Histology - Musculoskeletal Block (I) Flashcards

1
Q

True/False.

Neurons are both irritable (responsive to stimuli) and conductive.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The CNS is made up of what major portions?

A

Brain,

spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the major portions of the brainstem?

A

Midbrain

pons,

medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The peripheral nervous system is made of what major parts?

How many of each?

A

Cranial nerves (12);

spinal nerves (31)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The brain is made up of what major portions?

A

Cerebrum,

cerebellum,

brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is another term for neuronal cytoplasm?

What is another term for neuronal RER?

A

Perikaryon;

Nissl bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Neurons typically have a maximum of how many dendrites?

Neurons typically have a maximum of how many axons?

A

15;

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dendritic branches are called:

A

gemmules (spines)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Axons originate at the:

What happens here?

A

Axon hillock;

summation (temporal and spatial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What basic neuron configuration (i.e. axonal and dendritic branching) do motor neurons have?

A

Multipolar

(multiple dendrites + 1 axon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What basic neuron configuration (i.e. axonal and dendritic branching) do general sensory neurons have?

A

Pseudounipolar

(sensory side + laterally removed soma + transmitting side)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What basic neuron configuration (i.e. axonal and dendritic branching) do special sensory neurons have?

A

Bipolar

(sensory side and transmitting side bisected by soma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What neuron type is responsible for circuit formation and creating high neuronal interconnection?

A

Interneurons

(typically multipolar)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Motor neurons are:

Sensory (general) neurons are:

Special sensory neurons are:

Interneurons are:

A

Multipolar;

pseudounipolar;

bipolar;

multipolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Bipolar neurons are:

Multipolar neurons are:

Pseudounipolar neurons are:

A

Special sensory;

motor (or interneurons);

sensory (general)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where is the most obvious location of a collection of pseudounipolar cell soma?

A

Any dorsal root ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True/False.

Interneurons are often multipolar.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Pyramidal cells and Purkinje cells receive large amounts of input from what type of neuron?

A

Interneurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of multipolar neuron is found primarily in the cerebrum?

What type of multipolar neuron is found primarily in the cerebellum?

A

Pyramidal cells;

Purkinje cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of cell is a pyramidal cell (e.g. multipolar, unipolar, bipolar, pseudounipolar, etc.)?

A

Multipolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of cell is a Purkinje cell (e.g. multipolar, unipolar, bipolar, pseudounipolar, etc.)?

A

Multipolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What basic neuron configuration (i.e. axonal and dendritic branching) do interneurons have?

A

Multipolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Where are pyramidal cells found?

A

The cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where are Purkinje cells found?

A

The cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In what layers of the cerebrum are pyramidal cells found?

With what functions are they associated?

A

Layers III and V;

memory, learning, sensory information integration, motor response initiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The large motor neurons seen in the anterior horn are what kind of neuron?

What is found in abundance in their cytoplasm?

A

Multipolar;

Nissl bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the name of the extracellular space surrounding motor neurons found in the anterior horn?

What is found here?

A

Neuropile;

axons, dendrites, blood vessels, and glial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The lines coming from the right side of the image are indicating what structures?

What type of cell is this likely to be?

What is the extracellular space called?

A

Nissl bodies;

a motor neuron;

neuropile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the ratio of glial cells to neurons in the CNS?

A

10:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the four glial cells of the CNS?

A

Astrocytes,

ependymal cells,

oligodendrocytes,

microglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What shape are ependymal cells?

A

Columnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the two main types of astrocyte?

Where does each (mainly) occur?

A

Protoplasmic (gray matter),

fibrous (white matter)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Glial tumors mostly arise from which type of astrocyte?

A

Fibrous astrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What type of cell is shown in this micrograph?

A

Astrocytes

(here shown under fluorescence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Astrocyte foot projections mostly wrap around what two structures?

A

Blood vessels (contributing to the BBB);

neurons (providing support, repair, and K+ / neurotransmitter removal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What type of cell is shown in this micrograph?

A

A microglial cell

(small, fibrous, dark-staining)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How many types of oligodendrocyte are there?

What are they?

A

3;

perivascular,

satellite,

interfascicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What cells are stained ‘G’ and what cells are stained ‘N’ in this micrograph?

A

Glial cells;

neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of cell is shown in this micrograph?

Name the structure indicated by the ‘P.’

A

Astrocytes;

foot processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the main glial cells of the PNS?

A

Satellite cells;

Schwann cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Peripheral nerve axon bundles are known as:

These bundles are surrounded by:

A

Fascicles;

connective tissue sheaths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the name for the connective tissue sheath surrounding each individual fascicle (bundle of axons)?

What is the name for the connective tissue sheath surrounding several fascicles (bundles of axons)?

A

Perineurium;

epineurium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A group of axons makes up a ________, a group of which makes up a ________.

A

Fascicle, nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What thin layer of connective tissue surround an individual axon and its associated Schwann cell?

Describe this connective tissue.

A

Endoneurium;

loose reticular fibers (type III collagen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The permeability barrier of a nerve is made of what type of junctions?

This barrier is found in what layer of connective tissue?

A

Tight junctions;

perineurium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe the perineurium.

A

Flattened cells surround groups of axons that form fascicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What type of tissue makes up the epineurium?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

True/False.

One individual Schwann cell pairs with one individual axon at a particular point and wraps around it once.

A

False;

one Schwann cell wraps around one neuron many times at a particular point, making multiple layers of insulation

(from a few up to 150 layers from a single Schwann cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The length of axon that is covered by a Schwann cell is called the _________.

The short gaps of exposed axon between Schwann cells are called ______________.

A

Internode (1 - 1.5 mm);

nodes of Ranvier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How long is the typical length of axon covered by a Schwann cell? What is this space called?

How many Schwann cells can be needed to myelinate a single axon?

A

1 - 1.5 mm, the internode;

100s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What type of myelinating cell is found in the PNS?

What specific type of myelinating cell is found in the CNS?

A

Schwann cells;

interfascicular oligodendrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

One Schwann cell can be attached to how many neurons?

One oligodendrocyte cell can be attached to how many neurons?

A

1;

up to 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

True/False.

Many PNS axons are not sheathed by Schwann cells and are not myelinated.

A

False;

although it is true that many are unmyelinated, all PNS axons are protected and supported (‘sheathed’) by Schwann cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

True/False.

A single oligodendrocyte can myelinate several internodes of the same axon.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What term describes nervous conduction down myelinated axons from node of Ranvier to node of Ranvier?

A

Saltatory conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the purpose of nervous ganglia?

Sensory ganglia send information to the:

Autonomic (motor) ganglia send information to the:

A

To act as relay stations;

CNS;

effector organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

True/False.

Motor ganglia are synaptic stations.

True/False.

Sensory ganglia are synaptic stations.

A

True;

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which has its nucleus in a central position within the cell, a large multipolar neuron (e.g. a motor neuron) or a neuron found in a sensory ganglion?

A

Sensory ganglia neurons

(motor neurons have peripherally displaced nuclei as seen in this image)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the two major types of plexi (nets of ganglia) found in the enteric nervous system?

A

Submucosal (Meissner’s);

myenteric (Auerbach’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

This micrograph shows nervous tissue between two separate layers of muscular tissue that have differing orientations.

This is most likely to be from what organ system?

What is this collection of nervous tissue called?

A

The gut;

the myenteric (Auerbach’s) plexus

(of the enteric nervous system)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Name the type of synaptic junction:

an axon synapsing on a non-neuronal cell

A

Axosomatic synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Name the type of synaptic junction:

an axon synapsing on a dendritic spine

A

Axodendritic synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Name the type of synaptic junction:

an axon synapsing on an adjacent axon

A

Axoaxonic synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How long is the average synaptic cleft?

A

~25 nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Presynaptic cholinergic neurons have what type of appearance to their vesicles?

A

Clear vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Presynaptic adrenergic neurons have what type of appearance to their vesicles?

A

Dense vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which horns of the gray matter in spinal cord cross section will reach the outer surface of the cord?

What horns appear largest?

(Options: ventral, lateral, and dorsal horns)

A

Dorsal horns;

ventral horns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

From superficial to deep, what are the three layers of cerebellar cortex in terms of type of neuron?

A

Molecular (synaptic);

Purkinje;

granular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the outer layer of the cerebellar cortex in terms of type of neuron?

A

Molecular (synaptic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the middle layer of the cerebellar cortex in terms of type of neuron?

A

Purkinje (functional; motor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the inner layer of the cerebellar cortex in terms of type of neuron?

A

Granular

(small, densely packed neurons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

How many cellular layers of cerebral cortex are there?

From superficial to deep, what are the outer three cellular layers of the cerebral cortex?

A

6;

molecular (I),

external granular (II),

external pyramidal (III)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How many cellular layers of cerebral cortex are there?

From superficial to deep, what are the inner three cellular layers of the cerebral cortex?

A

6;

internal granular (IV),

internal pyramidal (ganglionic) (V),

multiform (polymorphic) (VI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How many cellular layers of cerebral cortex are there?

From superficial to deep, what are they?

A

6;

molecular (I),

external granular (II),

external pyramidal (III),

internal granular (IV),

internal pyramidal (ganglionic) (V),

multiform (polymorphic) (VI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the main functional cells of the cerebral cortex?

In what layers are they found?

A

Pyramidal cells;

layers III and V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What percent of interneurons are found in the CNS?

A

99.9%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Are any inclusions common in neurons?

A

Lipofuscin (especially in the elderly);

melanin (from the substantia nigra pars compacta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

For what types of movement is fast axonal transport used?

For what types of movement is slow axonal transport used?

A

Movement of vesicles and mitochondria;

cytoplasmic proteins for the assembly of microtubules and neurofilaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What type of CNS cell is particularly small and not typically seen in normal brain tissues?

A

Microglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

True/False.

Ependymal cells can be either columnar or cuboidal.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

True/False.

Ependymal cells can have both cilia and microvili.

True/False.

If the above is true about either cilia or microvili, this means that the ependymal cells are epithelial cells.

A

True

(for movement or absorption purposes);

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What shape is a Schwann cell nucleus?

A

Flat and small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What type of tissue is shown in this micrograph?

What are some of its defining characteristics?

A

Cardiac muscle;

striations, intercalated discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What type of tissue is shown in this micrograph?

What are some of its defining characteristics?

A

Skeletal muscle;

striations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What type of tissue is shown in this micrograph?

What are some of its defining characteristics?

A

Smooth muscle;

non-striated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which of these types of muscle is striated?

Cardiac

Smooth

Skeletal

A

Cardiac,

skeletal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q
A

Astrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q
A

A. Autonomic ganglia

B. Smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q
A

A. Myelinated nerve axon

B. Unmyelinated nerve axon

C. Schwann cell

D. Fibroblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q
A

A. Purkinje cells

B. Molecular layer

C. Granular layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

A - F

A

A. Cerebellar tissue

B. Cortex

C. Medulla

D. Molecular layer

E. Granular layer

F. Purkinje cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q
A

A. Dorsal root ganglion pseudounipolar cells

B. Satellite cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q
A

Multipolar neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q
A

Myelin sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q
A

A. Cerebellar cortex

B. Pyramidal neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q
A

Nodes of Ranvier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q
A

(Note: the synapse is just the tiny line. There is a synapse on either side of the central axon in the image)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q
A

Autonomic ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q
A

Peripheral nerves

105
Q

Nervous tissue is composed of two major types of cells?

A

Neurons;

neuroglia (glial cells)

106
Q

True/False. Unmyelinated peripheral neurons are often still enveloped in Schwann cell cytoplasm?

A

True.

(just not wrapped in multiple layers to create the myelination effect)

107
Q

What type of cell is this and where is it likely to be found?

What are its cytoplasmic aggregates?

A

A motor (multipolar) neuron,

the ventral horn;

Nissl substance

108
Q

Is Nissl substance basophilic or eosinphilic?

Why?

A

Basophilic;

high concentrations of rRNA

109
Q

You identify a motor neuron in a section of spinal cord histology. Where did you find it?

In what parts of the neuron are you not likely to find Nissl substance?

A

The ventral horn;

the axon hillock and axon

110
Q

What types of cell are most prominent in this slide?

What smaller cells surround these prominent cells?

Where is a likely location of the PNS where this slide was found?

A

Sensory neurons (pseudounipolar);

satellite cells;

dorsal root ganglion

111
Q

This slide shows a portion of a sympathetic autonomic ganglion.

What inclusions are see in the cytoplasm?

A

Lipofuscin

(in lysosomes)

112
Q

True/False.

Dorsal root ganglia are synaptic locations.

True/False.

The ventral horns are synaptic locations.

True/False.

The dorsal horns are synaptic locations.

True/False.

Autonomic ganglia are synaptic locations.

A

False;

true;

true;

true

113
Q

Name the three layers of connective tissue associated with nerves.

A

Endoneurium (surrounds each nerve fiber)

Perineurium (surrounds bundles of nerve fibers (i.e., fascicle))

Epineurium (dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds an entire nerve)

114
Q

Endoneurium surrounds:

Perineurium surrounds:

Epineurium surrounds:

A

Each nerve fiber;

each bundle (fascicle) of nerve fibers;

an entire nerve

115
Q

Why are longitudinally cut nerves “wavy” in appearance?

A

To allow stretching and movement with tissues

116
Q

What type of connective tissue is epineurium?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue

117
Q

What type of connective tissue fiber is associated with endoneurium?

A

Type III collagen

118
Q

What type of connective tissue fiber is associated with epineurium?

A

Type I collagen (dense irregular connective tissue)

119
Q

What type of connective tissue fiber is associated with Schwann cell basement membranes?

A

Type IV collagen

120
Q

What type of connective tissue fiber is associated with Schwann cell basement membranes?

What type of connective tissue fiber is associated with endoneurium?

What type of connective tissue fiber is associated with epineurium?

A

Type IV collagen;

type III collagen;

type I collagen

121
Q

Neurons releasing adrenergic products are characterized by what type of vesicle in their axons?

A

Dense (dark) vesicles

122
Q

Neurons releasing cholinergic products are characterized by what type of vesicle in their axons?

A

Clear (light) vesicles

123
Q

Which type of secretory axon is this more likely to be, cholinergic or adrenergic?

A

Cholinergic

(clear vesicles)

124
Q

Which type of secretory axon is this more likely to be, cholinergic or adrenergic?

A

Adrenergic

(dense vesicles)

125
Q

What are four primary types of motor neuron found in the body?

Where are their respective soma found?

A

Somatic motor neurons in the ventral horn;

autonomic motor neurons in the autonomic ganglia;

Purkinje cells in the cerebellum (between the granular and molecular layers);

*pyramidal (Betz) cells in the cerebrum (layers III and V)

(note: *pyramidal cells are also responsible for cognition and many other tasks)

126
Q

What pyramidal (Betz) cell structure extends towards the superficial cerebral layers?

What pyramidal (Betz) cell structure extends towards the deep cerebral layers?

A

Apical dendrites;

the axon

127
Q

Pyramidal (Betz) cells are characterized by ___________ extending superficially, ___________ extending laterally, and ___________ extending deeply.

A

apical dendrites,

basal dendrites,

axons

128
Q

How does the rabies virus get to the host CNS from the original wound (often a peripheral bite mark)?

How does the rabies virus get to the host salivary glands from the CNS?

A

It rides dyneins back to the CNS;

it rides kinesins back to the salivary glands

129
Q

How does the rabies virus get to the host CNS from the original wound (often a peripheral bite mark)?

A

It rides dyneins in the peripheral nerves

130
Q

How does the rabies virus get to the host salivary glands from the CNS?

A

It rides kinesin proteins down microtubules in the peripheral nerves

131
Q

What explains the extremely high latency period between a person being bitten by a rabid animal and that same person showing signs/symptoms of the disease?

(sometimes years)

A

The rabies virus rides dyneins back to the CNS and then kinesins down to the salivary glands from there

(this can be an extremely long process, especially if the initial rabid bite was far in the periphery (e.g. the hand or foot) and a small, slow nerve was infected)

132
Q

Which of these types of muscle is striated?

Cardiac

Smooth

Skeletal

A

Cardiac,

skeletal

133
Q

What type of tissue is shown in this micrograph?

What are some of its defining characteristics?

A

Skeletal muscle;

striations

134
Q

What type of tissue is shown in this micrograph?

What are some of its defining characteristics?

A

Cardiac muscle;

striations, intercalated discs

135
Q

What type of tissue is shown in this micrograph?

What are some of its defining characteristics?

A

Smooth muscle;

non-striated

136
Q

When we say some muscle tissue is striated, what does that mean?

A

The tissue has alternating dark and white lines that are perpendicular to the direction of the muscle fibers

140
Q

Dystrophin connects what filament type to protein complexes of the plasma membrane?

These plasma membrane complexes connect to what extracellular structure?

A

F-actin;

laminin

142
Q

State the proper terminology for the following in relation to a myocyte:

Plasma membrane

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Cytoplasm

A

Sarcolemma;

sarcoplasmic reticulum;

sarcoplasm

143
Q

What type(s) of muscle is(are) striated?

A

Skeletal;

cardiac

144
Q

What type of muscle is striated and involuntary?

What type of muscle is striated and voluntary?

What type of muscle is non-striated and involuntary?

What type of muscle is non-striated and voluntary?

A

Cardiac;

skeletal;

smooth;

none (does not exist)

146
Q

What are the two main myofilaments?

A

Myosin (thick);

actin (thin)

147
Q

What proteins are associated with myosin?

A

Titin (anchors thick filaments to Z lines)

148
Q

In striated muscle, the dark bands are called __ bands.

The light bands are called __ bands.

A

A

(dArk bands);

I

(lIght bands)

149
Q

What proteins are associated with actin?

A

Tropomyosin (covers myosin-binding sites);

troponin (binds calcium, moves tropomyosin);

nebulin (stabilizes and aligns actin polymers);

dystrophin (anchors thin filaments to plasma membrane protein complexes)

150
Q

What protein runs alongside myosin, anchoring it to the Z-lines and running the entire length of a sarcomere?

A

Titin

151
Q

What type of protein gives muscle its elasticity?

A

Titin

152
Q

Name 1, 4, 5, 7, 9, 10, and 11.

A

1 - Z-line

4 - M-line

5 - titin

7 - sarcomere (Z-to-Z)

9 - H-zone

10 - A-band

11 - I-band

153
Q

What proteins are found in the I band?

A

Actin,

tropomyosin,

troponin,

nebulin,

z-line proteins,

titin

154
Q

What proteins are found in the A band?

A

Myosin, M-line proteins

+ I band proteins

(actin, tropomyosin, troponin, nebulin, titin)

155
Q

What proteins are found in the H-zone?

A

Myosin, myomesin (M-line protein), titin

156
Q

What are two unique facts about skeletal muscle nuclei?

A

Skeletal myocytes are multinucleated;

the nuclei are peripherally located

157
Q

Skeletal myocytes are basically elongated plasma membranes filled with:

and peripherally lined by:

A

myofibrils;

many nuclei

159
Q

In striated muscle, what dark line bisects each I band?

In striated muscle, what light area bisects each A band?

A

The Z-line;

the H band

160
Q

What type of cell has a very limited role in providing regenerative effects in damaged skeletal muscle?

A

Satellite cells

161
Q

Many __________ fuse into a single elongated ___________ that runs with other similar cells to make up a muscle fascicle.

A

Myoblasts;

myofiber (myocyte)

162
Q

How is myocyte contraction linked to surrounding connective tissue?

A

Dystrophin (intracellular) connects actin to plasma membrane protein complexes;

these complexes connect to laminin in the endomysium basement membrane (extracellular)

163
Q

Name as many proteins of the sarcomere as you can.

A

Myosin, titin, myomesin (and C-proteins);

actin, tropomyosin, troponin, nebulin, alpha-actinin

(peripherally associated: dystrophin, desmin)

164
Q

What type of cell junction unites myocytes?

A

None!

They are held together by layers of connective tissue (endomysium, perimysium, epimysium)

169
Q

What layer of muscle connective tissue carries most of the vasculature and nervous innervation for the muscle?

A

Epimysium

170
Q

1st step - myosin bound to actin

What is the 2nd step of the actin-myosin crossbridge cycle?

What is the 3rd step of the actin-myosin crossbridge cycle?

What is the 4th step of the actin-myosin crossbridge cycle?

What is the 5th step of the actin-myosin crossbridge cycle?

A

ATP binds myosin (myosin releases actin);

ATP hydrolysis (myosin bending);

force generation (contraction, phosphate release);

reattachment (myosin inactive, bound to actin)

171
Q

What are the triads extending down into each myocyte?

A

One T-tubule + two sarcoplasmic reticula

(i.e. a long, narrow sarcolemma invagination with two long, narrow smooth endoplasmic reticula on either side)

172
Q

Epimysium surrounds bunches of muscle fascicles. It is made of what type of connective tissue?

This is associated with what type of connective tissue fiber in particular?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue;

type I collagen

173
Q

In close examination of striated muscle, a thin line can be seen bisecting each I band (lIght band). What is that line?

A

Z lines

174
Q

Identify the muscle spindle apparatus in this cross-section of skeletal muscle.

A

(Blue circle)

175
Q

What type of tissue is shown here?

Outline one single cell in this cross-section.

A

Skeletal muscle

(blue line)

177
Q

What structure is shown in this slide?

A

A myotendinous junction

(skeletal muscle attaching to tendon)

178
Q

A sarcomere is defined as the space from one __ line to the next.

A

Z

179
Q

In striated muscle, which are the A bands and why are they called this?

In striated muscle, which are the I bands and why are they called this?

A

Dark bands (dArk), they are anisotropic;

light bands (lIght) they are isotropic

182
Q

Which striation bands shorten during muscle contraction?

Which striation band remains the same length during muscle contraction?

A

The I and H bands;

the A band

183
Q

What are the two binding sites of a myosin head?

A

Actin-binding;

ATP-binding

184
Q

When activated, protein 1 pulls protein 2 off the myosin-binding site on F-actin.

What is protein 1 and what is protein 2?

A

Troponin;

tropomyosin

185
Q

What type of myofilament is found in the A band but not in the H band?

A

Light myofilaments (actin + associated proteins)

186
Q

Why are smooth myocytes not striated?

A

The sarcomeres are randomly arranged in various directions

(i.e. not in myofibrils)

187
Q

Instead of Z-lines, smooth myocytes have:

A

Dense bodies

188
Q

What band of the sarcomere is thick filaments only?

What band of the sarcomere is both thick and thin filaments?

What band of the sarcomere is thin filaments only?

A

H band;

A band (length of thick filaments);

I band

189
Q

What structure connects two adjacent thick filaments within one sarcomere?

A

Myomesin (M-line protein)

190
Q

What is the difference in myosin between cardiac, skeletal, and smooth muscle?

A

Skeletal/cardiac muscle = bipolar;

smooth muscle = side polar

191
Q

Dense bodies in smooth muscle are analogous to what structure in skeletal and cardiac muscle?

The bodies are attached to what proteins and what other structure?

A

Z-lines;

intermediate filaments (vimentin, desmin), the sarcolemma

194
Q

What protein binds F-actin to Z-lines?

A

Alpha-actinin

195
Q

The specific protein found in the M-line of a sarcomere is called:

A

Myomesin

198
Q

Abnormalities in the dystrophin protein are liked to what two disorders?

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (dystrophin nearly completely absent);

Becker muscular dystrophy (dystrophin partially absent)

200
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is linked to mutations in what protein?

Becker muscular dystrophy is linked to mutations in what protein?

A

Dystrophin;

dystrophin

201
Q

What role does desmin play in myocytes?

Does it assist in contraction?

A

It anchors Z-lines to the sarcolemma;

no (it is structural, maintaining shape)

202
Q

What protein anchors actin to Z-lines?

What protein anchors myosin to Z-lines?

What protein anchors Z-lines to the sarcolemma?

What protein anchors F-actin to the sarcolemma?

A

Alpha-actinin;

titin;

desmin;

dystrophin

203
Q

What protein anchors actin to Z-lines?

A

Alpha-actinin

204
Q

What protein anchors myosin to Z-lines?

A

Titin

205
Q

What protein anchors Z-lines to the sarcolemma?

A

Desmin

206
Q

What protein anchors F-actin to the sarcolemma?

A

Dystrophin

207
Q

Dense bodies are analogous to __________ in skeletal muscle.

Two proteins (which?) and what other structure anchor these bodies in place?

A

Z-lines;

vimentin, desmin

(intermediate filaments),

the sarcolemma

208
Q

Name the differences in myosin orientation between smooth, cardiac, and skeletal muscle.

A

Skeletal/cardiac = bipolar myosin;

smooth = sidepolar myosin

209
Q

Starting at the initial influx of calcium into the myocyte, what happens next in smooth muscle activation?

A

Ca2+ binds/activates calmodulin;

this complex than activates myosin light-chain kinase (MLCK);

the kinase phosphorylates the circular (self-bound) myosin to unbind/activate it

210
Q

What causes rigor mortis?

A

The lack of ATP prevents actin-myosin dissociation

213
Q

What types of tissue are the three with boxes obscuring them in this slide?

A

Smooth muscle cross-section;

smooth muscle longitudinal section;

dense irregular connective tissue

214
Q
A

Cardiac muscle

215
Q
A

Smooth muscle

216
Q
A

Cardiac muscle

(Bs indicate intercalated discs)

217
Q
A
218
Q
A
219
Q
A

Skeletal muscle fibers

220
Q
A

Skeletal muscle

221
Q
A

Cardiac muscle

222
Q
A

Smooth muscle (cross-section)

223
Q
A
224
Q
A
225
Q

What structure stores calcium within myocytes?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticula

226
Q

Myasthenia gravis involves antibodies to cholinergic receptors in what location?

A

The sarcolemma (at the neuromuscular junction)

229
Q

What two special sensory organs relate information back to the CNS about the degree of stretch and tension in skeletal muscle?

A

Muscle spindles (within the muscle fibers);

Golgi tendon apparatus (within the myotendinous junctions)

230
Q

Tendons attach to what bony structure?

A

Periosteum

(both are types of dense connective tissue)

231
Q

What are the three main types of skeletal muscle according to function?

A

Type I;

type IIa;

type IIb

232
Q

What type of tissue is shown in this slide?

What is the yellowish substance seen in some cells?

A

Cardiac muscle;

lipofuscin

233
Q

What type of skeletal muscle fiber is slow oxidative and fatigue-resistant?

A

Type I (red)

234
Q

Some cardiac myocytes stain an intense magenta if treated with periodic Acid-Schiff stain (PAS). What are these cells and why do they stain this way?

A

Purkinje cells

(modifed myocytes that conduct electrical impulses);

abundant glycogen inclusions

235
Q

What type of skeletal muscle fiber is fast oxidative glycolytic?

A

Type IIa (intermediate)

236
Q

What type of tissue is indicated by the circles in this slide?

(Orange, red, green, purple)

A

Orange - dense irregular CT fibers

Red - smooth muscle (longitudinal)

Green - a parasympathetic ganglion

Purple - smooth muscle (cross-section)

237
Q

What type of skeletal muscle fiber is fast glycolytic and fatigue-prone?

A

Type IIb (white)

238
Q

What type of skeletal muscle fiber is ‘red?’

What type of skeletal muscle fiber is ‘intermediate?’

What type of skeletal muscle fiber is ‘white?’

A

Type I;

type IIa;

type IIb

239
Q

Which of the following is more prevalent in each type of skeletal muscle (red or white):

1. Mitochondria

2. Vascularity

3. Myoglobin

4. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

1 - Red

2 - Red

3 - Red

4 - White

240
Q

What type(s) of muscle is(are) characterized by a high quantity of gap junctions?

A

Cardiac;

smooth

241
Q

Which type of muscle is characterized by branching and anastomosing between fibers?

A

Cardiac

242
Q

What type(s) of muscle is(are) characterized by centrally located nuclei?

What type(s) of muscle is(are) characterized by peripherally located nuclei?

A

Smooth, cardiac;

skeletal

243
Q

Intercalated disc are made up of what type of cellular junction(s)?

A

Gap;

desmosomes

244
Q

What type of muscle is not characterized by the T-tubule system?

What does it have instead?

A

Smooth myocytes;

caveolae (smaller invaginations)

245
Q

Are any muscle types able to easily regenerate?

A

Only smooth muscle

246
Q

What type of tissue is shown here?

How can you tell?

A

A leiomyoma (benign tumor of smooth muscle);

whorled (fascicular) pattern of smooth muscle bundles separated by well-vascularized connective tissue

< 5 mitotic figures per HPF, no significant atypia

247
Q

What proteins anchor smooth muscle dense bodies in place?

A

Vimentin, desmin

(intermediate filaments)

248
Q

What type of tissue is this?

How can you tell?

A

Leiomyosarcoma;

atypia + either mitotic activity, tumor cell necrosis, or size > 10cm

252
Q

Skeletal myocytes gets calcium from:

Smooth myocytes gets calcium from:

Cardiac myocytes gets calcium from:

A

The sarcoplasmic reticulum

The extracellular fluid; adjacent smooth muscle cells

The sarcoplasmic reticulum; adjacent cardiac muscle cells

253
Q

What shape are skeletal myocytes?

What shape are smooth myocytes?

A

Polygonal;

fusiform

254
Q

Where are skeletal myocyte nuclei?

Where is a cardiac myocyte nucleus?

Where is a smooth myocyte nucleus?

A

Peripheral;

central;

central

267
Q

A skeletal muscle fiber (myofiber) is just one, long:

A

Myocyte

268
Q

One single myofiber (myocyte) is filled with many, many chains of:

A

myofibrils

269
Q

Where are muscle satellite cells found?

A

On the surface of skeletal muscle cells

270
Q

Are muscle striations parallel lines or perpendicular lines to the direction of the myocyte and its myofibrils?

A

Perpendicular lines

271
Q

What is here described:

“fluid-filled capsules enclosing a few small muscle cells and nerve fibers

A

Muscle spindles

272
Q

How many nuclei are typically present in cardiac myocytes?

A

1

(but may be 2)

273
Q

Do any types of muscle cell exhibit branching?

A

Yes, only cardiac myocytes

275
Q

What are the three types of cellular junction found in cardiac myocyte intercalated discs?

A

Gap;

macula adherens (desmosome);

fascia adherens (specialized Z-lines)

277
Q

How does a smooth myocyte nucleus appear when the myocyte is relaxed?

How does a smooth myocyte nucleus appear when the myocyte is contracted?

A

Cigar-shaped;

corkscrew-shaped

279
Q

What disorder is characterized by antibodies (IgG) to the cholinergic receptors on the motor end plate?

A

Myasthenia gravis

280
Q

Is there any type of muscle that is able to actively regenerate?

A

Smooth muscle

281
Q

How does smooth muscle regenerate?

A

Simple mitosis of smooth myocytes

282
Q

Upon injury to skeletal muscle, what normally quiescent cells are responsible for some very limited regeneration?

Where are they found?

A

Satellite cells;

the external lamina

283
Q

Which type of muscle shows no regenerative capacity beyond simple scar formation?

Which type of muscle shows some very limited regenerative capacity through satellite cells?

Which type of muscle shows active regeneration through simple mitosis?

A

Cardiac;

skeletal;

smooth

284
Q

Does cardiac muscle contain satellite cells?

How is damage addressed?

A

No;

fibroblast proliferation and scar tissue formation

285
Q

What term refers to an increase in cell number?

A

Hyperplasia

286
Q

What term refers to an increase in cell size?

A

Hypertrophy

287
Q

During pregnancy, does the uterus undergo hyperplasia or hypertrophy?

A

Both

289
Q

What is the most common tumor found in females?

What is the most common tumor found in males?

A

Leiomyomas (fibroids);

lipomas

291
Q

How does weightlifting result in skeletal muscle hypertrophy?

A

Through repair of microtraumas

292
Q

What effect can each of the following have on skeletal muscle?

    • Inactivity, bedrest, cancer, congestive heart failure,*
  • COPD, burns, liver failure, glucocorticoids -*
A

Atrophy

293
Q

Cardiac ventricular hypertrophy can result from anything that causes what?

A

Increases in afterload

294
Q

What are the changes in color seen in myocardium as a result of ischemia?

(Start with normal myocardium and end with a scar)

A

No change –>

dark mottling –>

hyperemia –>

yellow-brown softening –>

gray-white scar

295
Q

During what time period following infarction will myocardial histology show no color changes?

A

1 - 4 hours

296
Q

During what time period following infarction will myocardial histology show dark mottling?

A

4 - 24 hours

297
Q

During what time period following infarction will myocardial histology show hyperemia?

A

1 - 5 days

298
Q

During what time period following infarction will myocardial histology show hyperemia?

A

5 - 14 days

299
Q

During what time period following infarction will myocardial histology show gray-white scar formation?

A

2 - 8 weeks

300
Q

How does skeletal muscle regenerate?

How does cardiac muscle regenerate?

How does smooth muscle regenerate?

A

Satellite cells (VERY limited);

it doesn’t (no satellite cells);

simple mitosis