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HISTOLOGY > 4TH BIMEX > Flashcards

4TH BIMEX Flashcards

1
Q

Common causes are infectious agents that are sexually transmitted:

a. acute or chronic orchitis
b. epididymitis
c. chronic prostatitis
d. urethritis
e. All of the above are correct

A

e. All of the above are correct

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2
Q

The spermatic cord consists of the following, except:

a. ductus deferens
b. pampiniform plexus of veins
c. nerves
d. testicular artery
e. No exception. All are correct.

A

e. No exception. All are correct.

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3
Q

The following is/ are true of the prostate:

a. surrounds the urethra below the urinary bladder
b. glands may contain corpora amylacea that increases with age
c. one of the male accessory genital glands
d. collection of 30-50 tubuloacinar glans within fibromuscular stroma.
e. All of the above are true.

A

e. All of the above are true.

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4
Q

Mucus-secreting urethral glands are found:

a. penis
b. bulbourethral glands
c. prostate glands
d. testis
e. None of the above

A

a. penis

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5
Q

Expands at its end to form the glans penis

a. corpora spongiosa
b. corpora cavernosum
c. urethral orifice
d. prepuce
e. All of the above

A

a. corpora spongiosa

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6
Q

The epididymis:

a. supplied by helicine arteries which constricts upon sympathetic stimulation
b. site for final maturation and short storage for sperm prior to ejaculation
c. most of semen are produced here
d. serves as the monocyte-phagocyte system of the male reproductive tract
e. All are correct except 4th choice

A

b. site for final maturation and short storage for sperm prior to ejaculation

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7
Q

Ms. W, 45-year-old, came complaining of 2days vaginal spotting. Her last regular
menstrual period was 2 weeks ago that lasted for 4days, just like her usual menses, Ultrasound revealed 5mm thick endometrium. Dilatation & curettage was done, and
the scraped endometrium was submitted for biopsy. Which histological morphology do you expect the endometrium to exhibit?

a. tubular endometrial glands lined by simple columnar epithelium
b. endometrial stroma surrounding the glands is compact
c. tortuous endometrial glands lined by columnar cells with subnuclear vacuoles
d. endometrial stroma surrounding the glands is edematous
e. 1st & 2nd choices only
f. 3rd & 4th choices only
g. All

A

f. 3rd & 4th choices only

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8
Q

Function of the prostate gland secretion.

a. nourish sperm
b. produce sperm
c. purify sperm
d. store sperm
e. Only 1st & 4th choices are correct

A

a. nourish sperm

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9
Q

Main structures in erectile tissue responsible for maintaining an erection, except:

a. venous sinuses
b. peripheral nerves
c. pacinian corpuscles
d. helicine arteries
e. All are correct except 3RD choice

A

e. All are correct except 3RD choice

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10
Q

The secretion covering the tubal mucosa has the following function EXCEPT:

a. capacitation factors that activate sperm
b. protective functions for both oocyte and sperm
c. nutritive functions for both oocyte and sperm
d. induce acrosomal activation of sperm

A

d. induce acrosomal activation of sperm

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11
Q

Testosterone producing cells:

a. Leydig cells
b. columnar principal cells
c. prostate cells
d. sertoli cells
e. spermatogonia

A

a. Leydig cells

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12
Q

In a couple who would want to control having more children, on which day should you advise them to abstain sexual contact the most?

a. 10th day from last menstrual period (LMP)
b. middle day in any given menstrual cycle
c. 14th day just before the next menses
d. 14th day from 1st day of menses

A

c. 14th day just before the next menses

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13
Q

The female structure that is homologous to the penis with paired corpora cavernosa.

a. prepuce
b. paired labia minora
c. vestibule
d. clitoris
e. fourchette

A

d. clitoris

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14
Q 
Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) produced by the placenta has similar function 
to this hormone:
a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Luteinizing Hormone
d. Androstenedione
e. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
f. 1st & 2nd choice only
g. 1st, 2nd, & 4th choices only
h. All of the above
A

c. Luteinizing Hormone

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15
Q

The following allow/s semen to coagulate after ejaculation:

a. nositol
b. fibrinogen
c. citrate
d. complement
e. prostaglandins

A

b. fibrinogen

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16
Q

The excretory genital ducts include the following, except:

a. rete testis
b. epididymis
c. urethra
d. ductus deferens
e. No exception

A

a. rete testis

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17
Q

The following are TRUE of the epididymis, except:

a. lined with pseudostratified columnar epithelium
b. lined by simple columnar epithelium
c. where maturation of the acrosome occurs
d. lined by columnar principal cells and small round stem cells
e. No exception

A

b. lined by simple columnar epithelium

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18
Q

Where do the ducts of the Bartholin’s glands empty their secretions?

a. clitoris
b. labia minora
c. vestibule
d. labia majora

A

c. vestibule

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19
Q

In the sequence of events preceding ovulation, which process DOES NOT contribute
to the release of the ovum?
a. plasmin degrades collagen in tunica albuginea leading to ballooning at stigma
b. hydrophilic GAG hyaluronan loosens granulosa cells
c. prostaglandins trigger smooth muscle contractions in the theca externa
d. inhibin exerts negative feedback on Hypothalamus and anterior pituitary

A

d. inhibin exerts negative feedback on Hypothalamus and anterior pituitary

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20
Q

A primordial follicle reaches maturity over this period:

a. 3months
b. 2 weeks
c. 2 months
d. 1month

A

c. 2 months

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21
Q

.Glands/duct/s lined with pseudostratified columnar epithelium containing stereocilia:

a. epididymal duct
b. prostate gland
c. ductus deferens
d. bulbourethral glands
e. 1st & 3rd are correct

A

e. 1st & 3rd are correct

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22
Q

When does the cervix produce a highly viscous mucus that forms a plug in the
cervical canal?

a. Proliferative phase
b. Secretory phase
c. Pregnancy
d. Menstrual phase

A

c. Pregnancy

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23
Q

Phases of spermiogenesis, except:

a. the acrosomal cap spreads over the condensing nucleus in the cap phase
b. proacrosomal vesicles from the Golgi apparatus coalesce in the Golgi phase
c. secondary spermatocyte divides into spermatids in the initiation phase
d. shedding of the unneeded cytoplasm in the maturation phase
e. the acrosome phases
f. while the head of the developing sperm (with the acrosome), flagellum continues
to grow as tail in

A

c. secondary spermatocyte divides into spermatids in the initiation phase

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24
Q

Main function of the accessory gland products:

a. facilitate sperm transfer to the female
b. produce sperm
c. purify sperm
d. store sperm
e. lubricate ducts

A

a. facilitate sperm transfer to the female

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25
Q

Seminiferous tubules:

a. lining epithelium is composed by Sertoli cells and germinal spermatogenic
epithelium
b. Sertoli cells and spermatogenic epithelium are all dividing cells
c. 250 to 1000 tubules in 1 lobule
d. myoid cells are found in the basement membrane of the tubules
e. All are correct except 2nd choice

A

e. All are correct except 2nd choice

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26
Q

A 30-year-old male with 12 children, underwent vasectomy. The following
statement/s are true of the procedure:

a. He no longer would be able to produce sperm.
b. most common surgical method of male contraception
c. The spermatic cord is tied or cauterized
d. Fertility is often not restored due to fibrosis in the vas deferens and obliteration of
ductal lumen.
e. All of the above are correct.

A

b. most common surgical method of male contraception

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27
Q

At this age a girl’s ovary contains half the number of oocytes than the population of oogonia at 2nd month of embryonic period:

a. at birth
b. first pregnancy
c. puberty
d. 7th month fetal life

A

c. puberty

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28
Q 
The papanicolou (Pap) smear of 22y.o. Ms. V, revealed few endocervical cells, 70% 
superficial cells, 30% intermediate cells, few Neutrophils, and moderate number of  Lactobacilli. At which reproductive phase is she currently in?

a. proliferative phase
b. secretory phase
c. menstrual phase
d. luteal phase
e. 1st & 3rd choices only
f. 2nd & 4th choices only
g. All of the above

A

f. 2nd & 4th choices only

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29
Q

Composition of semen:

a. secretions of the accessory glands and spermatozoa
b. spermatozoa and luteinizing hormone
c. spermatozoa
d. spermatozoa and secretions of the accessory glands and spermatozoa
e. All are correct.

A

e. All are correct.

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30
Q

.The following is/are male accessory genital glands, except:

a. bulbourethral glands
b. seminal vesicles
c. epididymis
d. prostate gland
e. No exception. All are correct

A

c. epididymis

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31
Q

Which is the NOT included among the significant roles of the glycoproteins contained in the zona pellucida of the oocyte?

a. important sperm receptors,
b. bind w/ specific proteins on sperm surface
c. induce acrosomal activation
d. release of enzymes acrosin- and trypsin-like substances
e. None

A

e. None

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32
Q

Structural basis of the blood-testis barrier:

a. tight junctions between adjacent Sertoli cells
b. tight junctions between adjacent spermatogonia
c. myoid cells
d. basement membrane
e. All of the abov

A

a. tight junctions between adjacent Sertoli cells

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33
Q

Differentiation process that spermatogenic cells undergo:

a. meiosis
b. mitosis
c. spermatogenesis
d. spermiogenesis
e. All of the above

A

d. spermiogenesis

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34
Q

Testosterone secretion is triggered by:

a. hormone from hypothalamus
b. luteinizing hormone
c. pituitary hormone
d. Interstitial cell stimulating hormone
e. All except 1st choice

A

e. All except 1st choice

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35
Q

Contains many venous cavernous spaces and arterio-venous shunts:

a. penis
b. epididymis
c. vas deferens
d. testis
e. tubulo-acinar glands

A

a. penis

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36
Q

Sertoli cells

a. secrete fluid that carries sperm along the tubules.
b. phagocytose shed debris from spermatids
c. nourishes many germ cells embedded at its surface
d. produce androgen-binding protein
e. All are correct.

A

e. All are correct.

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37
Q

The lamina propria or stroma of the endometrium contains primarily this type of collagen:

a. type I collagen fibers
b. type II collagen fibers
c. type III collagen fibers

A

c. type III collagen fibers

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38
Q

Ms. Y, 17-year-old, with a history of pelvic inflammatory disease presents at the
emergency department with severe pain in her lower right side that came on fairly
quickly. Upon questioning she replies that her last menstrual period was 6 weeks
ago and that she has never missed a period before. The doctor suspects she has an
ectopic pregnancy and this is quickly confirmed by ultrasound testing. The surgeon removes her right uterine tube which is inflamed, scarified, and contains the
implanted embryonic tissue in the region where fertilization normally occurs. Where
is this?

a. The ampulla region with highly folded mucosa
b. The infundibulum region with fimbriae
c. The only oviduct region attached to the mesosalpinx
d. The isthmus region
e. The uterine part of the oviduct

A

a. The ampulla region with highly folded mucosa

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39
Q

These cells act as stem cells and do not undergo final mitosis to enter meiosis:

a. type A spermatogonia
b. type B spermatogonia
c. primary spermatocytes
d. spermatids
e. None of the above

A

a. type A spermatogonia

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40
Q

Two functions of the testis:

a. production of sperm and testosterone
b. production of sperm and progesterone
c. convey the sperm to the female reproductive tract
d. storage and maturation of sperm
e. production of fluid and transportation of sperm

A

a. production of sperm and testosterone

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41
Q

At what phase is Meiosis arrested during embryonic life?

a. Metaphase of Meiosis II
b. Prophase of Meiosis I
c. Metaphase of Meiosis I
d. Prophase of Mitosis
e. Prophase of Meiosis II

A

b. Prophase of Meiosis I

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42
Q

Throughout her reproductive life, a woman would have liberated around how many
oocytes during ovulation?

a. 200
b. 450
c. 7 million
d. 300,000
e. 600,000

A

b. 450

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43
Q

The fluid from the seminal vesicles:

a. makes up 70% of the ejaculate.
b. The mucosa is lined with simple or pseudostratified columnar cells.
c. produced from the highly tortuous tubes with lining rich in secretory granules
d. contains fructose which is the major energy source for sperm
e. All are correct.

A

e. All are correct.

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44
Q

In pregnancy, the endometrium on the side of the uterus away from the embryo is called _____.

a. decidua basalis
b. decidua capsularis
c. decidua parietalis

A

c. decidua parietalis

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45
Q

Spermatozoa undergo maturation and acquire the ability to fertilize during passage of sperm through this/these duct/s

a. penile urethra
b. rete testis
c. epididymis
d. ductus deferens
e. bulbourethral ducts

A

c. epididymis

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46
Q

Functions and/or secretions of the following glands are dependent on testosterone:

a. bulbourethral glands
b. seminal vesicles
c. prostate gland
d. ductus deferens
e. All of the above are correct except 4th choice

A

e. All of the above are correct except 4th choice

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47
Q

After ovulation, the granulosa and theca interna cells redifferentiate into corpus
luteum under the influence of this hormone:

a. progesterone
b. estrogen
c. luteinizing hormone
d. follicle stimulating hormone

A

c. luteinizing hormone

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48
Q

Spermiogenesis

a. involves formation of acrosome and growth of flagellum
b. The divisions of this phase produce new spermatogonia and primary
spermatocytes.
c. phase of differentiation where spermatids become sperm
d. the 1st phase of sperm production
e. 1ST & 3RD is correct

A

e. 1ST & 3RD is correct

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49
Q

Correct sequence of path travelled of a sperm cell from the point of origin to the
point of placement inthe female RT at fertilization:

a. efferent ductules, epididymis, ductus deferens, testis
b. testis, efferent ductules, epididymis, ductus deferens
c. ductus deferens, efferent ductules, epididymis, testis
d. epididymis, testis, ductus deferens, efferent ductules
e. All of the above are correct.

A

b. testis, efferent ductules, epididymis, ductus deferens

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50
Q

When is the first polar body produced by the oocyte?

a. At 3rd month embryonic life
b. Right after fertilization
c. Just before ovulation
d. At birth
e. At 7th month fetal life
f. During implantation of fertilized ovum

A

c. Just before ovulation

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51
Q

True of Prostatic specific antigen (PSA):

a. organ-specific but not cancer-specific
b. serine-protease that helps liquefy coagulated semen
c. may be increased in infections and hypertophy
d. may be seen in normal serum
e. All are correct

A

b. serine-protease that helps liquefy coagulated semen

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52
Q

Which hormones are primarily produced by the Corpus Luteum?

a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Luteinizing Hormone
d. Androstenedione
e. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
f. 1st & 2nd choice only
g. 1st, 2nd, & 4th choices only
h. All of the above

A

b. Progesterone

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53
Q

.Common features of poor semen quality, except:

a. flagellar defects that impair sperm motility
b. abnormal sperm morphology,
c. sperm cell density more than 100 million/mL
d. oligospermia (ejaculate volume > 2 mL)
e. No exception

A

c. sperm cell density more than 100 million/mL

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54
Q

.Where in the tube does fertilization normally occurs?

a. uterine or intramural part
b. isthmus
c. infundibulum
d. ampulla
e. fimbria

A

d. ampulla

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55
Q

The intratesticular ducts include the following, except:

a. rete testis
b. ductus deferens
c. efferent ductules
d. tubuli recti
e. All are correct.

A

b. ductus deferens

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56
Q

A 60 yr old male complains of dribbling and incontinence. The doctor suspects Benign prostatic hypertrophy. The following is/ are TRUE of the condition:

a. prostate weight = 15 grams
b. Prostatic specific antigen (PSA) is increased to 4 ng/ml
c. Prostate gland measures 2 x 3 x 4 cm
d. usually involves the central zone around the urethra
e. All are correct.

A

b. Prostatic specific antigen (PSA) is increased to 4 ng/ml

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57
Q

The following are TRUE of primary spermatocytes, except:

a. enters the 1st meiotic phase
b. produces the secondary spermatocytes with 23 chromosomes
c. largest cells of the spermatogenic lineage and the cells usually seen in sections
of testis
d. has 46 (44+XY) chromosomes
e. No exception. All of the above are correct.

A

e. No exception. All of the above are correct.

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58
Q

Which of the following statement is CORRECT regarding epithelial transition zones
in the female genital tract?

a. Tubal –uterine junction is lined by folded mucosa on tubal side, & both lined by
simple columnar occasionally ciliated epithelium.
b. Endometrial-endocervical junction is lined by simple columnar occasionally
ciliated & mucus secreting epithelium respectively
c. Cervical-Vaginal junction is lined by both stratified squamous epithelium,
the latter being keratinized
d. Option 5
e. Endocervical-exocervical junction is lined by mucus secreting epithelium &
keratinized stratified squamous epithelium respectively

A

c. Cervical-Vaginal junction is lined by both stratified squamous epithelium,
the latter being keratinized

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59
Q

Ducts/tubules lined with stratified epithelium

a. testis
b. epididymis
c. ductus deferens
d. urethra
e. All of the above are correct.

A

c. ductus deferens

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60
Q

True of Cryptorchidism, except:

a. failure of one or both testes to descend from the abdomen
b. cryptorchidism may develop in adult age into testicular tumor
c. may result to infertility when not corrected surgically by 2-3 yrs old
d. occurs in 20% of neonates
e. No exception

A

d. occurs in 20% of neonates

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61
Q

.Contains sebaceous glands at its internal surface

a. prepuce of the penile glans
b. tunical albuginea
c. scrotal sac
d. penile shaft
e. All are correct.

A

a. prepuce of the penile glans

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62
Q

Forty-two-year-old, Mrs. Z, visits her physician complaining of recurrent vaginal yeast infections. The doctor explains the likelihood that the woman’s vaginal lining is temporarily out of proper acid-base balance, leading to the increased susceptibility to yeast infections. The normally low pH in the vagina is maintained by which of the following?

a. Bacterial metabolism of glycogen to produce an organic acid
b. Secretion of lactic acid by cells of the stratified squamous epithelium
c. A proton pump in the epithelial cells similar to that in osteoclasts and parietal
cells
d. Secretions derived from intracellular carbonic acid
e. Synthesis and accumulation of acid hydrolases in the epithelium

A

a. Bacterial metabolism of glycogen to produce an organic acid

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63
Q

.Cell division in spermatogenesis:

a. sexual division
b. meiosis
c. mitosis
d. mitosis and meiosis
e. asexual division

A

d. mitosis and meiosis

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64
Q

Cell division in spermiogenesis:

a. mitosis
b. meiosis
c. sexual division
d. mitosis and meiosis
e. None of the above

A

b. meiosis

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65
Q

Development of progenitor cells to fully formed sperm occur in:

a. the lifetime of the individual
b. embryogenesis
c. 2-4 weeks
d. None of the above
e. 10 weeks

A

e. 10 weeks

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66
Q

Which are two functions of the male urethra?

a. secretion of urine and sperm
b. transportation of urine and sperm
c. production of urine and sperm
d. placement of urine and sperm
e. 1st & 3rd choices are correct

A

b. transportation of urine and sperm

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67
Q

When do the ovaries reach its highest production of oogonia?

a. Menopause
b. Menarche
c. 5th month embryonic life
d. At birth
e. 2nd month embryonic life
f. 7th month fetal life

A

c. 5th month embryonic life

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68
Q

Cells with phagocytic functions

a. Leydig cells
b. Sertoli cells
c. secondary spermatocytes
d. spermatozoa
e. type B spermatogonia

A

b. Sertoli cells

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69
Q

Temperature-sensitive process:

a. spermiogenesis
b. meiosis
c. mitosis
d. spermatogenesis
e. All of the above

A

a. spermiogenesis

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70
Q

During pregnancy, the myometrium goes through the following changes EXCEPT:

a. metaplasia
b. hyperplasia
c. hypertrophy
d. increased collagen production

A

a. metaplasia

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71
Q

The mammary glands undergo growth during pregnancy as a result of the
synergistic action of these hormones except:

a. Estrogen
b. Placental Lactogen
c. Prolactin
d. Oxytocin
e. Progesterone

A

d. Oxytocin

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72
Q

True of testosterone, except:

a. control of gonadotropin secretion in the pituitary
b. control of gonadotropin secretion in the hypothalamus
c. promotes development of the secondary male sex characteristics
d. important for spermatogenesis
e. important for sexual differentiation during embryonic and fetal development

A

b. control of gonadotropin secretion in the hypothalamus

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73
Q

The significance of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the breast is for the production of this Immunoglobulin:

a. (IgA) antibodies for colostrum during pregnancy
b. (IgM) antibodies to protect both mother & baby
c. (IgG) antibodies for mother’s protection during pregnancy

A

a. (IgA) antibodies for colostrum during pregnancy

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74
Q

Spermatogenesis

a. begins at fetal age and stops at puberty
b. final process resulting to haploid spermatids
c. begins at puberty
d. No S phase (DNA replication) occurs
e. All of the above are correct.

A

c. begins at puberty

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75
Q

The following statement/s is/are TRUE of the testis:

a. 95% of testicular malignancy involves germ cell tumors and appear after puberty.
b. The seminiferous tubules are lined with germinal or spermatogenic epithelium
and inner myoid cells.
c. Sertoli cells are nondividng cells that support the developing sperm cell
precursors.
d. The germinal epithelium consists of the Sertoli cells and cells of the
spermatogenic lineage
e. All of the above are true.

A

e. All of the above are true.

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76
Q

At the 24th week of gestation, what produce/s progesterone to maintain the uterine mucosa?

a. corpus luteum of pregnancy alone
b. both corpus luteum of pregnancy & placenta
c. placenta alone

A

c. placenta alone

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77
Q

.Mrs. X, 33-year-old, with an average menstrual cycle of 28 days comes in for a routine Pap smear. It has been 35 days since the start of her last menstrual period, and a vaginal smear reveals clumps of basophilic cells. As her physician you suspect which of the following?

a. There will be detectable levels of human choriogonadotrophin (hCG) in her serum and urine.
b. She is undergoing early menopause.
c. She will begin menstruating in a few days.
d. Her serum progesterone levels will be found to be very low.
e. She will ovulate within a few days.

A

a. There will be detectable levels of human choriogonadotrophin (hCG) in her serum and urine.

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78
Q

Erectile dysfunction, or impotence, can result from the following conditions, except:

a. diabetes
b. anxiety
c. nerve damage during prostatectomy
d. No exception
e. vascular disease

A

d. No exception

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79
Q

This structure is a layer of dense connective tissue capsule, which lies directly next underneath the simple cuboidal surface epithelium covering the ovary:

a. germinal epithelium
b. tunica albuginea
c. ovarian cortex
d. ovarian medulla

A

b. tunica albuginea

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80
Q

Most common testicular cancer:

a. Sertoli cell tumors
b. Germ cell tumors
c. Ledig cell tumor
d. Adenocarcinoma
e. Mesenchymal tumors

A

b. Germ cell tumors

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81
Q

Most water is reabsorbed from the filtrate in the

a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Ascending loop of Henle
c. Collecting duct
d. Descending loop of Henle
e. Distal convolute tubule

A

a. Proximal convoluted tubule

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82
Q

.Which of the following is not part of a nephron?

a. Loop of Henle
b. Renal corpuscle
c. Collecting duct
d. Distal convoluted tubule
e. Proximal convoluted tubule

A

c. Collecting duct

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83
Q

Regions included in the male urethra, except:

a. Bulbous urethra
b. Prostatic urethra
c. Membranous urethra
d. Penile urethra

A

a. Bulbous urethra

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84
Q

Glomeruli are ____.

a. initial renal tubules emptying into proximal tubules
b. intermediate renal tubules connecting proximal to distal tubules
c. sensory nerve endings
d. tuft or network of fenestrated capillaries

A

d. tuft or network of fenestrated capillaries

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85
Q

Not true

a. The total glomerular filtration area of an adult has been estimated at 500 cm2
and the average GFR at 125 mL/min or 180 L/d.
b. Capillaries of each glomerulus have a total length of approximately 1 cm
and are uniquely situated in the afferent arteriole only.
c. The total amount of circulating plasma averages 3 L, it follows that the kidneys
typically filter the entire blood volume 60 times every day.
d. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is constantly regulated by neural and
hormonal inputs affecting the degree of constriction in each of these arterioles.

A

b. Capillaries of each glomerulus have a total length of approximately 1 cm
and are uniquely situated in the afferent arteriole only.

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86
Q

From the juxtaglomerular corpuscles near the medulla, efferent arterioles do not
form peritubular capillaries, but instead branch repeatedly to form parallel tassel-like bundles of capillary loops called the ______.

a. Proximal tubule
b. Distal tubule
c. Vasa recta
d. Collecting ducts

A

c. Vasa recta

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87
Q

Most abundant, cuboidal to columnar, pale-staining with distinct cell membrane seen
at the Medullary rays and medulla:

a. Endothelial cells
b. Intercalated cells
c. JG cells
d. Principal Cells

A

d. Principal Cells

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88
Q

Which is/are in charge of reabsorption of water and electrolytes; regulated secretion of K+?

a. Intercalated cells
b. Proximal Convoluted Tubule
c. Principal Cells
d. Distal Convoluted Tubule

A

c. Principal Cells

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89
Q

The following statements are CORRECT regarding the juxtaglomerular apparatus:

a. one component is the portion of distal nephron in contact with its parent
glomerulus
b. It is located near the vascular pole of the glomerulus
c. It regulates blood pressures
d. Its function could affect the glomerular filtration rate
e. the glomerular efferent arteriole is one component
f. 1st, 2nd, & 3rd choices only
g. 1st, 2nd, & 4th choices only
h. All except the last choice
i. All of the above

A

h. All except the last choice

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90
Q

Not true of female urethra:

a. The epithelium is continuous with that of the skin at the labia minora.
b. Lined initially with transitional epithelium which then transitions to nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
c. The female urethra is a 3- to 5-cm-long tube.
d. The erectile tissue in the female urethra is deactivated upon sensation of urine.

A

d. The erectile tissue in the female urethra is deactivated upon sensation of urine.

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91
Q

Which of the following is not part of the inner medullary zone of the kidney?

a. Thick loop of Henle
b. Collecting Ducts
c. Thin Loop of Henle
d. 2nd & 3rd choices only
e. All of the above

A

a. Thick loop of Henle

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92
Q

Which of the lining epithelium lines the parietal layer of the renal capsule?

a. Simple Columnar
b. Stratified squamous
c. Transitional
d. Simple Squamous
e. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A

d. Simple Squamous

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93
Q

Are highly differentiated to protect the underlying cells against the potentially
cytotoxic effects of hypertonic urine.

a. Umbrella cells
b. Membranous cells
c. Basal cells
d. Intermediate cells

A

a. Umbrella cells

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94
Q

Biopsy of an unidentified renal tissue shows: a tissue lined by simple cuboidal
epithelium, with cells a little smaller than that of proximal convoluted tubule, containing short microvilli, basolateral folds and more empty lumens.
Question: What is the tissue in question?

a. Thick ascending limb of Henle
b. Collecting duct.
c. Distal convoluted tubule
d. Thin limb of Henle

A

c. Distal convoluted tubule

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95
Q

Which ultimately leads into the glomerulus of Bowman’s capsule?

a. Interlobular artery
b. Efferent arteriole
c. Arcuate artery
d. Afferent arteriole

A

d. Afferent arteriole

96
Q

The amount of filtrate produced per minute is called the ____.

a. Renal fraction
b. Renal rate
c. Clearance fraction
d. Filtration fraction
e. Glomerular filtration rate

A

e. Glomerular filtration rate

97
Q

Female urethra is an exclusive urinary organ unlike that of the male.

a. False
b. It depends
c. Cannot classify
d. True

A

d. True

98
Q

The juxtaglomerular apparatus is composed of

a. The macula densa and the filtration membrane
b. Juxtaglomerular cells and the macula densa
c. Podocytes and juxtaglomerular cells
d. Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule
e. Juxtaglomerular cells and the filtration membrane

A

b. Juxtaglomerular cells and the macula densa

99
Q

Where can you find the Distal Convoluted Tubule?

a. Cortex
b. Medulla
c. Medullary rays
d. 1st & 2nd choices only
e. 2nd & 3rd choices only
f. Any of the above

A

a. Cortex

100
Q

Not seen in the medulla

a. Thin limb of Henle
b. Distal convoluted tubule
c. Collecting duct.
d. Thick ascending limb of Henle

A

b. Distal convoluted tubule

101
Q

These are cells found at the vascular pole which are extraglomerular mesangial
cells that have many of the same supportive, contractile, and defensive functions as
these cells inside the glomerulus.

a. Mesangial cells
b. Lacis cell
c. Intercalated cells
d. Principal Cells

A

b. Lacis cell

102
Q

Not true of the kidneys

a. Each kidney contains 1,400 nephrons
b. Cortex is a darkly stained region with many round corpuscles
c. 12-cm long, 6-cm wide, and 2.5cm thick
d. Within the hilum the upper end of the ureter expands as the renal pelvis

A

a. Each kidney contains 1,400 nephrons

103
Q

These are zipper-like structures spanning adjacent pedicels and bridging the slit
pores. They are modified and specialized occluding or tight junctions composed of
nephrins, other proteins, glycoproteins, and proteoglycans important for renal function.

a. Bowman capsule
b. Tubular pole
c. Slit diaphragms
d. Basement membrane

A

c. Slit diaphragms

104
Q

Which of these vessels gives rise to the peritubular capillary?

a. Afferent arteriole
b. Arcuate artery
c. Interlobular artery
d. Glomerulus
e. Efferent arteriole

A

e. Efferent arteriole

105
Q

The reabsorption of all organic nutrients, all proteins, most water and
electrolytes; secretion of organic anions and cations, is a function of which part of
the urinary system?

a. Distal Convoluted Tubule
b. Proximal Convoluted Tubule
c. Intercalated cells
d. Principal Cells

A

b. Proximal Convoluted Tubule

106
Q

A motorcycle accident caused a metal to puncture and penetrate the wall of the urinary bladder. The metal lacerates the detrusor muscle. If the detrusor muscle is significantly damaged, what do you think will happen?

a. There will be a problem in the bladder detection in terms of urinary volume.
b. It will not affect the bladder.
c. There will be a problem in the bladder’s function to empty urine.
d. There will be a problem in the bladder attachment to the peritoneal wall

A

c. There will be a problem in the bladder’s function to empty urine.

107
Q

Utilizes feedback mechanisms to regulate glomerular blood flow and keep the rate of glomerular filtration relatively constant.

a. Principal cells
b. Macula densa
c. Mesangial cells
d. Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)
e. Other:

A

d. Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)

108
Q

Cortical nephrons are located almost completely in the cortex while
juxtamedullary nephrons lie close to the medulla.
a. It depends
b. False
c. Cannot be classified
d. True

A

d. True

109
Q

The renal corpuscles contain these cells which are difficult to distinguish in routine sections from podocytes, but often stain more darkly.

a. Juxtaglomerular cells
b. Mesangial cells
c. Principals cells
d. Renal cortical cells

A

b. Mesangial cells

110
Q

This layer of the ureter is composed of transitional epithelium.

a. Lamina propria
b. Transitional epithelium
c. Adventitia
d. Lamina elastic
e. Mucosa

A

e. Mucosa

111
Q

How long is a female urethra?

a. 4-5 cm
b. 10-12 cm
c. All of the above
d. 0-1 cm
e. 15-16 cm

A

a. 4-5 cm

112
Q

Double walled epithelial capsule where the afferent arteriole enters and the
efferent arteriole leaves.

a. Collecting ducts
b. Renal corpuscle
c. Bowman capsule
d. Tubular pole

A

c. Bowman capsule

113
Q

What is the correct order of blood flow?

a. Renal artery-segmental artery-peritubular capillaries-afferent arterioles
b. None
c. Arcuate veins-arcuate arteries-glomerular capillaries-renal vein
d. Interlobar veins-afferent arterioles-efferent arterioles-glomerular capillaries
e. Interlobular arteries- arcuate arteries-glomerular capillaries-arcuate veins
f. Renal vein-segmental arteries-interlobar arteries-efferent arterioles

A

b. None

114
Q

Which is/are correct regarding ureter, bladder and urethra?

a. The walls of the ureters are similar to that of the calyces and renal pelvis, with mucosal, muscular, and adventitial layers and becoming gradually thicker closer to the bladder.
b. The mucosa of these organs (ureter, bladder, urethra) is lined by the uniquely stratified urothelium or transitional epithelium.
c. Urine is transported by the ureters from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder
where it is stored until emptying by micturition via the urethra.
d. 2nd & 3rd choices only
e. All of the above

A

d. 2nd & 3rd choices only

115
Q

Which of the following order of filtrate flow is correct?

a. Glomerular capsule, Proximal Convoluted tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal
Convoluted tubule, Collecting duct
b. Distal Convoluted tubule, Collecting duct Glomerular capsule, Proximal Convoluted tubule, Loop of Henle
c. Loop of Henle, Distal Convoluted tubule, Collecting duct Glomerular capsule, Proximal Convoluted tubule
d. Glomerular capsule, Distal Convoluted tubule, Collecting duct, Proximal
Convoluted tubule, Loop of Henle.

A

a. Glomerular capsule, Proximal Convoluted tubule, Loop of Henle, Distal
Convoluted tubule, Collecting duct

116
Q

Not true regarding the Loop of Henle:

a. The wall of the thin segments consists only of squamous cells with few
organelles (indicating a primarily active role in transport).
b. Composed of simple squamous epithelia
c. U-shaped structure with a thin descending limb and a thin ascending limb
d. The straight part of the proximal tubule has an outer diameter of about 60 µm,
but it narrows abruptly to about 30 µm in the thin limbs of the loop.

A

a. The wall of the thin segments consists only of squamous cells with few
organelles (indicating a primarily active role in transport).

117
Q

Which statement is CORRECT regarding the functions of the mesangium?

a. Physical support of capillaries within the glomerulus
b. Adjusted contractions in response to blood pressure changes, which help
maintain an optimal filtration rate
c. Phagocytosis of protein aggregates adhering to the glomerular filter, including
antibody-antigen complexes abundant in many pathological conditions.
d. 1st & 2nd choices only
e. 2nd & 3rd choices only
f. All of the above

A

f. All of the above

118
Q

The inner layer of Bowman’s capsule consists of specialized cells called _____.

a. Nephrocytes
b. Podocytes
c. Juxtamedullary cells
d. Macula densa
e. Nephrons

A

b. Podocytes

119
Q

Wrong pairing:

a. Thick ascending limb of Henle: simple cuboidal epithelium
b. Distal convoluted tubule: simple columnar epithelium
c. Proximal convoluted tubule: simple cuboidal epithelium
d. Thin limb of Henle: simple squamous epithelium

A

b. Distal convoluted tubule: simple columnar epithelium

120
Q

Which structure of the nephron filters blood?

a. Collecting duct
b. Ascending limb
c. Renal corpuscle
d. Loop of Henle
e. Glomerular capsule

A

e. Glomerular capsule

121
Q

Not part of the urothelium

a. Intermediate cells
b. Umbrella cells
c. Membranous cells
d. Basal cells

A

c. Membranous cells

122
Q

The concave medial border of the kidney where nerves enter and ureter exits is
known as ____.

a. Major calyces
b. Medulla
c. Hilum
d. Minor calyces
e. Cortex

A

c. Hilum

123
Q

A medical student is answering a histology quiz when she noted an urge to
urinate. What is the probable approximate volume of urine she has now in her
urinary bladder?

a. 110 ml
b. 100 ml
c. 150 ml
d. 130 ml

A

c. 150 ml

124
Q

What is the initial dilated portion in the cortex?

a. Renal corpuscle
b. Proximal convoluted tubule
c. Distal convoluted tubule
d. Thin limbs of loop of Henle
e. Thick limbs of loop of Henle

A

a. Renal corpuscle

125
Q

Is straight as it enters the cortex and forms the macula densa, and then becomes
tortu-ous as the distal convoluted tubule (DCT).

a. Distal Tubule
b. Descending limb
c. Ascending limb
d. Proximal Tubule

A

c. Ascending limb

126
Q

Substances move from epithelial cells of the tubules into the lumens, usually
after uptake from the surrounding interstitium and capillaries.

a. Active Diffusion
b. Tubular secretion
c. Tubular reabsorption
d. Filtration

A

b. Tubular secretion

127
Q

Approaching the apex of each renal pyramid, several medullary collecting ducts
merge again to form this duct which deliver urine directly into the minor calyx.

a. Proximal duct
b. Papillary duct
c. Distal duct
d. Duct of Bellini
e. General duct
f. 1st, 3rd, & 5th choices only
g. 2nd & 4th choices only
h. All of the above

A

g. 2nd & 4th choices only

128
Q

Biopsy of an unidentified renal tissue shows: simple squamous epithelium with
few mitochondria.

a. Collecting duct.
b. Thick ascending limb of Henle
c. Distal convoluted tubule
d. Thin limb of Henle

A

d. Thin limb of Henle

129
Q

Causes of Disorders

repeated exposure of cervix to irritation

A. intraepithelial neoplasia
B. atrophic vaginitis
C. polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
D. endometriosis

A

A. intraepithelial neoplasia

130
Q

Causes of Disorders

diminished estrogen levels

A. intraepithelial neoplasia
B. atrophic vaginitis
C. polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
D. endometriosis

A

B. atrophic vaginitis

131
Q

Causes of Disorders

follicles fail to mature

A. intraepithelial neoplasia
B. atrophic vaginitis
C. polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
D. endometriosis

A

C. polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)

132
Q

Causes of Disorders

menstrual reflux

A. intraepithelial neoplasia
B. atrophic vaginitis
C. polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
D. endometriosis

A

D. endometriosis

133
Q

State the predominating Hormone produced during each period

Follicular Phase

Progesterone
Estrogen

A

Estrogen

134
Q

State the predominating Hormone produced during each period

Luteal Phase

Progesterone
Estrogen

A

Progesterone

135
Q

Describe the ORDER of events in the production of estrogen by assigning letters A to F

  1. Estrogen enters capillaries, and is distributed throughout the body
  2. FSH stimulates granulosa cells
  3. Theca interna cells secretes androstenedione
  4. Androstenedione diffuses into the follicle through the basement membrane
  5. Aromatase from granulosa cells converts androstenedione to estradiol
  6. Estrogen diffuses to the thecae interna & externa, and ovarian stroma
A
  1. Estrogen enters capillaries, and is distributed throughout the body
  2. FSH stimulates granulosa cells
  3. Theca interna cells secretes androstenedione
  4. Androstenedione diffuses into the follicle through the basement membrane
  5. Aromatase from granulosa cells converts androstenedione to estradiol
  6. Estrogen diffuses to the thecae interna & externa, and ovarian stroma
136
Q

Arterial Supply to Uterus

stratum basalis

straight arteries
spiral arteries
Arcuate arteries

A

straight arteries

137
Q

Arterial Supply to Uterus

stratum functionalis

straight arteries
spiral arteries
Arcuate arteries

A

spiral arteries

138
Q

Arterial Supply to Uterus

myometrium

straight arteries
spiral arteries
Arcuate arteries

A

Arcuate arteries

139
Q

Histological Changes during Menstrual Cycle:

intermediate squamous cells
predominance

A. Cervical Epithelium (Follicular Phase)
B. Vaginal epithelium (Follicular Phase)
C. Breast (Luteal Phase)
D. Tubal Mucosa (Follicular Phase)
E. Endometrium (Luteal Phase)

A

A. Cervical Epithelium (Follicular Phase)

140
Q

Histological Changes during Menstrual Cycle:

squamous epithelial cells synthesize and accumulate glycogen

A. Cervical Epithelium (Follicular Phase)
B. Vaginal epithelium (Follicular Phase)
C. Breast (Luteal Phase)
D. Tubal Mucosa (Follicular Phase)
E. Endometrium (Luteal Phase)

A

B. Vaginal epithelium (Follicular Phase)

141
Q

Histological Changes during Menstrual Cycle:

edematous stroma surrounding lobules of acini & ducts

A. Cervical Epithelium (Follicular Phase)
B. Vaginal epithelium (Follicular Phase)
C. Breast (Luteal Phase)
D. Tubal Mucosa (Follicular Phase)
E. Endometrium (Luteal Phase)

A

C. Breast (Luteal Phase)

142
Q

Histological Changes during Menstrual Cycle:

cilia elongate and both epithelial cells undergo hypertrophy

A. Cervical Epithelium (Follicular Phase)
B. Vaginal epithelium (Follicular Phase)
C. Breast (Luteal Phase)
D. Tubal Mucosa (Follicular Phase)
E. Endometrium (Luteal Phase)

A

D. Tubal Mucosa (Follicular Phase)

143
Q

Histological Changes during Menstrual Cycle:

tubular glands with compact supporting stroma/both
epithelial cells undergo atrophy with loss of cilia/superficial squamous cells predominance

A. Cervical Epithelium (Follicular Phase)
B. Vaginal epithelium (Follicular Phase)
C. Breast (Luteal Phase)
D. Tubal Mucosa (Follicular Phase)
E. Endometrium (Luteal Phase)

A

E. Endometrium (Luteal Phase)

144
Q

State the lining epithelium of the different segments of the male urethra

distal penile urethra

A. stratified squamous epithelium
B. stratified columnar and pseudostratified epithelium
C. transitional cell epithelium

A

A. stratified squamous epithelium

145
Q

State the lining epithelium of the different segments of the male urethra

membranous urethra

A. stratified squamous epithelium
B. stratified columnar and pseudostratified epithelium
C. transitional cell epithelium

A

B. stratified columnar and pseudostratified epithelium

146
Q

State the lining epithelium of the different segments of the male urethra

prostatic urethra

A. stratified squamous epithelium
B. stratified columnar and pseudostratified epithelium
C. transitional cell epithelium

A

C. transitional cell epithelium

147
Q

These proteoglycans of the corneal substantia propria help maintain the precise
organization and spacing of the collagen fibrils, EXCEPT:

a. lumican
b. keratan sulfate
c. chondroitin sulfate
d. None

A

d. None

148
Q

These types of fibers carry impulses from the CNS to effector organs commanded
by these centers.

a. efferent fiber
b. afferent fiber

A

a. efferent fiber

149
Q

The part of the retina where visual acuity or sharpness is maximal:

a. macula lutea
b. macula densa
c. optic disc
d. fovea centralis

A

d. fovea centralis

150
Q

This is NOT TRUE regarding the subcapsular lens epithelium:

a. present only on the anterior surface of the lens
b. single layer of cuboidal cells
c. growth process of increases with age
d. provide new cells that differentiate as lens fibers

A

c. growth process of increases with age

151
Q

Lining epithelium of arachnoid space

a. Simple squamous
b. Simple columnar
c. Simple cuboidal
d. No epithelium. It is directly below the bony skull.

A

a. Simple squamous

152
Q

What part of the retina is attached to the Bruch’s membrane and the choroidocapillary lamina of the choroid?

a. ganglion cell layer
b. inner limiting membrane
c. outer pigmented layer
d. outer limiting membrane

A

c. outer pigmented layer

153
Q

.If the microvilli are destroyed lining the ependymal cells, what function of the cell is affected?

a. CSF movement
b. CSF production
c. Neuronal Peristalsis
d. CSF absorption

A

d. CSF absorption

154
Q

If the microvilli are destroyed lining the ependymal cells, what function of the cell is
affected?

a. CSF movement
b. CSF production
c. Neuronal Peristalsis
d. CSF absorption

A

d. CSF absorption

155
Q

Not consistent with CNS:

a. Neurons can only be found in central nervous system
b. Spinal nerves belong to Peripheral Nervous System
c. Neural crest cells are the precursors of CNS
d. Glial cells are the supporting cells

A

c. Neural crest cells are the precursors of CNS

156
Q

True of peripheral nerves, except,

a. Peripheral nerves consist of axons from motor neurons (in the spinal cord).
b. Sensory neurons, and autonomic neurons (in ganglia) are also found in PNS.
c. Only large (myelinated) axons have myelin sheaths and nodes of Ranvier.
d. No exceptions

A

d. No exceptions

157
Q

Refers to the regrowth or repair of nervous tissues, cells or cell products

a. Neural plasticity
b. Neuralregulation
c. Neuroregeneration
d. Neural repair

A

Neuroregeneration

158
Q

There are three types of nerve fibes in the peripheral nervous system,namely,
myelinated fibers, unmyelinated fibers and neurolemmocyte-deficient fibers.

a. False
b. True

A

a. False

159
Q

The following are TRUE of ciliary zonules EXCEPT

a. fibers extend from tips of ciliary processes
b. composed largely of fibrillin-1 and 2
c. hold lens in place
d. produced by the nonpigmented epithelial cells on the ciliary processes

A

a. fibers extend from tips of ciliary processes

160
Q

.The following statements are TRUE of the auricle except:

a. covered by tightly adherent skin
b. made up of hyaline cartilage
c. irregular, funnel-shaped
d. wing like structure
e. directs sound waves into external meatus

A

b. made up of hyaline cartilage

161
Q

An 80-year-old man was seen lifeless near a stair. The family requested an autopsy
to rule out foul play. During the autopsy, the brain was noted to have shrinked in
size. Microscopic examination of the brain sample revealed findings consistent with Alzheimer’s disease. These include the following except.

a. Neuritic plaques
b. Neufibrillary tangles
c. Tau protein accumulations
An 80-year-old man was seen lifeless near a stair. The family requested an autopsy
to rule out foul play. During the autopsy, the brain was noted to have shrinked in
size. Microscopic examination of the brain sample revealed findings consistent with
Alzheimer’s disease. These include the following except.
a. Neuritic plaques
b. Neufibrillary tangles
c. Tau protein accumulations
d. A-amyloid

A

d. A-amyloid

162
Q

The cell components in the vitreous body are the following:

a. hyalocytes
b. macrophages
c. hair cells
d. 1st & 2nd choices only
e. 2nd & 3rd choices only
f. All of the above

A

d. 1st & 2nd choices only

163
Q

STATEMENT A: Certain regions of the CNS, such as near the ependyma, retain
rare neural stem and progenitor cells that allow some replacement of neurons throughout life. STATEMENT B: The more simply organized peripheral nerves have better capacity for axonal regeneration, a process involving reactivation of the perikaryon, Schwann cells, and macrophages.

a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. Only statement A is true.
d. Only statement B is true.

A

a. both statements are true

164
Q

The apical ends of phalangeal cells are joined to those of the hair cells by tight____:

a. zona fasciculata
b. ciliary zonule
c. zonulae occludens
d. zonular fibers

A

c. zonulae occludens

165
Q

Mediate immune defense of CNS

a. Oligodendrocytes
b. Ependymal cells
c. Microglia
d. Satellite cells

A

c. Microglia

166
Q

Findings consistent with Perineurium

a. Thin connective tissue layer immediately surrounding Schwann cells in peripheral
nerves, containing a few nonfenestrated capillaries and much reticulin.
b. Thick, outermost layer of dense irregular connective tissue
c. Both
d. None of the above

A

d. None of the above

167
Q

The scalae tympani and vestibuli communicate with each other at ____:

a. oval window
b. apex of cochlea
c. round window
d. helicotrema

A

b. apex of cochlea

168
Q

The columnar mechano- receptor hair cells are seen in these specialized sensory
regions:

a. macula of utricle
b. cristae ampullares
c. macula of saccule
d. spiral organ of Corti
e. 1st & 3rd choices only
f. 2nd & 4th choices only
g. All of the above

A

g. All of the above

169
Q

The inner nuclear layer of the retina contains the nuclei of the following cells:

a. rod & cone cells
b. notably the bipolar cells
c. amacrine cells
d. horizontal cells
e. 1st & 3rd choices only
f. 2nd & 4th choices only
g. 2nd, 3rd, & 4th choices only
h. All of the above

A

g. 2nd, 3rd, & 4th choices only

170
Q

True of Blood Brain Barrier (BBB) except,

a. The BBB is NOT present in regions of the hypothalamus
b. The BBB is NOT present in the posterior pituitary
c. The main structural component of the BBB is the capillary endothelium.
d. The BBB protects neurons and glia from bacterial toxins, infectious agents but does NOT help maintain the stable composition and constant balance of ions in the interstitial fluid required for normal neuronal function.

A

d. The BBB protects neurons and glia from bacterial toxins, infectious agents but does NOT help maintain the stable composition and constant balance of ions in the interstitial fluid required for normal neuronal function.

171
Q 
Endolymph fills the membranous labyrinth and is characterized by this 
concentration:
a. a high-K+ and high-Na+ content
b. a high-K+ and low-Na+ content
c. a low -K+ and high -Na+ content
d. a low-K+ and low-Na+ content
A

b. a high-K+ and low-Na+ content

172
Q

A brain tumor was recovered after surgery from a 23 year old female. Immunostaining of tumor cells are positive for glial fibrillary acid protein (GFAP). What do you think is the possible diagnosis of this tumor?

a. Oligodendroma
b. Astrocytoma
c. Schwannoma
d. Ependymoma

A

b. Astrocytoma

173
Q

If a microglial cell is functionally similar to monocytes, oligodendrocytes is likewise similar to _____

a. Satellite cells
b. Ependymal cells
c. Option 1
d. Schwann cells

A

d. Schwann cells

174
Q

The modiolus contains blood vessels and surrounds the cell bodies and processes
of the acoustic branch of the___:

a. 8th cranial nerve
b. 7th & 8th cranial nerves
c. 2nd cranial nerve
d. 5th cranial nerve

A

a. 8th cranial nerve

175
Q

Does not belong to the group in terms of origin.

a. Microglia
b. Satellite cells
c. Ependymal cells
d. Oligodendrocytes

A

d. Oligodendrocytes

176
Q

True statement

a. The more simply organized peripheral nerves have better capacity for axonal regeneration, a process involving reactivation of the perikaryon, Schwann cells,
and macrophages.
b. The complexity and distances of the neuronal and glial interconnections with the
CNS make regeneration and restoration of function within this tissue after major
injury very difficult.
c. Certain regions of the CNS, such as near the ependyma, retain rare neural stem
and progenitor cells that allow some replacement of neurons throughout life.
d. All are true.

A

d. All are true.

177
Q

What is the substance noted by the letter “L” in the photomicrograph below

a. lipofuscin
b. iron
c. lead
d. lysosomal remnants

A

a. lipofuscin

178
Q

This supports the shape of the eye:

a. retina
b. choroid
c. cornea
d. sclera

A

d. sclera

179
Q

Correct lining as seen externally

a. Dura->Pia->arachnoid matter
b. Pia->arachnoid->dura matter
c. Dura->arachnoid-> pia matter
d. Arachnoid->pia->dura matter

A

c. Dura->arachnoid-> pia matter

180
Q

The homogeneous lens capsule is composed of this collagen that adds to its
transparency:

a. type II collagen
b. type I collagen
c. type IV collagen
d. type III collagen

A

c. type IV collagen

181
Q

Barrel shaped Otoliths or Otoconia crystals are made up of protein & this chemical

a. NaCO3
b. Ca oxalate
c. CaCO3
d. HCO3

A

c. CaCO3

182
Q

Cause (s) of hydrocephalus:
a. decrease in the absorption of CSF from the ventricles during fetal or postnatal
development
b. blockage of outflow from the ventricles during fetal or postnatal development
c. both
d. none of the above

A

c. both

183
Q

.When there is an extensive gap between the distal and proximal segments of cut or
injured peripheral nerves or when the distal segment disappears altogether (as in
the case of amputation of a limb), the newly growing axons may form a swelling, or
neuroma, that can be the source of spontaneous pain.

a. False
b. True
c. Conditional
d. It depends

A

b. True

184
Q

Impulse conductivity of schwann cells is augmented at ____.

a. Ganglia
b. Insulated axons
c. Nodes of ranvier
d. Neuronal synapse

A

c. Nodes of ranvier

185
Q

STATEMENT A: In the Parasympathetic Division of the Autonomic Nervous system, neuronal cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic nerves are located in the thoracic and sacral regions.

STATEMENT B: In the Parasympathetic Division of the Autonomic Nervous system,the secondary neurons are often located near or within the effector organ.

a. Only statement A is true.
b. both statements are true
c. both statements are false
d. Only statement B is true

A

d. Only statement B is true

186
Q

These refer to Cochlear outer hair cells EXCEPT:

a. about 3,500 in total
b. occur in five rows near the apex ofcochlea
c. with V-shaped bundle of stereocilia
d. occur in three rows near the saccule

A

a. about 3,500 in total

187
Q

All axons are enclosed within the series of Schwann cells, but only large (myelinated) axons have myelin sheaths and nodes of Ranvier.

a. False
b. True

A

b. True

188
Q

Not consistent:

a. Ependymal cells line fluid filled ventricles.
b. Astrocytes are most numerous and regulate microenvironment.
c. Schwann cells encloses all axons in CNS and produces myelin sheaths.
d. Satellite cells regulate microenvironment.

A

c. Schwann cells encloses all axons in CNS and produces myelin sheaths.

189
Q

Peripheral nerves consist of axons from motor neurons (in the spinal cord), sensory
neurons and autonomic neurons (in ganglia).

a. False
b. True

A

b. True

190
Q

The following statements describe Cerumen:

a. waxy material
b. purely formed from secretions of ceruminous glands
c. contains various proteins, and saturated fatty acids
d. mixed with sloughed epithelium from ceruminous ducts
e. 1st & 3rd choices only
f. 2nd & 4th choices only
g. All of the above

A

e. 1st & 3rd choices only

191
Q

.What composes the blood-brain barrier?

a. perivascular feet of astrocytic processes
b. canalicular cells of Sylvius
c. nonfenestrated capillary endothelial cells’ tight junctions
d. 1st & 3rd choices only
e. 2nd & 3rd choices only
f. All of the above

A

d. 1st & 3rd choices only

192
Q

Compatible site of cell except:

a. Oligodendrocytes along myelinated sheets
b. Schwann cells in peripheral nervous system
c. Microglia near damaged synapses
d. Ependymal cells within cerebrum

A

d. Ependymal cells within cerebrum

193
Q

These cells are stiffened by heavy bundles of keratin and outline a triangular space, the inner tunnel, in the Organ of Corti.

a. inner phalangeal cells
b. outer phalangeal cells
c. pillar cells
d. hair cells

A

c. pillar cells

194
Q

This supply nutrition to outer retinal layers:

a. inner choroidocapillary lamina
b. vitreous humor
c. Descemet membrane
d. Bruch membrane

A

a. inner choroidocapillary lamina

195
Q

Progenitor cells for the corneal epithelium come from this portion:

a. choroid plexus
b. sclera
c. corneal endothelium
d. limbus

A

d. limbus

196
Q

The tear film has the following functions EXCEPT:

a. supplies O2 to the corneal epithelial cells
b. contains various metabolites, and electrolytes for corneal cells
c. moistens and lubricates the cornea and conjunctiva
d. source of aqueous humor
e. protects eyes with proteins of innate immunity such as lysozyme

A

d. source of aqueous humor

197
Q

It refracts incoming light from the environment:

a. cornea
b. sclera
c. retina
d. choroid

A

a. cornea

198
Q

This part of the eye lacks an epithelial covering on its anterior side:

a. cornea
b. iris
c. lens
d. conjunctiva

A

b. iris

199
Q

This is the cell in the peripheral nervous tissue that produces myelin which facilitates electrical impulse propulsion.

a. satellite cells of the ganglia
b. oligodendrocyte
c. Schwann cell
d. Astrocyte

A

c. Schwann cell

200
Q

These cells in the peripheral nervous tissue surround the nerve cell bodies and are
found only in the ganglia. These cells form a thin, intimate glial layer around each large neuronal cell body. These cells insulate, nourish and regulate the
microenvironments of the ganglia.

a. satellite cells of the ganglia
b. astrocyte
c. Schwann cell
d. Oligodendrocyte

A

a. satellite cells of the ganglia

201
Q

This structure produces the endolymph:

a. basilar membrane
b. spiral ganglion
c. stria vascularis
d. bony labyrinth

A

c. stria vascularis

202
Q

.Surrounding the perinerium is a thick outermost layer of dense irregular connective
tissue called the endoneurium.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

203
Q

A brain stem tumor was seen extending into the spinal cord causing compression
and eventual death of the patient. Microsections of the tumor show numerous
Purkinje cells Where do you think is the origin of this tumor?

a. Medulla oblongata
b. Cerebrum
c. midbrain
d. none of the above

A

d. none of the above

204
Q

This/These statements are CORRECT regarding scalae tympani and vestibule:

a. scala vestibuli begins near the vestibular oval window
b. scala tympani ends at the round window
c. scala tympani begins at helicotrema
d. 1st & 2nd choices only
e. 2nd & 3rd choices only
f. All of the above

A

?????

205
Q

Dissection and artificial stimulation of a certain tissue bundle reveal the following: presence of sensory or autonomic neuronal cell bodies and their satellite cells and
are surrounded by connective tissue continuous with that of nerves. This tissue is
most likely ____.

a. A cross section of neuronal synapse
b. A sample obtained from gray matter
c. A cross section of a ganglia
d. A sample obtained from white matter

A

c. A cross section of a ganglia

206
Q

These cells are also known as Neurolemmocytes.

a. oligodendrocyte
b. Schwann cell
c. astrocyte
d. satellite cells of the the ganglia

A

b. Schwann cell

207
Q

Ganglia, either sensory or autonomic types, contain neuronal cell bodies and
satellite cells and are surrounded by connective tissue continuous with that of nerves.

a. False
b. True

A

b. True

208
Q

Within the brain and spinal cord, regions rich in neuronal perikarya and astrocytes comprise the gray matter and regions containing tracts of myelinated axons
comprise white matter.
a. It depends
b. False
c. True
d. Only brain is applicable not including spinal cord.

A

c. True

209
Q

Tendons of the extraocular muscles which move the eyes insert into the anterior of this region:

a. retina
b. choroid
c. sclera
d. cornea

A

c. sclera

210
Q

Produces most of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of the central nervous system

a. Ependymal cells
b. Choroid plexus
c. Ventricles
d. Canalicular cells

A

b. Choroid plexus

211
Q

Biopsy of an unknown brain tissue shows small cells with rounded, condensed
nuclei and unstained cytoplasm. This section of the brain is most likely coming from:

a. White matter
b. Medulla
c. Gray matter
d. Cerebellum

A

a. White matter

212
Q

A 1st year medical student was focusing a spinal slide when accidentally she saw
small aggregates of nerves. She examined it carefully and conduct an excitability
testing. The test yielded positive results. What do you think is the structure that the student saw?

a. Dendritic aggregate of Schwann cells coming from the axonal division of Central Nervous System
b. Ganglion
c. Axonal aggregate of Schwann cells coming from the axonal division of Central
Nervous System
d. Dendritic aggregate of Schwann cells coming from the axonal division of
Peripheral Nervous System

A

b. Ganglion

213
Q

In large peripheral nerves, groups of axons are subdivided by fascicles, each of which is surrounded by perimysium.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

214
Q

Not true about nerve transmission

a. neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the postsynaptic cell
b. action potential is triggered releasing neurotransmitter
c. nerve communication is transmitted to another neuron or effector cell via a
synapse
d. neurotransmitter is released at the presynaptic membrane

A

b. action potential is triggered releasing neurotransmitter

215
Q

Destruction of neural crest cells will render:

a. PNS to undergo mutation
b. CNS to undergo mutation
c. PNS incapacitated
d. CNS incapacitated

A

c. PNS incapacitated

216
Q

These cells of the peripheral nervous system surround peripheral nerve fibers, and
are the counterparts of the CNS’ oligodendrocytes.
a. oligodendrocyte
b. astrocyte
c. satellite cells of the the ganglia
d. Schwann cell

A

d. Schwann cell

217
Q

Is a benign but painful condition that affects the ball of the foot.

a. Neurilemmoma
b. Ganglion cyst
c. Gout
d. Morton’s neuroma

A

d. Morton’s neuroma

218
Q

Which statement is INCORRECT regarding the two small skeletal muscles in the middle ear?

a. they restrict ossicle movements
b. stapedius is inserted into the stapes
c. they protect the round window
d. tensor tympani is inserted into the malleus

A

c. they protect the round window

219
Q

These types of fibers deliver stimuli from the internal body regions and the outside
environment to the central nervous system.

a. efferent fiber
b. afferent fiber

A

b. afferent fiber

220
Q

STATEMENT A: In the Sympathetic Division of the Autonomic Nervous system,
neuronal cell bodies of preganglionic sympathetic nerves are located in the thoracic and lumbar regions.

STATEMENT B: In the Sympathetic Division of the Autonomic Nervous system,the secondary neurons are often located along the vertebral column.

a. Only statement A is true.
b. both statements are true
c. Only statement B is true.
d. both statements are false

A

b. both statements are true

221
Q

.In a mixed nerve, if regenerating sensory fibers grow into columns formerly occupied by motor fibers connected to motor end plates, the function of the muscle will not be reestablished.

a. False
b. True
c. It depends
d. Conditional

A

b. True

222
Q

The eye’s most vascular part, is known as the____:

a. uvea
b. lens
c. conjunctiva
d. cornea

A

a. uvea

223
Q

Identify the lining epithelium:

External acoustic meatus

A. simple squamous epithelium
B. ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
C. columnar neuroepithelial cells
D. simple cuboidal epithelium
E. stratified squamous epithelium, keratinized

A

E. stratified squamous epithelium, keratinized

224
Q

Identify the lining epithelium:

Maculae

A. simple squamous epithelium
B. ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
C. columnar neuroepithelial cells
D. simple cuboidal epithelium
E. stratified squamous epithelium, keratinized

A

C. columnar neuroepithelial cells

225
Q

Identify the lining epithelium:

Eustachian tube

A. simple squamous epithelium
B. ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
C. columnar neuroepithelial cells
D. simple cuboidal epithelium
E. stratified squamous epithelium, keratinized

A

B. ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium

226
Q

Identify the lining epithelium:

main epithelium of Utricle and saccule

A. simple squamous epithelium
B. ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
C. columnar neuroepithelial cells
D. simple cuboidal epithelium
E. stratified squamous epithelium, keratinized

A

A. simple squamous epithelium

227
Q

Identify the lining epithelium:

Middle ear cavity

A. simple squamous epithelium
B. ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
C. columnar neuroepithelial cells
D. simple cuboidal epithelium
E. stratified squamous epithelium, keratinized

A

D. simple cuboidal epithelium

228
Q

Arrange in order the flow of the Aqueous Humor

  1. from ciliary processes
  2. into the posterior chamber.
  3. flows through the pupil
  4. into the anterior chamber
  5. drains at angle formed by cornea and iris
  6. into the channels of the trabecular meshwork
  7. drains into canal of Schlemm
  8. enters venules of the sclera
A
  1. from ciliary processes
  2. into the posterior chamber.
  3. flows through the pupil
  4. into the anterior chamber
  5. drains at angle formed by cornea and iris
  6. into the channels of the trabecular meshwork
  7. drains into canal of Schlemm
  8. enters venules of the sclera
229
Q

DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY

lenses lose elasticity and their ability to undergo accommodation

A. Presbyopia
B. Otitis Media
C. Pink eye
D. red-green color blindness
E. Meniere disease
F. Blindness in elderly
A

A. Presbyopia

230
Q

DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY

extensions of viral or bacterial infections from the upper respiratory tract via the auditory tubes

A. Presbyopia
B. Otitis Media
C. Pink eye
D. red-green color blindness
E. Meniere disease
F. Blindness in elderly
A

B. Otitis Media

231
Q

DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY

inflamed conjunctiva with mucus discharge and increased microvasculature

A. Presbyopia
B. Otitis Media
C. Pink eye
D. red-green color blindness
E. Meniere disease
F. Blindness in elderly
A

C. Pink eye

232
Q

DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY

affects the cones responsible for detecting light at two wavelengths

A. Presbyopia
B. Otitis Media
C. Pink eye
D. red-green color blindness
E. Meniere disease
F. Blindness in elderly
A

D. red-green color blindness

233
Q

DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY

involves loss of hair cells or nerve degeneration

A. Presbyopia
B. Otitis Media
C. Pink eye
D. red-green color blindness
E. Meniere disease
F. Blindness in elderly
A

E. Meniere disease

234
Q

DESCRIBE THE FOLLOWING DISEASES OR ABNORMALITY

macular degeneration, causing blindness in visual center field

A. Presbyopia
B. Otitis Media
C. Pink eye
D. red-green color blindness
E. Meniere disease
F. Blindness in elderly
A

F. Blindness in elderly

235
Q

Arrange in order the flow of Tears.

  1. from superior fornix of the conjunctiva
  2. moves across the ocular surface
  3. flows through canaliculi at medial margins of the upper and lower eyelids
  4. pass into the lacrimal sac
  5. through nasolacrimal duct
  6. drains into nasal cavity
A

Arrange in order the flow of Tears.

  1. from superior fornix of the conjunctiva
  2. moves across the ocular surface
  3. flows through canaliculi at medial margins of the upper and lower eyelids
  4. pass into the lacrimal sac
  5. through nasolacrimal duct
  6. drains into nasal cavity

HISTOLOGY (6 decks)

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