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Hematology Oncology > High Yield info for final > Flashcards

High Yield info for final Flashcards

1
Q

In which disorder is an allogenic bone marrow transplant indicated

A

Aplastic anemia

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2
Q

If you have a prolonged PT/INR, what type of vitamin deficiency do you suspect? Which drug inhibits this vitamin?

A

Vitamin K deficiency
Warfarin inhibits vitamin K

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3
Q

What is the most concentrated factor in cryoprecipitate

A

Fibringoen

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4
Q

Your patient presents with fever, chills, hypotension, flank and back pain, and bleeding following a transfusion. Which disorder do you suspect?

A

Acute hemolytic reaction

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5
Q

Your patient has Reed Sternberg cells. What do you suspect is his diagnosis?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma
*Bimodal distribution, see it in young adult population and older adults
*Alcohol consumption leads to pain in lymph nodes and bones
*Uses ann arbour staging
*To confirm Hodgkin’s diagnosis, you NEED a tissue (LN) biopsy

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6
Q

You have heinz bodies and bite cells on a smear. What is the diagnosis?

A

G6PD

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7
Q

Your patient has abnormal RBCs under hypoxic conditions. Which disease is this characteristic with

A

Sickle Cell anemia

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8
Q

Your patient has hard, fixed, painless lymph nodes. What are these associated with?

A

Malignant lymph nodes

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9
Q

Your patient has mobile/rubbery lymph nodes. What are these associated with?

A

Lymphoma

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10
Q

Your patient has painful, inflamed, and soft lymph nodes. What is this associated with?

A

Infection- non-cancerous

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11
Q

What are the 3 B symptoms of Non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Fever (3+ days), night sweats, unintentional weight loss (10%)

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12
Q

What test do you use to distinguish B12 and Folate anemia?

A

MMA

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13
Q

Which test measures the intrinsic and common coagulation pathway

A

aPTT
- *Use a mix-in test to measure prolonged PTT and distinguish origin/diagnosis

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14
Q

Which test measures the extrinsic coagulation pathway

A

PT

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15
Q

Which drug inhibits the intrensic pathway

A

Heparin
Measure using PTT
factors 12, 11, 9, 8 ( hemophila A is a factor 8 deficiency, remember)

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16
Q

What drug inhibits the extrensic pathway

A

Warfarin= vitamin K antagonist
measure using PT
Factor 2, 7, 9, 10 are vitamin K dependent factors
Extrensic pathway are factors Tissue factor (3), 7

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17
Q

What factors are part of the common pathway

A

10, 5, 2( thrombin), fibrinogen, fibrin clot (1a)

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18
Q

If your PTT is long, which pathway is dysfunctioning?

A

Intrensic and common are both measured by PTT

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19
Q

If your PT is long, which pathway is dysfunctiongin?

A

Extrensic

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20
Q

Which special test do you use to confirm that the patient has autoimmune hemolytic anemia (And you suspect it after a blood smear)?

A

Coomb’s test

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21
Q

What protein is made in the liver that binds to free Hgb in the blood?

A

Haptoglobin
If haptoglobin is low, suggests hemolytic anemia. If haptoglobin is normal, nearly rules out hemolytic anemia ( very sensitive test)

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22
Q

Which disorder is associated with the BCR-ABL1 fusion and the philadelphia chromosome?

A

ALL
*NOTE that the philadelphia chromosome is heavily implicated in CML in ALL cases, but in ALL in SOME cases. Just so its confusing!

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23
Q

If you suspect a patient has ALL, which test do you order as the gold standard?

A

Bone marrow biopsy– need tissue to confirm issue

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24
Q

Auer rods

A

AML- Acute myeloid leukemia
Risk factors include prior chemo or radiation, benzene exposure

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25
Q

Smudge cells

A

CLL- Lymphocytes with Crushed Little Lymphocytes for Smudge cells

Adults over the age of 60 are most common age group, and most adults over 60 have gone through a divorce and have SMUDGED their mascara

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26
Q

Translocation from 9 to 22 (Philadelphia chromosome 22)

A

CML!
Some types of ALL can have philadelphia chromosome, but that is a different gene fusion not translocation

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27
Q

Characteristics of Multiple Myeloma electrophoresis and blood smear

A

M spikes on electrophoresis
Bence Jones proteins
have Rouleaux formation
BJ (Bence Jones) likes M&Ms (Multiple Myeloma/ M spikes)
Characteristics/symptoms are CRAB

C-HyperCALcemia
R- Renal dysfunction
A-Anemia
B-Bone lesions

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28
Q

How do you differentiate Multiple Myeloma from MGUS

A

Use CRAB
C-HyperCALcemia
R- Renal dysfunction
A-Anemia
B-Bone lesions

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29
Q

Functionally mature lymphocytes with incompetent monoclonal B lymphocytes

A

CLL
Has Smudge cells too

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30
Q

Which cell line causes Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

B cells 85% of the time (CD20) and T otherwise

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31
Q

Which cell line causes Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

B cell origin

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32
Q

Your patient complains of bone pain when he drinks alcohol. Which test do you order next?

A
  • Peripheral smear, see reed-sternberg cells, large cells that are multilobed owl eye nuclei.
  • Lymph node biopsy is needed to confirm diagnosis
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33
Q

Mature B cell malignancy that can develop from MGUS

A

Multiple myeloma
MGUS–> SMM–> Multiple Myeloma
Also have clonal proliferation of plasma cells and increased monoclonal protein in the body

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34
Q

If you have an increase in mature, dysfunctional, B lymphocytes in the body, what disorder is this characteristic of?

A

CLL

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35
Q

If you have clonal proliferation of plasma cells and increased monoclonal protein in the body, what disorder does this indicate?

A

Multiple Myeloma and MGUS, differentiate using CRAB

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36
Q

What is the most common clotting disorder

A

Factor 5 leiden

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37
Q

What is the most common bleeding disorder

A

vWF

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38
Q

If you see schistocytes on a blood smear, what disorder do you expect?

A

TTP- most dangerous and common.
DIC also has schistocytes, but you have a PTT increased also with DIC

Schistocytes are irregularly shaped fragments of RBCs because of mechanical distruction or oxidative stress

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39
Q

Pathophys of schistocytes

A

Schistocytes are irregularly shaped fragments of RBCs because of mechanical distruction or oxidative stress

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40
Q

Which test measures average RBC volume

A

MCV

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41
Q

Which disorder is the beta globin chain of hemoglobin affected in

A

Beta thalassemia
Also sickle cell

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42
Q

Factor that’s deficient in hemophilia A

A

8

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43
Q

Retic count is increased in what type of anemia

A

Hemolytic anemia
must have functioning bone marrow to increase retics

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44
Q

This test measures percent of immature RBCs in blood and indicates bone marrow activity

A

Reticulocyte count

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45
Q

What test do you do after you do a CBC

A

Reticulocyte count

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46
Q

Virus associated with malignant lymphoma

A

EBV

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47
Q

Transfusion of PRBCs is indicated when Hgb falls below which number in stable patients without active bleeding

A

<7

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48
Q

Which blood product gives you coagulation factors and other proteins in plasma

A

FFP

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49
Q

Which blood component gives you insoluble coagulation factors (Fibrinogen, factor 8, facotr 13, vWF)

A

Cryoprecipitate
- Precipitated out of FFP

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50
Q

Indication for platelets transfusion

A

Platelets <10-20k
OR actively bleeding, or pre-operatively

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51
Q

Indication for FFP

A

INR of >1.8, active DIC, intra-op bleeding

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52
Q

Indication to give cryoprecipitate

A

Low fibrinogen

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53
Q

Indication for G-CSF transfusion

A

Neutropenia

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54
Q

1 unit of PRBCs will raise what value by which amount

A

raise HEMOGLOBIN by 1 g/dL
raise Hematocrit by 3%

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55
Q

1 unit of platelets will raise platelet count by how much

A

40-50k

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56
Q

1 unit of cryoprecipitate will raise fibrinogen levels by how much

A

70-100 mg/dL in 70kg recipient ( you give 5-10 unitis usually)

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57
Q

Life span of platelets

A

7-10 days

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58
Q

How long to raise iron levels in body

A

2-6 weeks

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59
Q

How many years of stores does the body have of B12

A

5 years

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60
Q

Class of immunotherapy drugs that target PD-1 pathways

A

Checkpoint inhibitors

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61
Q

CART is what type of chemo drug

A

Immunotherapy drug

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62
Q

BITE (Bi-specific T cell engagers) are what type of drug

A

Immunotherapy drugs

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63
Q

CAR-T are what type of drug

A

Immunotherapy drugs

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64
Q

Oncolytic viruses are what type of drug

A

Immunotherapy drugs

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65
Q

Targetted therapies are targetting what on the cancer?

A

Target specific antigens or mutations (DRIVER mutations) in cancer DNA)

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66
Q

Anti- HER2 is what type of cancer treatment

A

Targeted therapy

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67
Q

Monoclonal antibodies are what type of cancer treatment

A

Targeted therapies

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68
Q

Which cells are most likely to be impacted by chemotherapy drugs

A

Rapidly dividing cells
- Hair cells
- GI tract
- Skin
- Reproductive system

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69
Q

What is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20 and treats lymphomas

A

CD20 inhibitors
Rutiximab (vitamin R)
Anyone with B cell dysfunction gets this

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70
Q

Type of anemia caused by b12 or folate

A

Megaloblastic

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71
Q

First clotting factor activated in intrinsic pathway

A

12

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72
Q

Excessive fibrosis in bone marrow, may lead to extramedullary hematopoiesis

A

Primary myelofibrosis
Mutation is in JAK2

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73
Q

Medication that is the antidote for warfarin toxicity

A

Vitamin K

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74
Q

Clonal proliferation of megakaryocytes and mostly due to JAK2

A

Essential Thrombocytosis

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75
Q

Polycythemia vera has the risk of transformation to what disorder

A

Myelofibrosis or AML

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76
Q

Is Polycythemia vera acquired or genetic

A

Acquired Myeloproliforative neoplasm (myeloid condition where blood production is deregulated)

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77
Q

What is the clonal driver of MPNS

A

JAK2
EXCEPT secondary polycythemia

78
Q

Primary polycythemia refers to what

A

Specifically to polycythemia vera

79
Q

Secondary polycythemia refers to what

A

Arises from underlying conditions that stimulate the body to produce more RBCs (often due to lack of oxygen)
Conditions include High altitude, certain tumors, smoking

80
Q

JAK2 is in all types of MPNs except which one?

A

Secondary polycythemia

81
Q

What are the 4 myeloproliferative neoplasms

A

Polycythemia Vera
Essential thrombocytosis
Primary myelofibrosis
Chronic myeloid leukemia

82
Q

Autoimmune condition that causes hemolysis via IgG antibodies and positive Coombs test

A

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia

83
Q

Anticoagulant protein that inhibits factor 2a

A

antithrombin 3

84
Q

Vitamin essential for carboxylation of 2, 7, 9, 10

85
Q

Immunoglobulin that is the biggest and most responsible for early immune responses

86
Q

Acute vs chronic infections with immunoglobulin presence

A

IgM on early immune responses
IgG on chronic (EBV or hepatitis)

87
Q

What is the name of This Left supraclavicular lymph node that may indicate abdominal malignancy or gastric cancer

A

Virchow’s node

88
Q

EPO stimulating agents are commonly used to treat anemia in this chronic condition

A

CKD
Also Anemia of chronic disease, HIV, and MDS, RA

89
Q

This myeloproliferative neoplasm is associated with a mutation in the JAK2 gene in 95% of cases and leads to overproduction of RBCs

A

Polycythemia Vera

90
Q

Symptoms in Polycythemia vera vs Essential Thrombocytosis

A

Erythromelalgia is more commonly seen in PV than ET
Aquagenic puritis is ONLY in PV

PV has increased RBCs, Increased HcT, may show normal or slightly elevated WBC and platelet counts, ALWAYS has low EPO, Hypercellular bone marrow

ET has Increased platelets, Normal Hgb/Hct with Normocytic RBCs, NO erythrocytosis. JAK mutation

91
Q

In Secondary polycythemia, which hormone is elevated in response to hypoxia

92
Q

Hydroxyurea is used to increase fetal Hgb production in this condition

A

Sickle cell anemia

93
Q

Person with this blood type can only receive blood from donors with same blood type due to both Anti a and anti b antibodies

94
Q

Which blood is the universal donor

95
Q

Transfusion reaction with hypovolemia, pulmonary edema, hypertension, JVD, and cardiac or renal compromise

96
Q

Essential thrombosis may experience this painful sensation in the hands of feet due to microvascular thrombosis

A

Erythromelalgia
Can occur in Essential thrombosis AND polycythemia vera, more common in PV

97
Q

Chemotherapy drug that’s red devil that is a component of ABVD
What does it treat?

A

Doxyrubicin- ruby- red devil
Anthracycline is class, also called andramycin
Treats Hodgkin’s lymphoma

98
Q

Transfusion reaction with acute respiratory distress, non cardiogenic pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion

99
Q

Normocytic anemia, low iron, high ferritin, normal TIBC, increased inflammation
What are the inflammatory markers in this condition?

A

Anemia of chronic disease
CRP and IL-11 are the inflammatory markers

100
Q

Symptom where you crave for non food items like ice

A

PICA
Seen in IDA

101
Q

Clotting factor that is known as fibrin-stabilizing factor, crosslinks fibrin strands to stabilize a clot

102
Q

Immunotherapy that modifies a T cell to target Cancer cells to treat lymphoma

A

CAR-T therapy

103
Q

What is an inherited disorder leads to excessive iron absorption and deposition in tissues

A

Hereditary hemochromatosis

104
Q

Paraneoplastic electrolyte disturbance associated with small cell lung cancer, can be triggered by chemotherapy agents like cyclophosphamide and vincristine

105
Q

Your patient has decreased urine output, neurological deficits, and increased weight without edema after chemotherapy and infection with pneumonia. What could they be suffering from?

A

SIADH
- Risk factors are chemothrapy (Vincristine and cyclophosphamide, ifosamide), infection with bacterial pneumonia/fungal disease, and cancer with CNS tumors.
Treatments= fluid restrictions and diuretics

106
Q

What is a left shift

A

Increased number of bands, often indicative of bacterial infection or severe immune response

107
Q

Emergency caused by metastatic tumors, back pain, motor weakness, incontinence

A

Spinal cord compression

108
Q

Bone marrow disorder characterized by dacrocytes

A

primary myelofibrosis
Leukoerythroblastic smear- nucleated reds, blasts that scar out bone marrow to fill in cells that arent supposed to be there

109
Q

Bone marrow disorder characterized by dacrocytes (teardrop cells), hematopoiesis, splenomegaly. What is it, and how do you treat it?

A

Treatment is JAKIFY
Primary myelofibrosis is JAK+
Bone marrow biopsy will show dry tap

110
Q

Life threatening complication occurs spontaneously in patients with hemophilia, severe headache, vomiting, altered mental status, loss of consciousness

A

Intercranial hemmorhage

111
Q

Patients with this inherited hemoglobinopathy are at risk for complications with splenic infarction, susceptibility to infections, etc

A

Sickle cell anemia
these patients also get dactylitis, parvovirus

112
Q

This Emergency is characterized by a fever greater than 100.4, ANC is <500/uL, requires prompt antibiotic therapy to prevent sepsis

A

Febrile neutropenia

113
Q

Prolongation of PT and PTT suggests defect in this path including factors 1, 2, 5, and 10

A

Common pathway

114
Q

Patients with this myeloproliferative disorder are advised to avoid iron supplements, as increased iron may exacerbate excessive RBC production

A

Polycythemia vera
Treatment is phlebotomy

115
Q

Fragile, damaged lymphocytes, smudge cells, are characteristic on PBSs in this type of leukemia

A

CLL- Crushed little lymphocytes- smudged

116
Q

Auer rods are characteristic of this disorder

117
Q

Hyperlobed neutrophils is characteristic of this disorder

118
Q

Megaloblastic anemia is what, and what disorders is this caracteristic of?

A

Megaloblastic- B12/Folate deficiency
very large RBCs

119
Q

This process, where blood cell production occurs outside the bone marrow, is seen in thalassemias, myelofibrosis, and hemolytic anemias

A

Extramedullary hematopoiesis

120
Q

Often triggered by E. coli, characterized by acute kidney injury, microangiopathic

121
Q

Fusion gene, formed by by translocation between 9 and 22 is hallmark of CML

A

BCR-ABL fusion, philadelphia chromosome

122
Q

Viral infection known for causing fever and joint pain, leads to transient pancytopenia due to bone marrow suppression

A

Parvovirus B19
causes transient pancytopenia, sickle cell crisis

123
Q

Severe adverse effect of bleomycin and is limitation in its use in cancer treatment

A

Pulmonary toxicity

124
Q

Term that refers to reduction in RBCs, WBCs, platelets, commonly seen in bone marrow failure

A

Pancytopenia

125
Q

This condition results from autoantibody-mediated destruction of platelets

A

ITP
On a smear, you see thrombocytopenia, but everything else is normal

126
Q

Taking oral iron supplements every other day instead of daily improves absorption because this hormone level increases when iron is abundant

127
Q

Oncologic emergency caused by large tumors leading to rapid cell lysis, hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and HYPOcalcemia

A

Tumor lysis syndrome

128
Q

Inherited disorder causes fragile RBCs leading to splenomegaly

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

129
Q

Compression of mediastinal mass can cause emergency, facial swelling

A

SVC syndrome

130
Q

Normal or elevated level of protein rules out hemolysis as it is typically decreased in hemolytic anemia due to role in binding free hemoglobin

A

Haptoglobin

131
Q

This type of anemia is caused by autoantibodies destroying cells that produce intrensic factor

A

pernicious anemia (B12 deficiency)

132
Q

What disorder arises as a result of n ADAMTS13 deficeincy

133
Q

What is ITP treatable with, and what should you def not treat it with?

A

monoclonal antibodies- DO NOT treat with platelet transfusion

134
Q

What are the types of immunotherapy for Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Checkpoint inhibitors and monoclonal antiboidies (CD30)

135
Q

What are treatments for low grade non-hodgkin lymphoma

A

OBSERVATION or local radiation and chemotherapy.

136
Q

What are treatments for high grade non hodgkin lymphoma

A

-Treatment is URGENT
- R-CHOP
- Rutuxin
- Radiation
-SCT or CAR-T

137
Q

When is HgbF replaced by HbgA

A

6 months of age

138
Q

In people who are heterozygous for sickled cell anemia, what is the Hgb level

139
Q

Basophillic stippling is associated with what disorder and is caused by what pathology

A

Related to lead toxicity
Caused by ribosomal granules in the RBC, strange ribosomal granules.

140
Q

What are the 2 noteable key symptoms of Vitamin B 12 deficiency

A

Glossitis and Neurological symptoms

141
Q

What value measures the range of variation of RBC volume

A

RDW
Higher= greater variation in size

142
Q

If you have a anisocytosis, what is your RDW value

A

high because there is less uniformity between cells

143
Q

4 types of normocytic, normochromic anemia

A
  • Acute blood loss
  • Aplastic anemia
  • Leukemias
  • Bone marrow infiltration
144
Q

4 types of microcytic, hypochromic anemia

A

-Iron deficiency
- thalassemia
- lead poisioning
- anemia of chronic disease

145
Q

2 types of macrocytic, normochromic anemia

A
  • Folate deficiency
    -B12/pernicious anemia
146
Q

If you have your Hct, what do you do to get your RBCS?

A

Multiply by 100k
Hct * 100,000= RBCs

147
Q

How to get Hb from RBC

A

RBC * 3 = Hb

148
Q

Hb to Hct calculation

149
Q

What are platelets released from

A

Released from megakaryocytes in bone marrow
If they are released improperly, they might go into blood as large platelets.
ITP has LARGE platelets
TTP has LARGE multinucleated platelets

150
Q

On a blood smear, a normal sized RBC is about how big

A

the diameter of the nucleus of a small lymphocyte

151
Q

Spherocytes are seen in which 2 diseases

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Hereditary spherocytosis

152
Q

Dacryocytes are seen in which disease

A

primary myelofibrosis

153
Q

Schistocytes are seen in which disorders

A

Thallasemias
Hemolytic anemia
TTP
DIC

154
Q

How do you differentiate ITP from TTP on a smear

A

TTP- schistocytes and multinucleated platelets
ITP- large platelets (Thrombocytopenia). ALSO smudge cells possibly on ITP b/c you could have a luekemia

155
Q

Target cells are seen in which disorders

A

Hemoglobin C disese
Iron deficiency
Thalassemia

156
Q

RBCs that have been ripped or torn against fibrin strands or thrombi in circulation, or have been buffeted against unyielding structure in macrocirculation. Fragments reseal and persist in circulation and are highly significant.

A

Schistocytes
Fragments seen in severe burns, DIC, TTP, and hemolytic processes

157
Q

Fine, medium, or coarse blue granules with uniform distribution within the red blood cell

A

Basophillic stipling
Abnormal Ribosomal RNA degredation
Lead poisioning, Thalassemias, alcoholism

158
Q

Which disorder is associated with increased indirect bilirubin

A

Hemolysis (Sickle cell, hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD, Autoimmune hemolytic, TTP, HUS, DIC)
Ineffective erythropoiesis (Thalassemias, B12 or Folate deficiency, MDS)

159
Q

Which test/value improves faster than anemia symptoms do?

A

LDH- elevatted LDH is a sign of increased cell turnover (not any specific kind of cell). RBCs that stop being hemolyzed as quickly will have less LDH over time

160
Q

How many classes of Igs

161
Q

Which antibody makes up 85% of serum Igs and predominates late immune responses

A

IgG
Only Ig to cross plecenta

162
Q

What is the only Ig to cross the placenta

163
Q

Which Ig predominates immune responses early on

164
Q

Characteristics of IgM

A
  • 3rd most abundent in serum
  • Heavy chain is Mu
    -primary response
  • Short life, so presence means recent infection
  • Opsonization, complement fixation, agglutination
165
Q

Which Ig’s heavy chain is Mu

166
Q

If IgM is in the serum of a newborn, what dose this indicate?

A

Congenital infections
IgM cannot cross plecenta
So, syphilis, toxoplasmosis, etc, is indicated

167
Q

Which Ig has the epsilon heavy chain

168
Q

Infectious mononucleosis will cause an increase in which Ig

A

IgM (polyclonal)

169
Q

Immunosuppresive chemotherapy will cause a decrease in which Ig

170
Q

What are the triad of symptoms in hemolytic transfusion reaction

A
  • Fever
  • Flank pain
  • Red/Brown urine
171
Q

Define Urticaria

A

HIVES
Proteins in blood react with IgE
Must pause the transfusion, but if you only have urticaria, resume after giving the patient an antihistamine

172
Q

Does Taco or trali have a fever or hyper/hypotension

A

TRALI- lung injury has Fever and HYPO tension
Taco has an O and HypOtension has an O. Each get one.

173
Q

Does Hodgkins or Non hodgkins have spread from lymph nodes

A

Non Hodgkins spreads all over and to GI/Skin– does NOT stay in one place

174
Q

Bone pain with lytic lesions from a monoclonal protein is indicative of what

A

Multiple myeloma
Monoclonal protein spike, bence jones proteinuria

175
Q

What do you give your patient if they have neutropenia

176
Q

Describe febrile neutropenia

A

Fever >38 measured 2x 1 hour apart or 38.5 at any time
moniter vitals closely to make sure not septic
see where infecction is coming from (pneumonia, UTI)
Gram - bacteria are harmed so new bacteria come in and invade
Manage with vanco and linezolid

177
Q

What is the most common oncologic emergency

A

Septic shock

178
Q

What does septic shock arise from

A

Neutropenic fever

179
Q

If you have a myeloid leukemia, what are the cells implicated

A

Myeloid cells- basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils, RBCs, platelets
Aml- myeloblasts
CML- basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils

180
Q

If you have lymphoid leukemia, what cells are implicated

A

Lymphoid stem cell
Lymphoblast for ALL
B lymphocyte, T lymphocyte, NK for CLL

181
Q

ALL PE signs

A

ALL= Anemic, Lumpy (lymphatonopathy, splenomegaly), Limping (MSK pain)

182
Q

CBC findings on ALL

A

Everything (ALL) are odd (Pancytopenia)
Anemia, thrombocytopenia, WBCs
Bone marrow biopsy is key- Lymphoblasts
***Severely impaired bone marrow fx- no increased retics

183
Q

Treatment of ALL

A

Chemo (Steroids, Vincristine, anthracycline)
CAR-T or allogenic bone marrow transplant (IF RELAPSE)

184
Q

In ALL, what is retic count

A

LOW- Severely impaired bone marrow.

185
Q

Which disorder has M3 in it

A

AML has APL (M3 variant)

186
Q

AML risk factors

A

Benzene exposure

187
Q

AML PE

A

Gingival hyperplasia

188
Q

How long do you have to live with APL if not treated, and how do you treat it?

A

Have <1 month to live
With treatment, very high cure rate
All-Trans retinoic acid to treat
Chemotherapy
Transplant

189
Q

3 steps to treatment in AML/ALL

A
  1. Induction
  2. Consolidation
  3. Maitnence
190
Q

Factor V leiden, Hemophillia A, and Hemophilia B all have what similar value on a coag pannel

A

All have increased PTT, normal PT, and normal platelets

191
Q

Mild cases of hemophilia are treated with what

A

DDAVp- desmopressin- increases factors

Hematology Oncology (12 decks)

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