HISTO FINALS Flashcards

(188 cards)

1
Q

Lifespan of taste cells

1 month
7 days
120 days
1 year

A

7 days

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2
Q

Which is not true of the blood flow routes in spleen?

A. In the closed circulation, capillaries branching from the penicillar arterioles connect directly to the sinusoids and the blood is always enclosed by endothelium.
B. In the open circulation, capillaries from about half of the penicillar arterioles are uniquely open-ended, dumping blood into the stroma of the splenic cords.
C. The small openings in the sinusoids of open system present no obstacle to platelets, to the motile leukocytes, or to thin flexible erythrocytes.
D. Removal of all RBCs and recycling of their iron are major functions of the red pulp.

A

D. Removal of all RBCs and recycling of their iron are major functions of the red pulp.

Ratio: Removal of DEFECTIVE

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3
Q

The part of the heart has the thickest myocardial wall.

left ventricle
right ventricle
right auricle
left atria

A

left ventricle

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4
Q

These cells of the peripheral nervous system surround peripheral nerve fibers, and are the counterparts of the CNS’ oligodendrocytes.

satellite cells of the the ganglia
oligodendrocyte
astrocyte
Schwann cell

A

Schwann cell

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5
Q

The carotid artery and descending aorta are examples of which type of arteries?

metarteriole
small arteries
muscular artery
elastic artery

A

elastic artery

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6
Q

The significance of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the breast is for the production of this Immunoglobulin:

(IgG) antibodies for mother’s protection during pregnancy
(IgM) antibodies to protect both mother & baby
(IgA) antibodies for colostrum during pregnancy

A

(IgA) antibodies for colostrum during pregnancy

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7
Q

This supports the shape of the eye:

choroid
sclera
cornea
retina

A

sclera

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8
Q

AT what stage of the granulocytic series can each type be FRIST distinguished from each other?

juvenile form
myelocytes
myeloblast
mature granulocyte
metamyelocytes
Promyelocytes
A

myelocytes

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9
Q

Which of the following promotes hypertrophy of muscles

Stroke patient that cannot walk
Laborer in bus terminal
Both
None of the above

A

Laborer in bus terminal

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10
Q

Functions of Interleukins : Interleukin-3

A. acts on PHSC, CFU-S, & myeloid progenitor cells
B. acts on CFU-Ly

A

A. acts on PHSC, CFU-S, & myeloid progenitor cells

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11
Q

Functions of Interleukins : Interleukin-7

A. acts on PHSC, CFU-S, & myeloid progenitor cells
B. acts on CFU-Ly

A

B. acts on CFU-Ly

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12
Q

This statement is INCORRECT regarding the pituitary gland:

A. oral component arises as an outpocketing of ectoderm
B. also called hypophysis
C. neural component is the neurohypophyseal bud from future diencephalon as a stalk
D. it lies in a small cavity on the occipital bone the sella turcica

A

it lies in a small cavity on the occipital bone the sella turcica

Ratio: SPHENOID BONE

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13
Q

This kind of joint join bones by dense connective tissue only.

syndesmoses
symphesis
sypmosis
synostoses

A

syndesmoses

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14
Q

Most common stone in Cholelithiasis:

brown or black pigment stones
cholesterol stones
uric acid stone

A

cholesterol stones

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15
Q

Which is FALSE regarding the pores of Kohn

A. connect neighboring alveoli that open to different bronchioles
B. penetrate the interalveolar septa
C. other name for fenestrations of alveolar capillaries
D. permit collateral circulation of air if a bronchiole becomes obstructed

A

C. other name for fenestrations of alveolar capillaries

Ratio: fenestrations of ALVEOLAR PORES

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16
Q

Biopsy of an unidentified renal tissue shows: a tissue lined by simple cuboidal epithelium, with cells a little smaller than that of proximal convoluted tubule, containing short microvilli, basolateral folds and more empty lumens.

Question: What is the tissue in question?

Thick ascending limb of Henle
Collecting duct.
Thin limb of Henle
Distal convoluted tubule

A

Distal convoluted tubule

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17
Q

This is the only digestive organ lined by a mucosa, but without an existing submucosal layer:

gallbladder
pancreas
liver

A

gallbladder

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18
Q

State the lining epithelium of the prostatic segment of the male urethra:

stratified cuboidal epithelium
stratified columnar and pseudostratified epithelium
stratified squamous epithelium
transitional cell epithelium

A

transitional cell epithelium

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19
Q

This structure is found in the region of the right atria and known as the “Pacemaker of the Heart”:

Purkinjie fibers
intercalated disks
Sino-atrial node
bundle of HIs

A

Sino-atrial node

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20
Q

At the 24th week of gestation, what produce/s progesterone to maintain the uterine mucosa?

both corpus luteum of pregnancy & placenta
corpus luteum of pregnancy alone
placenta alone

A

placenta alone

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21
Q

Activity is important for moving secretory products into and through the ducts.

serous cells
myoepithelial cells
water
mucous cells

A

myoepithelial cells

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22
Q

An 80-year-old man was seen lifeless near a stair. The family requested an autopsy to rule out foul play. During the autopsy, the brain was noted to have shrinked in size. Microscopic examination of the brain sample revealed findings consistent with Alzheimer’s disease. These include the following except:

Neuritic plaques
Neufibrillary tangles
Tau protein accumulations
A-amyloid

A

A-amyloid

Ratio: B-amyloid

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23
Q

The strong basophilia of the granules in Basophils is due to the presence of the following EXCEPT:

major basic proteins (MBP)
heparin
sulfated glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)

A

major basic proteins (MBP)

Ratio: MBP is eusinophilic

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24
Q

This structure is found in the region of the interventricular septum and further divides in the right and left bundle branches.

intercalated disks
bundle of HIs
Sino-atrial node
Purkinjie fibers

A

bundle of HIs

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25
The modiolus contains blood vessels and surrounds the cell bodies and processes of the acoustic branch of the___: 8th cranial nerve 5th cranial nerve 7th & 8th cranial nerves 2nd cranial nerve
8th cranial nerve
26
This DOES NOT refer to Diabetes Insipidus: ``` vasopressin deficiency , increased thirst (polydipsia). excessive hunger (polyphagia) frequent urination (polyuria) ```
excessive hunger (polyphagia)
27
What is the reason why tonsillitis can affect middle ear? A. Because enlargement of tonsils can obstruct the eustachian tubes. B. Because they have the same lymph drainage C. Microorganisms ascend to middle ear. D. Because fluid from tonsils will go to middle ear.
Because enlargement of tonsils can obstruct the eustachian tubes.
28
Have fusiform capsules anchored firmly to the surrounding connective tissue, with sensory axons stimulated by stretch (tension) or twisting (torque) in the skin. Ruffini corpuscles Merkel corpuscles Merkel disc Krause end bulbs
Ruffini corpuscles
29
What happen to the hemoglobin released during degradation of old cells? A. The hemoglobin is recycled and taken up the surrounding viable red blood cells. B. The hemoglobin is stored by macrophages but eventually returned to circulation to be used primarily for erythropoiesis. C. The hemoglobin is broken down and the heme pigments are metabolized to be used again. D. The hemoglobin is taken by the surrounding dying cells to increase their functional lifespan. E. 1st & 4th choices only F. 2nd & 3rd choices only G. All of the above
B. The hemoglobin is stored by macrophages but eventually returned to circulation to be used primarily for erythropoiesis. Ratio: p.285
30
In this type of abnormalities in Parathyroid Functions, the blood calcium is deposited pathologically in different organs like cartilage, arteries, or kidneys. hypoparathyroidism hyperparathyroidism
hyperparathyroidism
31
When there is an extensive gap between the distal and proximal segments of cut or injured peripheral nerves or when the distal segment disappears altogether (as in the case of amputation of a limb), the newly growing axons may form a swelling, or neuroma, that can be the source of spontaneous pain. Conditional False It depends True
True
32
Unique to cardiac muscle Ability to autoregulate electrolytes Presence of nodes of ranvier Presence of intercalated disks Polarizes when touch
Presence of intercalated disks
33
You just woke up from sleep and went immediately to the mirror, you see one single pimple in the right side of your cheek. Upon closer look, you realized that the pimple already ruptured with dried blood clots and pus. At what skin layer(s) does this pimple affects? Subcutaneous tissue Epidermis Dermis Epidermis and dermis
Epidermis and dermis
34
The extracellular matrix of cartilage has high concentrations of _____. Glycosaminoglycan Proteoglycan Both Neither
Both
35
The glycosaminoglycan that has a repeating disaccharide of hexuronic acid and hexosamine. It is primarily found in the umbilical cord, synovial fluid, vitreous humor and cartilage hyaluronic acid keratan sulfate heparan sulfate dermatan sulfate
hyaluronic acid
36
A 30-year old male with 12 children, underwent vasectomy. The following statement/s are true of the procedure: A. He no longer would be able to produce sperm. B. most common surgical method of male contraception C. The spermatic cord is tied or cauterized D. Fertility is often not restored due to fibrosis in the vas deferens and obliteration of ductal lumen. E. All of the above are correct.
B. most common surgical method of male contraception
37
Ms. Y, 17-year-old,with a history of pelvic inflammatory disease presents at the emergency department with severe pain in her lower right side that came on fairly quickly. Upon questioning she replies that her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago and that she has never missed a period before. The doctor suspects she has an ectopic pregnancy and this is quickly confirmed by ultrasound testing. The surgeon removes her right uterine tube which is inflamed, scarified, and contains the implanted embryonic tissue in the region where fertilization normally occurs. Where is this? The isthmus region The uterine part of the oviduct The ampulla region with highly folded mucosa The only oviduct region attached to the mesosalpinx The infundibulum region with fimbriae
The ampulla region with highly folded mucosa
38
A 1st year medical student was focusing a spinal slide when accidentally she saw small aggregates of nerves. She examined it carefully and conduct an excitability testing. The test yielded positive results. What do you think is the structure that the student saw? A. Axonal aggregate of Schwann cells coming from the axonal division of Central Nervous System B. Dendritic aggregate of Schwann cells coming from the axonal division of Central Nervous System C. Dendritic aggregate of Schwann cells coming from the axonal division of Peripheral Nervous System D. Ganglion
D. Ganglion
39
True of lips except highly mobile red vermelion is thin keratinized lips have three differently covered surfaces well-developed core of skeletal muscle
well-developed core of skeletal muscle Ratio: STRIATED muscle
40
A brain stem tumor was seen extending into the spinal cord causing compression and eventual death of the patient. Microsections of the tumor show numerous Purkinje cells Where do you think is the origin of this tumor? Medulla oblongata Cerebrum midbrain none of the above
none of the above Ratio: CEREBELLUM
41
Pancreatic cancer usually arises from these cells: pancreatic duct islets of Langerhans pancreatic acini
pancreatic duct
42
In the flow of the Aqueous Humor, from where does it flow first? anterior chamber canal of Schlemm posterior chamber channels of the trabecular meshwork
posterior chamber
43
A medical student is answering a histology quiz when she noted an urge to urinate. What is the probable approximate volume of urine she has now in her urinary bladder? 150 ml 110 ml 130 ml 100 ml
150 ml
44
The following refer to the granules of the Neutrophils EXCEPT: A. Tertiary granules contain gelatinase, cathepsins, and defensins B. Smaller specific secondary granules containing collagenases, and bactericidal proteins C. Large azurophilic primary granules containing myeloperoxidase, lysozyme,
A. Tertiary granules contain gelatinase, cathepsins, and defensins
45
Which of the following is principal macromolecule present in all types of cartilage matrix? glucose hyaluronic acid nucleic acid keratin
hyaluronic acid
46
Composition of the portal triad: A venule branch of the portal vein An arteriole branch of the hepatic artery One or two small bile ductules of cuboidal epithelium All
All
47
THE MOST COMMON Cause of intraepithelial neoplasia of the cervix: ``` diminished estrogen levels menstrual reflux negative emotional stimuli follicles fail to mature repeated exposure of cervix to irritation ```
repeated exposure of cervix to irritation
48
Smell or taste of food, provokes a copious watery secretion with relatively little organic content. ``` Parasympathetic stimulation Sympathetic stimulation Autocrine secretion 1st & 3rd choices only All of the above ```
Parasympathetic stimulation
49
You received a specimen with a basement membrane layer that is 30 nm thick. This is Outside normal range Within normal range Consistent with fibrosis Dysplasia
Within normal range
50
Which of the following is true of osteoclasts? involved in the resorption and remodeling of bone tissue. multinucleated dwarf giant cells found in cavities called lacunae synthesize the organic components of the matrix
involved in the resorption and remodeling of bone tissue.
51
If the microvilli are destroyed lining the ependymal cells, what function of the cell is affected? Neuronal Peristalsis CSF absorption CSF movement CSF production
CSF absorption
52
An autopsy of a fetus shows defects in occludins leading to destruction of fetal blood brain barrier. This is shown by Abnormal morphology of tight junctions Abnormal morphology of desmosomes Abnormal morphology of gap junctions Abnormal morphology of hemidesmosomes
Abnormal morphology of tight junctions
53
What is the correct order of blood flow? A. Interlobular arteries- arcuate arteries-glomerular capillaries-arcuate veins B. Renal vein-segmental arteries-interlobar arteries-efferent arterioles C. Renal artery-segmental artery-peritubular capillaries-afferent arterioles D. Interlobar veins-afferent arterioles-efferent arterioles-glomerular capillaries E. Arcuate veins-arcuate arteries-glomerular capillaries-renal vein
A. Interlobular arteries- arcuate arteries-glomerular capillaries-arcuate veins
54
A 40y.o. female patient came in complaining of on & off feeling of head heaviness. At times, she would have light-headedness & cold sweats, with cold clammy extremities. Her BP on admission was 160/100, She was admitted and monitored every 6hours. For the first 24hours, without any medications, her BP records show the following findings: 120/80, 150/90, 80/50, 160/90. Give your clinical impression: addison disease pheochromocytoma diabetes Insipidus pituitary adenomas
pheochromocytoma
55
What immunoglobulin is usually secreted by cells of MALT? IgM IgD IgA IgE
IgA
56
Contains bundles of very long, multinucleated cells with cross-striations. Their contraction is quick, forceful, and usually under voluntary control. Cardiac muscle Striated muscle Skeletal muscle Smooth muscle
Skeletal muscle
57
Which contents of the Eosinophils act to kill parasitic worms or helminths? ``` major basic proteins eosinophilic peroxidase arginine-rich factor 1st 2 choices only all of the above Other: ```
1st 2 choices only
58
These two organs in the body produce steroid hormones: adrenal glands & gonads pituitary & thyroid glands pituitary & adrenal glands pancreas & kidneys
adrenal glands & gonads
59
Mediate immune defense of CNS Satellite cells Oligodendrocytes Ependymal cells Microglia
Microglia
60
STATEMENT A: In the Parasympathetic Division of the Autonomic Nervous system, neuronal cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic nerves are located in the thoracic and sacral regions. STATEMENT B: In the Parasympathetic Division of the Autonomic Nervous system,the secondary neurons are often located near or within the effector organ. Only statement B is true. both statements are false both statements are true Only statement A is true.
Only statement B is true.
61
The repetitive functional subunit of the contractile apparatus, the sarcomere, extends from ______, ``` Z disc to Z disc I band to I band A band to A band Last 2 choices All of the above. ```
Z disc to Z disc
62
Compare Prokaryotic versus Eukaryotic Cell: (you can choose more than one answer.) membrane bound organelles
Eukaryotic Cell
63
Compare Prokaryotic versus Eukaryotic Cell: (you can choose more than one answer.) membrane-bound nucleus
Eukaryotic Cell
64
Plasma contains proteins in the following decreasing order of quantity: Globulin--Fibrinogen-Regulatory Proteins-Albumin Globulin-Albumin-Fibrinogen-Regulatory Proteins Regulatory Proteins-Globulin-Albumin-Fibrinogen Albumin-Globulin-Fibrinogen-Regulatory Proteins
Albumin-Globulin-Fibrinogen-Regulatory Proteins
65
Dissection and artificial stimulation of a certain tissue bundle reveal the following: presence of sensory or autonomic neuronal cell bodies and their satellite cells and are surrounded by connective tissue continuous with that of nerves. This tissue is most likely ____. A cross section of a ganglia A sample obtained from white matter A sample obtained from gray matter A cross section of neuronal synapse
A cross section of a ganglia
66
Case Analysis: an adult sustained a blunt abdominal trauma during a vehicular accident. Spleen was severely affected with lots of blood losing from the patient. What do you think happen as a result of that trauma? A. The impact of the trauma causes the spleen to rupture with tearing of its capsule and laceration of parenchyma causing hemorrhage. B. The trauma forced all abdominal organs to congest the splenic area and no blood enters the spleen with resultant loss of blood filtering capacity. C. The splenic capillaries take up a lot of blood from the circulation due to the trauma causing congestion of vessels that eventually rupture. D. The splenic parenchyma is intact but the blood vessel entering the spleen are traumatically twisted causing obstruction of blood flow and eventually rupture of the vessel
A. The impact of the trauma causes the spleen to rupture with tearing of its capsule and laceration of parenchyma causing hemorrhage.
67
What part of the retina is attached to the Bruch’s membrane and the choroido-capillary lamina of the choroid? outer pigmented layer ganglion cell layer inner limiting membrane outer limiting membrane
outer pigmented layer
68
The narrow opening between the adducted vocal folds epiglottis rima glottidis singer’s nodule vocal ligament
rima glottidis
69
These cells lack nuclei & organelles: ``` Platelets Erythrocytes lymphocytes monocytes 1st & 2nd choices only 3rd & 4th choices only All of the above ```
Erythrocytes
70
Tendons of the extraocular muscles which move the eyes insert into the anterior of this region: cornea choroid sclera retina
sclera
71
This is NOT CORRECT regarding platelets: have lightly stained peripheral granulomere they are generally discoid often appear in clumps sparse glycocalyx surrounding plasmalemma
have lightly stained peripheral granulomere
72
Both basophils and mast cells have ]surface receptors for what type of immunoglobulin? ``` IgE IgA SIG IgM IgG Other: ```
IgE
73
The columnar mechano- receptor hair cells are seen in these specialized sensory regions: ``` macula of utricle cristae ampullares macula of saccule spiral organ of Corti 1st & 3rd choices only 2nd & 4th choices only All of the above ```
All of the above
74
These cells DO NOT arise from Monocytes as their precursor: macrophages osteoclasts mast cells microglia
mast cells
75
Structural basis of the blood-testis barrier : tight junctions between adjacent Sertoli cells tight junctions between adjacent spermatogonia myoid cells basement membrane All of the above
tight junctions between adjacent Sertoli cells
76
The cells actually responsible for storing fat in the marrow are the ________. adventitial reticular cells. adipose cells osteocytes fibroblasts cells
adipose cells
77
The following are Lineage specific Hematopoietic Growth Factors EXCEPT: ``` 1 point G-CSF IL-6 Thrombopoietin M-CSF Erythropoietin IL-5 ```
IL-6
78
This connective layer of the heart is in contact with the cardiac muscle and contains small coronary blood vessels, nerves and Purkinje fibers. subendocardial layer myocardium endothelial layer pericardial sac
subendocardial layer
79
This is NOT among the physiologic and pharmacologic functions of Melatonin: Treatment of jet lag Increased level of melatonin is needed for the maturation of gonads Anti-oxidant activity Treatment of insomnia among Elderly people Regulation of circadian rhythms axis
Increased level of melatonin is needed for the maturation of gonads
80
Trace the bile flow starting from its production down to its secretion : A. bile canaliculi - canals of Hering - - common hepatic duct - bile ductules - right & left hepatic ducts - common bile duct – ampulla of Vater- sphincter of Oddi - duodenum B. bile canaliculi - ampulla of Vater- sphincter of Oddi - canals of Hering - bile ductules - right & left hepatic ducts - common hepatic duct - common bile duct –duodenum C. right & left hepatic ducts - common hepatic duct - common bile duct - bile canaliculi - canals of Hering - bile ductules -– ampulla of Vater- sphincter of Oddi - duodenum D. bile canaliculi - canals of Hering - bile ductules - right & left hepatic ducts - common hepatic duct - common bile duct – ampulla of Vater- sphincter of Oddi – duodenum
D. bile canaliculi - canals of Hering - bile ductules - right & left hepatic ducts - common hepatic duct - common bile duct – ampulla of Vater- sphincter of Oddi – duodenum
81
Not true regarding the Loop of Henle: A. The straight part of the proximal tubule has an outer diameter of about 60 µm, but it narrows abruptly to about 30 µm in the thin limbs of the loop. B. The wall of the thin segments consists only of squamous cells with few organelles (indicating a primarily active role in transport). C. U-shaped structure with a thin descending limb and a thin ascending limb D. Composed of simple squamous epithelia
B. The wall of the thin segments consists only of squamous cells with few organelles (indicating a primarily active role in transport).
82
These cells in the peripheral nervous tissue surround the nerve cell bodies and are found only in the ganglia. These cells form a thin, intimate glial layer around each large neuronal cell body. These cells insulate, nourish and regulate the microenvironments of the ganglia astrocyte satellite cells of the the ganglia oligodendrocyte Schwann cell
satellite cells of the the ganglia
83
What cell from the bone marrow will go to the thymus to mature? Red blood cells B lymphocytes T lymphocytes Precursor lymphoblast
T lymphocytes
84
Catecholamines are produced by these organs: ``` adrenal medulla central nervous system adrenal cortex 1st & 2nd choices only All of the above ```
1st & 2nd choices only
85
This cleans and humidifies inspired air and provides conduits for air movement to and from alveoli. alveolar ducts terminal bronchioles alveoli respiratory bronchioles
terminal bronchioles
86
Large amount of acidophilic colloid may be found in this type of thyroid follicle: Active Follicle Resting Follicle
Resting Follicle
87
This cardiac layer consists of the lining endothelium, its supporting layer of fibroelastic connective tissue with scattered fibers of smooth muscle, and a deeper layer of connective tissue (often called the subendocardial layer) surrounding variable numbers of modified cardiac muscle fibers which com prise the heart’s impulse conducting system. VISCERAL PERICARDIUM MYOCARDIUM ENDOCARDIUM EPICARDIUM
ENDOCARDIUM
88
The Pleural Membranes lining the thoracic walls is called_____. visceral pleura parietal pleura
parietal pleura
89
Differentiation process that spermatogenic cells undergo : ``` meiosis mitosis spermatogenesis spermiogenesis All of the above. ```
spermiogenesis
90
This is NOT a part of the adenohypophysis: pars intermedia pars distalis pars nervosa pars tuberalis
pars nervosa
91
The two-stage thymic selection process of quality control ensures A. That selected mature T lymphocytes will not attack old RBC since it is the macrophage who will destroy them and recycle the hemoglobin. B. That mature T lymphocytes do not overlap with B lymphocytes in terms of antigen detection and response. C. That mature T cells have TCRs that are fully functional but do not recognize and strongly bind MHC with self-antigens. D. That mature T lymphocytes protects developing immature lymphocytes by securing them from being attacked by the immune system.
C. That mature T cells have TCRs that are fully functional but do not recognize and strongly bind MHC with self-antigens.
92
An important accessory protein in I bands which is (3700 kDa), the largest protein in the body, with scaffolding and elastic properties, which supports the thick myofilaments and connects them to the Z disc. Tropomyosin Nebulin Titin Troponin
Titin
93
Not consistent with CNS: Neurons can only be found in central nervous system Glial cells are the supporting cells Neural crest cells are the precursors of CNS Spinal nerves belong to Peripheral Nervous System
Neural crest cells are the precursors of CNS
94
The walls of the heart have 3 basic layers corresponding to the layers of the blood vessels. The endocardium corresponds to which layer of the blood vessel? tunica intima tunica adventitia none of the above tunica media
tunica intima
95
Total number of paranasal sinuses in humans: 4 6 8 10
8
96
Mrs. X, 33-year-old, with an average menstrual cycle of 28 days comes in for a routine Pap smear. It has been 35 days since the start of her last menstrual period, and a vaginal smear reveals clumps of basophilic cells. As her physician you suspect which of the following? A. She will begin menstruating in a few days. B. She is undergoing early menopause. C. There will be detectable levels of human choriogonadotrophin (hCG) in her serum and urine. D. She will ovulate within a few days. E. Her serum progesterone levels will be found to be very low.
There will be detectable levels of human choriogonadotrophin (hCG) in her serum and urine.
97
Survival depending on whether its TCRs can recognize and bind antigens on the MHC molecules properly Negative selection Positive selection Apoptosis Autoimmune attack
Positive selection
98
The walls of the heart have 3 basic layers corresponding to the layers of the blood vessels. The epicardium corresponds to which layer of the blood vessel? tunica media tunica adventitia tunica intima none of the above
tunica adventitia
99
The inherited genetic disorder Kartagener syndrome involves the following conditions EXCEPT: chronic sinusitis primary ciliary dyskinesia bronchitis anosmia
anosmia
100
Each axonal branch forms a dilated termination situated within a trough on the muscle cell surface. This synaptic structure is called _________. motor end plate (MEP) neuromuscular junction (NMJ) Both Neither
Both
101
This type of blood vessel distributes blood to all organs and maintain steady blood pressure and flow with vasoconstriction and vasodilation. MUSCULAR ARTERY MEDIUM VEIN venules CAPILLARY
MUSCULAR ARTERY
102
These cells of the Respiratory epithelium are part of the diffuse neuroendocrine system (DNES) of the body: ``` Kulchitsky cells Basal cells Goblet cells Brush cells Ciliated columnar cells ```
Kulchitsky cells
103
This DOES NOT participate in the blood-air barrier mechanism: two or three highly attenuated thin alveolar cells thickness of alveolar ducts thin capillary endothelial cells fused basal laminae of alveolar cells and endothelial cells of capillaries
thickness of alveolar ducts
104
The female structure that is homologous to the penis with paired corpora cavernosa. ``` vestibule clitoris paired labia minora fourchette prepuce ```
clitoris
105
Identify the lining epithelium of the Eustachian tube: simple cuboidal epithelium ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium stratified squamous epithelium, keratinized simple squamous epithelium columnar neuroepithelial cells
ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
106
In the absence of ATP, the actinmyosin crossbridges become stable, which accounts for the rigidity of skeletal muscles that occurs as mitochondrial activity stops after death. Livor mortis Rigidity valor Rigor mortis Rigor reticularis
Rigor mortis
107
Which type of capillary is often seen in the kidneys, intestines and choroid plexus? fenestrated capillaries continuous capillaries discontinuous capillaries
fenestrated capillaries
108
This is a blood vessel is only 100-10 um in diameter but it is a major determinant of systemic blood pressure. It only possesses 1-3 layers of smooth muscle and a very thin connective tissue layer in its tunica adventitia capillary muscular artery venule arteriole
arteriole
109
Known cause of lymph node enlargement A. Growth of cancer cells inside the lymph node like that of lymphoma B. Proliferation of B and T cells as a reaction to infection or inflammation C. Any of the above can increase the nodal size D. None of the above because growth enlargement is hormonally dependent
C. Any of the above can increase the nodal size
110
Gigantism & acromegaly are conditions that could result from a functional pituitary adenomas involving these cells: gonadotrophs somatotropic cells corticotrophs thyrotrophs
somatotropic cells
111
Which type of cartilage does not have a perichondrium? Hyaline cartilage Fibrocartilage Elastic Cartilage none of the above
Fibrocartilage
112
Not true of tongue A. striated muscle covered by mucosa B. have V-shaped groove called the sulcus vaginalis C. lower surface of the tongue is smooth, with typical lining mucosa D. hundreds of small protruding papillae of various types on its anterior two-thirds
B. have V-shaped groove called the sulcus vaginalis
113
This type of bone is nonlamellar and characterized by random disposition of type I collagen fibers and is the first bone tissue to appear in embryonic development and in fracture repair. compact bone Lamellar Bone spongy bone woven bone
woven bone
114
Trace the Red Cell development by assigning letters to the following cells by order of appearance: A. pro-erythroblasts - polychromato-philic erythroblasts - ortho-chromatophilic - basophilic erythroblasts -erythroblasts – reticulocytes - erythrocytes B. polychromato-philic erythroblasts - ortho-chromatophilic erythroblasts – reticulocytes - pro-erythroblasts - asophilic erythroblasts - erythrocytes C. pro-erythroblasts - basophilic erythroblasts - polychromato-philic erythroblasts - ortho-chromatophilic erythroblasts – reticulocytes - erythrocytes D. pro-erythroblasts - ortho-chromatophilic erythroblasts –polychromato-philic erythroblasts - reticulocytes – basophilic erythroblasts - erythrocytes
C. pro-erythroblasts - basophilic erythroblasts - polychromato-philic erythroblasts - ortho-chromatophilic erythroblasts – reticulocytes - erythrocytes
115
A brain tumor was recovered after surgery from a 23 year old female. Immunostaining of tumor cells are positive for glial fibrillary acid protein (GFAP). What do you think is the possible diagnosis of this tumor? Oligodendroma Schwannoma Astrocytoma Ependymoma
Astrocytoma
116
These are zipper-like structures spanning adjacent pedicels and bridging the slit pores. They are modified and specialized occluding or tight junctions composed of nephrins, other proteins, glycoproteins, and proteoglycans important for renal function. Basement membrane Slit diaphragms Tubular pole Bowman capsule
Slit diaphragms
117
Senescent or worn out RBCs displaying swelling or other shape abnormalities are recognized and removed from circulation, mainly by macrophages of the following organs: ``` 1st, 2nd & 3rd choices only lymph node 2nd, 4th, & 5th choices only All of the above bone marrow adrenals spleen 1st, 2nd, & 5th choices only liver ```
2nd, 4th, & 5th choices only
118
What is the reason why the mucosa or inner lining of the digestive, respiratory, and genitourinary tracts is a common site of invasion by pathogens? A. Because their lumens open to the external environment. B. Because the lifespan of the lining cells is short and prone to die. C. Because the lining is acidic. D. Because the surface area is moist and water can diffuse internally.
A. Because their lumens open to the external environment.
119
Which of the following contents of the Neutrophilic granules can degrade the components of bacterial cell walls? ``` myeloperoxidase cathepsins gelatinase defensins collagenase lysozyme ```
lysozyme
120
This supply nutrition to outer retinal layers: Descemet membrane vitreous humor Bruch membrane inner choroidocapillary lamina
inner choroidocapillary lamina
121
Functions of saliva ``` Chemical digestion Helps chewing and swallowing Lubricating effect. Dissolves food and allows the tongue to taste food 1st & 4th choices only all of the above ```
all of the above
122
Tiredness and decreased ability to concentrate is often seen in this abnormality in Thyroid Functions: hyperthyroidism hypothyroidism
hypothyroidism
123
This cell is involved in immediate hypersensitivity reactions: ``` fibroblast adipocyte macrophage mast cells plasma cell ```
mast cells
124
This is the layer that surrounds the heart. It is a layer that contains connective tissue, nerves, blood vessels, and adipocytes myocardium endocardium epicardium subendothelial layer
epicardium
125
Which is not true about bone fractures? A. Bone fractures disrupt blood vessels, causing bone cells near the break to die. B. The damaged blood vessels do not produce a localized hemorrhage or hematoma. C. Repaired by a developmental process involving fibrocartilage formation and osteogenic activity of the major bone cells D. The periosteum and the endosteum at the fracture site respond with intense proliferation and produce a soft callus of fibrocartilage-like tissue that surrounds the fracture and covers the extremities of the fractured bone.
B. The damaged blood vessels do not produce a localized hemorrhage or hematoma.
126
The pancreas resembles the parotid gland histologically in the following: islets of endocrine tissue striated ducts serous acini
serous acini
127
Are highly differentiated to protect the underlying cells against the potentially cytotoxic effects of hypertonic urine. Intermediate cells Umbrella cells Membranous cells Basal cells
Umbrella cells
128
White pulp , only 20% of the spleen, is secondary lymphoid tissue associated with small central arterioles that are also enclosed by periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS) of T cells. periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS) of T and B cells. periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS) of B cells. Sinusoids
periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS) of T cells.
129
In epithelial cells of intestine specialized for absorption, the apical surfaces present an array of projections called Cilia Stereocilia Both None of the above
None of the above RATIO: microvilli
130
A 40-nm-long coil of two polypeptide chains located in the groove between the two twisted actin strands. Tonofibril Tropomyosin Sarcolemma Myofibril
Tropomyosin
131
A 9-year-old boy show signs of epidermolysis bullosa. Microscopically, you will expect ``` An abnormality of hemidesmosomes An abnormality of Zonula adherens An abnormality of nexus An abnormality of Macula adherens Other: ```
An abnormality of hemidesmosomes
132
Temperature-sensitive process : ``` spermiogenesis meiosis mitosis spermatogenesis All of the above ```
spermiogenesis
133
Most abundla: Intercalated cells Principal Cells Endothelial cells JG cells
Principal Cells
134
Anxiety usually causes ________. dry mouth mucoid mouth serous mouth semi dry mouth
dry mouth
135
Comprises the structures responsible for maintaining the teeth in the maxillary and mandibular bones oral survey mandibular survey peridontium dental ligament
peridontium
136
Microscopic exam shows capillaries form a rich network in the endomysium bringing O2 to the muscle fibers. You are in: Endomysium Perimysium Epimysium Gymnatium
Endomysium
137
Where can you find the Distal Convoluted Tubule? ``` Cortex Medulla Medullary rays 1st & 2nd choices only 2nd & 3rd choices only Any of the above ```
Cortex
138
What kind of lymphocytes mostly predominate in MALT? T cells P cells B cells M cells
B cells
139
The true lining epithelium of the Epiglottis: A. lingual and laryngeal surface are both lined by ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium B. lingual surface has ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium, while laryngeal surface is lined by stratified squamous epithelium C. lingual surface has stratified squamous epithelium, while laryngeal surface is lined by ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium D. lingual and laryngeal surface are both lined by stratified squamous epithelium
C. lingual surface has stratified squamous epithelium, while laryngeal surface is lined by ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
140
What is the most common type of collagen in Hyaline Cartillage? Type II Type I Type VIII Type IV
Type II
141
Barrel shaped Otoliths or Otoconia crystals are made up of protein & this chemical: HCO3 Ca oxalate CaCO3 NaCO3
CaCO3
142
At what phase is Meiosis arrested during ovum maturation? ``` Metaphase of Meiosis II Prophase of Meiosis II Metaphase of Meiosis I Prophase of Meiosis I Prophase of Mitosis ```
Prophase of Meiosis I
143
This component of the thin interalveolar septa prevent both collapse and excessive distention of alveoli: fibroblasts extracellular matrix elastic and reticular fibers
elastic and reticular fibers
144
Normal concentration of erythrocytes in women: 3.9-5.5 million/µL or mm3 150,000-450,000 /mm3 4.1-6.0 million/µL or mm3
3.9-5.5 million/µL or mm3
145
The exocrine pancreas secretes approximately ____L of alkaline pancreatic juice per day. 5.1L 1.5L 15L
1.5L
146
Ducts from each lobule converge and drain into interlobular excretory ducts with increasing size and thicker connective tissue layers. The lining of these ducts is/are: Columnar can be any of the above or mixed Simple cuboidal Stratified cuboidal
can be any of the above or mixed
147
The "ZONE III" layers of hepatocytes in the liver acinus are in charge of this function: A. preferential sites of glycolysis, lipid formation, and drug biotransformations B. carry out functions requiring oxidative metabolism C. hepatocytes have an intermediate range of metabolic functions
preferential sites of glycolysis, lipid formation, and drug biotransformations
148
This is a thickening of the liver capsule at the hilum on the inferior side. porta hepatis hepatic septum portal vein
porta hepatis
149
Purpose of blood thymus barrier Attack antigens to thymic tissues Attack antibodies from blood to thymus Prevent unregulated exposure to thymocytes to antigens Protect contamination of new blood in thymus from old blood in peripheral blood
Prevent unregulated exposure to thymocytes to antigens
150
A 60 yr old male complains of dribbling and incontinence. The doctor suspects Benign prostatic hypertrophy. The following is/ are TRUE of the condition : prostate weight = 15 grams Prostatic specific antigen (PSA) is increased to 4 ng/ml Prostate gland measures 2 x 3 x 4 cm usually involves the central zone around the urethra All are correct.
Prostatic specific antigen (PSA) is increased to 4 ng/ml
151
The following statements are CORRECT regarding the juxtaglomerular apparatus: one component is the portion of distal nephron in contact with its parent glomerulus It is located near the vascular pole of the glomerulus It regulates blood pressures Its function could affect the glomerular filtration rate the glomerular efferent arteriole is one component 1st, 2nd, & 3rd choices only 1st, 2nd, & 4th choices only All except the last choice All of the above
All except the last choice
152
Erectile dysfunction, or impotence, can result from the following conditions, except : ``` vascular disease nerve damage during prostatectomy diabetes No exception anxiety ```
No exception
153
STATEMENT A: Certain regions of the CNS, such as near the ependyma, retain rare neural stem and progenitor cells that allow some replacement of neurons throughout life. STATEMENT B: The more simply organized peripheral nerves have better capacity for axonal regeneration, a process involving reactivation of the perikaryon, Schwann cells, and macrophages. both statements are false Only statement A is true. both statements are true Only statement B is true.
both statements are true
154
Findings showing autoimmunity to desmoglein 1 Is consistent with a defect of Integrins Is consistent with a defect of Cadherin Is consistent with a defect of hemidesmosomes Is consistent with a defect desmosomes
Is consistent with a defect desmosomes
155
They recognize epitopes (antigenic determinants) that are displayed by cells possessing HLA (human leukocyte antigen: Natural T killer cells Null cells B lymphocytes T lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
156
Autoimmune disorder that involves circulating antibodies against proteins of acetylcholine receptors. Duchene Muscular Dystrophy Graves disease Autoimmune thyroiditis Myasthenia gravis
Myasthenia gravis
157
When the hair-like projections of cells in the bronchus are destroyed or damaged, there will be_______. Accumulation of microbes in the lung Accumulation of inhaled dust or debris in the lung Both A and B Neither of the above
Both A and B
158
These are the CORRECT directions of blood & bile flows: A. Bile flows from the periphery to center of hepatic lobule, while the blood flow from the center of the lobule to its periphery. B. Both blood & the bile flow from the center of the lobule to its periphery. C. Blood flows from the periphery to center of hepatic lobule, while the bile flow from the center of the lobule to its periphery. D. Blood & bile flows from the periphery to center of hepatic lobule.
C. Blood flows from the periphery to center of hepatic lobule, while the bile flow from the center of the lobule to its periphery.
159
DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY: inflamed conjunctiva w/ mucus discharge and increased microvasculature
PINK EYE
160
DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY: macular degeneration, causing blindness in visual center field
BLINDNESS IN ELDERLY
161
DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY: extentions of viral or bacterial infections from the upper respiratory tract via the auditory tubes
OTITIS MEDIA
162
DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY: lenses lose elasticity and their ability to undergo accommodation
PRESBYOPIA
163
DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY: affects the cones responsible for detecting light at two wavelengths
red-green color blindness
164
DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY: Involves loss of hair cells or nerve degeneration.
Ménière disease
165
FUNCTIONS OF HEPATOCYTES ACCORDING TO LOCATIONS: INVOLVED IN EXOCRINE SECRETION OF BILE A. Hepatocytes near the portal areas B. sinusoidal (basolateral) hepatocytes C. more central hepatocytes D. apical surfaces of hepatocytes
D. apical surfaces of hepatocytes
166
FUNCTIONS OF HEPATOCYTES ACCORDING TO LOCATIONS: process blood nutrients and secrete the plasma proteins A. Hepatocytes near the portal areas B. sinusoidal (basolateral) hepatocytes C. more central hepatocytes D. apical surfaces of hepatocytes
B. sinusoidal (basolateral) hepatocytes
167
FUNCTIONS OF HEPATOCYTES ACCORDING TO LOCATIONS: often more active in protein synthesis A. Hepatocytes near the portal areas B. sinusoidal (basolateral) hepatocytes C. more central hepatocytes D. apical surfaces of hepatocytes
A. Hepatocytes near the portal areas
168
FUNCTIONS OF HEPATOCYTES ACCORDING TO LOCATIONS: more involved with detoxification and glycogen metabolism A. Hepatocytes near the portal areas B. sinusoidal (basolateral) hepatocytes C. more central hepatocytes D. apical surfaces of hepatocytes
C. more central hepatocytes
169
Describe the following diseases or abnormality Infections near opening of tarsal gland ducts, caused by Staphylococcus aureus
Styes
170
Describe the following diseases or abnormality scar-like lesions on bony labyrinth near stapes, inhibiting its movement
Osteosclerosis
171
DIABETES MELLITUS loss of the β cells from autoimmune destruction A. Type 1 diabetes B. Type 2 diabetes
A. Type 1 diabetes
172
DIABETES MELLITUS β cells fail to produce adequate insulin A. Type 1 diabetes B. Type 2 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes
173
State the conditions during which the Mitochondria decides to undergo FISSION or FUSION: elimination of damaged organelles
FISSION
174
State the conditions during which the Mitochondria decides to undergo FISSION or FUSION: high energy demand
FUSION
175
State the conditions during which the Mitochondria decides to undergo FISSION or FUSION: counteracts mutations during aging
FUSION
176
STATE THE SPECIFIC EPITHELIUM LINING EACH OF THE FOLLOWING: urinary bladder A. Simple squamous epithelium B. Simple cuboidal epithelium C. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium D. Transitional epithelium
D. Transitional epithelium
177
STATE THE SPECIFIC EPITHELIUM LINING EACH OF THE FOLLOWING: blood vessels A. Simple squamous epithelium B. Simple cuboidal epithelium C. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium D. Transitional epithelium
A. Simple squamous epithelium
178
STATE THE SPECIFIC EPITHELIUM LINING EACH OF THE FOLLOWING: thyroid gland follicles A. Simple squamous epithelium B. Simple cuboidal epithelium C. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium D. Transitional epithelium
B. Simple cuboidal epithelium
179
STATE THE SPECIFIC EPITHELIUM LINING EACH OF THE FOLLOWING: Trachea A. Simple squamous epithelium B. Simple cuboidal epithelium C. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium D. Transitional epithelium
C. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium
180
Diffuse NeuroEndocrine System increases intestinal absorption of calcium, magnesium, and phosphate A. Human chorionic gonadotropin B. Vit D3 & calcitriol C. Relaxin D. Progesterone
B. Vit D3 & calcitriol
181
Diffuse NeuroEndocrine System Stimulate thickening of endometrium, producing the decidua A. Human chorionic gonadotropin B. Vit D3 & calcitriol C. Relaxin D. Progesterone
D. Progesterone
182
Diffuse NeuroEndocrine System ripening of cervix & softening of pubic symphysis during labor A. Human chorionic gonadotropin B. Vit D3 & calcitriol C. Relaxin D. Progesterone
C. Relaxin
183
Diffuse NeuroEndocrine System decrease maternal immune response to allow acceptance of pregnancy A. Human chorionic gonadotropin B. Vit D3 & calcitriol C. Relaxin D. Progesterone
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
184
delicate connective fibers in bone marrow and endocrine organs A. Reticular Fibers B. Elastic fibers
A. Reticular Fibers
185
exhibits extensible random coil conformation A. Reticular Fibers B. Elastic fibers
ELASTIC FIBERS
186
Identify the hemopoietic growth factors that activate and promote hemopoiesis: acts on monocyte progenitor cells A. granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor B. Interleukin-7 C. Erythropoietin
A. granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor
187
Identify the hemopoietic growth factors that activate and promote hemopoiesis: acts on CFU-Ly A. granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor B. Interleukin-7 C. Erythropoietin
B. Interleukin-7
188
Identify the hemopoietic growth factors that activate and promote hemopoiesis: acts on BFU-E and CFU-E A. granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor B. Interleukin-7 C. Erythropoietin
C. Erythropoietin