DRUGS Flashcards

1
Q
The HCP has prescribed prednisone to a first grader. What outcome does the nurse expect with adrenocorticosteroid therapy?
A/ Accelerated Wound Healing
B/ Development of Hyperkalemia
C/ Increased antibody production
D/ Suppressed inflammatory process
A

D/ Suppressed inflammation

Because the suppression of inflammatory processes, the nurse must be alert to subtle symptoms of the inflammatory process, such as a change in appetite, sleep patterns, and behaviour.

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2
Q

A client has been receiving Digoxin and calls the clinic and complains of “Yellow Vision”. What is the nurse’s best response?
A/ This is related to you illness rather than the medication
B/ Continue to take digoxin because this is an expected side effect
C/ This side effect is only temporary. Continue to take the medication and notify me if it worsens.
D/ Discontinue your medication and come into the clinic for assessment

A

D/ Stop it.

Yellow vision indicated digoxin toxicity. The medication should be withheld until the HCP can assess the client and the digoxin blood level can be assessed.

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3
Q

A 15-year-old child is prescribed Claritin 10mg po od for hay fever. The girl tells the school nurse that she will be sleepy for a quiz the next day. How should the nurse respond?
A/ Explain the medication rarely causes drowsiness
B/ Advise her to take a half tablet before school to reduce the drowsy effects
C/ Suggest that she skip that day’s dose in case it makes her drowsy
D/ Recommend she calls the allergist to obtain a script for a stimulant.

A

A/ It shouldn’t make her drowsy.

Even if the medication were to cause drowsiness, the nurse has Ø legal authority to alter the prescribed dose.

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4
Q

An adolescent is hospitalized with multiple internal injuries after a MVA. The adolescent is being kept NPO and is receiving an IV infusion at 125mL/hr and an antibiotic reconstituted in 10mL of NS every 6 hours (6am, 12pm, 6pm, 12am). What is her intake from 7am to 3pm? Record your answer in mLs.

A

125mL x 8 hours = 1000mL
+
10mL NS reconsituted in the antibiotic….

1000mL + 10mL =

1010mL

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5
Q

Tylenol 15mg/kg is prescribed for a preschooler who weighs 44lb. Each 5 mL of solution contains 160 mg. How many mL of Tylenol should the nurse provide? Record the answer to ONE decimal place.

A

44 lb = 20kg

20kg x 15mg/kg = 300mg dose

300mg / 160mg x 5mL = 9.4 mL per dose

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6
Q
The post-operative prescriptions for a client who had repair of an inguinal hernia include docusate sodium OD. Before discharge, the nurse teaches the client that an intermittent side effect of this medication may be:
A/ Rectal Bleeding
B/ Fecal impaction
C/ Nausea and Vomiting
D/ Mild abdominal cramping
A

D/ Cramping

It is the only side effect of this medication.

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7
Q
A patient is admitted to the clinic with herpes simplex, the nurses understand that the HCP is likely to prescribe:
A/ Clindamycin 
B/ Acyclovir
C/ Amoxicillin 
D/ Sildenafil
A

B/ Acyclovir (Zovirax)

Since herpes Simplex is a Virus, Acyclovir will combat the infection by disrupting the DNA synthesis of the virus.

Clindamycin and Amoxicillin are antibacterial agents that would not work on viral infections, and Sildenafil is Viagra and would produce unwanted side effects.

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8
Q
While reviewing the med sheet of an unconscious patient in the Emergency room, you notice that he is on Adalimumab (Humira). Due to this, you most likely speculate the patient suffers from:
A/ Basal Cell carcinoma
B/ Congestive Heart Failure
C/ Type II diabetes
D/ Rheumatoid Arthritis
A

D/ R.A.

Humira is an IgG antibody specific for TNF (Tumour Necrosis Factor) which is responsible for Rheumatoid Arthritis.

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9
Q

What is the therapeutic action of Adenosine?
A/ Antidysrhythmic that reduces myocardial oxygen demand.
B/ Antiviral that inhibits Hepatitis B virus DNA polymerase
C/ Decreases rate of Bone resorption in patients with osteoarthritis
D/ NSAID used for cardiac patients

A

A/ Antidysrthmic

Slows the conduction through the AV node pathway, and can interrupt reentry pathways through the AV node. Can restore NSR.

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10
Q

The ED doctor orders Adenosine 0.05mg/kg IV for a neonate experiencing paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. The baby weighs 2.3 kg. Adenosine comes in a vial of 1mg/2mL from the pharmacy. How many units of Adenosine should you provide?

A
  1. 3kg x 0.05mg/kg = 0.115 mg
  2. 115mg / 1mg x 2mL = 0.23 mL or

23 Units of Adenosine IV

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11
Q
A nurse is monitoring a patient on the medical floor who recently had a bowel resection. The patient has an infusion of TPN with lipids running into a central line. Which of the following complications would the nurse most likely see?
A/ Hypercalcemia
B/ Hypoalbunia
C/ Hyperglyceridemia
D/ Hypokalemia
A

C/ Hyperglyceridemia

A patient on TPN is at a higher risk of certain metabolic complications, including Hypo- or Hyperglycemia AND hyperglyceridemia. TPN contains a mix of vitamins and electrolytes as well as dextrose and lipids. When lipid emulsion is added, the patient maybe at a higher risk of developing elevated triglycerides.

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12
Q
The nurse understands that a client is to get which of the following drugs to paralyze the ciliary body muscles?
A/ Homatropine
B/ Phenylephrine
C/ Cromolyn
D/ Paredrine
A

A/ Homatropine

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13
Q
Which of the Following are selective Serotonin reuptake inhibitors? Select all that apply?
A/ Fluoxetine
B/ Paroxetine
C/ Amitriptyline
D/ Nortriptyline
E/ Sertraline
A

A/
B/
E/

Amitriptyline and Nortriptyline are tricyclic antidepressants.

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14
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with a central line. The nurse is unable to flush the line before giving their medication. Which interventions should the nurse perform to ensure that the line is not kinked? Select all that apply.
A/ Have the patient turn to a prone position
B/ Have the patient turn his head and cough
C/ Have the patient stand up
D/ Have the patient raise their arms above their head
E/ Have the patient verbalize and repeat a phrase.

A

B/ Cough
C/ Stand
D/ Arms

A mechanical occlusion is one that occurs when the internal catheter is kinked or the end of the catheter is up against the interior of the blood vessel.

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15
Q

A patient is being treated for depression after suffering from chronic back pain. The physician prescribes duloxetine. The patient is curious about the side effects of this drug. Which response from the nurse is correct?
A/ “This might make you feel more irritable or could increase the risk of worsening your depression”
B/ “There are very few side effects of this drug”
C/ “You will mostly experience excessive daytime drowsiness, so do not take before driving anywhere”
D/ “This medication can cause a fever and skin itching”

A

A/ Worsening with irritability

Cymbalta (Duloxetine) is a med that can make the patient feel more irritable and could worsen depressive symptoms, including thoughts of suicide.

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16
Q
Which IV sedative is used to produce a dissociative anesthesia in a client?
A/ Sodium Pentothal
B/ Ketamine
C/ Fentanyl
D/ Propofol
A

B/ Ketamine

Dissociative anesthesia is a form of anesthesia characterized by catalepsy, catatonia, analgesia, and amnesia. It does not necessarily involve loss of consciousness and thus does not always imply a state of general anesthesia. Often used with Children

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17
Q
What is the action of an ACE inhibitor? Which of the following is an example?
A/ Ramipril
B/ Metoprolol
C/ Candesartan
D/ Propofol
A

A/ Ramipril

Antihypertensive medication (lowers BP). Converts angiotensin I into Angiotensin II which is a vasoconstrictor that decreases BP.

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18
Q
What is the action of an Beta Blocker? Which of the following is an example?
A/ Candesartan
B/ Enalapril
C/ Atenolol
D/ Procardia
A

C/ Atenolol

Antihypertensive that blocks beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart, decreasing heart tissue excitability, reducing cardiac workload and O2 consumption. Lowers BP and slows HR

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19
Q
Which of the following clinical signs would make you within hold your patient's Metoprolol medication?
A/ 116 BPM heart rate
B/ 5.7 Blood Glucose
C/ 91/48 Blood Pressure
D/ 14 Respirations/min
A

C/ Hypotension

…because this medication will lower their blood pressure further.

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20
Q

What type of medication is Amlodipine, Diltiazem and Nifedipine? What does it do?

A

Calcium Channel Blockers

Slows HR and Decreases BP. Inhibits the movement of Ca+ across membrane of cardiac and arterial muscle cells. Slows the impulse conduction that slows HR and vasodilates arteries.

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21
Q

What is the clinical use for Atropine in Cardiac clients?

A

Increases HR and dries bodily secretions by blocking vagus nerve stimulation.

Indicated for Bradycardia, cardiac arrest or ventricular asystole.

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22
Q

What are some clinical findings of Digoxin toxicity?

A
Bradycardia
Photosensitivity 
Nausea/Emesis
Yellow-Green Vision
Light Flashes (auras)
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23
Q
Which of the following medications might you expect the physician to prescribe IV for a patient in Ventricular Tachycardia?
A/ Propofol
B/ Lidocaine
C/ Ceftriaxone
D/ Epinephrine
A

B/ Lidocaine

Lidocaine acts on the ventricles of the heart by reducing their electrical stimulation threshold which then stabilizes the cardiac membrane and decreases cardiac irritability.

Propofol is used to sedate
Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic
Epinephrine is contraindicated for Ventricular Tachycardia as it will increase Cardiac excitability and HR.

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24
Q
A patient comes in with a subdural hematoma and is currently on the following medications:
Coumadin
Atenolol
Candesartan
Januvia
Zoplicone
Vitamin B12

Which of these medications places this patient at further risk of injury in relation to his recent fall and subdural hematoma? What would you use as an antidote for this medication?

A

Coumadin (Warfarin)

Coumadin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding by thinning the blood. To counteract this, Vitamin K will be given.

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25
Q
Which of the following medications can cause hyperplasia of the gums?
A/ Allopurinol
B/ Dilantin
C/ Premarin
D/ Canestan Oral
A

B/ Dilantin

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26
Q

What are the uses of benzodiazepines used for?

Diazepam, Ativan, Oxazepam, Temazepam

A

Anxiety
Sedation
Mild Anesthesia
Skeletal Muscle relaxation

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27
Q

Why might a HCP prescribe dopamine to a cardiac patient? What side effects should be monitored for?

A

Dilation of coronary arteries

Side effects include Increases ocular pressure, Tachycardia, decreased urinary output and headache (sign of drug toxicity).

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28
Q
Epinephrine, Benadryl, Oxygen, and Corticosteroids are given during anaphylaxis, however, which of the following drugs can also be given IV?
A/ Zantac
B/ Metoprolol
C/ Perindopril
D/ Diazepam
A

A/ Zantac

Antihistamine that works alongside Benadryl to block H1 and H2 histamine receptors.

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29
Q

What does Atorvastatin do?

A

Lipid-lowering agent that reduces cholesterol which is a primary prevention agent against cardiovascular disease.

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30
Q

What is Albuterol used to treat?

A

Bronchodilator used to treat Asthma and COPD. Binds to Beta2 adrenergic receptors that relaxes smooth muscles in the airway.

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31
Q
A patient with osteoporosis may be placed on which of the following medications?
A/ Citalopram
B/ Metformin
C/ Alendronate
D/ Apixaban
A

C/ Alendronate

Inhibits the resorption of bone

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32
Q

What is amiodarone used for and how does it work?

A

Used in Ventricular arrhythmias, Supraventricular Tachycardia, Ventricular Fibrillation and Tachycardia

Prolongs the action potential of cardiac muscle, slows heart rate and causes peripheral vasodilation.

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33
Q

What is Amitryptiline used for? What does it increase the effect of?

A

Used in depression, anxiety and insomnia.

Increases the effects of serotonin and norepinephrine.

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34
Q
A patient on amlodipine should be told to avoid with substance?
A/ Salt
B/ Sugar substitutes
C/ Grapefruit
D/ NSAIDS
A

C/ Grapefruit

Increases drug levels in the blood.

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35
Q

How does amoxicillin fight bacterial infections? What is one of the major contraindications for this type of therapy?

A

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis, leading to bacterial cell lysis.

Contraindicated in people with allergies tp penicillin

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36
Q

How does ampicillin fight against bacteria? Does it have a broader spectrum than penicillin? What are some contraindications for ampicillin use?

A

Binds to the surface of bacterial cell walls and causes bacterial cell death (bactericidal).

Much broader spectrum than penicillin.

Do not use if penicillin allergy present. Do not use with contraceptives

37
Q

What is Celebrex (Celecoxib) used for? How does it accomplish this?

A

NSAID/antirheumatic used to treat acute pain, osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis.

Does this by reducing inflammation through the inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis.

38
Q
What is Clopidogrel?
A/ Blood Thinner
B/ Thrombolytic
C/ Antiplatelet Agent
D/ Peripheral Vasodilator
A

C/ Antiplatelet Agent

Use with caution as it can lead to increased bleeding, neutropenia.

39
Q

Dexamethasone is used to treat _____. What are some precautions/side effects with this medication?

A

Used to treat inflammation (steroid).

Watch for:
Weight gain
Decrease Wound healing
Elevated blood sugar

40
Q

How does Digoxin work in the body? What are nursing considerations associated with this drug?

A

Increases the force of myocardial contraction, and prolongs refractory period to slow heart rate by decreasing conduction through SA and AV nodes.

Nursing considerations:

  1. Contraindicated with ventricular arryhthmias
  2. Assess for bradycardia during and prior to use.
  3. Watch for toxicity (yellow/blurred vision)
  4. Monitor pulse for 60 seconds prior to administration (hold is pulse below 60 bpm)
41
Q

What are the benefits of sublingual administration of medications?

A

Absorbed in the mucosal cavity and avoid being vomited.

Rapid onset of action.

42
Q

What is a chelating agent and what does it do?

A

An agent that detoxifies the body for harmful substances by binding to toxic material and removing it from the body.

43
Q

You patient has a severe infection and has been treated for 3 days on IV gentamycin. Today she complains of stomach cramps and excessive stool production. You notice this as signs of C. Diff and suspect the doctor will:
A/ Order a Soap Suds Enema to clean infected tissues in the colon and irrigate the bowel
B/ Stop the Gentamycin therapy and Prepare the patient for a PO dose of Flagyl
C/ Monitor the patient and titrate their dose of Gentamycin
D/ Switch the patient to Amoxicillin and continue antimicrobial therapy.

A

B/ Flagyl.

Used to treat C. Diff infections typically caused by the invasion of the bacteria in the gut.

44
Q

Differentiate between Inotropic meds like Epinephrine and Negative inotropic meds like Quinidine or Metoprolol.

A

Inotropic medications increase heart contractility

Negative inotropic meds like beta blockers will decrease contractility

45
Q

Bactrim is a sulfonamide drug and is bacteriostatic. What does bacteriostatic mean?

A

A drug that interferes with the replication or synthesis of bacterial cells. It doesn’t kill them directly but inhibits growth.

46
Q

Nortriptyline, Amitriptyline, and doxepin are all ________, and treat ________.

A

Tricyclic Antidepressants

Depression

47
Q

What is Midazolam? Why might you give it to a patient and why might you give it instead of giving diazepam?

A

Midazolam is an anti-anxiety medication and a sedative with anesthetic properties. It can be given continuously to maintain sedation.

Midazolam is preferred over Diazepam because it is shorter acting and more ideal for critical patients.

48
Q

What is Dilantin (Phenytoin)?

A

Anti-seizure medication that slows electrical impulses in the brain that cause seizure activity.

49
Q

Why is Mannitol given to head injury patients?

A

It is a diuretic that reduces fluid around the eyes and brain that can lead to increased swelling and Intracranial pressure.

50
Q

A patient comes into the emergency trauma room with intracranial bleeding and the physician prescribes Mannitol 1.5mg/kg over 30 minutes. The patient weighs 187 lbs. How much mannitol will they receive after 15 minutes of infusion?

A

187 / 2.2 = 85 kg

85 kg x 1.5 mg = 128mg over 30 minutes

128 / 2 = 64 mg in 15 minutes.

51
Q
A patient comes to the ER with severe bleeding after a MVA. Their wallet had a medication list with Coumadin as one of their medications. What would the physician order to act as an antidote for severe bleeding in a patient on Coumadin?
A/ Xarelto
B/ Verapamil
C/ Vitamin K
D/ Heparin IV Bolus
A

C/ Vitamin K is the antidote for Coumadin and immediately stops it’s effects, thus reducing patient bleeding by increasing their clotting.

The liver naturally produces vitamin K, Coumadin (warfarin) naturally disrupts this synthesis and reduces the amount of clotting factors. Providing vitamin K injection will disrupt this action.

52
Q

What is Vasopressin? Why is it utilized during Ventricular Tachycardia/Fibrillation in patients who are unresponsive to their initial shock?

A

It is an antidiuretic that increases water retention, as a result it increases peripheral vascular resistance that increases Blood pressure.

53
Q

What does terbutaline do?

A

Bronchodilator used in Asthma, COPD, etc.

54
Q
If your patient is on Sucralfate, what might you suspect your patient suffers from?
A/ Acute Viral Bronchitis
B/ Gastrointestinal Ulcers
C/ Urosepsis
D/ Meningitis
A

B/ Ulcers

Alongside gastric acid, it forms a paste that adheres to the surfaces of the stomach and GI tract that coats ulcers. Provide to client 1 hour prior to meal

55
Q

What is Spironolactone? What kind of patient might receive it?

A

Potassium-sparing Diuretic

Patient with Potassium loss, Hypertension, Edema, CHF

56
Q

What is Sertraline used for? How does it work?

A

Antidepressant used in Depression, OCD, Anxiety

Inhibits the uptake of serotonin

57
Q
If you had a patient taking Rifampin, your patient suffers from:
A/ Tuberculosis
B/ Meningitis
C/ Hepatitis
D/ HIV
A

A/ Tuberculosis

Inhibits RNA synthesis

**Instruct patient not to miss a dose or double-up a dose!

**Must complete entire dose regimen (6-12 months)

58
Q

How does Ranitidine help patients with GERD and Heartburn?

A

Inhibits the action of Histamine in gastric parietal cells and thus decreases gastric acid secretion.

***Also, It can be given in Emergency situations for anaphylactic reactions (alongside Epineprhine, A steroid, and Dimenhydramine)

59
Q

What is Quetiapine used for?

What might it do to your ECG?

A

Antipsychotic medication used in Schizophrenia and Major Depressive Disorder/Mania

Prolongs Q-T interval

60
Q
This agent is used in conscious and unconscious sedation and is considered a general anesthetic that produces amnesia in patients. 
A/ Propanolol
B/ Ondansetron
C/ Levopred
D/ Propofol
A

D/ Propofol

*Can cause apnea, bradycardia, hypotension

61
Q

What is procainamide used for? What does it do?

A

Antiarrhythmic used for a wide variety of ventricular and atrial arrhythmias and after cardioversion.

It decreases excitability of myocardial tissues and slows the conduction velocity of the heart… therefore watch for asystole, widening QRS and hypotension

62
Q

A Client has obtained Levonorgestrel as an emergency contraception. After unprotected sex, the client calls the clinic to ask questions about taking them medication. The nurse realizes they need further education after the client states…
A/ “I can wait up to 4 days after sex to take the medication and prevent any pregnancy”
B/ “My boyfriend can buy Levonorgestrel from a pharmacy is he 18 years old”
C/ “Levonorgestrel works by preventing ovulation or fertilization of the egg”
D/ “I may feel nauseated and have breast tenderness or a headache after taking it”

A

A/

The medication is only useful until around 72 hours post-coitus

Men can purchase the medication if they are 18 or older

Prevents ovulation or fertilization, depending on where the female’s cycle is

Common side effects include: Nausea, Headache, breast tenderness, and stomach pain.

63
Q

A multigravid client will be using medroxyprogesterone acetate and a family planning method. Which statement from the client reflects her understanding of this form of therapy?
A/ “This method requires monthly injections”
B/ “I should have my first injection during my menstruation cycle”
C/ “One possible adverse effect is the absence of my period”
D/ “This drug is given by subcutaneous injection”

A

C/ No Period

Irregular menstrual cycles are possible with amenorrhea. Other adverse effects include weight gain, bleeding and headaches, and depression.

IM injection every 3 months

The first injection should be 5 days post-period

64
Q
A pregnant patient is receiving Magnesium Sulfate for management of preeclampsia. The nurse determines the patient is experiencing toxicity from the medication when which finding is noted?
A/ Proteinuria of +3
B/ Respirations of 10/breaths/min
C/ Presence of deep tendon reflexes
D/ Serum Magnesium of 6 mEq/L
A

B/ Respiration depression

Magnesium Toxicity causes CNS depression and as a result can lead to respiratory depression, LOSS of deep tendon reflexes, and sudden decline in fetal HR and Maternal HR and BP.

Therapeutic Serum Mg levels are 4-7.5 mEq/L

Proteinuria of 3+ is an expected finding with preeclampsia

65
Q
A client in preterm labour at 31 weeks and dilated 4 cm, has been started on Magnesium Sulfate and her contractions have stopped. If her labour is inhibited for the next 48 hours, the nurse anticipates a prescription for:
A/ Nubain
B/ Bethamethasone
C/ RhoGAM (Rho[D] Immune Globulin)
D/ Cervidil vaginal insert
A

B/ Bethamethasone

A glucocorticoid is given to increase the production of surfactant to stimulate fetal lung maturation.

Nubain is an opioid analgesic.

RhoGAM is given to Rh-negative mothers to prevent sensitization

Cervidil vaginal insert is a prostaglandin given to ripen and soften the cervix and to stimulate uterine contractions.

*The client is at 31 weeks, so think of fetal lung development and the importance to increase their surfactant levels to improve their ability to breathe on their own.

66
Q
Methylergonovine (Methergrine) is prescribed for a woman to treat postpartum hemorrhage. Before administration, what is the Priority nursing assessment?
A/ Uterine Tone
B/ Blood Pressure
C/ Amount of Lochia
D/ Deep Tendon Reflexes
A

B/ Blood Pressure

Methergrine is an ergot alkaloid and is used to prevent postpartum hemorrhaging by contracting the uterus. It may also elevate blood pressure, therefore making blood pressure a priority assessment prior to administration.

67
Q
A child with Rheumatic fever has a long-term history of Aspirin use. Which client statement most accurately reflects a true adverse reaction to Aspirin?
A/ Tinnitus
B/ Pruritus
C/ Nausea
D/ Tussis
A

A/ tinnutus (ringing in the ears) is a sign of adverse reaction to Aspirin Therapy. They may need to be assessed for hearing loss.

Pruritis (itchy skin) is more likely the result of Rheumatic fever

Aspirin should be taken with food if an upset stomach or nausea occurs.

Tussis (cough) is most likely to due not enough fluid being consumed when taking medications.

68
Q

The community health nurse visits a client at home. Prednisone, 10 mg orally daily, has been prescribed for the client and the nurse teaches the client about the medication. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is necessary?
A/ “I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it.”
B/ “I need to take the medication every day at the same time.”
C/ “I need to avoid coffee, tea, cola, and chocolate in my diet.”
D/ “If I gain more than 5 pounds a week, I will call my health care provider (HCP).”

A

A/ “I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it.”

Aspirin and other over-the-counter medications should not be taken unless the client consults with the HCP. The client needs to take the medication at the same time every day and should be instructed not to stop the medication. A slight weight gain as a result of an improved appetite is expected, but after the dosage is stabilized, a weight gain of 5 pounds or more weekly should be reported to the HCP. Caffeine-containing foods and fluids need to be avoided because they may contribute to steroid-ulcer development.

69
Q

The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should provide which instructions to the client?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

  1. Diarrhea may occur secondary to the metformin.
  2. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
  3. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
  4. A simple sugar food item is carried and used to treat mild hypoglycemia episodes.
  5. Metformin increases hepatic glucose production to prevent hypoglycemia associated with
    repaglinide.
  6. Muscle pain is an expected effect of metformin and may be treated with acetaminophen
    (Tylenol).
A
  1. Diarrhea may occur secondary to the metformin.
  2. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
  3. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
  4. A simple sugar food item is carried and used to treat mild hypoglycemia episodes.

Repaglinide, a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic agent that stimulates pancreatic insulin secretion, should be taken before meals (approximately 30 minutes before meals) and should be withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide and the client should always be prepared by carrying a simple sugar with her or him at all times. Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic given in combination with repaglinide and works by decreasing hepatic glucose production. A common side effect of metformin is diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect from metformin but it might signify a more serious condition that warrants health care provider notification, not the use of acetaminophen.

70
Q

A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin and regular insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instructions to the client?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY

  1. Hypoglycemia may be experienced before dinnertime.
  2. The insulin dose should be decreased if illness occurs.
  3. The insulin should be administered at room temperature.
  4. The insulin vial needs to be shaken vigorously to break up the precipitates.
  5. The NPH insulin should be drawn into the syringe first, then the regular insulin.
A
  1. Hypoglycemia may be experienced before dinnertime.
  2. The insulin should be administered at room temperature.

Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin. The onset of action is 1.5 hours, it peaks in 4 to 12 hours, and its duration of action is 24 hours. Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin. Depending on the type, the onset of action is 0.5 hour, it peaks in 2 to 5.5 hours, and its duration is 5 to 8 hours. Hypoglycemic reactions most likely occur during peak time. Insulin should be at room temperature when administered. Clients may need their insulin dosages increased during times of illness. Insulin vials should never be shaken vigorously. Regular insulin is always drawn up before NPH.

71
Q

The health care provider (HCP) prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. The nurse should plan to take which most appropriate intervention?
A/ Withhold the medication and call the HCP, questioning the prescription for the client.
B/ Administer the medication within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
C/ Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administering the medication.
D/ Withdraw the insulin from the pre-filled pen into an insulin syringe to prepare for
administration.

A

A/ Withhold the medication and call the HCP, questioning the prescription for the client.

Exenatide (Byetta) is an incretin mimetic used for type 2 diabetes mellitus only. It is not recommended for clients taking insulin. Hence, the nurse should withhold the medication and question the HCP regarding this prescription. Although options 2 and 3 are correct statements about the medication, in this situation the medication should not be administered. The medication is packaged in prefilled pens ready for injection without the need for drawing it up into another syringe.

72
Q

The home care nurse visits a client recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily. The client asks the nurse how to store the unopened vials of insulin. The nurse should tell the client to take which action?
A/ Freeze the insulin.
B/ Refrigerate the insulin.
C/ Store the insulin in a dark, dry place.
D/ Keep the insulin at room temperature.

A

B/ Refrigerate the insulin.

Insulin in unopened vials should be stored under refrigeration until needed. Vials should not be frozen. When stored unopened under refrigeration, insulin can be used up to the expiration date on the vial.

73
Q

The nurse is teaching a client how to mix regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe. Which action, if performed by the client, indicates the need for further teaching?
A/ Withdraws the NPH insulin first
B/ Withdraws the regular insulin first
C/ Injects air into NPH insulin vial first
D/ Injects an amount of air equal to the desired dose of insulin into each vial

A

A/ Withdraws the NPH insulin first

When preparing a mixture of short-acting insulin such as regular insulin with another insulin preparation, the short-acting insulin is drawn into the syringe first. This sequence will avoid contaminating the vial of short-acting insulin with insulin of another type.

Short-acting is clear, NPH (intermediate) is cloudy.

74
Q

The nurse is monitoring a client receiving levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) for hypothyroidism. Which findings indicate the presence of a side effect associated with this medication?
Select All That Apply

  1. Insomnia
  2. Weight loss
  3. Bradycardia
  4. Constipation
  5. Mild heat intolerance
A
  1. Insomnia
  2. Weight loss
  3. Mild heat intolerance

Insomnia, weight loss, and mild heat intolerance are side effects of levothyroxine sodium. Bradycardia and constipation are not side effects associated with this medication, and rather are associated with hypothyroidism, which is the disorder that this medication is prescribed to treat.

75
Q
The nurse provides instructions to a client who is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid). The nurse should tell the client to take the medication at which time?
A/ With food
B/ At lunchtime
C/ On an empty stomach
D/ At bedtime with a snack
A

C/ On an empty stomach

Oral doses of levothyroxine (Synthroid) should be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Dosing should be done in the morning before breakfast.

76
Q
The nurse provides medication instructions to a client who is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid) and should tell the client to notify the health care provider (HCP) if which problem occurs?
A/ Fatigue
B/ Tremors
C/ Cold intolerance
D/ Excessively dry skin
A

B/ Tremors

Excessive doses of levothyroxine (Synthroid) can produce signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism. These include tachycardia, chest pain, tremors, nervousness, insomnia, hyperthermia, extreme heat intolerance, and sweating. The client should be instructed to notify the HCP if these occur. Options 1, 3, and 4 are symptoms related to hypothyroidism.

77
Q
The nurse performs an admission assessment on a client who visits a health care clinic for the first time. The client tells the nurse that propylthiouracil (PTU) is taken daily. The nurse continues to collect data from the client, suspecting that the client has a history of which condition?
A/ Myxedema
B/ Graves’ disease
C/ Addison’s disease 
D/ Cushing’s syndrome
A

B/ Graves’ disease

Propylthiouracil (PTU) inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis and is used to treat hyperthyroidism, or Graves’ disease. Myxedema indicates hypothyroidism. Cushing’s syndrome and Addison’s disease are disorders related to adrenal function.

78
Q

Prednisone is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus who is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily. Which prescription change does the nurse anticipate during therapy with the prednisone?
A/ An additional dose of prednisone daily
B/ A decreased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin
C/ An increased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin
D/ The addition of an oral hypoglycemic medication daily

A

C/ An increased amount of daily Humulin NPH insulin

Glucocorticoids can elevate blood glucose levels. Clients with diabetes mellitus may need their dosages of insulin or oral hypoglycemic medications increased during glucocorticoid therapy.

79
Q

A client with Crohn’s disease is scheduled to receive an infusion of infliximab (Remicade). What intervention by the nurse will determine the effectiveness of treatment?
A/ Monitoring the leukocyte count for 2 days after the infusion
B/ Checking the frequency and consistency of bowel movements
C/ Checking serum liver enzyme levels before and after the infusion
D/ Carrying out a Hematest on gastric fluids after the infusion is completed

A

B/ Checking the frequency and consistency of bowel movements

The principal manifestations of Crohn’s disease are diarrhea and abdominal pain. Infliximab (Remicade) is an immunomodulator that reduces the degree of inflammation in the colon, thereby reducing the diarrhea.

80
Q

A client has a PRN prescription for loperamide hydrochloride (Imodium). For which condition should the nurse administer this medication?
A/ Constipation
B/ Abdominal pain
C/ An episode of diarrhea
D/ Hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage

A

C/ An episode of diarrhea

Loperamide is an antidiarrheal agent. It is used to manage acute and chronic diarrhea in conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease. Loperamide also can be used to reduce the volume of drainage from an ileostomy.

81
Q
A client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase. The nurse evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is observed?
A/ Weight loss
B/ Relief of heartburn
C/ Reduction of steatorrhea
D/ Absence of abdominal pain
A

C/ Reduction of steatorrhea

Pancrelipase (Pancrease, Creon) is a pancreatic enzyme used in clients with pancreatitis as a digestive aid. The medication should reduce the amount of fatty stools (steatorrhea). Another intended effect could be improved nutritional status.

82
Q
An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?
A/ Tremors
B/ Dizziness
C/ Confusion
D/ Hallucinations
A

C/ Confusion

Cimetidine is a histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist. Older clients are especially susceptible to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent of these is confusion. Less common central nervous system side effects include headache, dizziness, drowsiness, and hallucinations.

83
Q
A client with a gastric ulcer has a prescription for sucralfate (Carafate), 1 g by mouth four times daily. The nurse should schedule the medication for which times?
A/ With meals and at bedtime
B/ Every 6 hours around the clock
C/ One hour after meals and at bedtime 
D/ One hour before meals and at bedtime
A

D/ One hour before meals and at bedtime

Sucralfate is a gastric protectant. The medication should be scheduled for administration 1 hour before meals and at bedtime. The medication is timed to allow it to form a protective coating over the ulcer before food intake stimulates gastric acid production and mechanical irritation

84
Q
A client has been taking omeprazole for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving the optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom?
A/ Diarrhea
B/ Heartburn
C/ Flatulence 
D/ Constipation
A

B/ Heartburn

Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor classified as an antiulcer agent. The intended effect of the medication is relief of pain from gastric irritation, often called heartburn by clients.

85
Q

A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with a H. pylori infection. The nurse is teaching the client about the medications prescribed, including clarithromycin, esomeprazole, and amoxicillin. Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication regimen?
A/ “My ulcer will heal because these medications will kill the bacteria.”
B/ “These medications are only taken when I have pain from my ulcer.”
C/ “The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production.”
D/ “These medications will coat the ulcer and decrease the acid production in my stomach.”

A

C/ “The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production.”

Triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection usually includes two antibacterial medications and a proton pump inhibitor. Clarithromycin and amoxicillin are antibacterials. Esomeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor. These medications will kill the bacteria and decrease acid production.

86
Q

A client has a new prescription for metoclopramide. On review of the chart, the nurse identifies that this medication can be safely administered with which condition?
A/ Intestinal obstruction
B/ Peptic ulcer with melena
C/ Diverticulitis with perforation
D/ Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy

A

D/ Vomiting following cancer chemotherapy

Metoclopramide is a gastrointestinal stimulant and antiemetic. Because it is a gastrointestinal stimulant, it is contraindicated with gastrointestinal obstruction, hemorrhage, or perforation. It is used in the treatment of emesis after surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation.

87
Q
A histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medications are H2-receptor antagonists? 
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
  1. Nizatidine (Axid)
  2. Ranitidine (Zantac)
  3. Famotidine (Pepcid)
  4. Cimetidine (Tagamet)
  5. Esomeprazole (Nexium)
  6. Lansoprazole (Prevacid)
A
  1. Nizatidine (Axid)
  2. Ranitidine (Zantac)
  3. Famotidine (Pepcid)
  4. Cimetidine (Tagamet)

H2-receptor antagonists suppress secretion of gastric acid, alleviate symptoms of heartburn, and assist in preventing complications of peptic ulcer disease. These medications also suppress gastric acid secretions and are used in active ulcer disease, erosive esophagitis, and pathological hypersecretory conditions. The other medications listed are proton pump inhibitors.

88
Q

The nurse has given instructions to a client who has just been prescribed cholestyramine. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions?
A/ “I will continue taking vitamin supplements.”
B/ “This medication will help lower my cholesterol.”
C/ “This medication should only be taken with water.”
D/ “A high-fiber diet is important while taking this medication.”

A

C/ “This medication should only be taken with water.”

Cholestyramine (Questran) is a bile acid sequestrant used to lower the cholesterol level, and client compliance is a problem because of its taste and palatability. The use of flavored products or fruit juices can improve the taste. Some side effects of bile acid sequestrants include constipation and decreased vitamin absorption.