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Histology block 2 > blood > Flashcards

blood Flashcards

1
Q

name the 6 functions of blood

A

delivery of nutrients, removal of wastes, delivery of hormones, acid-base balance, body temp regulation and osmotic balance

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2
Q

what is the general composition of plasma?

A

90% water, 9% proteins, 1% inorganic salt

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3
Q

what are the 3 main protein types of plasma?

A

albumin, globulin and fibrinogen

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4
Q

what is serum?

A

plasma (minus fibrinogen)

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5
Q

what type of stain is used for blood smears?

A

Romonosky-type stains (Wright or Giemsa)

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6
Q

define hematocrit

A

hematocrit is the layer of packed erythrocytes after centrifugation of whole blood

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7
Q

what are the normal hematocrit values for males and females?

A

males-39-50%

females- 35-45%

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8
Q

describe polycythemia

A

increased hematocrit, can be seen in people living at high altitudes

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9
Q

described hypocythemia

A

decrease in hematocrit, indicates anemia

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10
Q

what are the features of a mature erythrocyte?

A

no nucleus, organelles or inclusions; biconcave disc

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11
Q

why are RBCs in biconcave disc shape?

A

to maximize surface area to volume ration that helps with gas exchange also puts more hemoglobin closer to the membrane

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12
Q

what is the normal diameter of an RBC?

A

7 um

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13
Q

what is the size of a macrocytic cell?

A

over 9 um

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14
Q

what is the size of a microcytic cell?

A

under 6 um

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15
Q

what is another term for the plasma membrane of a RBC?

A

plasmalemma

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16
Q

what cytoskeletal elements (3) allow RBC to maintain their flexibility?

A

actin, ankyrin and spectrin

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17
Q

why do some RBC exhibit central pallor?

A

lack of hemoglobin

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18
Q

what is it called when the central pallor is too large?

A

hypochromia

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19
Q

what is the main energy source for RBCs?

A

glucose via glycolysis

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20
Q

what is an anaerobic form of metabolism used by RBCs?

A

hexose monophosphate shunt

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21
Q

describe reticulocytes

A

young erythrocytes with some rRNA in their cytoplasm

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22
Q

what is the normal percentage of reticulocytes in blood?

A

1%

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23
Q

what might a high reticulocyte count indicate?

A

indicates anemia and also indicates that bone marrow is working to correct the anemia

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24
Q

what is the predominant form of hemoglobin in tissues?

A

carbaminohemoglobin

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25
Q

what is the predominant form of hemoglobin in the lungs?

A

oxyhemoglobin

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26
Q

what is carboxyhemoglobin?

A

irreversible binding of CO with hemoglobin

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27
Q

what mutation is responsible for sickle cell anemia?

A

point mutation of the beta-golbin chain that results in glu–>val substitution

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28
Q

what special stain is needed to see reticulocytes?

A

methylene blue or cresyl blue

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29
Q

how long are reticulocytes present in peripheral blood until they mature?

A

about 1 day

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30
Q

what type of granules can be seen in all types of leukocytes?

A

non-specific granules called azurophilic granules

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31
Q

what do azurophilic granules contain?

A

acid phosphatase, lysosomal enzymes and myeloperoxidase

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32
Q

what is the most common type of leukocyte?

A

neutrophils (55%)

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33
Q

what is the main function of neutrophils?

A

phagocytize small particles and bacteria

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34
Q

describe the typical neutrophil appearance

A

3-5 lobed nucleus, 3 types of granules

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35
Q

what are the 3 types of granules in a neutrophil?

A

Azurophilic, specific and tertiary

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36
Q

what are precursor neutrophils called?

A

stab or band cells

37
Q

what does the presence of increased band cells suggest?

A

bacterial infection

38
Q

what indicates the age of a neutrophil?

A

number of lobes in the nucleus

39
Q

what is another name for increased band cells?

A

left shift

40
Q

what is hyper segmentation?

A

over 5 lobes of the nucleus in a neutrophil

41
Q

what is a barr body?

A

small nuclear appendage present in females that is indicative of the x-chromosome

42
Q

what do the specific granules of neutrophils contain? (4)

A

alk phos, collagenase, lactoferrin and lysozyme

43
Q

what is the function of lactoferrin?

A

binds iron, to deprive bacteria of iron

44
Q

what is the function of collagenase?

A

breaks up collagen so neutrophil can move through connective tissue

45
Q

what is the function of lysozyme in neutrophils?

A

cleaves bacterial cell wall component peptidoglycan (gram-positive)

46
Q

what is the purpose of tertiary granules in neutrophils?

A

contain proteins that help neutrophils move through tissue

47
Q

what is the percentage of eosinophils in the blood?

A

2-5%

48
Q

what are the 3 main functions of eosinophils?

A

phagocytosis of antigen-antibody complexes, moderate allergic reactions through histaminase, reaction to parasites

49
Q

what is the typical appearance of an eosinophils nucleus?

A

bi-lobed

50
Q

what do the eosinosphilic granules contain in their core?

A

major basic protein

51
Q

what aa is prevalent in major basic protein?

A

arginine is prevalent, which gives the cell an eosinophilic (pink) appearance

52
Q

what comprises the externum of eosinophiic granules? (7)

A

acid phosphatase, arylsulfatase, RNase, phospholipase, peroxidase, cathepsin, glucoronidase

53
Q

what percentage of the WBCs is basophils?

A

0-1%

54
Q

what is the structure of a basophil?

A

2-3 lobed nucleus that is often obscured by large basophilic granules

55
Q

what is contained in basophilic granules? (3)

A

heparin, histamine and leukotrienes

56
Q

what is the function of basophils?

A

participate in inflammatory response, assist mast cells

57
Q

what percentage of WBCs are lymphocytes?

A

30-35% (most numerous agranulocyte)

58
Q

why do some lymphocytes appear “small”?

A

small lymphocytes have a spherical nucleus, heterochromatin, thin cytoplasm representing an inactive cell

59
Q

why do some lymphocytes appear “medium” or “large”?

A

medium/large lymphocytes have more cytoplasm and euchromatin and are active

60
Q

where are b-cell and t-cells derived, respectively?

A

b cells- bone marrow

t cells- thymus

61
Q

what is the function of b cells?

A

recognize antigens and differentiate into plasma cells that produce antibodies

62
Q

what other type of cells will b cell differentiate into aside from plasma cells?

A

memory cells

63
Q

what type of immunity is conveyed by T cells?

A

cell-mediated immunity (secrete lymphokines that moderate phagocyte function)

64
Q

name the 4 types of T cells

A

1- cytotoxic t cell
2- memory t cell
3- helper t cell
4- suppressor t cell

65
Q

what is the function of cytotoxic t cells?

A

recognize antigens on cell’s surface

66
Q

what is the function of helper t cells?

A

release lymphokines to help direct the immune response

67
Q

what is the function of suppressor t cells?

A

suppress the activity of b cells (help to prevent development of autoimmunity)

68
Q

what are Null Cell?

A

lymphocytes without surface markers that might be stem cells or natural killer cells

69
Q

what is the largest WBC?

A

monocyte

70
Q

what is the percentage of monocytes in WBCs?

A

3-8%

71
Q

what are monocytes in the tissue?

A

monocytes differentiate into macrophages in the tissue

72
Q

what are the functions of monocytes?

A

phagocytosis and interaction with lymphocytes to help with antigen recognition

73
Q

what is the shape of a monocyte nucleus?

A

kidney-bean or “fetus” shaped

74
Q

what are monocytes the precursor to?

A

all cells of the mononuclear phagocytic system

75
Q

what are the precursors of platelets?

A

megakaryocytes

76
Q

what are the 4 zones of organization of a platelet?

A

1- peripheral zone
2- structural zone
3- organelle zone
4- membrane zone

77
Q

describe the peripheral zone of a platelet

A

cell membrane with glycocalyx; absorbs clotting factors

78
Q

describe the structural zone of a platelet

A

cytoskeletal elements

79
Q

describe the organelle zone of a platelet

A

cellular organelles + 3 granules

80
Q

describe the membrane zone of a platelet

A

forms channels to allow communication between other compartments

81
Q

describe the alpha granules of a platelet

A

contain fibrinogen, PDGF, other proteins

82
Q

describe the delta granules of a platelet

A

contain Ca, ATP/ADP and serotonin

83
Q

describe the gamma granules of a platelet

A

contain lysosomal enzymes

84
Q

what signals the start of clot formation?

A

exposure of the underlying endothelial connective tissue to platelets

85
Q

what signals other platelets to aggregate?

A

ADP

86
Q

what is the role of serotonin in clot formation?

A

causes contraction of smooth muscle to reduce blood flow

87
Q

what allows for thrombus contraction?

A

actin, myosin and ATP

88
Q

what is the function of PDGF in clot formation?

A

stimulates the proliferation of fibroblasts and smooth muscle

Histology block 2 (9 decks)

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