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T1 - Integrated (Full Review) > Histology - Cardiology Block (II) > Flashcards

Histology - Cardiology Block (II) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three layers (tunicas) of any blood vessel?

A

Tunica intima

Tunica media

Tunica adventitia (externa)

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2
Q

The lumen is wider in which, arteries or veins of comparable size?

A

Veins

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3
Q

The wall is thicker in which, arteries or veins of comparable size?

A

Arteries

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4
Q

What fiber is found in uniquely high concentrations in the aorta and other large arteries?

A

Elastin

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5
Q

What are the three types of artery?

A

Elastic;

muscular;

arterioles

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6
Q

Which arteries are elastic?

A

The aorta, carotids, and subclavians

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7
Q

What does the elastin in the aorta do?

What does the collagen in the aorta do?

A

Propel blood (rebound effect);

provides strength to control distension

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8
Q

What transition occurs in the tissues from elastic to muscular arteries?

A

A shift from elastic tissue to smooth muscle

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9
Q

What subendothelial layer is especially prominent in muscular arteries?

A

The internal elastic membrane

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10
Q

What is a normal blood pressure?

A

< 120 / < 80

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11
Q

What blood pressure is in the elevated category?

A

120 - 129 / < 80

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12
Q

What blood pressure defines hypertension stage 1?

A

130 - 139 systolic OR 80 - 89 diastolic

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13
Q

What blood pressure defines hypertension stage 2?

A

≥ 140 systolic OR ≥ 90 diastolic

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14
Q

What structure connects arterioles and capillaries?

A

Metarterioles

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15
Q

Is capillary blood flow continuous or pulsatile?

A

Pulsatile

(for maximum nutrient/waste exchange)

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16
Q

Where are precapillary sphincters located?

What are they?

A

Metarterioles;

bands of smooth muscle

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17
Q

What intermediate filaments lend structural support to capillaries?

A

Desmin and vimentin

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18
Q

What type of tissue is shown in this micrograph?

A

A capillary bed

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19
Q

What molecule promotes tight junction leakage in capillary beds?

A

Histamine

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20
Q

How do large molecules leave capillary beds?

A

Transcytosis

(endocytosis and then exocytosis on the other side)

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21
Q

What type of well-developed mesenchymal cell surrounds capillary endothelial cells and have the ability to differentiate into smooth muscle?

A

Pericytes

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22
Q

What contractile filaments are present in pericytes?

A

Tropomyosin;

isomyosin

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23
Q

What are the three types of capillary?

A

Continuous;

fenestrated;

sinusoidal (discontinuous)

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24
Q

What types of vessel in the body contain valves?

A

Veins;

lymphatics

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25
Q

Where do Purkinje cells travel?

A

The subendocardium

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26
Q

Purkinje cells are large cells containing large amounts of what substance?

A

Glycogen

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27
Q

Identify the structure with an ‘A’ in the lumen.

Identify the structure with a ‘B’ in the lumen.

A

A = Medium vein

B = Muscular/medium artery

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28
Q

Identify the areas indicated by green bars and yellow bars.

Identify the structure at the tip of the blue arrows.

A

Yellow bar = Tunica media

Green bar = Tunica adventita

Arrows indicate internal elastic lamina

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29
Q

Identify the structures labeled ‘A’, ‘B’, and ‘C’.

All three structures are components of what structure?

A

A = Peripheral nerve

B = Muscular artery

C = Medium vein

Neurovascular bundle

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30
Q

What structure is surrounded by arrows in this micrograph?

A

Vasa vasorum

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31
Q

Identify the entire structure.

Identify the area indicated by the black bar.

Identify the area indicated by the blue bar.

Identify the structure at the tip of the arrows.

A

Large/elastic artery

Black bar = Tunica media

Blue bar = Tunica adventita

Arrows = Vasa vasorum

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32
Q

The bar indicates the thickness of the wall of this structure.

Identify the structure.

A

Large vein/vena cava

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33
Q

Identify A and B.

A

A = Muscular artery

B = Small vein

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34
Q

Identify the structure at the tips of the black arrows.

Identify the structure at the tips of the blue arrows.

A

Black arrows = Arteriole

Blue arrows = Venule

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35
Q

Identify the blood vessel in this micrograph.

A

A fenestrated capillary

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36
Q

Identify the blood vessel in this micrograph.

A

Sinusoid

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37
Q

Identify this structure.

A

Medium/small vein

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38
Q

Identify the vessel.

Identify the structure indicated by black arrows.

Identify the structure indicated by black bar.

A

Muscular artery

Arrows = Internal elastic lamina in tunica intima

Bar = Tunica media

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39
Q

As you move from arteries to veins, what change would you expect to see in the relative sizes of the tunica intima, media, and adventitia?

A

Intima - remains the same

media - decreases in size

adventitia - increases in size

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40
Q

The internal elastic lamina is part of what layer of the blood vessel wall?

The external elastic lamina is part of what layer of the blood vessel wall?

A

The tunica intima;

the tunica media

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41
Q

Which blood vessels are ‘resistance’ vessels?

Which blood vessels are ‘capacitance’ vessels?

Which blood vessels are ‘conducting’ vessels?

Which blood vessels are ‘distributing’ vessels?

Which blood vessels are ‘exchange’ vessels?

A

Resistance - arterioles

Capacitance - veins

Conducting - elastic arteries

Distributing - muscular arteries

Exchange - capillaries

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42
Q

The tunica adventitia (externa) is thicker (relative to wall thickness) in which type of vessel, arteries or veins?

A

Veins

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43
Q

The tunica media is thicker (relative to wall thickness) in which type of vessel, arteries or veins?

A

Arteries

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44
Q

Describe the changes in blood pressure as blood travels out through arteries and back through veins.

A
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45
Q

Where are capillaries with extensive tight junctions especially common?

A

The blood-brain barrier

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46
Q

In what example tissues are fenestrated capillaries likely to be found?

A

Endocrine glands,

the intestines,

the kidneys

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47
Q

Organs such as endocrine glands, the intestines, and the kidneys are likely to be supplied by what type of capillary?

A

Fenestrated

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48
Q

What type of capillary is characterized by an abundance of small pores covered by a thin diaphragm?

A

Fenestrated

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49
Q

What type of capillary is found in the adrenal medulla?

A

Fenestrated

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50
Q

What is another term for sinusoidal capillaries?

A

Discontinuous capillaries

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51
Q

Which type of capillary allows for quickest exchange of material between tissues and the bloodstream?

A

Sinusoidal (discontinuous) capillaries

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52
Q

Which of the following capillary types are characterized by fenestra covered by a thin diaphragm?

Continuous

Fenestrated

Discontinuous (sinusoidal)

A

Fenestrated only

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53
Q

Which of the following capillary types are characterized by fenestra with no diaphramagtic barrier?

Continuous

Fenestrated

Discontinuous (sinusoidal)

A

Discontinuous (sinusoidal)

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54
Q

True/False.

Sinusoidal (discontinuous) capillaries are characterized by fenestra and no diaphragm, yet they have an intact basal lamina.

A

False.

The basal lamina is also discontinuous

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55
Q

In what example tissues are sinusoidal (discontinuous) capillaries likely to be found?

A

Liver, spleen, gallbladder

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56
Q

What are the two terminal vessels of the lymphatic system?

A

The thoracic duct;

the right lymphatic duct

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57
Q

What two structures can often be found acompanying a muscular artery?

A

A vein and peripheral nerve of proportional sizes

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58
Q

What structures are indicated by the arrows in this micrograph?

Red -

Orange -

Blue -

Green -

Gray -

A

Red - Nerve (shows perineurium)

Orange - Lymph cap

Blue - Artery (shows 2 layers of smooth muscle + a pericyte)

Green - Vein

Gray - Vein

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59
Q

How much of total blood volume can be held in the veins at one time?

How much of this blood can remain stationary without negative effects?

A

70%;

0% (venous blood is not stationary)

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60
Q

From smallest to largest, what are the names of vessels returning blood to the heart?

A

Venules,

small veins,

medium veins,

large veins

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61
Q

True/False.

Many large and medium veins are muscular.

A

True

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62
Q

Does cardiac contraction begin at the apex or the base of the heart?

Does cardiac contraction begin in the deep layers or superficial layers of the heart?

A

Apex;

deep (endocardium –> epicardium)

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63
Q

During microscopic examination of a tissue specimen, the pathologist notices numerous capillaries with continuous endothelium, lacking fenestrations but with many pinocytotic vesicles. Based on these observations, the tissue being examined most likely is:

A. muscle

B. liver

C. spleen

D. adrenal medulla

A

A. muscle

  • B. liver (sinusoidal)*
  • C. spleen (sinusoidal)*
  • D. adrenal medulla (fenestrated)*
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64
Q

What are some examples of large veins?

A

Vena cava, portal v., splenic v., renal v.

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65
Q

What are some examples of medium veins?

A

Typically, named deep veins

(e.g. popliteal, radial, tibial)

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66
Q

What type of vein is the great saphenous?

A

A muscular (medium) vein

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67
Q

What vessels are typically most likely to be affected by atherosclerosis?

A

Large and medium arteries

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68
Q

Which gender is more at risk for atherosclerotic development?

A

Males

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69
Q

Describe the (very basic) components of an atheroma.

A

A soft lipid core + a fibrous cap

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70
Q

What is the ‘response to injury’ theory of atherosclerosis?

A

Atherosclerosis is a chronic inflammatory reaction to endothelial damage

1) Injury to the endothelium of the arterial wall

2) Tissue response of the vascular wall to the injury

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71
Q

Describe the basic pathophysiology of atherosclerosis.

A
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72
Q

What are three negative outcomes that may occur at a site of severe atheroma development?

A

Vessel stenosis;

plaque aneurysm and rupture;

vessel occlusion by thrombus

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73
Q

What is the difference between stable and vulnerable atheromas?

A

Thickness of the fibrous cap;

degree of inflammation

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74
Q

The collagen and ECM in atheromatous plaques are synthesized largely by what type of cell?

A

Smooth muscle cells

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75
Q

Although they decrease the risk of plaque rupture, what risk do stable atheromas have when compared to vulnerable plaques?

A

Increased risk of vessel stenosis

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76
Q

Why would rupture of an atheromatous plaque lead to clot development?

What are two potential adverse outcomes for these clots?

A

Exposed thrombogenic factors in the underlying ECM;

thrombosis, embolus development

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77
Q

What is a ‘true’ aneurysm of the cardiovascular system?

What is a ‘false’ aneurysm?

A

One that involves all three layers of the vessel wall;

rupture of the intima –> hematoma between the media and externa (adventitia)

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78
Q

What type of aneurysm shape is a balloon-like direct outpouching of the vessel wall?

What type of aneurysm is a more football-shaped expansion in all directions?

A

Saccular,

fusiform

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79
Q

What is the most common location for an atherosclerotic aneurysm?

A

The abdominal aorta

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80
Q

True/False.

A false aneurysm of the aorta is an aortic dissection.

A

False.

False aneurysm –> between the media and externa (adventitia)

Dissection –> between the intima and media

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81
Q

Dissections take place between what layers of the vessel wall?

A

The intima dissecting off the media

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82
Q

What is congestive heart failure in terms of bodily metabolic need?

A

Cardiac output is insufficient to match bodily metabolic requirements

83
Q

Are most cases of congestive heart failure due to systolic or diastolic function?

A

Systolic

(inadequate contractile function)

84
Q

What are the most common causes of left-sided heart failure?

A

Ischemic heart disease;

hypertension;

aortic/mitral valve diseases;

1° myocardial diseases

85
Q

What is the most common causes of right-sided heart failure?

A

Left-sided heart failure

86
Q

What immediate effect(s) does left-sided heart failure have on associated organs?

A

Pulmonary congestion/edema;

poor perfusion of systemic organs

87
Q

What pulmonary immune histology is expected in cases of left-sided heart failure?

A

Wet, congested lung tissue with hemosiderin-laden macrophages

88
Q

Hemosiderin-laden macrophages are a sign of:

A

Left-sided heart failure

89
Q

What is cor pulmonale?

A

Isolated right-sided heart failure

(i.e. not caused by left-sided HF)

90
Q

Cor pulmonale typically occurs in patients with:

A

Chronic disorders affecting the lungs

(e.g. COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, sleep apnea, PE, poliomyelitis, myasthenia gravis, etc.)

91
Q

What are some major signs or symptoms of left-sided heart failure?

A

Pulmonary congestion –> cough with frothy sputum, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, shortness of breath;

cyanosis

92
Q

What are some major signs or symptoms of right-sided heart failure?

A

Hepatosplenomegaly, JVD, dependent edema;

anorexia, GI distress, weight loss

93
Q

Cardiac ventricular hypertrophy can result from anything that causes what?

A

Increases in afterload

94
Q

What are the changes in color seen in myocardium as a result of ischemia?

(Start with normal myocardium and end with a scar)

A

No change –>

dark mottling –>

hyperemia –>

yellow-brown softening –>

gray-white scar

95
Q

During what time period following infarction will myocardial histology show no color changes?

A

1 - 4 hours

96
Q

During what time period following infarction will myocardial histology show dark mottling?

A

4 - 24 hours

97
Q

During what time period following infarction will myocardial histology show a yellow-brown softening with a hyperemic border?

A

3 - 10 days

98
Q

During what time period following infarction will myocardial histology show gray-white scar formation?

A

2 - 8 weeks

(scar complete after ~2 months)

99
Q

What proportion of patients with a STEMI typically die within the first hour before receiving medical care?

Of what?

A

1/3;

fatal arrythmias

100
Q

What is the in-hospital MI death rate?

A

7%

101
Q

Cardiac rupture is a complication of 1 - 5% of MIs.

In what time frame is it most likely to occur?

A

3 - 7 days following the infarction

102
Q

What percentage of PEs arise from DVTs?

A

> 95%

103
Q

How do peri-mortem clots appear? Are they attached to the underlying wall?

How do post-mortem clots appear? Are they attached to the underlying wall?

A

Grayish-red; yes.

Gelatinous, yellow, ‘chicken fat’ clots; no

104
Q

Via activation of what proteins do macrophages know that bacterium are present for phagocytosing?

A

Toll-like receptors

(common invader patterns)

105
Q

How long do neutrophils typically live?

Do they have APC abilities?

A

5 days;

no

106
Q

What type of substance do natural killer cells phagocytose?

A

Nothing; they are not phagocytes

107
Q

Via what two mechanisms do natural killer cells exert any effect?

A
  1. Release of cytokines
  2. Inducing suicide in tumor cells, virus-infected cells, etc.
108
Q

Memory cell activation by an antigen leads to a rapid increase in plasma cells specific to that antigen via what process?

A

Clonal selection

109
Q

Via what two methods do immunoglobins exert an effect on pathogens?

A

Opsonization;

neutralization

110
Q

Macrophages have receptors for what part of the immunoglobin?

A

The Fc region

111
Q

T cell MHCs are useful for identifying what two types of problem?

A

Problems within the cell (MHC I);

APCs presenting problems outside the cell (MHC II)

112
Q

What type of connective tissue fiber is found in high concentrations in lymphoid tissues?

What cells produce this tissue?

A

Type III collagen (reticulin);

reticular cells

113
Q

What type of cell provides the support framework of the thymus?

A

Thymic epithelial cells

(epithelioreticular cells)

114
Q

What are the primary lymphoid organs?

A

Bone marrow;

thymus

115
Q

True/False.

Secondary lymphoid tissues can be found in each of the following:

nasopharynx

oropharynx

bronchus

lung tissue

small intestine

urogenital tissues

A

True.

116
Q

Are reticular fibers found in the thymus?

A

No

117
Q

True/False.

The thymus is histologically homogenous all the way through, but it is divided by septa into various lobules.

A

False.

The thymus has a cortex and a medulla that are histologically distinct.

118
Q

Based on structure and location, how many types of epithelioreticular (thymic epithelial cells) are there throughout the thymus?

A

6

119
Q

True/False.

Many macrophages can be found in the thymus.

A

True

120
Q

What types of T cell selection occur in the thymic cortex and medulla, respectively?

A

Positive selection,

negative selection

121
Q

What is the purpose of thymic positive T cell selection?

Where does it occur?

A

To select for T cells with the correct surface proteins (e.g. CD4 or CD8, TCR, CD3, etc.);

the thymic cortex

122
Q

What is the purpose of thymic negative T cell selection?

Where does it occur?

A

To ensure certain T cells don’t have the incorrect surface proteins (e.g. just CD4 or just CD8);

the thymic medulla

123
Q

Positive and negative T cell selection in the thymus is all contained and controlled by what type of cell?

How many types of this cell are there (based on location and structure)?

A

Thymic epithelial cells

(epithelioreticular cells);

6

124
Q

What are the six types of epithelioreticular (thymic epithelial) cell found in the thymus?

A

Type I - outer boundary of cortex

Type II - positive selection

Type III - inner boundary of cortex

Type IV - outer boundary of medulla

Type V - negative selection

Type VI - Hassall’s corpuscle (express thymic stromal lymphopoietin - TSLP)

125
Q

What two types of epithelioreticular (thymic epithelial) cell are the boundaries of the thymic cortex?

A

I and III

126
Q

What two types of epithelioreticular (thymic epithelial) cell are responsible for positive and negative T cell selection, respectively?

A

Types II and V

127
Q

What type of epithelioreticular (thymic epithelial) cell makes up Hassall’s corpuscles in the thymic medulla?

What do they secrete?

A

Type VI;

thymic stromal lymphopoeitin (TSLP)

128
Q

Which is more basophilic, the thymic cortex or medulla?

A

Cortex

129
Q

What specialized structure lines thymic capillaries?

What type of capillaries are these?

A

The blood-thymus barrier;

continuous

130
Q

Between the endothelial cells / pericytes of thymic capillaries and the epithelioreticular (thymic epithelial) cells of the thymic medulla, what type of cell is found in the connective tissue space?

A

Macrophages

131
Q

How many basal lamina are found surrounding thymic capillaries?

A

Two

(see image)

132
Q

Where are most B cells found in a lymph node?

Where are most T cells found in a lymph node?

Where are most plasma cells found in a lymph node?

A

Cortex (follicles, nodules)

Paracortex (deep cortex)

Medulla (medullary cords)

133
Q

Name the predominant type of cell in the following locations:

Cortex (follicles, nodules)

Paracortex (deep cortex)

Medulla (medullary cords)

A

Cortex (follicles, nodules) - B lymphocytes

Paracortex (deep cortex) - T lymphocytes

Medulla (medullary cords) - Plasma cells

134
Q

What type of cell is the predominant type found in a lymph node cortex (follicles)?

A

B lymphocytes

135
Q

What type of cell is the predominant type found in a lymph node paracortex (deep cortex)?

A

T lymphocytes

136
Q

What type of cell is the predominant type found in a lymph node medulla (medullary cords)?

A

Plasma cells

137
Q

What type of cell and fiber makes up much of the lymph node stroma?

A

Reticular cells / reticular fibers (type III collagen)

138
Q

True/False.

Lymph nodes are non-encapsulated lymphatic tissue.

A

False.

139
Q

The lymph node paracortex has a large concentration of what vessel type?

A

High endothelial venules

140
Q

What is in the center of a lymphatic follicle (with all the B cells)?

A

A germinal center

141
Q

Afferent lymphatic vessels pierce lymph node capsules and drain into what space?

A

The subcapsular space

142
Q

Describe the flow of lymph through a lymph node.

(Note: from afferent lymphatic vessel to efferent lymphatic vessel.)

A

Afferent lymphatic vessel –>

Subcapsular space –>

Paratrabecular sinuses –>

Through cortex –>

Through medulla –>

Efferent lymphatic vessel

143
Q

Where does blood flow enter the lymph node?

Where does it exit?

A

The hilum;

the hilum

144
Q

Describe the route taken by the fluid that enters the lymph node as blood but leaves as lymph.

(Note: obviously, this is not all the blood. Most of it leaves through lymph node venules.)

A

Enters through arteries –>

Leaves circulation through high endothelial venules (perfuses paracortex) –>

Enters lymphatic sinusoids –>

Exits lymph node through efferent vessels –>

Returns to circulation through thoracic duct or right lymphatic duct

145
Q

What type of structure is shown in this micrograph?

A

A lymph node

146
Q

Most (90% of) lymphocytes enter lymph nodes via what?

A

High endothelial venules

(in the paracortex)

147
Q

A lymph node germinal center is a ________ follicle.

A

Secondary

148
Q

What two types of pulp are found in the spleen?

A

Red and white

149
Q

What structure is shown in this micrograph?

A

The spleen

150
Q

From deep to superficial, name the three portions of a splenic white pulp island.

A

Central artery, (+ sheath)

germinal center,

marginal area

151
Q

What structure accompanies arteries in the splenic white pulp?

This structure is mostly comprised of what type of cell?

A

A periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS);

T cells

152
Q

The splenic white pulp is mostly what type of cell?

The splenic PALS is mostly what type of cell?

A

B cells;

T cells

153
Q

The splenic white pulp has what functions?

A

Blood antigen removal

Antigen presentation

Antibody production

Lymphocyte proliferation (T and B cells)

154
Q

The splenic red pulp has what functions?

A

Remove the following from circulation:

  1. Blood antigens
  2. RBC’s & platelets (aged, abnormal, and/or damaged)
  3. Iron (macrophage phagocytosis & digestion)
155
Q

The splenic red pulp is mostly centered around ________ the blood.

The splenic white pulp is mostly centered around mounting an ________ ________ to what is found in the blood.

A

Cleaning/filtering;

immune response

156
Q

The splenic cords and sinusoids are found in which type of splenic pulp?

A

Red pulp

157
Q

Non-encapsulated secondary lymphatic tissues (e.g. tonsils, Peyer’s patches) are mostly just aggregates of:

A

Lymphatic nodules

158
Q

Although splenic tissue does not stain red and white upon histology preparations, what is a defining feature that indicates which is white pulp?

A

Presence of a central artery

159
Q
A

Afferent lymphatic vessels

160
Q
A
161
Q
A

Lymphatic germinal center

162
Q
A

Lymphatic vessels

163
Q
A

Lymph node; filters blood and produces antibodies

164
Q
A

Lymphatic nodule with germinal center

165
Q
A

PALS (T cells);

central arteriole

(splenic white pulp)

166
Q
A

Arrows - white pulp

A - red pulp

B - hilum

167
Q
A

Peyer’s patches

A - smooth muscle

B - dense irregular connective tissue

168
Q
A

A - central arteriole

B - pulp arteriole

169
Q
A

Arrows - venous sinusoids

A - pulp cords

(splenic tissue)

170
Q

What organ is shown in this micrograph?

A

The spleen

171
Q
A
172
Q
A

A splenic nodule

173
Q
A

Paracortex;

high endothelial venules

174
Q

Lymph node micrograph

A

A - medullary cords

Arrow - macrophage

175
Q
A

Black arrows - subcapsular sinus

Green arrows - cortical sinuses

A - Cortex

B - Paracortex

C - Medulla

176
Q

Lymph node micrograph

A

High endothelial venule

177
Q
A

Lymph node hilum

178
Q
A

Black arrows - subcapsular lymph node sinus

White arrows - cortical lymph node sinus

179
Q

What organ is shown in this micrograph?

A

The thymus

180
Q
A

Tonsil

Arrow –> tonsilar crypt

181
Q

Identify the three types of vessel.

A

A - lymphatic vessel

B - venule

C - arteriole

182
Q

Identify A - E in this micrograph of vessels.

A

A - venule

B,C,E - arterioles

D - lymphatic vessel

183
Q

What is unique about the tunica adventitia (externa) of the largest veins?

A

Smooth muscle is present

184
Q

Are neutrophils APCs?

A

No

185
Q

What molecule presents antigens to TH cells?

What is the effect?

A

MCH II (from APCs);

TH cell activation (and subsequent B cell proliferation)

186
Q

What molecule presents antigens to TC cells?

What is the effect?

A

MHC I (from virally infected cells);

TC cell activation and infected cell lysis

187
Q

What cytokine is especially important in activating TH cells and TC cells?

A

Interleukin-2

(IL-2)

188
Q

MHC I signaling alerts TC cells to problems in which location?

MHC II signaling alerts TC cells to problems in which location?

A

Intracellular problems (e.g. viruses);

extracellular problems (phagocytosed and then presented)

189
Q

What surface receptor is found on both TC and TH cells?

What surface receptor is found on only TC cells?

What surface receptor is found on only TH cells?

A

TCR (T cell receptor)

CD8+

CD4+

190
Q

Positive selection in the thymic cortex does what to T cells?

Negative selection in the thymic cortex does what to T cells?

A

Both CD4+ and CD8+ are added to the T cell

(results in cells positive for TCR, CD4+, and CD8+);

one of the CD receptors is removed

(results in cells positive for TCR and either CD4+ or CD8+)

191
Q

Where in the thymus are T cells double negative? What does this mean?

Where in the thymus are T cells double positive? What does this mean?

What happens next?

A

The cortex –> the cells lack CD4+ and CD8+;

the cortex –> the cells have both CD4+ and CD8+;

in the medulla, the cells lose one of the above (either CD4+ or CD8+ is lost)

192
Q

Via what vessel do most lymphocytes enter lymph nodes?

A

Via high endothelial venules (HEVs)

193
Q

What type of epithelium lines high endothelial venules (HEVs)?

A

Simple cuboidal cells

194
Q

A micrograph shows packed lymphocytes with interspersed plasma cells. This is likely a slide of what tissue?

A

A lymph node medulla

195
Q

A micrograph shows packed lymphocytes with interspersed epithelioreticular cells and a few Hassall’s corpuscles. This is likely a slide of what tissue?

A

The thymic medulla

196
Q

A micrograph shows packed lymphocytes with interspersed epithelioreticular cells and no Hassall’s corpuscles. This is likely a slide of what tissue?

A

The thymic cortex

197
Q

Does the spleen have efferent lymph vessels or afferent lymph vessels or both?

Do lymph nodes have efferent lymph vessels or afferent lymph vessels or both?

Does the thymus have efferent lymph vessels or afferent lymph vessels or both?

A

Efferent only;

both;

efferent only

198
Q

How does the spleen pull out old RBCs for recycling?

A

Young RBCs can deform and pass through the sinusoids;

older RBCs cannot, and continue through the vessel system until they are picked up by splenic macrophages

199
Q

True/False.

Large arterioles typically have an internal elastic lamina.

A

True.

200
Q

The tunica media of an arteriole usually contains __ or __ layers of smooth muscle.

A

1, 2

201
Q

The tunica adventitia is ______ in arterioles.

A

Scant

202
Q

The endothelial cells in postcapillary venules are supported by what type of cell and what type of fiber?

A

Pericytes, reticular fibers

203
Q

Large venules will often contain __ or __ poorly organized and somewhat incomplete layers of smooth muscle.

A

1, 2

T1 - Integrated (Full Review) (29 decks)

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