GASTROINTESTINAL & RENAL

Question 1

The nurse is monitoring a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of appendicitis who is scheduled for surgery in 2 hours. The client begins to complain of increased abdominal pain and begins to vomit. On assessment, the nurse notes that the abdomen is distended and bowel sounds are diminished. Which is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A/ Notify the health care provider (HCP).
B/ Administer the prescribed pain medication.
C/ Call and ask the operating room team to perform the surgery as soon as possible.
D/ Reposition the client and apply a heating pad on the warm setting to the client’s abdomen.

Answer 1

A/ Notify the health care provider (HCP).

On the basis of the signs and symptoms presented in the question, the nurse should suspect peritonitis and notify the HCP. Administering pain medication is not an appropriate intervention. Heat should never be applied to the abdomen of a client with suspected appendicitis because of the risk of rupture. Scheduling surgical time is not within the scope of nursing practice, although the HCP probably would perform the surgery earlier than the prescheduled time.

Question 2

A client has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis and the nurse is assessing the client’s pain. What type of pain is consistent with this diagnosis?

A/ Burning and aching, located in the left lower quadrant and radiating to the hip
B/ Severe and unrelenting, located in the epigastric area and radiating to the back
C/ Burning and aching, located in the epigastric area and radiating to the umbilicus
D/ Severe and unrelenting, located in the left lower quadrant and radiating to the groin

Answer 2

B/ Severe and unrelenting, located in the epigastric area and radiating to the back

The pain associated with acute pancreatitis is often severe and unrelenting, is located in the epigastric region, and radiates to the back. The other options are incorrect.

Question 3

The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing an acute episode of cholecystitis. Where should the nurse anticipate the location of the pain?
A/ Right lower quadrant, radiating to the back
B/ Right lower quadrant, radiating to the umbilicus
C/ Right upper quadrant, radiating to the left scapula and shoulder
D/ Right upper quadrant, radiating to the right scapula and shoulder

Answer 3

D/ Right upper quadrant, radiating to the right scapula and shoulder

During an acute episode of cholecystitis, the client may complain of severe right upper quadrant pain that radiates to the right scapula and shoulder. This is determined by the pattern of dermatomes in the body.

Question 4

A client is admitted to the hospital with viral hepatitis, complaining of “no appetite” and “losing my taste for food.” What instruction should the nurse give the client to provide
adequate nutrition?
A/ Select foods high in fat.
B/ Increase intake of fluids, including juices.
C/ Eat a good supper when anorexia is not as severe.
D/ Eat less often, preferably only three large meals daily.

Answer 4

B/ Increase intake of fluids, including juices.

Although no special diet is required to treat viral hepatitis, it is generally recommended that clients consume a low-fat diet as fat may be tolerated poorly because of decreased bile production. Small, frequent meals are preferable and may even prevent nausea. Frequently, appetite is better in the morning, so it is easier to eat a good breakfast. An adequate fluid intake of 2500 to
3000 mL/day that includes nutritional juices is also important.

Question 5

A client has developed hepatitis A after eating contaminated oysters. The nurse assesses the client for which expected assessment finding?
A/ Malaise
B/ Dark stools
C/ Weight gain
D/ Left upper quadrant discomfort

Answer 5

A/ Malaise

Hepatitis causes gastrointestinal symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, right upper quadrant discomfort, and weight loss. Fatigue and malaise are common. Stools will be light- or clay-colored if conjugated bilirubin is unable to flow out of the liver because
of inflammation or obstruction of the bile ducts.

Question 6

A client has just had a hemorrhoidectomy. Which nursing interventions are appropriate for this client?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

1. Administer stool softeners as prescribed.
2. Instruct the client to limit fluid intake to avoid urinary retention.
3. Instruct the client to avoid activities that will initiate vasovagal responses.
4. Encourage a high-fiber diet to promote bowel movements without straining.
5. Apply cold packs to the anal-rectal area over the dressing until the packing is removed.
6. Help the client to a Fowler’s position to place pressure on the rectal area and decrease
   bleeding.

Answer 6

1. Administer stool softeners as prescribed.
2. Encourage a high-fiber diet to promote bowel movements without straining.
3. Apply cold packs to the anal-rectal area over the dressing until the packing is removed.

Nursing interventions after a hemorrhoidectomy are aimed at management of pain and avoidance of bleeding and incision rupture. Stool softeners and a high-fiber diet will help the client avoid straining, thereby reducing the chances of rupturing the incision. An ice pack will increase comfort and decrease bleeding.

Question 7

The nurse is planning to teach a client with GERD about substances to avoid. Which items should the nurse include on this list? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

1. Coffee
2. Chocolate
3. Peppermint
4. Nonfat milk
5. Fried chicken
6. Scrambled eggs

Answer 7

1. Coffee
2. Chocolate
3. Peppermint
4. Fried chicken

Foods that decrease lower esophageal sphincter (LES) pressure and irritate the esophagus will increase reflux and exacerbate the symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and therefore should be avoided. Aggravating substances include chocolate, coffee, fried or fatty foods, peppermint, carbonated beverages, and alcohol. Options 4 and 6 do not promote this effect.

Question 8

A client has undergone esophagogastroduodenoscopy. The nurse should place highest priority on which item as part of the client’s care plan?
A/ Monitoring the temperature
B/ Monitoring complaints of heartburn
C/ Giving warm gargles for a sore throat
D/ Assessing for the return of the gag reflex

Answer 8

D/ Assessing for the return of the gag reflex

The nurse places highest priority on assessing for return of the gag reflex. This assessment addresses the client’s airway. The nurse also monitors the client’s vital signs and for a sudden increase in temperature, which could indicate perforation of the gastrointestinal tract. This complication would be accompanied by other signs as well, such as pain. Monitoring for sore throat and heartburn are also important; however, the client’s airway is the priority.

Question 9

The health care provider has determined that a client with hepatitis has contracted the infection from contaminated food. The nurse understands that this client is most likely experiencing what type of hepatitis?

1. Hepatitis A
2. Hepatitis B
3. Hepatitis C
4. Hepatitis D

Answer 9

1. Hepatitis A

Hepatitis A is transmitted by the fecal-oral route via contaminated food or infected food handlers. Hepatitis B, C, and D are transmitted most commonly via infected blood or body fluids.

Question 10

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of chronic gastritis. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that this client is at risk for which vitamin deficiency?

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B12
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin E

Answer 10

2. Vitamin B12

Chronic gastritis causes deterioration and atrophy of the lining of the stomach, leading to the loss of function of the parietal cells. The source of intrinsic factor is lost, which results in an inability to absorb vitamin B12. This leads to the development of pernicious anemia.

Question 11

The nurse is assessing a client 24 hours following a cholecystectomy. The nurse notes that the T-tube has drained 750 mL of green-brown drainage since the surgery. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?
A/ Clamp the T-tube.
B/ Irrigate the T-tube.
C/ Document the findings.
D/ Notify the health care provider.

Answer 11

C/ Document the findings.

Following cholecystectomy, drainage from the T-tube is initially bloody and then turns a greenish-brown color. The drainage is measured as output. The amount of expected drainage will range from 500 to 1000 mL/day. The nurse would document the output.
Options 1 and 2 can be eliminated because a T-tube is not irrigated and would not be clamped with this amount of drainage.

Question 12

The nurse is monitoring a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer. Which assessment finding would most likely indicate perforation of the ulcer?
A/ Bradycardia
B/ Numbness in the legs
C/ Nausea and vomiting
D/ A rigid, board-like abdomen

Answer 12

D/ A rigid, board-like abdomen

Perforation of an ulcer is a surgical emergency and is characterized by sudden, sharp, intolerable severe pain beginning in the mid-epigastric area and spreading over the abdomen, which becomes rigid and boardlike. Nausea and vomiting may occur. Tachycardia may occur as hypovolemic shock develops. Numbness in the legs is not an associated finding.

Nausea and vomiting are not specific to the clinical finding.

Question 13

The nurse is caring for a client following a Billroth II procedure. Which postoperative prescription should the nurse question and verify?
A/ Leg exercises
B/ Early ambulation
C/ Irrigating the nasogastric tube
D/ Coughing and deep-breathing exercises

Answer 13

C/ Irrigating the nasogastric tube

In a Billroth II procedure, the proximal remnant of the stomach is anastomosed to the proximal jejunum. Patency of the nasogastric tube is critical for preventing the retention of gastric secretions. The nurse should never irrigate or reposition the gastric tube after gastric surgery, unless specifically prescribed by the health care provider. In this situation, the nurse should clarify the prescription.

Eliminate options 1, 2, and 4 because they are comparable or alike and are general postoperative measures.

Question 14

The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following gastrectomy and should instruct the client to take which measure to assist in preventing dumping syndrome?
A/ Ambulate following a meal.
B/ Eat high-carbohydrate foods.
C/ Limit the fluids taken with meals.
D/ Sit in a high Fowler’s position during meals.

Answer 14

C/ Limit the fluids taken with meals.

Dumping syndrome is a term that refers to a constellation of vasomotor symptoms that occurs after eating, especially following a Billroth II procedure. Early manifestations usually occur within 30 minutes of eating and include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the desire to lie down. The nurse should instruct the client to decrease the amount of fluid taken at meals and to avoid high-carbohydrate foods, including fluids such as fruit nectars; to assume a low Fowler’s position during meals; to lie down for 30 minutes after eating to delay gastric emptying; and to take antispasmodics as prescribed.

Question 15

The nurse is reviewing the prescription for a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. Which interventions would the nurse expect to be prescribed for the client?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

1. Administer antacids as prescribed.
2. Encourage coughing and deep breathing.
3. Administer anticholinergics as prescribed.
4. Give small, frequent high-calorie feedings.
5. Maintain the client in a supine and flat position.
6. Give meperidine (Demerol) as prescribed for pain.

Answer 15

1. Administer antacids as prescribed.
2. Encourage coughing and deep breathing.
3. Administer anticholinergics as prescribed.
4. Give meperidine (Demerol) as prescribed for pain.

The client with acute pancreatitis normally is placed on NPO status to rest the pancreas and suppress gastrointestinal secretions. Because abdominal pain is a prominent symptom of pancreatitis, pain medication such as meperidine is prescribed. Some clients experience lessened pain by assuming positions that flex the trunk, with the knees drawn up to the chest. A side-lying position with the head elevated 45 degrees decreases tension on the abdomen and may help ease the pain. The client is susceptible to respiratory infections because the retroperitoneal fluid raises the diaphragm, which causes the client to take shallow, guarded abdominal breaths. Therefore measures such as turning, coughing, and deep breathing are instituted. Antacids and anticholinergics may be prescribed to suppress gastrointestinal secretions.

Question 16

The nurse is reviewing the record of a client with Crohn’s disease. Which stool characteristic should the nurse expect to note documented in the client’s record?
A/ Diarrhea
B/ Chronic constipation
C/ Constipation alternating with diarrhea
D/ Stool constantly oozing from the rectum

Answer 16

A/ Diarrhea

Crohn’s disease is characterized by nonbloody diarrhea of usually not more than four to five stools daily. Over time, the diarrhea episodes increase in frequency, duration, and severity. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not characteristics of Crohn’s disease.

Question 17

The nurse is reviewing the record of a client with a diagnosis of cirrhosis and notes that there is documentation of the presence of asterixis. How should the nurse assess for its presence?
A/ Dorsiflex the client’s foot.
B/ Measure the abdominal girth.
C/ Ask the client to extend the arms. 
D/ Instruct the client to lean forward.

Answer 17

C/ Ask the client to extend the arms.

Asterixis is irregular flapping movements of the fingers and wrists when the hands and arms are outstretched, with the palms down, wrists bent up, and fingers spread. Asterixis is the most common and reliable sign that hepatic encephalopathy is developing.

Question 18

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client with cirrhosis and notes that the ammonia level is elevated. Which diet does the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for this client?
A/ Low-protein diet
B/ High-protein diet
C/ Moderate-fat diet
D/ High-carbohydrate diet

Answer 18

A/ Low-protein diet

Cirrhosis is a chronic, progressive disease of the liver characterized by diffuse degeneration and destruction of hepatocytes. Most of the ammonia in the body is found in the gastrointestinal tract. Protein provided by the diet is transported to the liver by the portal vein. The liver breaks down protein, which results in the formation of ammonia. If the client has hepatic encephalopathy, a low-protein diet would be prescribed.

Question 19

The nurse is doing an admission assessment on a client with a history of duodenal ulcer. To determine whether the problem is currently active, the nurse should assess the client for which symptom(s) of duodenal ulcer?
A/ Weight loss
B/ Nausea and vomiting
C/ Pain relieved by food intake
D/ Pain radiating down the right arm

Answer 19

C/ Pain relieved by food intake

A frequent symptom of duodenal ulcer is pain that is relieved by food intake. These clients generally describe the pain as a burning, heavy, sharp, or “hungry” pain that often localizes in the mid-epigastric area. The client with duodenal ulcer usually does not experience weight loss or nausea and vomiting. These symptoms are more typical in the client with a gastric ulcer.

Question 20

A client with hiatal hernia chronically experiences heartburn following meals. The nurse should plan to teach the client to avoid which action because it is contraindicated with a hiatal
hernia?
A/ Lying recumbent following meals
B/ Consuming small, frequent, bland meals
C/ Raising the head of the bed on 6-inch blocks
D/ Taking H2-receptor antagonist medication

Answer 20

A/ Lying recumbent following meals

Hiatal hernia is caused by a protrusion of a portion of the stomach above the diaphragm where the esophagus usually is positioned. The client usually experiences pain from reflux caused by ingestion of irritating foods, lying flat following meals or at night, and eating large or fatty meals. Relief is obtained with the intake of small, frequent, and bland meals, use of H2-receptor antagonists and antacids, and elevation of the thorax following meals and during sleep.

Question 21

A client had a new colostomy created 2 days earlier and is beginning to pass malodorous flatus from the stoma. What is the correct interpretation by the nurse?
A/ This is a normal, expected event.
B/ The client is experiencing early signs of ischemic bowel.
C/ The client should not have the nasogastric tube removed.
D/ This indicates inadequate preoperative bowel preparation.

Answer 21

A/ This is a normal, expected event.

As peristalsis returns following creation of a colostomy, the client begins to pass malodorous flatus. This indicates returning bowel function and is an expected event. Within 72 hours of surgery, the client should begin passing stool via the colostomy.

Question 22

A client has just had surgery to create an ileostomy. The nurse assesses the client in the immediate postoperative period for which most frequent complication of this type of surgery?
A/ Folate deficiency
B/ Malabsorption of fat
C/ Intestinal obstruction
D/ Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

Answer 22

D/ Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

A frequent complication that occurs following ileostomy is fluid and electrolyte imbalance. The client requires constant monitoring of intake and output to prevent this from occurring. Losses require replacement by intravenous infusion until the client can
tolerate a diet orally. Intestinal obstruction is a less frequent complication. Fat malabsorption and folate deficiency are complications that could occur later in the postoperative period.

Remember that ileostomy drainage is liquid, placing the client at risk for fluid and electrolyte imbalance.**

Question 23

The nurse is monitoring a client for the early signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome. Which findings indicate this occurrence?
A/ Sweating and pallor
B/ Bradycardia and indigestion 
C/ Double vision and chest pain 
D/ Abdominal cramping and pain

Answer 23

A/ Sweating and pallor

Early manifestations of dumping syndrome occur 5 to 30 minutes after eating. Symptoms include vertigo, tachycardia, syncope, sweating, pallor, palpitations, and the desire to lie down.

Question 24

A client with acute kidney injury has a serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L. The nurse should plan which action as a priority?

1. Check the sodium level.
2. Place the client on a cardiac monitor.
3. Encourage increased vegetables in the diet.
4. Allow an extra 500 mL of fluid intake to dilute the electrolyte concentration.

Answer 24

2. Place the client on a cardiac monitor.

The client with hyperkalemia is at risk of developing cardiac dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Because of this, the client should be placed on a cardiac monitor. Fluid intake is not increased because it contributes to fluid overload and would not affect the serum potassium level significantly. Vegetables are a natural source of potassium in the diet, and their use would not be increased. The nurse also may assess the sodium level because sodium is another electrolyte commonly measured with the potassium level. However, this is not a priority action of the nurse.

Question 25

A client being hemodialyzed suddenly becomes short of breath and complains of chest pain. The client is tachycardic, pale, and anxious and the nurse suspects air embolism. What is the priority nursing action?

1. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the next hour.
2. Discontinue dialysis and notify the health care provider (HCP).
3. Continue dialysis at a slower rate after checking the lines for air.
4. Bolus the client with 500 mL of normal saline to break up the air embolus.

Answer 25

2. Discontinue dialysis and notify the health care provider (HCP).

If the client experiences air embolus during hemodialysis, the nurse should terminate dialysis immediately, notify the HCP, and administer oxygen as needed. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

Recalling that air embolism is an emergency situation that affects the cardiopulmonary system suddenly and profoundly will direct you to the correct option.

Question 26

A client arrives at the emergency department with complaints of low abdominal pain and hematuria. The client is afebrile. The nurse next assesses the client to determine a history of which condition?

1. Pyelonephritis
2. Glomerulonephritis
3. Trauma to the bladder or abdomen
4. Renal cancer in the client’s family

Answer 26

3. Trauma to the bladder or abdomen

Bladder trauma or injury should be considered or suspected in the client with low abdominal pain and hematuria. Glomerulonephritis and pyelonephritis would be accompanied by fever and are thus not applicable to the client described in this question. Renal cancer would not cause pain that is felt in the low abdomen; rather, the pain would be in the flank area.

Question 27

A client is admitted to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. The client was wearing a lap seat belt when the accident occurred and now the client has hematuria
and lower abdominal pain. To assess further whether the pain is caused by bladder trauma, the nurse should ask the client if the pain is referred to which area?
1. Hip
2. Shoulder
3. Umbilicus
4. Costovertebral angle

Answer 27

2. Shoulder

Bladder trauma or injury is characterized by lower abdominal pain that may radiate to one of the shoulders due to phrenic nerve irritation. Bladder injury pain does not radiate to the umbilicus, costovertebral angle, or hip.

Question 28

A client is admitted to the emergency department following a fall from a horse and the health care provider (HCP) prescribes insertion of a Foley catheter. While preparing for the procedure, the nurse notes blood at the urinary meatus. The nurse should take which action?

1. Notify the HCP.
2. Use a small-sized catheter.
3. Administer pain medication before inserting the catheter.
4. Use extra povidone-iodine solution in cleansing the meatus.

Answer 28

1. Notify the HCP.

The presence of blood at the urinary meatus may indicate urethral trauma or disruption. The nurse notifies the HCP, knowing that the client should not be catheterized until the cause of the bleeding is determined by diagnostic testing. Therefore options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

Question 29

A client diagnosed with Pancreatic cancer 2 months ago is admitted to the hospital with weight loss, severe epigastric pain, and jaundice. When performing a client assessment, the nurse expects the client's stool to be what colour?
A/ Green
B/ Brown
C/ Red-tinged
D/ Clay-coloured

Answer 29

D/ Clay-coloured

Tumours of the head of the pancreas usually obstruct the common bile duct. The feces will be clay-coloured when bile is prevented from entering the duodenum. Green stools may occur with prolonged diarrhea associated with GI inflammation. Brown is normal. Inflammation and ulceration may lead to red-tinged.

Question 30

A nurse is reviewing the lab results and collecting the health history of a client with colitis. Which common clinical manifestation would the nurse expect in the patient?
A/ Weight loss
B/ Hemoptysis
C/ Increased RBC
D/ Decreased WBC

Answer 30

A/ Weight loss

The inflammatory process associated with colitis increases peristalsis, causing abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and weight loss. Coughing up blood from the respiratory tract (Hemoptysis) is not associated with colitis. Anemia, not polycythemia is associated with Colitis, and WBC is increased usually.

Question 31

A patient is suspected of having Appendicitis. For which clinical indicator should the nurse assess on the client to determine if the pain they are experiencing is secondary to appendicitis?
A/ Urinary retention
B/ Gastric hyperacidity
C/ Rebound tenderness
D/ Increased lower bowel motility

Answer 31

C/ Rebound tenderness

Classic sign of appendicitis. Urinary retention does not cause acute Right quadrant pain. Hyperacidity causes epigastric pain, and decreased bowel motility is associated with appendicitis.