Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Histology block 2 > Histo exam 2 review deck > Flashcards

Histo exam 2 review deck Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 6 steps in fracture repair

A 
1- blood clot forms 
2- periosteum and endosteum proliferates 
3- hyaline cartilage forms 
4- primary bone is formed
5- bony callus unites the fracture
6- remodeling occurs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

describe the action of PTH

A

increases blood Ca indirectly- stimulates osteoprogenitor cells to make more of all types of cells, including osteoclasts, which breakdown bone and liberate Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe the action of calcitonin

A

decreases blood ca by directly inhibiting osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is OPG?

A

osteoprotegrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is OPGL?

A

osteoprotengrin ligand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the affect of estrogen on OPG and OPGL?

A

up regs- OPG

down regs- OPGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the action of estrogen on bone?

A

limits resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

osteopetrosis

A

defective bone resorption secondary to osteoclasts that lack ruffled border

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

osteitis fibrosis cystica

A

abnormally high osteoclast activity lead to brittle bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

osteomalacia

A

impaired bone mineralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how can forming bone access the osteogenic bud?

A

osteoclasts eat away at bone collar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

where is the primary vs secondary ossification center

A

primary- diaphysis

secondary- epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

where is primary bone found in adults?

A

tooth sockets
tendon insertions
skull sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the bone collar?

A

formed during intramembranous ossification at the primary ossification center, formed by osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the organic/inorganic part of bone

A

organic- osteoid

inorganic- hydroxyapetite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the osteogenic bud?

A

site of blood vessel in developing bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what has a “herringbone” appearance?

A

fibrocartilage in IV discs where it meets ligamentous attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what makes the inter territorial matrix eosinophlic, territorial matrix basophilic?

A

interterritorial matrix- eosinophilic- collagen

territorial matrix- basophilic- sulfated proteoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

where is elastic cartilage found?

A

epiglottis, ear and eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

where is fibrocartilage found?

A

IV disc, ligament-bone attachment and pubic symphisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which types of cartilage have a perichondium?

A

hyaline (except articular) and elastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is endosteum?

A

lining aversion and volkamann’s canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

describe ghrelin

A

involved in short term weight regulation

appetite stimulant on pituitary and hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

describe prader-willi syndrome

A

overproduction of gherlin, secondary to paternal deletion on long arm of chromosome 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

describe peptide YY

A

short term weight regulation

appetite suppressant working on hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

describe leptin

A

long term weight regulation

satiety factor on hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

describe amylin

A

long term weight regulation
from pancreatic b-cells
slows gastric empyting and suppresses blood glucose spikes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

oil red O

A

stain used for fat cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

where is reticular CT found?

A

liver, kidney, lymph organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the arrangement of CT in cornea?

A

dense, regular CT arranged in bundles at 90 degree angles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is the arrangement of CT in aponeuroses?

A

dense, regular CT arranged in perpendicular bundles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the vascularity of the different types of CT?

A

loose- well vascularized
dense, regular- avasular
dense, irregular- well vascularized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is contained in mast cell granules?

A

histamine, ECF-A, vasodilators, proteoglycans (heparan, anticoagulant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the function of chemotactic factors?

A

released by endothelial cells to attract either eosinophils or neurotphils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the steps of neutrophil adhesion and migration?

A 
1- attachment
2- rolling
3- activation
4- strengthening of attachment
5- diapedesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

leukocyte adhesion deficiency

A

lack of b-integrins, results in increased infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

4 hormones secreted by adiposites

A

leptin, steroids, angiotensin and growth factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

growth factors secreted by adiposites

A

TGF-a, TGF-b, IGF-1 and cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is PPAR-gamma?

A

transcription factor with major role in the differentiation of fat cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what controls the differentiation of brown adiposites?

A

norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is UPC-1?

A

mitochondrial uncoupling protein, expression results in heat production by brown fat cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what stimulates heat production by brown fat cells?

A

sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

name the ligands involved in leukocyte adhesion and migrations (3)

A

1- selectins
2- PECAM-1
3- integrins/ICAMs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

primary component of reticular fibers

A

type III collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

why do plasma cells have lots of heterochromatin even though they are activated?

A

they are only mainly making 1 type of protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what can help differentiate mast cell from lymphocyte on H&E?

A

mast cells will have reddish granules in the cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what type of stain to see reticular fibers? elastic fibers?

A

reticular- silver stain

elastic- orecin fuschion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what composes basal lamina?

A

laminins, type IV collagen, proteoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what composes basement membrane?

A

basal lamina
hemidesmosomes
reticular fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what produces the basal lamina and reticular fibers?

A

underlying CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what produces the hemidesmosomes?

A

epithelial cells

52
Q

what is the relation of basal lamina and cancer?

A

basal lamina can help restrict cancer mets

53
Q

where does basal lamina get nutrients?

A

basal lamina is avascular, gets nutrients from underlying CT

54
Q

what pathogens attack ZO?

A

h. pylori and c. perfinges

55
Q

what composes gap junctions?

A

connexons

56
Q

what composes desmosomes?

A

cadherins

57
Q

what are gap junctions most permeable to?

A

Ca, cAMP, cGMP

58
Q

what facilitate hemidesmosome activity?

A

integrins

59
Q

what and where are stereo cilia?

A

specialized microvilli that are for absorption (epididymis) and mechanosensation (inner ear)

60
Q

why do cuboidal cells tend to contain high mito concentration?

A

specialize in active transport

61
Q

where is pseudo stratified eli found?

A

trachea

62
Q

what is a simple gland? examples?

A

simple gland has unbranched duct (acinar, branched acinar, tubular, coiled-tubular and branched tubular)

63
Q

what is a compound gland?examples?

A

compound gland has branched ducts (tubular, acinar and tubuloacinar)

64
Q

what is a merocrine gland? example?

A

secretes product via exocytosis, like salivary glands

65
Q

what is an apocrine gland? example?

A

secrete product by large part of apical cytoplasm breaking away, mammary gland

66
Q

what is a holocrine gland? example?

A

part of cell dies and product is released, sebaceous gland

67
Q

“trophy”

A

size

68
Q

“plasia”

A

of cells

69
Q

papilloma

A

benign tumor of surface epithelium

70
Q

“invasion”

A

ability to reach the basal lamina

71
Q

what are the dark staining vs. light staining portions of acinar cells of salivary gland?

A

dark staining- serous gland (thin/watery)

light staining- mucus gland (viscous)

72
Q

what is tropomodulin?

A

actin binding protein that regulates the length of actin in sarcomeres and is important for the length-tension relationship

73
Q

compare epi/peri and endomysium

A

epi- dense CT, surrounds bundles of fascicles
peri- intermediate CT, surrounds fascicle
endo- loose CT, surrounds individual fiber

74
Q

describe folds at myotendinous junctions

A

folds at myotendinous junctions increase surface area for integrin receptors and dystrophin-glycoprotein complexes that link the cytoskeleton to basal lamina of tendon

75
Q

2 fates of myoblasts

A

1- multinucleate myotubule

2- satellite cell

76
Q

what is the function of muscular satellite cells?

A

function in regeneration of skeletal mm if basal lamina is still intact

77
Q

what is desmin?

A

forms stabilizing cross linkages of adjacent myofibrils at the Z line

78
Q

what are mm spindles?

A

specialized stretch receptors in muscle with sensory (sense degree of stretch) and motor (modulate response to stress)

79
Q

what are golgi tendon organs?

A

only sensory, respond to increased tension

80
Q

what composes intercalated discs?

A

gap junctions and macula adherins

81
Q

contract the nuclei of the 3 mm types

A

skeletal- large, peripheral
smooth- central, corkscrew
cardiac- central

82
Q

describe t tubules in cardiac mm

A

only 1 T tubule per sarcomere located at the Z line

83
Q

discuss repair of the 3 mm types

A

skeletal- repair with satellite cells if basal lamina intact
cardiac- no repair
smooth- rapidly divides and repairs

84
Q

discuss myosin arrangement in skeletal vs. smooth mm

A

skeletal- bipolar

smooth- side polar

85
Q

what are the 2 mechanisms for RBCs to get energy?

A

glycolysis and hexose monophoshate shunt

86
Q

what do azurophilic granules contain?

A

acid phosphatase. lysosomal enzymes and myeloperoxidase

87
Q

specific granules in neutrophils

A

lactoferrin, alk phos, lysozyme, collagenase

88
Q

tertiary granules in neutrophils

A

help to move through tissues (phosphatases, metalloproteinases

89
Q

eosinophilic granules

A

major basic protein (arginine), also histaminases and arylsulfatase to neutralize leukotrienes from basophils and mast cells

90
Q

basophil granules

A

histamine, heparin,leukotrienes

91
Q

largest WBC

A

monocyte

92
Q

4 areas of platelet

A

peripheral- glycocalyx and clotting factors
organelle- organelles and granules
structural- cytoskeleton
membrane- connections between compartments

93
Q

granules of platelets (a,d,g)

A

alpha- PDGF, fibrinogen
delta- ATP/ADP, Ca, serotonin
gamma- lysosomal enzymes

94
Q

what is the function of ADP in clot formation?

A

signals other platelets to aggregate

95
Q

what is the role of PDGF in clot formation?

A

proliferation of fibroblasts and smooth mm

96
Q

what are the adventitial cells in bone marrow?

A

adventitial cells (also called reticular cells) send sheet-like extensions into hemopoietic cords to provide support to developing cells

97
Q

what causes the “checkerboard” pattern of a polychromatophilic erythroblast nucleus?

A

chromatin clumping

98
Q

where is thrombopoietin synthesized?

A

liver, kidney

99
Q

at what point are developing RBCs post-mitotic?

A

once they have reached orthochromatophilic stage

100
Q

which cells have endomitosis in platelet genesis?

A

megakaryoblasts

101
Q

at what point in generation are neutrophils post-mitotic?

A

at metamyelocyte stage

102
Q

what are the 4 types of cords in bone marrow?

A

adipose, hemopoietic cells, macrophages, mast cells

103
Q

what is the calculation for the expected decrease in bone marrow cellularity with age?

A

100-age +/- 10%

104
Q

GATA-1

A

directs to erythroblast committed progenitor

105
Q

GATA-3

A

involved in adipose cell development

106
Q

what is “pyknotic”

A

term to describe the very dense/dark nuclei of orthochromatophilic erythroblasts

107
Q

what is the relative size of megakaryocytes?

A

about 100 um

108
Q

differentiate myofilaments vs. myofibrils vs. muscle fibers

A

myofilament- either actin or myosin
myofibril- actin + mysoin
muscle fiber- grouped myofibrils

109
Q

where are multipolar motor neurons found?

A

ventral horn of spinal cord

110
Q

what is the embryologic source of glial cells in the CNS?

A

neuroepithelial stem cells (except microglia which are derived from monocytes in the bone marrow)

111
Q

what is the embryologic source of glial cells in the PNS?

A

neural crest cells

112
Q

where are pyramidal cells found? what is typical appearance?

A

pyramidal cells found in cerebral cortex

will have prominent apical dendrite

113
Q

what is the structure of neurons in the DRG?

A

pseudounipolar neuron

114
Q

where do purkinje cell axons extend?

A

into the molecular layer

115
Q

where does the apical dendrite of pyramidal cells point?

A

toward the surface

116
Q

how is DRG differentiated from autonomic ganglion?

A

DRG- satellite cells more prominent

autonomic ganglion- dendrites present

117
Q

schmidt-lantermann clefts

A

areas of disrupted myelin in PNS

118
Q

gliosis

A

proliferation of astrocytes secondary to CNS damage

119
Q

appearance of oligodendrocyte

A

small, dark, round nucleus with peripheral halo

120
Q

appearance of astrocyte

A

large, ovoid nucleus

121
Q

function of astrocytes

A

induce endothelial cells to make BBB

122
Q

perineurium

A

connective tissue that surrounds a single fascicle

123
Q

appearance of schwann cell

A

pale staining nuclei

124
Q

what is a collection of nerve cell bodies in CNS vs PNS

A

CNS- gray matter and nuclei

PNS- ganglion

125
Q

supporting cells in CNS vs. PNS

A

CNS- astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells, microglia
PNS- schwann cells and satellite cells

126
Q

connective tissue in CNS vs. PNS

A

CNS- sparse, disorgnaized

PNS- more abundant and organized into eli/peri/endoneurium

127
Q

embryonic origin od CNS vs. PNS glial cells

A

CNS- neuroepithelium

PNS- neural crest cells

Histology block 2 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions