Histo exam 2 review deck Flashcards
1
Q
what are the 6 steps in fracture repair
A
1- blood clot forms 2- periosteum and endosteum proliferates 3- hyaline cartilage forms 4- primary bone is formed 5- bony callus unites the fracture 6- remodeling occurs
2
Q
describe the action of PTH
A
increases blood Ca indirectly- stimulates osteoprogenitor cells to make more of all types of cells, including osteoclasts, which breakdown bone and liberate Ca
3
Q
describe the action of calcitonin
A
decreases blood ca by directly inhibiting osteoclasts
4
Q
what is OPG?
A
osteoprotegrin
5
Q
what is OPGL?
A
osteoprotengrin ligand
6
Q
what is the affect of estrogen on OPG and OPGL?
A
up regs- OPG
down regs- OPGL
7
Q
what is the action of estrogen on bone?
A
limits resorption
8
Q
osteopetrosis
A
defective bone resorption secondary to osteoclasts that lack ruffled border
9
Q
osteitis fibrosis cystica
A
abnormally high osteoclast activity lead to brittle bones
10
Q
osteomalacia
A
impaired bone mineralization
11
Q
how can forming bone access the osteogenic bud?
A
osteoclasts eat away at bone collar
12
Q
where is the primary vs secondary ossification center
A
primary- diaphysis
secondary- epiphysis
13
Q
where is primary bone found in adults?
A
tooth sockets
tendon insertions
skull sutures
14
Q
what is the bone collar?
A
formed during intramembranous ossification at the primary ossification center, formed by osteoblasts
15
Q
what is the organic/inorganic part of bone
A
organic- osteoid
inorganic- hydroxyapetite
16
Q
what is the osteogenic bud?
A
site of blood vessel in developing bone
17
Q
what has a “herringbone” appearance?
A
fibrocartilage in IV discs where it meets ligamentous attachment
18
Q
what makes the inter territorial matrix eosinophlic, territorial matrix basophilic?
A
interterritorial matrix- eosinophilic- collagen
territorial matrix- basophilic- sulfated proteoglycans
19
Q
where is elastic cartilage found?
A
epiglottis, ear and eustachian tube
20
Q
where is fibrocartilage found?
A
IV disc, ligament-bone attachment and pubic symphisis
21
Q
which types of cartilage have a perichondium?
A
hyaline (except articular) and elastic
22
Q
what is endosteum?
A
lining aversion and volkamann’s canals
23
Q
describe ghrelin
A
involved in short term weight regulation
appetite stimulant on pituitary and hypothalamus
24
Q
describe prader-willi syndrome
A
overproduction of gherlin, secondary to paternal deletion on long arm of chromosome 15
25
describe peptide YY
short term weight regulation
| appetite suppressant working on hypothalamus
26
describe leptin
long term weight regulation
| satiety factor on hypothalamus
27
describe amylin
long term weight regulation
from pancreatic b-cells
slows gastric empyting and suppresses blood glucose spikes
28
oil red O
stain used for fat cells
29
where is reticular CT found?
liver, kidney, lymph organs
30
what is the arrangement of CT in cornea?
dense, regular CT arranged in bundles at 90 degree angles
31
what is the arrangement of CT in aponeuroses?
dense, regular CT arranged in perpendicular bundles
32
what is the vascularity of the different types of CT?
loose- well vascularized
dense, regular- avasular
dense, irregular- well vascularized
33
what is contained in mast cell granules?
histamine, ECF-A, vasodilators, proteoglycans (heparan, anticoagulant)
34
what is the function of chemotactic factors?
released by endothelial cells to attract either eosinophils or neurotphils
35
what are the steps of neutrophil adhesion and migration?
```
1- attachment
2- rolling
3- activation
4- strengthening of attachment
5- diapedesis
```
36
leukocyte adhesion deficiency
lack of b-integrins, results in increased infection
37
4 hormones secreted by adiposites
leptin, steroids, angiotensin and growth factors
38
growth factors secreted by adiposites
TGF-a, TGF-b, IGF-1 and cytokines
39
what is PPAR-gamma?
transcription factor with major role in the differentiation of fat cells
40
what controls the differentiation of brown adiposites?
norepinephrine
41
what is UPC-1?
mitochondrial uncoupling protein, expression results in heat production by brown fat cells
42
what stimulates heat production by brown fat cells?
sympathetic nervous system
43
name the ligands involved in leukocyte adhesion and migrations (3)
1- selectins
2- PECAM-1
3- integrins/ICAMs
44
primary component of reticular fibers
type III collagen
45
why do plasma cells have lots of heterochromatin even though they are activated?
they are only mainly making 1 type of protein
46
what can help differentiate mast cell from lymphocyte on H&E?
mast cells will have reddish granules in the cytoplasm
47
what type of stain to see reticular fibers? elastic fibers?
reticular- silver stain
| elastic- orecin fuschion
48
what composes basal lamina?
laminins, type IV collagen, proteoglycans
49
what composes basement membrane?
basal lamina
hemidesmosomes
reticular fibers
50
what produces the basal lamina and reticular fibers?
underlying CT
51
what produces the hemidesmosomes?
epithelial cells
52
what is the relation of basal lamina and cancer?
basal lamina can help restrict cancer mets
53
where does basal lamina get nutrients?
basal lamina is avascular, gets nutrients from underlying CT
54
what pathogens attack ZO?
h. pylori and c. perfinges
55
what composes gap junctions?
connexons
56
what composes desmosomes?
cadherins
57
what are gap junctions most permeable to?
Ca, cAMP, cGMP
58
what facilitate hemidesmosome activity?
integrins
59
what and where are stereo cilia?
specialized microvilli that are for absorption (epididymis) and mechanosensation (inner ear)
60
why do cuboidal cells tend to contain high mito concentration?
specialize in active transport
61
where is pseudo stratified eli found?
trachea
62
what is a simple gland? examples?
simple gland has unbranched duct (acinar, branched acinar, tubular, coiled-tubular and branched tubular)
63
what is a compound gland?examples?
compound gland has branched ducts (tubular, acinar and tubuloacinar)
64
what is a merocrine gland? example?
secretes product via exocytosis, like salivary glands
65
what is an apocrine gland? example?
secrete product by large part of apical cytoplasm breaking away, mammary gland
66
what is a holocrine gland? example?
part of cell dies and product is released, sebaceous gland
67
"trophy"
size
68
"plasia"
of cells
69
papilloma
benign tumor of surface epithelium
70
"invasion"
ability to reach the basal lamina
71
what are the dark staining vs. light staining portions of acinar cells of salivary gland?
dark staining- serous gland (thin/watery)
| light staining- mucus gland (viscous)
72
what is tropomodulin?
actin binding protein that regulates the length of actin in sarcomeres and is important for the length-tension relationship
73
compare epi/peri and endomysium
epi- dense CT, surrounds bundles of fascicles
peri- intermediate CT, surrounds fascicle
endo- loose CT, surrounds individual fiber
74
describe folds at myotendinous junctions
folds at myotendinous junctions increase surface area for integrin receptors and dystrophin-glycoprotein complexes that link the cytoskeleton to basal lamina of tendon
75
2 fates of myoblasts
1- multinucleate myotubule
| 2- satellite cell
76
what is the function of muscular satellite cells?
function in regeneration of skeletal mm if basal lamina is still intact
77
what is desmin?
forms stabilizing cross linkages of adjacent myofibrils at the Z line
78
what are mm spindles?
specialized stretch receptors in muscle with sensory (sense degree of stretch) and motor (modulate response to stress)
79
what are golgi tendon organs?
only sensory, respond to increased tension
80
what composes intercalated discs?
gap junctions and macula adherins
81
contract the nuclei of the 3 mm types
skeletal- large, peripheral
smooth- central, corkscrew
cardiac- central
82
describe t tubules in cardiac mm
only 1 T tubule per sarcomere located at the Z line
83
discuss repair of the 3 mm types
skeletal- repair with satellite cells if basal lamina intact
cardiac- no repair
smooth- rapidly divides and repairs
84
discuss myosin arrangement in skeletal vs. smooth mm
skeletal- bipolar
| smooth- side polar
85
what are the 2 mechanisms for RBCs to get energy?
glycolysis and hexose monophoshate shunt
86
what do azurophilic granules contain?
acid phosphatase. lysosomal enzymes and myeloperoxidase
87
specific granules in neutrophils
lactoferrin, alk phos, lysozyme, collagenase
88
tertiary granules in neutrophils
help to move through tissues (phosphatases, metalloproteinases
89
eosinophilic granules
major basic protein (arginine), also histaminases and arylsulfatase to neutralize leukotrienes from basophils and mast cells
90
basophil granules
histamine, heparin,leukotrienes
91
largest WBC
monocyte
92
4 areas of platelet
peripheral- glycocalyx and clotting factors
organelle- organelles and granules
structural- cytoskeleton
membrane- connections between compartments
93
granules of platelets (a,d,g)
alpha- PDGF, fibrinogen
delta- ATP/ADP, Ca, serotonin
gamma- lysosomal enzymes
94
what is the function of ADP in clot formation?
signals other platelets to aggregate
95
what is the role of PDGF in clot formation?
proliferation of fibroblasts and smooth mm
96
what are the adventitial cells in bone marrow?
adventitial cells (also called reticular cells) send sheet-like extensions into hemopoietic cords to provide support to developing cells
97
what causes the "checkerboard" pattern of a polychromatophilic erythroblast nucleus?
chromatin clumping
98
where is thrombopoietin synthesized?
liver, kidney
99
at what point are developing RBCs post-mitotic?
once they have reached orthochromatophilic stage
100
which cells have endomitosis in platelet genesis?
megakaryoblasts
101
at what point in generation are neutrophils post-mitotic?
at metamyelocyte stage
102
what are the 4 types of cords in bone marrow?
adipose, hemopoietic cells, macrophages, mast cells
103
what is the calculation for the expected decrease in bone marrow cellularity with age?
100-age +/- 10%
104
GATA-1
directs to erythroblast committed progenitor
105
GATA-3
involved in adipose cell development
106
what is "pyknotic"
term to describe the very dense/dark nuclei of orthochromatophilic erythroblasts
107
what is the relative size of megakaryocytes?
about 100 um
108
differentiate myofilaments vs. myofibrils vs. muscle fibers
myofilament- either actin or myosin
myofibril- actin + mysoin
muscle fiber- grouped myofibrils
109
where are multipolar motor neurons found?
ventral horn of spinal cord
110
what is the embryologic source of glial cells in the CNS?
neuroepithelial stem cells (except microglia which are derived from monocytes in the bone marrow)
111
what is the embryologic source of glial cells in the PNS?
neural crest cells
112
where are pyramidal cells found? what is typical appearance?
pyramidal cells found in cerebral cortex
| will have prominent apical dendrite
113
what is the structure of neurons in the DRG?
pseudounipolar neuron
114
where do purkinje cell axons extend?
into the molecular layer
115
where does the apical dendrite of pyramidal cells point?
toward the surface
116
how is DRG differentiated from autonomic ganglion?
DRG- satellite cells more prominent
| autonomic ganglion- dendrites present
117
schmidt-lantermann clefts
areas of disrupted myelin in PNS
118
gliosis
proliferation of astrocytes secondary to CNS damage
119
appearance of oligodendrocyte
small, dark, round nucleus with peripheral halo
120
appearance of astrocyte
large, ovoid nucleus
121
function of astrocytes
induce endothelial cells to make BBB
122
perineurium
connective tissue that surrounds a single fascicle
123
appearance of schwann cell
pale staining nuclei
124
what is a collection of nerve cell bodies in CNS vs PNS
CNS- gray matter and nuclei
| PNS- ganglion
125
supporting cells in CNS vs. PNS
CNS- astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells, microglia
PNS- schwann cells and satellite cells
126
connective tissue in CNS vs. PNS
CNS- sparse, disorgnaized
| PNS- more abundant and organized into eli/peri/endoneurium
127
embryonic origin od CNS vs. PNS glial cells
CNS- neuroepithelium
| PNS- neural crest cells
