrial fibrillation, an INR of 2 to 3 is appropriate for most clients. Until the INR has achieved a therapeutic range the client should be maintained on a continuous heparin infusion with the aPTT ranging between 60 and 80 seconds. Therefore, the nurse should collaborate with the health care provider to obtain a prescription to increase the heparin infusion and to administer the warfarin as prescribed.

61
Q

A client is diagnosed with an ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) and is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing intervention?

  1. Monitor for kidney failure.
  2. Monitor psychosocial status.
  3. Monitor for signs of bleeding.
  4. Have heparin sodium available.
A
  1. Monitor for signs of bleeding.

Tissue plasminogen activator is a thrombolytic. Hemorrhage is a complication of any type of thrombolytic medication. The client is monitored for bleeding. Monitoring for renal failure and monitoring the client’s psychosocial status are important but are not the most critical interventions. Heparin may be administered after thrombolytic therapy, but the question is not asking about follow-up medications.

62
Q

The nurse is planning to administer hydrochlorothiazide to a client. The nurse understands that which is a concern related to the administration of this medication?

  1. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia
  2. Increased risk of osteoporosis
  3. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy
  4. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy
A
  1. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy

Thiazide diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide are sulfa-based medications, and a client with a sulfa allergy is at risk for an allergic reaction. Also, clients are at risk for hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia.

63
Q

The nurse is monitoring a client who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin) for adverse effects. Which
findings are characteristic of digoxin toxicity? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

  1. Tremors
  2. Diarrhea
  3. Irritability
  4. Blurred vision
  5. Nausea and vomiting
A
  1. Diarrhea
  2. Blurred vision
  3. Nausea and vomiting

Early signs of toxicity include gastrointestinal manifestations such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Subsequent manifestations include headache; visual disturbances such as diplopia, blurred vision, yellow-green halos, and photophobia; drowsiness; fatigue; and weakness. Cardiac rhythm abnormalities can also occur. The nurse also monitors the digoxin level. Therapeutic levels for digoxin range from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL.

64
Q

Prior to administering a client’s daily dose of digoxin, the nurse reviews the client’s laboratory data and notes the following results: serum calcium, 9.8 mg/dL; serum magnesium, 1.2 mg/dL; serum potassium, 4.1 mEq/L; serum creatinine, 0.9 mg/dL. Which result should alert the nurse that the client is at risk for digoxin toxicity?

  1. Serum calcium level
  2. Serum potassium level
  3. Serum creatinine level
  4. Serum magnesium level
A
  1. Serum magnesium level - serum magnesium, 1.2 mg/dL

An increased risk of toxicity exists in clients with hypercalcemia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypothyroidism, and impaired renal function. The calcium, creatinine, and potassium levels are all within normal limits. The normal range for magnesium is 1.6 to 2.6 mg/dL and the results in the correct option are reflective of hypomagnesemia.

65
Q

Intravenous heparin therapy is prescribed for a client. While implementing this prescription, the nurse ensures that which medication is available on the nursing unit?

  1. Vitamin K
  2. Protamine sulfate
  3. Potassium chloride
  4. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)
A
  1. Protamine sulfate

The antidote to heparin is protamine sulfate; it should be readily available for use if excessive bleeding or hemorrhage should occur. Vitamin K is an antidote for warfarin sodium. Potassium chloride is administered for a potassium deficit. Aminocaproic acid is the antidote for thrombolytic therapy.

66
Q

A client receiving thrombolytic therapy with a continuous infusion of alteplase (Activase) suddenly becomes extremely anxious and complains of itching. The nurse hears stridor and notes generalized urticaria and hypotension. Which nursing action is the priority?

  1. Administer oxygen and protamine sulfate.
  2. Cut the infusion rate in half and sit the client up in bed.
  3. Stop the infusion and call the health care provider (HCP).
  4. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and continue the infusion.
A
  1. Stop the infusion and call the health care provider (HCP).

The client is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. Therefore, the priority action is to stop the infusion and notify the HCP. The client may be treated with epinephrine, antihistamines, and corticosteroids as prescribed.
When a severe allergic reaction occurs, the offending substance should be stopped, and lifesaving treatment should begin.

67
Q

The nurse should report which assessment finding to the health care provider (HCP) before initiating thrombolytic therapy in a client with pulmonary embolism?

  1. Adventitious breath sounds
  2. Temperature of 37.4 ° C orally
  3. Blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg
  4. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute
A
  1. Blood pressure of 198/110 mm Hg

Thrombolytic therapy is contraindicated in a number of preexisting conditions in which there is a risk of uncontrolled bleeding, similar to the case in anticoagulant therapy. Thrombolytic therapy also is contraindicated in severe uncontrolled hypertension because of the risk of cerebral hemorrhage. Therefore the nurse would report the results of the blood pressure to the HCP before initiating therapy.

68
Q

A client is prescribed nicotinic acid (niacin) for hyperlipidemia and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the medication. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?

  1. “It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol.”
  2. “The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing.”
  3. “Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern.”
  4. “Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing.”
A
  1. “Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing.”

Flushing is a side effect of this medication. Aspirin or a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug can be taken 30 minutes prior to taking the medication to decrease flushing. Alcohol consumption needs to be avoided because it will enhance this side effect. The medication should be taken with meals to decrease gastrointestinal upset; however, taking the medication with meals has no effect on the flushing. Clay-colored stools are a sign of hepatic dysfunction and should be immediately reported to the health care provider

69
Q
A 5-year-old with a congenital heart defect is due to be given Digoxin PO. Prior to administration, the nurse checks their most recent lab work. Which of the following would be of greatest concern to the nurse prior to administration?
A/ K+ 3.2 mmol/L
B/ Digoxin level 0.8ng/mL
C/ Hgb 100g/L
D/ Creatinine 0.4mg/dL
A

A/ K+ 3.2 mmol/L

Potassium levels are important to monitor with digoxin because hypokalemia can lead to digoxin toxicity.

Hgb is slightly low, but it is not of greatest concern.

Creatinine is important for digoxin therapy, however these results are normal.

Digoxin level is ok.

70
Q

What clinical indicators is the nurse likely to notice when taking the admission history in a client with Right ventricular failure? SELECT ALL THAT APPY

A/ Edema
B/ Vertigo
C/ Polyuria
D/ Dyspnea
E/ Palpitations
A

A/ Edema
D/ Dyspnea

RHF is the inability of the heart to pump to the lungs, resulting in increasing pressure in the venous system. Manifestations include:
Edema
Ascites
Hepatomegaly
Tachycardia
Dyspnea - pulmonary congestion and inadequate blood supply
Fatigue

Decreased urine will occur due to decreased urinary blood flow.
Palpitations are related more to coronary insufficiency or infarction

71
Q

What might the nurse expect in a client with cardiogenic shock?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A/ Pallor
B/ Nausea
C/ Tachycardia
D/ Narrow Pulse Pressure
E/ Decreased respirations
A

A/ Pallor
C/ Tachycardia
D/ Narrow Pulse Pressure

Pale skin, tachycardia, narrow pulse pressure as signs of cardiogenic shock.

Cardiogenic shock is a condition in which your heart suddenly can’t pump enough blood to meet your body’s needs. The condition is most often caused by a severe heart attack. Cardiogenic shock is rare, but it’s often fatal if not treated immediately.

*I believe it’s 40% necrosis of the LV in order to be considered cardiogenic shock.

72
Q

A client with Left ventricular HF is taking Digoxin 0.25mg od. What changes does the nurse expect to find that indicates the medication is therapeutically effective?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

A/ Diuresis
B/ Tachycardia
C/ Decreased Edema
D/ Decreased Pulse rate
E/ Reduced Heart murmur
F/ Jugular vein distention
A

A/ Diuresis
C/ Decreased Edema
D/ Decreased Pulse rate

Digoxin increases kidney perfusion which results in diuresis and reduction of edema. It will also decrease heart rate and the force at which the heart contracts. It will not affect a heart murmur; nor is JVD a sign of right-sided heart failure.

73
Q
How is ventricular depolarization shown on a rhythm strip?
A/ P wave
B/ PR interval
C/ QRS complex
D/ T wave
A

C/ QRS complex

P wave represents atrial depolarization. T wave is ventricular repolarization