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HISTOLOGY > HISTO FINALS > Flashcards

HISTO FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

Lifespan of taste cells

1 month
7 days
120 days
1 year

A

7 days

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2
Q

Which is not true of the blood flow routes in spleen?

A. In the closed circulation, capillaries branching from the penicillar arterioles connect directly to the sinusoids and the blood is always enclosed by endothelium.
B. In the open circulation, capillaries from about half of the penicillar arterioles are uniquely open-ended, dumping blood into the stroma of the splenic cords.
C. The small openings in the sinusoids of open system present no obstacle to platelets, to the motile leukocytes, or to thin flexible erythrocytes.
D. Removal of all RBCs and recycling of their iron are major functions of the red pulp.

A

D. Removal of all RBCs and recycling of their iron are major functions of the red pulp.

Ratio: Removal of DEFECTIVE

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3
Q

The part of the heart has the thickest myocardial wall.

left ventricle
right ventricle
right auricle
left atria

A

left ventricle

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4
Q

These cells of the peripheral nervous system surround peripheral nerve fibers, and are the counterparts of the CNS’ oligodendrocytes.

satellite cells of the the ganglia
oligodendrocyte
astrocyte
Schwann cell

A

Schwann cell

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5
Q

The carotid artery and descending aorta are examples of which type of arteries?

metarteriole
small arteries
muscular artery
elastic artery

A

elastic artery

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6
Q

The significance of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the breast is for the production of this Immunoglobulin:

(IgG) antibodies for mother’s protection during pregnancy
(IgM) antibodies to protect both mother & baby
(IgA) antibodies for colostrum during pregnancy

A

(IgA) antibodies for colostrum during pregnancy

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7
Q

This supports the shape of the eye:

choroid
sclera
cornea
retina

A

sclera

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8
Q

AT what stage of the granulocytic series can each type be FRIST distinguished from each other?

juvenile form
myelocytes
myeloblast
mature granulocyte
metamyelocytes
Promyelocytes
A

myelocytes

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9
Q

Which of the following promotes hypertrophy of muscles

Stroke patient that cannot walk
Laborer in bus terminal
Both
None of the above

A

Laborer in bus terminal

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10
Q

Functions of Interleukins : Interleukin-3

A. acts on PHSC, CFU-S, & myeloid progenitor cells
B. acts on CFU-Ly

A

A. acts on PHSC, CFU-S, & myeloid progenitor cells

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11
Q

Functions of Interleukins : Interleukin-7

A. acts on PHSC, CFU-S, & myeloid progenitor cells
B. acts on CFU-Ly

A

B. acts on CFU-Ly

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12
Q

This statement is INCORRECT regarding the pituitary gland:

A. oral component arises as an outpocketing of ectoderm
B. also called hypophysis
C. neural component is the neurohypophyseal bud from future diencephalon as a stalk
D. it lies in a small cavity on the occipital bone the sella turcica

A

it lies in a small cavity on the occipital bone the sella turcica

Ratio: SPHENOID BONE

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13
Q

This kind of joint join bones by dense connective tissue only.

syndesmoses
symphesis
sypmosis
synostoses

A

syndesmoses

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14
Q

Most common stone in Cholelithiasis:

brown or black pigment stones
cholesterol stones
uric acid stone

A

cholesterol stones

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15
Q

Which is FALSE regarding the pores of Kohn

A. connect neighboring alveoli that open to different bronchioles
B. penetrate the interalveolar septa
C. other name for fenestrations of alveolar capillaries
D. permit collateral circulation of air if a bronchiole becomes obstructed

A

C. other name for fenestrations of alveolar capillaries

Ratio: fenestrations of ALVEOLAR PORES

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16
Q

Biopsy of an unidentified renal tissue shows: a tissue lined by simple cuboidal epithelium, with cells a little smaller than that of proximal convoluted tubule, containing short microvilli, basolateral folds and more empty lumens.

Question: What is the tissue in question?

Thick ascending limb of Henle
Collecting duct.
Thin limb of Henle
Distal convoluted tubule

A

Distal convoluted tubule

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17
Q

This is the only digestive organ lined by a mucosa, but without an existing submucosal layer:

gallbladder
pancreas
liver

A

gallbladder

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18
Q

State the lining epithelium of the prostatic segment of the male urethra:

stratified cuboidal epithelium
stratified columnar and pseudostratified epithelium
stratified squamous epithelium
transitional cell epithelium

A

transitional cell epithelium

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19
Q

This structure is found in the region of the right atria and known as the “Pacemaker of the Heart”:

Purkinjie fibers
intercalated disks
Sino-atrial node
bundle of HIs

A

Sino-atrial node

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20
Q

At the 24th week of gestation, what produce/s progesterone to maintain the uterine mucosa?

both corpus luteum of pregnancy & placenta
corpus luteum of pregnancy alone
placenta alone

A

placenta alone

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21
Q

Activity is important for moving secretory products into and through the ducts.

serous cells
myoepithelial cells
water
mucous cells

A

myoepithelial cells

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22
Q

An 80-year-old man was seen lifeless near a stair. The family requested an autopsy to rule out foul play. During the autopsy, the brain was noted to have shrinked in size. Microscopic examination of the brain sample revealed findings consistent with Alzheimer’s disease. These include the following except:

Neuritic plaques
Neufibrillary tangles
Tau protein accumulations
A-amyloid

A

A-amyloid

Ratio: B-amyloid

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23
Q

The strong basophilia of the granules in Basophils is due to the presence of the following EXCEPT:

major basic proteins (MBP)
heparin
sulfated glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)

A

major basic proteins (MBP)

Ratio: MBP is eusinophilic

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24
Q

This structure is found in the region of the interventricular septum and further divides in the right and left bundle branches.

intercalated disks
bundle of HIs
Sino-atrial node
Purkinjie fibers

A

bundle of HIs

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25
Q

The modiolus contains blood vessels and surrounds the cell bodies and processes of the acoustic branch of the___:

8th cranial nerve
5th cranial nerve
7th & 8th cranial nerves
2nd cranial nerve

A

8th cranial nerve

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26
Q

This DOES NOT refer to Diabetes Insipidus:

vasopressin deficiency ,
increased thirst (polydipsia).
excessive hunger (polyphagia)
frequent urination (polyuria)
A

excessive hunger (polyphagia)

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27
Q

What is the reason why tonsillitis can affect middle ear?

A. Because enlargement of tonsils can obstruct the eustachian tubes.
B. Because they have the same lymph drainage
C. Microorganisms ascend to middle ear.
D. Because fluid from tonsils will go to middle ear.

A

Because enlargement of tonsils can obstruct the eustachian tubes.

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28
Q

Have fusiform capsules anchored firmly to the surrounding connective tissue, with sensory axons stimulated by stretch (tension) or twisting (torque) in the skin.

Ruffini corpuscles
Merkel corpuscles
Merkel disc
Krause end bulbs

A

Ruffini corpuscles

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29
Q

What happen to the hemoglobin released during degradation of old cells?

A. The hemoglobin is recycled and taken up the surrounding viable red blood cells.
B. The hemoglobin is stored by macrophages but eventually returned to circulation to be used primarily for erythropoiesis.
C. The hemoglobin is broken down and the heme pigments are metabolized to be used again.
D. The hemoglobin is taken by the surrounding dying cells to increase their functional lifespan.
E. 1st & 4th choices only
F. 2nd & 3rd choices only
G. All of the above

A

B. The hemoglobin is stored by macrophages but eventually returned to circulation to be used primarily for erythropoiesis.

Ratio: p.285

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30
Q

In this type of abnormalities in Parathyroid Functions, the blood calcium is deposited pathologically in different organs like cartilage, arteries, or kidneys.

hypoparathyroidism
hyperparathyroidism

A

hyperparathyroidism

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31
Q

When there is an extensive gap between the distal and proximal segments of cut or injured peripheral nerves or when the distal segment disappears altogether (as in the case of amputation of a limb), the newly growing axons may form a swelling, or neuroma, that can be the source of spontaneous pain.

Conditional
False
It depends
True

A

True

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32
Q

Unique to cardiac muscle

Ability to autoregulate electrolytes
Presence of nodes of ranvier
Presence of intercalated disks
Polarizes when touch

A

Presence of intercalated disks

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33
Q

You just woke up from sleep and went immediately to the mirror, you see one single pimple in the right side of your cheek. Upon closer look, you realized that the pimple already ruptured with dried blood clots and pus. At what skin layer(s) does this pimple affects?

Subcutaneous tissue
Epidermis
Dermis
Epidermis and dermis

A

Epidermis and dermis

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34
Q

The extracellular matrix of cartilage has high concentrations of _____.

Glycosaminoglycan
Proteoglycan
Both
Neither

A

Both

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35
Q

The glycosaminoglycan that has a repeating disaccharide of hexuronic acid and hexosamine. It is primarily found in the umbilical cord, synovial fluid, vitreous humor and cartilage

hyaluronic acid
keratan sulfate
heparan sulfate
dermatan sulfate

A

hyaluronic acid

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36
Q

A 30-year old male with 12 children, underwent vasectomy. The following statement/s are true of the procedure:

A. He no longer would be able to produce sperm.
B. most common surgical method of male contraception
C. The spermatic cord is tied or cauterized
D. Fertility is often not restored due to fibrosis in the vas deferens and obliteration of ductal lumen.
E. All of the above are correct.

A

B. most common surgical method of male contraception

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37
Q

Ms. Y, 17-year-old,with a history of pelvic inflammatory disease presents at the emergency department with severe pain in her lower right side that came on fairly quickly. Upon questioning she replies that her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago and that she has never missed a period before. The doctor suspects she has an ectopic pregnancy and this is quickly confirmed by ultrasound testing. The surgeon removes her right uterine tube which is inflamed, scarified, and contains the implanted embryonic tissue in the region where fertilization normally occurs. Where is this?

The isthmus region
The uterine part of the oviduct
The ampulla region with highly folded mucosa
The only oviduct region attached to the mesosalpinx
The infundibulum region with fimbriae

A

The ampulla region with highly folded mucosa

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38
Q

A 1st year medical student was focusing a spinal slide when accidentally she saw small aggregates of nerves. She examined it carefully and conduct an excitability testing. The test yielded positive results. What do you think is the structure that the student saw?

A. Axonal aggregate of Schwann cells coming from the axonal division of Central Nervous System
B. Dendritic aggregate of Schwann cells coming from the axonal division of Central Nervous System
C. Dendritic aggregate of Schwann cells coming from the axonal division of Peripheral Nervous System
D. Ganglion

A

D. Ganglion

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39
Q

True of lips except

highly mobile
red vermelion is thin keratinized
lips have three differently covered surfaces
well-developed core of skeletal muscle

A

well-developed core of skeletal muscle

Ratio: STRIATED muscle

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40
Q

A brain stem tumor was seen extending into the spinal cord causing compression and eventual death of the patient. Microsections of the tumor show numerous Purkinje cells Where do you think is the origin of this tumor?

Medulla oblongata
Cerebrum
midbrain
none of the above

A

none of the above

Ratio: CEREBELLUM

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41
Q

Pancreatic cancer usually arises from these cells:

pancreatic duct
islets of Langerhans
pancreatic acini

A

pancreatic duct

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42
Q

In the flow of the Aqueous Humor, from where does it flow first?

anterior chamber
canal of Schlemm
posterior chamber
channels of the trabecular meshwork

A

posterior chamber

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43
Q

A medical student is answering a histology quiz when she noted an urge to urinate. What is the probable approximate volume of urine she has now in her urinary bladder?

150 ml
110 ml
130 ml
100 ml

A

150 ml

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44
Q

The following refer to the granules of the Neutrophils EXCEPT:

A. Tertiary granules contain gelatinase, cathepsins, and defensins
B. Smaller specific secondary granules containing collagenases, and bactericidal proteins
C. Large azurophilic primary granules containing myeloperoxidase, lysozyme,

A

A. Tertiary granules contain gelatinase, cathepsins, and defensins

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45
Q

Which of the following is principal macromolecule present in all types of cartilage matrix?

glucose
hyaluronic acid
nucleic acid
keratin

A

hyaluronic acid

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46
Q

Composition of the portal triad:

A venule branch of the portal vein
An arteriole branch of the hepatic artery
One or two small bile ductules of cuboidal epithelium
All

A

All

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47
Q

THE MOST COMMON Cause of intraepithelial neoplasia of the cervix:

diminished estrogen levels
menstrual reflux
negative emotional stimuli
follicles fail to mature
repeated exposure of cervix to irritation
A

repeated exposure of cervix to irritation

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48
Q

Smell or taste of food, provokes a copious watery secretion with relatively little organic content.

Parasympathetic stimulation
Sympathetic stimulation
Autocrine secretion
1st & 3rd choices only
All of the above
A

Parasympathetic stimulation

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49
Q

You received a specimen with a basement membrane layer that is 30 nm thick. This is

Outside normal range
Within normal range
Consistent with fibrosis
Dysplasia

A

Within normal range

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50
Q

Which of the following is true of osteoclasts?

involved in the resorption and remodeling of bone tissue.
multinucleated dwarf giant cells
found in cavities called lacunae
synthesize the organic components of the matrix

A

involved in the resorption and remodeling of bone tissue.

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51
Q

If the microvilli are destroyed lining the ependymal cells, what function of the cell is affected?

Neuronal Peristalsis
CSF absorption
CSF movement
CSF production

A

CSF absorption

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52
Q

An autopsy of a fetus shows defects in occludins leading to destruction of fetal blood brain barrier. This is shown by

Abnormal morphology of tight junctions
Abnormal morphology of desmosomes
Abnormal morphology of gap junctions
Abnormal morphology of hemidesmosomes

A

Abnormal morphology of tight junctions

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53
Q

What is the correct order of blood flow?

A. Interlobular arteries- arcuate arteries-glomerular capillaries-arcuate veins
B. Renal vein-segmental arteries-interlobar arteries-efferent arterioles
C. Renal artery-segmental artery-peritubular capillaries-afferent arterioles
D. Interlobar veins-afferent arterioles-efferent arterioles-glomerular capillaries
E. Arcuate veins-arcuate arteries-glomerular capillaries-renal vein

A

A. Interlobular arteries- arcuate arteries-glomerular capillaries-arcuate veins

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54
Q

A 40y.o. female patient came in complaining of on & off feeling of head heaviness. At times, she would have light-headedness & cold sweats, with cold clammy extremities. Her BP on admission was 160/100, She was admitted and monitored every 6hours. For the first 24hours, without any medications, her BP records show the following findings: 120/80, 150/90, 80/50, 160/90. Give your clinical impression:

addison disease
pheochromocytoma
diabetes Insipidus
pituitary adenomas

A

pheochromocytoma

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55
Q

What immunoglobulin is usually secreted by cells of MALT?

IgM
IgD
IgA
IgE

A

IgA

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56
Q

Contains bundles of very long, multinucleated cells with cross-striations. Their contraction is quick, forceful, and usually under voluntary control.

Cardiac muscle
Striated muscle
Skeletal muscle
Smooth muscle

A

Skeletal muscle

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57
Q

Which contents of the Eosinophils act to kill parasitic worms or helminths?

major basic proteins
eosinophilic peroxidase
arginine-rich factor
1st 2 choices only
all of the above
Other:
A

1st 2 choices only

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58
Q

These two organs in the body produce steroid hormones:

adrenal glands & gonads
pituitary & thyroid glands
pituitary & adrenal glands
pancreas & kidneys

A

adrenal glands & gonads

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59
Q

Mediate immune defense of CNS

Satellite cells
Oligodendrocytes
Ependymal cells
Microglia

A

Microglia

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60
Q

STATEMENT A: In the Parasympathetic Division of the Autonomic Nervous system, neuronal cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic nerves are located in the thoracic and sacral regions.

STATEMENT B: In the Parasympathetic Division of the Autonomic Nervous system,the secondary neurons are often located near or within the effector organ.

Only statement B is true.
both statements are false
both statements are true
Only statement A is true.

A

Only statement B is true.

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61
Q

The repetitive functional subunit of the contractile apparatus, the sarcomere, extends from ______,

Z disc to Z disc
I band to I band
A band to A band
Last 2 choices
All of the above.
A

Z disc to Z disc

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62
Q

Compare Prokaryotic versus Eukaryotic Cell: (you can choose more than one answer.)

membrane bound organelles

A

Eukaryotic Cell

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63
Q

Compare Prokaryotic versus Eukaryotic Cell: (you can choose more than one answer.)

membrane-bound nucleus

A

Eukaryotic Cell

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64
Q

Plasma contains proteins in the following decreasing order of quantity:

Globulin–Fibrinogen-Regulatory Proteins-Albumin
Globulin-Albumin-Fibrinogen-Regulatory Proteins
Regulatory Proteins-Globulin-Albumin-Fibrinogen
Albumin-Globulin-Fibrinogen-Regulatory Proteins

A

Albumin-Globulin-Fibrinogen-Regulatory Proteins

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65
Q

Dissection and artificial stimulation of a certain tissue bundle reveal the following: presence of sensory or autonomic neuronal cell bodies and their satellite cells and are surrounded by connective tissue continuous with that of nerves. This tissue is most likely ____.

A cross section of a ganglia
A sample obtained from white matter
A sample obtained from gray matter
A cross section of neuronal synapse

A

A cross section of a ganglia

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66
Q

Case Analysis: an adult sustained a blunt abdominal trauma during a vehicular accident. Spleen was severely affected with lots of blood losing from the patient. What do you think happen as a result of that trauma?

A. The impact of the trauma causes the spleen to rupture with tearing of its capsule and laceration of parenchyma causing hemorrhage.
B. The trauma forced all abdominal organs to congest the splenic area and no blood enters the spleen with resultant loss of blood filtering capacity.
C. The splenic capillaries take up a lot of blood from the circulation due to the trauma causing congestion of vessels that eventually rupture.
D. The splenic parenchyma is intact but the blood vessel entering the spleen are traumatically twisted causing obstruction of blood flow and eventually rupture of the vessel

A

A. The impact of the trauma causes the spleen to rupture with tearing of its capsule and laceration of parenchyma causing hemorrhage.

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67
Q

What part of the retina is attached to the Bruch’s membrane and the choroido-capillary lamina of the choroid?

outer pigmented layer
ganglion cell layer
inner limiting membrane
outer limiting membrane

A

outer pigmented layer

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68
Q

The narrow opening between the adducted vocal folds

epiglottis
rima glottidis
singer’s nodule
vocal ligament

A

rima glottidis

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69
Q

These cells lack nuclei & organelles:

Platelets 
Erythrocytes 
lymphocytes
monocytes
1st & 2nd choices only
3rd & 4th choices only
All of the above
A

Erythrocytes

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70
Q

Tendons of the extraocular muscles which move the eyes insert into the anterior of this region:

cornea
choroid
sclera
retina

A

sclera

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71
Q

This is NOT CORRECT regarding platelets:

have lightly stained peripheral granulomere
they are generally discoid
often appear in clumps
sparse glycocalyx surrounding plasmalemma

A

have lightly stained peripheral granulomere

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72
Q

Both basophils and mast cells have ]surface receptors for what type of immunoglobulin?

IgE
IgA
SIG
IgM
IgG
Other:
A

IgE

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73
Q

The columnar mechano- receptor hair cells are seen in these specialized sensory regions:

macula of utricle
cristae ampullares
macula of saccule
spiral organ of Corti
1st & 3rd choices only
2nd & 4th choices only
All of the above
A

All of the above

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74
Q

These cells DO NOT arise from Monocytes as their precursor:

macrophages
osteoclasts
mast cells
microglia

A

mast cells

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75
Q

Structural basis of the blood-testis barrier :

tight junctions between adjacent Sertoli cells
tight junctions between adjacent spermatogonia
myoid cells
basement membrane
All of the above

A

tight junctions between adjacent Sertoli cells

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76
Q

The cells actually responsible for storing fat in the marrow are the ________.

adventitial reticular cells.
adipose cells
osteocytes
fibroblasts cells

A

adipose cells

77
Q

The following are Lineage specific Hematopoietic Growth Factors EXCEPT:

1 point
G-CSF
IL-6
Thrombopoietin
M-CSF
Erythropoietin
IL-5
A

IL-6

78
Q

This connective layer of the heart is in contact with the cardiac muscle and contains small coronary blood vessels, nerves and Purkinje fibers.

subendocardial layer
myocardium
endothelial layer
pericardial sac

A

subendocardial layer

79
Q

This is NOT among the physiologic and pharmacologic functions of Melatonin:

Treatment of jet lag
Increased level of melatonin is needed for the maturation of gonads
Anti-oxidant activity
Treatment of insomnia among Elderly people
Regulation of circadian rhythms axis

A

Increased level of melatonin is needed for the maturation of gonads

80
Q

Trace the bile flow starting from its production down to its secretion :

A. bile canaliculi - canals of Hering - - common hepatic duct - bile ductules - right & left hepatic ducts - common bile duct – ampulla of Vater- sphincter of Oddi - duodenum

B. bile canaliculi - ampulla of Vater- sphincter of Oddi - canals of Hering - bile ductules - right & left hepatic ducts - common hepatic duct - common bile duct –duodenum

C. right & left hepatic ducts - common hepatic duct - common bile duct - bile canaliculi - canals of Hering - bile ductules -– ampulla of Vater- sphincter of Oddi - duodenum

D. bile canaliculi - canals of Hering - bile ductules - right & left hepatic ducts - common hepatic duct - common bile duct – ampulla of Vater- sphincter of Oddi – duodenum

A

D. bile canaliculi - canals of Hering - bile ductules - right & left hepatic ducts - common hepatic duct - common bile duct – ampulla of Vater- sphincter of Oddi – duodenum

81
Q

Not true regarding the Loop of Henle:

A. The straight part of the proximal tubule has an outer diameter of about 60 µm, but it narrows abruptly to about 30 µm in the thin limbs of the loop.
B. The wall of the thin segments consists only of squamous cells with few organelles (indicating a primarily active role in transport).
C. U-shaped structure with a thin descending limb and a thin ascending limb
D. Composed of simple squamous epithelia

A

B. The wall of the thin segments consists only of squamous cells with few organelles (indicating a primarily active role in transport).

82
Q

These cells in the peripheral nervous tissue surround the nerve cell bodies and are found only in the ganglia. These cells form a thin, intimate glial layer around each large neuronal cell body. These cells insulate, nourish and regulate the microenvironments of the ganglia

astrocyte
satellite cells of the the ganglia
oligodendrocyte
Schwann cell

A

satellite cells of the the ganglia

83
Q

What cell from the bone marrow will go to the thymus to mature?

Red blood cells
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
Precursor lymphoblast

A

T lymphocytes

84
Q

Catecholamines are produced by these organs:

adrenal medulla
central nervous system
adrenal cortex
1st & 2nd choices only
All of the above
A

1st & 2nd choices only

85
Q

This cleans and humidifies inspired air and provides conduits for air movement to and from alveoli.

alveolar ducts
terminal bronchioles
alveoli
respiratory bronchioles

A

terminal bronchioles

86
Q

Large amount of acidophilic colloid may be found in this type of thyroid follicle:

Active Follicle
Resting Follicle

A

Resting Follicle

87
Q

This cardiac layer consists of the lining endothelium, its supporting layer of fibroelastic connective tissue with scattered fibers of smooth muscle, and a deeper layer of connective tissue (often called the subendocardial layer) surrounding variable numbers of modified cardiac muscle fibers which com prise the heart’s impulse conducting system.

VISCERAL PERICARDIUM
MYOCARDIUM
ENDOCARDIUM
EPICARDIUM

A

ENDOCARDIUM

88
Q

The Pleural Membranes lining the thoracic walls is called_____.

visceral pleura
parietal pleura

A

parietal pleura

89
Q

Differentiation process that spermatogenic cells undergo :

meiosis
mitosis
spermatogenesis
spermiogenesis
All of the above.
A

spermiogenesis

90
Q

This is NOT a part of the adenohypophysis:

pars intermedia
pars distalis
pars nervosa
pars tuberalis

A

pars nervosa

91
Q

The two-stage thymic selection process of quality control ensures

A. That selected mature T lymphocytes will not attack old RBC since it is the macrophage who will destroy them and recycle the hemoglobin.
B. That mature T lymphocytes do not overlap with B lymphocytes in terms of antigen detection and response.
C. That mature T cells have TCRs that are fully functional but do not recognize and strongly bind MHC with self-antigens.
D. That mature T lymphocytes protects developing immature lymphocytes by securing them from being attacked by the immune system.

A

C. That mature T cells have TCRs that are fully functional but do not recognize and strongly bind MHC with self-antigens.

92
Q

An important accessory protein in I bands which is (3700 kDa), the largest protein in the body, with scaffolding and elastic properties, which supports the thick myofilaments and connects them to the Z disc.

Tropomyosin
Nebulin
Titin
Troponin

A

Titin

93
Q

Not consistent with CNS:

Neurons can only be found in central nervous system
Glial cells are the supporting cells
Neural crest cells are the precursors of CNS
Spinal nerves belong to Peripheral Nervous System

A

Neural crest cells are the precursors of CNS

94
Q

The walls of the heart have 3 basic layers corresponding to the layers of the blood vessels. The endocardium corresponds to which layer of the blood vessel?

tunica intima
tunica adventitia
none of the above
tunica media

A

tunica intima

95
Q

Total number of paranasal sinuses in humans:

4
6
8
10

A

8

96
Q

Mrs. X, 33-year-old, with an average menstrual cycle of 28 days comes in for a routine Pap smear. It has been 35 days since the start of her last menstrual period, and a vaginal smear reveals clumps of basophilic cells. As her physician you suspect which of the following?

A. She will begin menstruating in a few days.
B. She is undergoing early menopause.
C. There will be detectable levels of human choriogonadotrophin (hCG) in her serum and urine.
D. She will ovulate within a few days.
E. Her serum progesterone levels will be found to be very low.

A

There will be detectable levels of human choriogonadotrophin (hCG) in her serum and urine.

97
Q

Survival depending on whether its TCRs can recognize and bind antigens on the MHC molecules properly

Negative selection
Positive selection
Apoptosis
Autoimmune attack

A

Positive selection

98
Q

The walls of the heart have 3 basic layers corresponding to the layers of the blood vessels.
The epicardium corresponds to which layer of the blood vessel?

tunica media
tunica adventitia
tunica intima
none of the above

A

tunica adventitia

99
Q

The inherited genetic disorder Kartagener syndrome involves the following conditions EXCEPT:

chronic sinusitis
primary ciliary dyskinesia
bronchitis
anosmia

A

anosmia

100
Q

Each axonal branch forms a dilated termination situated within a trough on the muscle cell surface. This synaptic structure is called _________.

motor end plate (MEP)
neuromuscular junction (NMJ)
Both
Neither

A

Both

101
Q

This type of blood vessel distributes blood to all organs and maintain steady blood pressure and flow with vasoconstriction and vasodilation.

MUSCULAR ARTERY
MEDIUM VEIN
venules
CAPILLARY

A

MUSCULAR ARTERY

102
Q

These cells of the Respiratory epithelium are part of the diffuse neuroendocrine system (DNES) of the body:

Kulchitsky cells
Basal cells
Goblet cells
Brush cells
Ciliated columnar cells
A

Kulchitsky cells

103
Q

This DOES NOT participate in the blood-air barrier mechanism:

two or three highly attenuated thin alveolar cells
thickness of alveolar ducts
thin capillary endothelial cells
fused basal laminae of alveolar cells and endothelial cells of capillaries

A

thickness of alveolar ducts

104
Q

The female structure that is homologous to the penis with paired corpora cavernosa.

vestibule
clitoris
paired labia minora
fourchette
prepuce
A

clitoris

105
Q

Identify the lining epithelium of the Eustachian tube:

simple cuboidal epithelium
ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
stratified squamous epithelium, keratinized
simple squamous epithelium
columnar neuroepithelial cells

A

ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium

106
Q

In the absence of ATP, the actinmyosin crossbridges become stable, which accounts for the rigidity of skeletal muscles that occurs as mitochondrial activity stops after death.

Livor mortis
Rigidity valor
Rigor mortis
Rigor reticularis

A

Rigor mortis

107
Q

Which type of capillary is often seen in the kidneys, intestines and choroid plexus?

fenestrated capillaries
continuous capillaries
discontinuous capillaries

A

fenestrated capillaries

108
Q

This is a blood vessel is only 100-10 um in diameter but it is a major determinant of systemic blood pressure. It only possesses 1-3 layers of smooth muscle and a very thin connective tissue layer in its tunica adventitia

capillary
muscular artery
venule
arteriole

A

arteriole

109
Q

Known cause of lymph node enlargement

A. Growth of cancer cells inside the lymph node like that of lymphoma
B. Proliferation of B and T cells as a reaction to infection or inflammation
C. Any of the above can increase the nodal size
D. None of the above because growth enlargement is hormonally dependent

A

C. Any of the above can increase the nodal size

110
Q

Gigantism & acromegaly are conditions that could result from a functional pituitary adenomas involving these cells:

gonadotrophs
somatotropic cells
corticotrophs
thyrotrophs

A

somatotropic cells

111
Q

Which type of cartilage does not have a perichondrium?

Hyaline cartilage
Fibrocartilage
Elastic Cartilage
none of the above

A

Fibrocartilage

112
Q

Not true of tongue

A. striated muscle covered by mucosa
B. have V-shaped groove called the sulcus vaginalis
C. lower surface of the tongue is smooth, with typical lining mucosa
D. hundreds of small protruding papillae of various types on its anterior two-thirds

A

B. have V-shaped groove called the sulcus vaginalis

113
Q

This type of bone is nonlamellar and characterized by random disposition of type I collagen fibers and is the first bone tissue to appear in embryonic development and in fracture repair.

compact bone
Lamellar Bone
spongy bone
woven bone

A

woven bone

114
Q

Trace the Red Cell development by assigning letters to the following cells by order of appearance:

A. pro-erythroblasts - polychromato-philic erythroblasts - ortho-chromatophilic - basophilic erythroblasts -erythroblasts – reticulocytes - erythrocytes

B. polychromato-philic erythroblasts - ortho-chromatophilic erythroblasts – reticulocytes - pro-erythroblasts - asophilic erythroblasts - erythrocytes

C. pro-erythroblasts - basophilic erythroblasts - polychromato-philic erythroblasts - ortho-chromatophilic erythroblasts – reticulocytes - erythrocytes

D. pro-erythroblasts - ortho-chromatophilic erythroblasts –polychromato-philic erythroblasts - reticulocytes – basophilic erythroblasts - erythrocytes

A

C. pro-erythroblasts - basophilic erythroblasts - polychromato-philic erythroblasts - ortho-chromatophilic erythroblasts – reticulocytes - erythrocytes

115
Q

A brain tumor was recovered after surgery from a 23 year old female. Immunostaining of tumor cells are positive for glial fibrillary acid protein (GFAP). What do you think is the possible diagnosis of this tumor?

Oligodendroma
Schwannoma
Astrocytoma
Ependymoma

A

Astrocytoma

116
Q

These are zipper-like structures spanning adjacent pedicels and bridging the slit pores. They are modified and specialized occluding or tight junctions composed of nephrins, other proteins, glycoproteins, and proteoglycans important for renal function.

Basement membrane
Slit diaphragms
Tubular pole
Bowman capsule

A

Slit diaphragms

117
Q

Senescent or worn out RBCs displaying swelling or other shape abnormalities are recognized and removed from circulation, mainly by macrophages of the following organs:

1st, 2nd & 3rd choices only
lymph node
2nd, 4th, & 5th choices only
All of the above
bone marrow
adrenals
spleen
1st, 2nd, & 5th choices only
liver
A

2nd, 4th, & 5th choices only

118
Q

What is the reason why the mucosa or inner lining of the digestive, respiratory, and genitourinary tracts is a common site of invasion by pathogens?

A. Because their lumens open to the external environment.
B. Because the lifespan of the lining cells is short and prone to die.
C. Because the lining is acidic.
D. Because the surface area is moist and water can diffuse internally.

A

A. Because their lumens open to the external environment.

119
Q

Which of the following contents of the Neutrophilic granules can degrade the components of bacterial cell walls?

myeloperoxidase
cathepsins
gelatinase
defensins
collagenase
lysozyme
A

lysozyme

120
Q

This supply nutrition to outer retinal layers:

Descemet membrane
vitreous humor
Bruch membrane
inner choroidocapillary lamina

A

inner choroidocapillary lamina

121
Q

Functions of saliva

Chemical digestion
Helps chewing and swallowing
Lubricating effect.
Dissolves food and allows the tongue to taste food
1st & 4th choices only
all of the above
A

all of the above

122
Q

Tiredness and decreased ability to concentrate is often seen in this abnormality in Thyroid Functions:

hyperthyroidism
hypothyroidism

A

hypothyroidism

123
Q

This cell is involved in immediate hypersensitivity reactions:

fibroblast
adipocyte
macrophage
mast cells
plasma cell
A

mast cells

124
Q

This is the layer that surrounds the heart. It is a layer that contains connective tissue, nerves, blood vessels, and adipocytes

myocardium
endocardium
epicardium
subendothelial layer

A

epicardium

125
Q

Which is not true about bone fractures?

A. Bone fractures disrupt blood vessels, causing bone cells near the break to die.
B. The damaged blood vessels do not produce a localized hemorrhage or hematoma.
C. Repaired by a developmental process involving fibrocartilage formation and osteogenic activity of the major bone cells
D. The periosteum and the endosteum at the fracture site respond with intense proliferation and produce a soft callus of fibrocartilage-like tissue that surrounds the fracture and covers the extremities of the fractured bone.

A

B. The damaged blood vessels do not produce a localized hemorrhage or hematoma.

126
Q

The pancreas resembles the parotid gland histologically in the following:

islets of endocrine tissue
striated ducts
serous acini

A

serous acini

127
Q

Are highly differentiated to protect the underlying cells against the potentially cytotoxic effects of
hypertonic urine.

Intermediate cells
Umbrella cells
Membranous cells
Basal cells

A

Umbrella cells

128
Q

White pulp , only 20% of the spleen, is secondary lymphoid tissue associated with small central arterioles that are also enclosed by

periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS) of T cells.
periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS) of T and B cells.
periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS) of B cells.
Sinusoids

A

periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS) of T cells.

129
Q

In epithelial cells of intestine specialized for absorption, the apical surfaces present an array of projections called

Cilia
Stereocilia
Both
None of the above

A

None of the above

RATIO: microvilli

130
Q

A 40-nm-long coil of two polypeptide chains located in the groove between the two twisted actin strands.

Tonofibril
Tropomyosin
Sarcolemma
Myofibril

A

Tropomyosin

131
Q

A 9-year-old boy show signs of epidermolysis bullosa. Microscopically, you will expect

An abnormality of hemidesmosomes
An abnormality of Zonula adherens
An abnormality of nexus
An abnormality of Macula adherens
Other:
A

An abnormality of hemidesmosomes

132
Q

Temperature-sensitive process :

spermiogenesis
meiosis
mitosis
spermatogenesis
All of the above
A

spermiogenesis

133
Q

Most abundla:

Intercalated cells
Principal Cells
Endothelial cells
JG cells

A

Principal Cells

134
Q

Anxiety usually causes ________.

dry mouth
mucoid mouth
serous mouth
semi dry mouth

A

dry mouth

135
Q

Comprises the structures responsible for maintaining the teeth in the maxillary and mandibular bones

oral survey
mandibular survey
peridontium
dental ligament

A

peridontium

136
Q

Microscopic exam shows capillaries form a rich network in the endomysium bringing O2 to the muscle fibers. You are in:

Endomysium
Perimysium
Epimysium
Gymnatium

A

Endomysium

137
Q

Where can you find the Distal Convoluted Tubule?

Cortex
Medulla
Medullary rays
1st & 2nd choices only
2nd & 3rd choices only
Any of the above
A

Cortex

138
Q

What kind of lymphocytes mostly predominate in MALT?

T cells
P cells
B cells
M cells

A

B cells

139
Q

The true lining epithelium of the Epiglottis:

A. lingual and laryngeal surface are both lined by ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
B. lingual surface has ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium, while laryngeal surface is lined by stratified squamous epithelium
C. lingual surface has stratified squamous epithelium, while laryngeal surface is lined by ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
D. lingual and laryngeal surface are both lined by stratified squamous epithelium

A

C. lingual surface has stratified squamous epithelium, while laryngeal surface is lined by ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium

140
Q

What is the most common type of collagen in Hyaline Cartillage?

Type II
Type I
Type VIII
Type IV

A

Type II

141
Q

Barrel shaped Otoliths or Otoconia crystals are made up of protein & this chemical:

HCO3
Ca oxalate
CaCO3
NaCO3

A

CaCO3

142
Q

At what phase is Meiosis arrested during ovum maturation?

Metaphase of Meiosis II
Prophase of Meiosis II
Metaphase of Meiosis I
Prophase of Meiosis I
Prophase of Mitosis
A

Prophase of Meiosis I

143
Q

This component of the thin interalveolar septa prevent both collapse and excessive distention of alveoli:

fibroblasts
extracellular matrix
elastic and reticular fibers

A

elastic and reticular fibers

144
Q

Normal concentration of erythrocytes in women:

3.9-5.5 million/µL or mm3
150,000-450,000 /mm3
4.1-6.0 million/µL or mm3

A

3.9-5.5 million/µL or mm3

145
Q

The exocrine pancreas secretes approximately ____L of alkaline pancreatic juice per day.

5.1L
1.5L
15L

A

1.5L

146
Q

Ducts from each lobule converge and drain into interlobular excretory ducts with increasing size and thicker connective tissue layers. The lining of these ducts is/are:

Columnar
can be any of the above or mixed
Simple cuboidal
Stratified cuboidal

A

can be any of the above or mixed

147
Q

The “ZONE III” layers of hepatocytes in the liver acinus are in charge of this function:

A. preferential sites of glycolysis, lipid formation, and drug biotransformations
B. carry out functions requiring oxidative metabolism
C. hepatocytes have an intermediate range of metabolic functions

A

preferential sites of glycolysis, lipid formation, and drug biotransformations

148
Q

This is a thickening of the liver capsule at the hilum on the inferior side.

porta hepatis
hepatic septum
portal vein

A

porta hepatis

149
Q

Purpose of blood thymus barrier

Attack antigens to thymic tissues
Attack antibodies from blood to thymus
Prevent unregulated exposure to thymocytes to antigens
Protect contamination of new blood in thymus from old blood in peripheral blood

A

Prevent unregulated exposure to thymocytes to antigens

150
Q

A 60 yr old male complains of dribbling and incontinence. The doctor suspects Benign prostatic hypertrophy. The following is/ are TRUE of the condition :

prostate weight = 15 grams
Prostatic specific antigen (PSA) is increased to 4 ng/ml
Prostate gland measures 2 x 3 x 4 cm
usually involves the central zone around the urethra
All are correct.

A

Prostatic specific antigen (PSA) is increased to 4 ng/ml

151
Q

The following statements are CORRECT regarding the juxtaglomerular apparatus:

one component is the portion of distal nephron in contact with its parent glomerulus
It is located near the vascular pole of the glomerulus
It regulates blood pressures
Its function could affect the glomerular filtration rate
the glomerular efferent arteriole is one component
1st, 2nd, & 3rd choices only
1st, 2nd, & 4th choices only
All except the last choice
All of the above

A

All except the last choice

152
Q

Erectile dysfunction, or impotence, can result from the following conditions, except :

vascular disease
nerve damage during prostatectomy
diabetes
No exception
anxiety
A

No exception

153
Q

STATEMENT A: Certain regions of the CNS, such as near the ependyma, retain rare neural stem and progenitor cells that allow some replacement of neurons throughout life.
STATEMENT B: The more simply organized peripheral nerves have better capacity for axonal regeneration, a process involving reactivation of the perikaryon, Schwann cells, and macrophages.

both statements are false
Only statement A is true.
both statements are true
Only statement B is true.

A

both statements are true

154
Q

Findings showing autoimmunity to desmoglein 1

Is consistent with a defect of Integrins
Is consistent with a defect of Cadherin
Is consistent with a defect of hemidesmosomes
Is consistent with a defect desmosomes

A

Is consistent with a defect desmosomes

155
Q

They recognize epitopes (antigenic determinants) that are displayed by cells possessing HLA (human leukocyte antigen:

Natural T killer cells
Null cells
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes

A

T lymphocytes

156
Q

Autoimmune disorder that involves circulating antibodies against proteins of acetylcholine receptors.

Duchene Muscular Dystrophy
Graves disease
Autoimmune thyroiditis
Myasthenia gravis

A

Myasthenia gravis

157
Q

When the hair-like projections of cells in the bronchus are destroyed or damaged, there will be_______.

Accumulation of microbes in the lung
Accumulation of inhaled dust or debris in the lung
Both A and B
Neither of the above

A

Both A and B

158
Q

These are the CORRECT directions of blood & bile flows:

A. Bile flows from the periphery to center of hepatic lobule, while the blood flow from the center of the lobule to its periphery.
B. Both blood & the bile flow from the center of the lobule to its periphery.
C. Blood flows from the periphery to center of hepatic lobule, while the bile flow from the center of the lobule to its periphery.
D. Blood & bile flows from the periphery to center of hepatic lobule.

A

C. Blood flows from the periphery to center of hepatic lobule, while the bile flow from the center of the lobule to its periphery.

159
Q

DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY:

inflamed conjunctiva w/ mucus discharge and increased microvasculature

A

PINK EYE

160
Q

DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY:

macular degeneration, causing blindness in visual center field

A

BLINDNESS IN ELDERLY

161
Q

DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY:

extentions of viral or bacterial infections from the upper respiratory tract via the auditory tubes

A

OTITIS MEDIA

162
Q

DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY:

lenses lose elasticity and their ability to undergo accommodation

A

PRESBYOPIA

163
Q

DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY:

affects the cones responsible for detecting light at two wavelengths

A

red-green color blindness

164
Q

DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY:

Involves loss of hair cells or nerve degeneration.

A

Ménière disease

165
Q

FUNCTIONS OF HEPATOCYTES ACCORDING TO LOCATIONS:

INVOLVED IN EXOCRINE SECRETION OF BILE

A. Hepatocytes near the portal areas
B. sinusoidal (basolateral) hepatocytes
C. more central hepatocytes
D. apical surfaces of hepatocytes

A

D. apical surfaces of hepatocytes

166
Q

FUNCTIONS OF HEPATOCYTES ACCORDING TO LOCATIONS:

process blood nutrients and secrete the plasma proteins

A. Hepatocytes near the portal areas
B. sinusoidal (basolateral) hepatocytes
C. more central hepatocytes
D. apical surfaces of hepatocytes

A

B. sinusoidal (basolateral) hepatocytes

167
Q

FUNCTIONS OF HEPATOCYTES ACCORDING TO LOCATIONS:

often more active in protein synthesis

A. Hepatocytes near the portal areas
B. sinusoidal (basolateral) hepatocytes
C. more central hepatocytes
D. apical surfaces of hepatocytes

A

A. Hepatocytes near the portal areas

168
Q

FUNCTIONS OF HEPATOCYTES ACCORDING TO LOCATIONS:

more involved with detoxification and glycogen metabolism

A. Hepatocytes near the portal areas
B. sinusoidal (basolateral) hepatocytes
C. more central hepatocytes
D. apical surfaces of hepatocytes

A

C. more central hepatocytes

169
Q

Describe the following diseases or abnormality

Infections near opening of tarsal gland ducts, caused by Staphylococcus aureus

A

Styes

170
Q

Describe the following diseases or abnormality

scar-like lesions on bony labyrinth near stapes, inhibiting its movement

A

Osteosclerosis

171
Q

DIABETES MELLITUS

loss of the β cells from autoimmune
destruction

A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes

A

A. Type 1 diabetes

172
Q

DIABETES MELLITUS

β cells fail to produce adequate insulin

A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes

A

B. Type 2 diabetes

173
Q

State the conditions during which the Mitochondria decides to undergo FISSION or FUSION:

elimination of damaged organelles

A

FISSION

174
Q

State the conditions during which the Mitochondria decides to undergo FISSION or FUSION:

high energy demand

A

FUSION

175
Q

State the conditions during which the Mitochondria decides to undergo FISSION or FUSION:

counteracts mutations during aging

A

FUSION

176
Q

STATE THE SPECIFIC EPITHELIUM LINING EACH OF THE FOLLOWING:

urinary bladder

A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Simple cuboidal epithelium
C. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium
D. Transitional epithelium

A

D. Transitional epithelium

177
Q

STATE THE SPECIFIC EPITHELIUM LINING EACH OF THE FOLLOWING:

blood vessels

A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Simple cuboidal epithelium
C. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium
D. Transitional epithelium

A

A. Simple squamous epithelium

178
Q

STATE THE SPECIFIC EPITHELIUM LINING EACH OF THE FOLLOWING:

thyroid gland follicles

A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Simple cuboidal epithelium
C. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium
D. Transitional epithelium

A

B. Simple cuboidal epithelium

179
Q

STATE THE SPECIFIC EPITHELIUM LINING EACH OF THE FOLLOWING:

Trachea

A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Simple cuboidal epithelium
C. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium
D. Transitional epithelium

A

C. Pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium

180
Q

Diffuse NeuroEndocrine System

increases intestinal absorption of calcium, magnesium, and phosphate

A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Vit D3 & calcitriol
C. Relaxin
D. Progesterone

A

B. Vit D3 & calcitriol

181
Q

Diffuse NeuroEndocrine System

Stimulate thickening of endometrium, producing the decidua

A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Vit D3 & calcitriol
C. Relaxin
D. Progesterone

A

D. Progesterone

182
Q

Diffuse NeuroEndocrine System

ripening of cervix & softening of pubic symphysis during labor

A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Vit D3 & calcitriol
C. Relaxin
D. Progesterone

A

C. Relaxin

183
Q

Diffuse NeuroEndocrine System

decrease maternal immune response to allow acceptance of pregnancy

A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Vit D3 & calcitriol
C. Relaxin
D. Progesterone

A

A. Human chorionic gonadotropin

184
Q

delicate connective fibers in bone marrow and endocrine organs

A. Reticular Fibers
B. Elastic fibers

A

A. Reticular Fibers

185
Q

exhibits extensible random coil conformation

A. Reticular Fibers
B. Elastic fibers

A

ELASTIC FIBERS

186
Q

Identify the hemopoietic growth factors that activate and promote hemopoiesis:

acts on monocyte progenitor cells

A. granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor
B. Interleukin-7
C. Erythropoietin

A

A. granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor

187
Q

Identify the hemopoietic growth factors that activate and promote hemopoiesis:

acts on CFU-Ly

A. granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor
B. Interleukin-7
C. Erythropoietin

A

B. Interleukin-7

188
Q

Identify the hemopoietic growth factors that activate and promote hemopoiesis:

acts on BFU-E and CFU-E

A. granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor
B. Interleukin-7
C. Erythropoietin

A

C. Erythropoietin

HISTOLOGY (6 decks)

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