Heme/Onc/Lymph U WORLD Questions Flashcards

1
Q

new HA, intracranial mass, biopsy, age 60s, with areas of necrosis surrounded by columns of tumor cells, capillaries at the periphery =

this is the _____ primary brain neoplasm in adults

pathology feature

origin cell

A

glioblastoma multiforme

most common

pseudopalisading necrosis

astrocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

given several units of packed red blood cells, develop tingling and hypocalcemia due to ______chelation by ______ that is added to stored blood

A

calcium

citrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

exposure status determined then followed during study =

exposure status determined after study =

A

prospective cohort

retrospective cohort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

dermatomyositis occurs during _____ and is characterized by proximal muscle weakness, heliotrope rash in periorbital and cheek region, and ____, which are erythematous plaques over the joints.

muscle biopsy will show

strong associated with lung, colorectal, and _____ cancers

A

malignancy

Gottron Papules

perimysial infiltrates

ovarian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

sickle cell anemia is autosomal _______ inheritance and can be confirmed by __________ electrophoresis. the abnormal hemoglobin is designated _____

A

recessive

hemoglobin

HbS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

radiation therapy induces DNA damage through ______ and formation of free radicals

A

DNA double strand breaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

factors II, VII, IX, and X are _______ dependent coagulation factors synthesized in the _______. Factor _____ has the shortest half life. Failure of ________, which assess the extrinsic and common pathway of coagulation, to correct with vitamin K supplementation indicates ________ deficiency

A

Vitamin K

LIver

VII

Prothrombin time

VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

______blotting is used to ID proteins. ________ blotting is used to ID RNA sequences. ______ blotting IDs specific DNA sequences in an unknown sample

A

Western

Northern

Southern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

dizziness, HA, pruritus after showering, ruddy complexion, splenomegaly =

increased platelets, RBC mass, and decreased EPO is due to increased bone marrow sensitiity to ____ which results in polycythemia _____, typically with mutation _____

normal platelet count, increased RBC mass, and increased EPO is usually due to an inappropriate _____ producing _____

incrased EPO and RBC mass in the presence of decreased SaO2 is a _______ response

A

polycythemia

Growth factors

vera

JAK2/V617F

EPO

Tumor

physiologic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

anemia, reticulocytosis, and increased indirect bilirubin indicates _______anemia. RBCs w/o central pallor are called_____, and can be acquired or hereditary. Hereditary _______ can be due to mutations involving ____, band 3, or ______, while acquired ______ is due to autoimmune disorder. Both of these will show an elevation in _________

A

hemolytic

spherocytes

spherocytosis

ankyrin, spectrin

spherocytosis

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration MCHC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

HIV pol genes are responsible for _______ to antiretroviral therapy. Env gene mutations enable _____ from host neutralizing antibodies

A

acquired resistance

escape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

newborn w/ jaundice, hepatomegaly, edema, low hemoglobin, + direct Coombs, extramedullary hematopoeisis =

due to _______ antibodies developed during a prior _____ pregnancy which cause severe autoimmune hemolytic anemia and hydrops fetalis

A

erythroblastosis fetalis (Rh sensitization)

maternal anti RhD IgG

RhD+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

chemokine receptor ______ acts as a coreceptor that enables the HIV virus to ____ cells. HIV virus uses ___ as a primary receptor, and both _____ and ____ are bound to HIV viral outer envelope protein gp120

A

CCR5

enter

CD4

CD4 and CCR5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

fever, bleeding gums, sore throat, several myeloblasts with abundant _______ cytoplasm and a large number of coarse rod shaped intracytoplasmic granules called ____ rods that stain for ________ indicate _______ type M3

A

basophilic

Auer

peroxidase

AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

all NSAID impair platelet aggregation except ____ which is a _____ selective inhibitor and has no side effects of bleeding and GI ulceration

A

Celecoxib

COX2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

mature erythrocytes lose their ability to synthesize heme when they ______ their ________

A

lose

mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

folate deficiency inhibits the synthesis of ______, which leads to defective ______ synthesis and megaloblastic anemia. THis can be overcome w/ _______ supplementation

A

deoxythymidine monophosphate (dTMP)

DNA

Thymidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

tRNA that is mischarged with the incorrect amino acid will _________________ amino acid into the polypeptide chain

A

incorporate the wrong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Neutrophils roll via the loose binding of ______ or _______ to L -selectin on neutrophils or ________ on endothelial cells

Neutrophils firmly attach to the endothelium (tight adhesion and crawling) via binding of ________ to _______ on enodthelial cells

Neutrophils migrate out of vasculature (transmigration) via attachment to _______

A

Sialyl Lewis X

PSGL1

E/P selectin

LFA-1

ICAM-1

PECAM-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

chemotherapy induced emesis can be treated w/ _______ and _______ that act as 5HT3 receptor antagonists

A

Ondansetron

Granisetron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

mTOR pathway = binding of growth factor, autophosphorylation of _____ residues, activation of _______, activation of ______, then activation of _____ which translocates to the nucleus

A

tyrosine

PIP3

AKT

mTOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

bone pain, fatigue, kidney disease, hypercalcemia, anemia is typical of ________ which is due to neoplastic B lymphocytes that mature into plasma cells and synthesize large amounts of ________. These plasma cells are susceptible to the effects of proteasome inhibitors such as ________, a boronic acid containing dipeptide

A

Multiple myeloma

Ig or Ig fragments

bortezomib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

a left shift on O2-Hbg dissociation curve can be caused by _________ (3) and indicates

a right shift can be caused by _____(3) and indicates

A

inc in pH, dec 2,3BPG, dec temp

O2 less available to tissues

dec in pH, inc 2,3BPG, inc temp

O2 more available to tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Meningococcal meningitis that progresses to DIC results in _______ on peripheral blood smear, which are fragmented erythrocytes

A

schistocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
_______ can reverse the toxicity of methotrexate in non cancerous cells of the GI mucosa and bone marrow. This drug is also called ________
Leucovorin Folinic acid
26
6-MP is degraded by _____, which can be inhibited by ____. Both 6-MP and 6-thioguanine are prodrugs that require activation by _______
XO allopurinol HGPRT
27
hemolytic anemia due to medication induced oxidative stress is indicative of _______. Antimalarial drugs usually precede the hemolysis. Peripheral blood smear shows RBCs w/ ______, dark intracellular inclusions that stain w/ supravital stain. This disorder follows ______ recessive inheritance
G6PD deficiency Heinz bodies X linked
28
diffuse large B cell lymphoma is the most common type of NHL and is typically treated w/ ________, which act during the ______ phase of the cell cycle and can cause _______
vincristine, vinblastine M peripheral neuropathy (stocking and glove)
29
dysplasia is ____ change in epithelial cells, which CIS is _______, and invasive carcinoma shows
reversible irreversible invasion of basement membrane
30
fatigue, weak, conjuvtival pallor, decrease hemoglobin = bruising = high lipid content of bone marrow = all of which suggestive of ______, which will present w/ increased production of ________
anemia thrombocytopenia hematopoetic cell aplasia aplastic anemia EPO
31
+TdT, CD10, CD19 = +CD2-8, TdT, CD1a =
precursor B-ALL precursor T-ALL
32
anemia, megaloblastic anemia, neuro deficits = can be due to a ___diet
B12 deficient strict vegan
33
female, fatigue, hypochromic, microcytic anemia = bluish color on RBCs after treatment due to =
iron deficient anemia reticulocytosis (increased ribosomal RNA)
34
CD8 T cell mediated apoptosis results in rapid cell death due to activation of ______
caspases
35
SLE can present in women w/ arthralgias and decreased erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. This is called ______
pancytopenia
36
HIV infection can cause reactivation of latent _____ and result in ________ lymphomas, including ______ lymphoma
EBV EBV induced Burkitt
37
aspirin is an NSAID that ________ inhibits _______ via acetylation
irreversibly COX 1 and 2
38
sickle cell can present with jaundice, lower back pain, extremity pain, and anemia. this results in ____ of the spleen due to repeated ________ infarcts
fibrosis and atrophy splenic
39
sickle cell patients have increased __________ requirements due to high RBC turnover. THis can result in ________ anemia as well
folic acid megaloblastic
40
industrial worker or child with weakness, cramping abdominal pain due to ________ peripheral blood smear will show physical exam will show
lead poisoning coarse basophilic stippling blue lead lines on teeth and gingiva
41
carbon monoxide poisoning will ______ carboxyhemoglobin, but will have no effect on _______
increase partial pressure oxygen methemoglobin
42
PCR requires knowledge of the nucleotide sequence of the regions ______ the target exon
flanking
43
three most common cancer incidence in women are _______ respectively three most common cancer death in women, respectively
Breast, Lung, colon Lung, breast, colon
44
kid w/ hemolytic anemia, jaundice, splenomegaly, spherocytes (lack central zone of pallor) =
hereditary spherocytosis
45
sickle cell anemia experiencing aplastic crisis is due to infection of erythroid progenitor cells with _____, which is a nonenveloped ________ virus
parvovirus B19 ssDNA
46
t(14;18) is associated w/ ______ overexpression and _____ lymphoma
BCL2 follicular
47
anti RhD Ig administered usually at _____weeks
28
48
erythematous itch breast rash w/ skin texture of orange peel = caused by cancerous cells ________ drainage
peu d orange, inflammatory breast cancer obstructing lymphatic
49
HbF is composed of 2 ____ units and 2 ____ units Adult hemoglobin is composed of 2 ____ and 2 _____
alpha gamma alpha beta
50
cutaneous lymph from the umbilicus down, including the anus below the dentate line, drain to the ________ lymph nodes exceptions are (2)
superficial inguinal glans penis posterior calf
51
t(15;17) is associated w/ ____ and is a translocation involving _______ and the PML gene often presents with fatigue, easy bruising, and _____
APML RARA gum bleeding
52
methemoglobinemia causes a dusky discoloration of the skin similar to _____ when patients are exposed to high levels of _______ in labs. The partial pressure of oxygen in these patients is
cyanosis nitrates unchanged
53
sickle cell patients are functionally _______, which increases risk for infection by __________ and ________, which are encapsulated. The most common cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell patients is ______
asplenic Strep pneumo H influenza Salmonella
54
weakness, fatigue, loss of expression of gene coding for protein on basolateral surface of hepatocytes and enterocytes that interacts w/ transferrin receptor Disorder = protein = leads to = inc risk of developing =
primary hemochromatosis HFE protein, decreased hepcidin synthesis and DMT1 overexpression Iron overload liver cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma
55
newborn with intracranial hemorrhage, "natural" newborn period, born on time w/o complications? diagnosis if Vitamin K prophylaxis had been given ?
Vitamin K deficiency = impaired clotting factor carboxylation abusive head trauma = subdural hemorrhage and ICB
56
monoclonal antibodies that block ______ and ______ help prevent T cell inhibition and promote T cell mediated destruction of tumor cells used in?
PD-1 and CTLA-4 advanced melanoma
57
patient presents with abdominal pain, low hemoglobin, platelets, inc bilirubin, inc lactate dehydrogenase, low haptoglobin, mesenteric vein thrombosis, absence of CD55 on RBC = gene = renal =
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (complement mediated hemolytic anemai) PIGA hemosiderosis due to iron deposition
58
hepatocellular carcinoma can be caused by Hepatitis B which is _____ virus, or Hepatitis C which is a ______ virus
DNA RNA
59
renal cortical cells sense _____ and release ____
hypoxia EPO
60
Rituximab is a monoclonal AB directed against the _____ antigen and used in aggressive lymphomas
CD20
61
the C1 complement molecule binds to the ____ region of the ______ Ig chain in the region near the hinge point Ig___ is a better activator of complement
Fc Heavy M
62
a reduced ability to relase oxygen within the peripheral tissues results in renal hypoxia and compensatory
erythrocytosis
63
family history of osteosarcomas, breast cancer, brain tumors, adrenal tumors, leukemias = gene
Li Fraumeni TP53, AD, TumorSuppressor
64
young, multiday history of nausea, constipation, severe, poorly localized abdominal pain, anxiety, difficulty concentrating, poor sleep, tingling of limbs, several similar episodes in past = exacerbated by: treated w/ due to downregulation of urine
acute, intermittent porphyria alcohol, drugs, or calorie restriction IV heme preparation Aminolevulinate synthase port wine colored, PBG, ALA +
65
the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin drives the release of ____ and ___ from hemoglobin, called the Haldane effect. High concentrations of CO2 and H+ in peripheral tissues facilitates ______ from hemoglobin, called the Bohr effect
H+ and CO2 oxygen unloading
66
spleen acts as a blood filter capable of removig circulating encapsulated pathogens such as (3)
Strep Pneumo H Influ N. Meningitidis
67
rate limiting enzyme in pentose phosphate pathway deficient = interconversion of ribose 5 - phosphate and fructose 6 phosphate is mediated by
G6PD no NADPH = hemolytic anemia transketolase
68
baby african american boy with painful swelling in hands and feet = due to lab value
dactylitis Sickle cell low haptoglobin
69
pneumonia + sepsis can result in ______ which is benign leukocytosis (>50,000). Peripheral blood smear will show _____ bodies, which are light blue (______) peripheral granules in neutrophils
leukemoid reaction Dohle basophilic
70
chemotherapy that leads to rapid lysis of neoplastic cells can result in = patients can be given ______ which protects normal organs by converting ______ into more soluble metabolites
tumor lysis syndrome rasburicase or allopurinol uric acid
71
the human mutli drug resistant gene ______ encodes for a _______ that is a transmembrane ATP dependent efflux pump and is responsible for preventing the action of various _________ agents
MDR1 glycoprotein chemo
72
heparin increases the effect of the naturally occurring anticoagulant ______ by binding it and is used for prophylaxis against _____ in nonambulatory post operative patients. This drug, in LMW form is called ____
antithrombin III DVT enoxaparin
73
patients bleed, coagulation cascade active, PT and PTT prolonged, low fibrinogen and increased FDP = not bleeding, only platelets activated, normal PT and PTT, normal fibrinogen increased partial thromboplastin time, everything else normal =
DIC (gram neg. rod infection) TTP- HUS (fever, neuro, acute renal failure, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia) vWF disease
74
high peak gamma globulin region on serum protein electrophoresis w/ M protein = presents w/
multiple myeloma anemia, lytic bone lesions, renal insufficiency, hypercalcemia, amyloid deposition
75
HbS aggregates in a _____ state, low ____, and high ______ state
deoxygenated pH 2.3 BPG
76
Mediterranean, mild anemia, microcytic, increased hemoglobin A2, hypochromia, poikilocytes (spherocytes + target cells), asymptomatic = caused by mutations in
beta thalassemia minor defective transcription, processing, and translation of betaglobin mRNA
77
young man, recurrent jaundice, pallor, icterus, mild splenomegaly no hepatomegaly or LAD, inc lactate dehydrogenase, low Hg, RBCs release hemoglobin in hypotonic solution w/ glycerol (osmotic fragility) = treatment? complications??
hereditary spherocytosis splenectomy pigmented gallstones, aplastic crises from parvovirus B19
78
CD4 virus CD21 virus Erythrocyte P antigen
HIV gp120 EBV gp 350 Parvovirus B19
79
glutamic acid to valine substition at position 6 in beta globin gene = missense mutation
sickle cell GAG to GTG in DNA strand
80
warfarin inhibits ______ which can lead to skin and fat necrosis seen in the first few days of warfarin therapy
protein C and S
81
high dose opioid treatments in metastatic cancer commonly require _______ and _____ in order to maintain bowel regularity
adequate fluid intake and daily laxatives
82
proliferation signals activate _____ which results in hyperphosphorylation of the _____ protein, inactivating it. When this protein is inactive, cells are allowed to transition from G1 to S, thus increasing activity of dihydrofolate reducatse and DNA polymerase
CDK4 Rb
83
new onset neurologic symptoms, hemolytic anemia w/ schistocytes, thrombocytopenia, acute kidney injury = deficiency of ____ leads to large uncleaved cWF multimers treat with
thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura ADAMTS13 plasma exchange therapy
84
metalloproteinases are zinc containing enzymes that _____ the _______ of the basement membrane, allowing tumor cell invasion
degrade ECM
85
extramedullary hematopoiesis in a child causes a range of skeletal problems such as _______ and is due to ______ such as B thalassemia major
maxillary overgrowth (chipmunk facies) chronic hemolytic anemia
86
large, binucleated cells w/ an owls eye appearance are called _____ cells and are diagnostic of _____
Reed Steinberg Hodgkin lymphoma
87
excessive bruising since childhood with abnormal platelet aggregometry and a defect in platelet glycoprotein surface receptor = normally binds = inheritence treated w/
Glanzmann thrombasthenia fibrinogen AR defect in GP IIB/IIIa abciximab
88
isotype switching occurs in the ______ of lymph nodes and requires interaction of the _______ receptor on B cells with the ______ ligand on activated T cells
germinal centers CD40 CD40
89
hepcidin is synthesized by ________ and acts as the central regulator of _______ homeostasis
hepatic parenchymal cells iron
90
when the body mounts a response against _________, a bug that shares antigens with human erythrocytes, it also lyses RBCs, leading to anemia. These antibodies are called cold agglutinins. Once the _______ has faded, the anemia resolves
mycoplasma pneumoniae immune response
91
fatigue, fever, return from central Africa, multiple small rings in RBCs on Giemsa staining = multiple small rings called treatment of choice required for P. vivax and P ovale?
Plasmodium falciparum malaria trophozoites chloroquines: mefloquine for resistant bugs primaquine due to dormant liver forms
92
sudden onset abdominal pain, ascites, anemia, reticulocytosis, thrombocytopenia, CD55 and 59, DVT or HVT = gene = CD55 and 59 role
paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria PIGA complement inhibitors: disease due to complement activation
93
eczema, recurrent infections, thrombocytopenia with petechiae, purpura, epistaxis in a child, B and T lymphocyte deficiency = inheritance = susceptible to = treatment is =
Wiskott-Aldrich X linked encapsulated organisms HLA matched bone marrow transplant
94
mutation at RCC before AUG - methionine start codon leads to a block at
initiation of translation
95
Beta thalassemia results in ________ _________ anemia due to decrease beta globin chain synthesis. unpaired _____ chain precipitate within red cells and cause membrane ______, leading to extravascular hemolysis and ineffective erythropoiesis
microcytic anemia alpha damage
96
DVT, given a drug that increases PT and aPTT but does not effect thrombin time, what drugs (2)? Mechanism? drugs that prolong thrombin time?
apixaban, rivaroxaban direct factor Xa inhibitors unfractionated heparin, direct thrombin inhibitors (dabigatran)
97
______ is the mitochondrial enzyme that activates caspases and indirectly brings about cell death through intrinsic pathway apoptosis
cytochrome C
98
young african american boy, exertional dyspnea, acute chest syndrome, bone pain = mutation
sickle cell anemia point mutation : valine substituted for glutamic acid
99
chemotherapy, followed by progressive hematuria and suprapubic tenderness due to _______ causative agent is nitrogen mustards such as metabolized by the kidneys into prevented by
hemorrhagic cystitis cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide acrolein mesna and sulfhydrl compound
100
black pigmented stones with low cholesterol content arise from conditions that increase _________ in bile such as _______ in sickle cell, thalassemia, and hereditary spherocytosis
unconjugated bilirubin chronic hemolysis
101
the most common trigger for DIC in pregnancy is the release of _______ from an injured ________ into the maternal circulation. Presents with bleeding from incision sites, IV sites, and mucosal surfaces due to rapid consumption of clotting factors and platelets
Tissue Factor Placenta
102
the change in color of bruise from dark blue to greenish in color is caused by activity of what enzyme?
heme oxygenased: heme to biliverdin (green)
103
persistent, fluctuating LAD who may have had an unrelated pharyngitis treated with antibiotics on initial presentation most likely has translocation
follicular lymphoma t(14;18)
104
angiogenesis of a hepatic hemangioma is primarily driven by ______ and ______
VEGF and FGF2
105
pyruvate kinase deficiency causes ______ anemia, and splenic ______ results from increased work of the splenic parenchyma to remove the deformed RBCs from cirulation
hemolytic red pulp hyperplasia
106
night sweats, weight loss, cough, apical pulmonary granulomas = cells that cause lesions = surface marker
secondary tuberculosis macrophages CD14
107
fresh frozen plasma rapidly reverses ______ effects whereas vitamin K requires time for clotting factor re synthesis
warfarins
108
hydroxyurea increase _____ synthesis by an unknown mechanism and is used to treat _______ patients with frequent pain crises _______ channel blockers hinder the efflux of K and H2O from the cell, preventing ________ of RBCs and reducing polymerization of ______
HbF Sickle cell anemia Gardos dehydration HbS
109
different mRNA sizes, same gene, due to
alternative splicing
110
recurrent epigastric pain, hepatomegaly, macrocytic anemia, pancreatic calcifications = anemia is due to
chronic alcoholic pancreatitis diminished thymidine synthesis: megaloblastosis
111
carbon tetrachloride poisoning causes fatty change and hepatocyte necorsis via _____ injury
free radical
112
electrophoresis shows a single band that migrates less than HbA and HbS band in an African American boy with easy fatiguability: indicative of _____ that is caused by a ________ mutation that results in a glutamate residue being substituted by ______ in the beta globin chain
HbC missense lysine
113
HA, weakness, aquagenic pruritus, facial plethora, and splenomegaly, along with PUD and gouty arthritis = due to a mutation in ______, which is a cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase
polycythemia vera JAK2
114
individuals who demonstrate increased activity of ______ are more susceptible to developing chemical induced cancers
P450 cytochrome microsomal oxygenase
115
young female with new onset of thrombocytopenia, ecchymoses, petechiae, mucosal bleeding, and no other obvious causes = due to
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura autoimmune destruction of platelets
116
child with cystic fibrosis, seizure, and confirmed intracranial hemorrhage due to decreased _______ as a result of ________ deficiency, a fat soluble vitamin coagulation factors affected
gamma carboxylation Vitamin K II, VII, IX, X
117
hypochromic, microcytic anemia is most commonly due to ________, especially in the presence of _______ loss
iron deficiency occult blood
118
venous thromboembolism arises due to the ______ triad of __________, _________. and ________
virchow endothelial injury venous stasis hypercoaguable state
119
cytokeratin is a commonly used immunohistochemical marker of _____ cell carcinomas
epithelial
120
HER2 oncogene encodes for a _______ glycoprotein with intrinsic ________ activity and is a family of ________. Overexpression is associated witha worse prognosis and an increased risk of disease recurrence. Treatment is a monoclonal antibody against HER2 called _______
transmembrane tyrosine kinase epidermal growth factor receptors trastuzumab
121
treatment using a double stranded RNA molecule consisting of 20-30 base pairs = interferes w/ =
small interfering RNA and microRNA mRNA translation
122
tumors harboring activating mutations in _____ are resistant to chemotherapy with _______ such as cetuximab and panitumumab
KRAS anti EGFR drugs
123
rivaroxaban, apixaban = fondaparinux = argatroban, bivalirudin, and dabigatran =
DIrect Factor Xa inhibitors INidrect Factor Xa inhibitor Direct Thrombin inhibitors
124
many transfusions, frontal bossing, HSM, jaundice, liver biopsy showing kupffer cells containing coarse, yellowish brown cytoplasmic granules composed of_____. This is due to______
hemosiderin iron overload from transfusion therapy
125
cachexia and muscle wasting are due to _____ in a paraneoplastic setting
TNF-alpha
126
prognosis of colorectal adenocarcinoma is directly related to __________, not the ________
stage of invasion anaplastic grade
127
fever, pharyngitis, LAD in young adult is suggestive of _________ caused by? associated with
infectious mononucleosis EBV nasopharyngeal carcinoma
128
rifampin, phenobarbital, and phenytoin are universal enhancers of ________ and decrease the effect of _____ in contrast, cimetidine, amiodarone, and TMP-SMX ______ _______ metabolism, increasing risk of bleeding
CP450 warfarin inhibit warfarin
129
people with down syndrome are at an increased risk of developing
ALL and AML
130
if chemotherapy induced emesis is not refractory after -setron use, _______ tend to be effective. The drugs in this category are (2)
neurokinin 1 receptor antagonists aprepitant, fosaprepitant
131
recurrent infections, pallor (anemia), and ecchymoses with a peripheral blood smear that shows cells with Auer rods = translocation
APML M3 t15;17 RARa/PML
132
aggregates of packed follicles, LAD in the cervical area = translocation effect
follicular lymphoma t14;18 BCL-2
133
DiGeorge syndrome is caused by maldevelopment of the ____ and ___ pharyngeal pouch derivatives. This causes a lack of development of the thymus, an extreme deficiency of mature T lymphocytes, leading to poor development of ________ ______
3rd and 4th lymph node paracortex
134
____ and leukemoid reaction can have presentations similar to leukocytosis. Leukemoid reaction has an ________ alkaline phosphatase level, while CML has a ______ level and an increase in precursor _______. Definitive diagnosis of CML is depending on _______
CML elevated decreased myelocytes philidelphia chromosome, BCR-ABL, t(9;22)
135
cells that express both CD4 and CD8 are classified as
immature cortical T cells
136
fibrinolytics such as _____ may cause reperfusion arrhythmias that are benign during arterial reopening.
tPA, reteplase, tenecteplase
137
erythrocytes use ______ as the major pathway to generate energy as they do not have ______
glycolysis mitochondria
138
________ syndrome in a patient with small cell or _____ lung cancer, and is a result of a paraneoplastic syndrome involving ectopic production of _____ by tumor cells
Cushing oat cell ACTH
139
TB treatment, ________ inhibits pyridoxine phosphokinase, leading to _________ (b6) deficiency. Pyridoxines active form is the cofactor for ________, which catalyzes the rate limiting step of heme synthesis. Inhibition of this step can result in ___________
isoniazid pyridoxine delta aminolevulinate synthase sideroblastic anemia
140
atrophic gastritis can result in _______ and elevated methymalonic acid levels. The _______ count increases dramatically once ______ replacement therapy is initiated, but normalize quickly
vitamin b12 deficiecy due to inadequate intrinsic factor production reticulocyte b12 replacement
141
G6PD is the rate limiting step of glucose 6 phosphate to 6 phosphogluconate. Deficiency results in bite cells and weakness, malaise, fatigue, and anemia after oxidative stress, such as treatment with (3)
sulfonamides antimalarials antibiotics
142
neuro deficit and hypersegmented neutrophils = no neuro deficits but still megaloblastic anemia
B12 folate
143
desmopressin can alleviate bleeding through _______ release of _______
endothelial vWF
144
only ________ heparin is able to bind both antithrombin and thrombin to allow antithrombin to inactivate thrombin.
unfractionated
145
excessive bleeding + hemarthroses = inheritence = phenotypically normal parents, probability of a female sibling with give birth to affected child is
hemophilia A or B X recessive 1/8
146
somnolence, lethargy, oliguria, diarrhea that become blood, elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine, peripheral blood smear show fragmented erythrocytes = due to =
HUS EHEC from undercooked beef
147
_________ can lead to both dose dependent cytopenia and dose independent aplastic anemia
chlorophenicol
148
flushing, watery diarrhea, bronchospasm, elevated 5-HIAA = due to =
carcinoid syndrome carcinoid metastatic to liver
149
pancytopenia post infection with no LAD or splenomegaly = infectious causes diangosis
aplastic anemia EBV, parvo B19 hypocellular bone marrow
150
individual subunits of hemoglobin similar to _______ and shows a ______ shift on dissociation curve
myoglobin left
151
Kaposis sarcoma presents with a blue violet or brownish skin plaque in ______ + patients and is due to _________
HIV HHV8
152
______________ which is modified to resist activated protein C and results in a hypercoaguable state and predisposes to DVT
Factor V Leiden
153
hypophosphorylated retinoblastoma protein is most likely to
prevent G1/S cell cycle transition
154
___________ attacks are characterized by abdominal pain and vomiting, reddish brown urine, and neuropsych symptoms. Treatment consists of IV glucose/dextrose or heme preparations which downregulate _______ activity
acute intermittent porphyria ALA synthase
155
________ lymphoma is characterized by starry sky microscopic appearance. Translocation of _______ on t____, and functions as a trascription activator
Burkitts C-myc 8;14
156
bilobed or double nuclei and inclusion like eosinophilic nucleoli = diagnostic of
Reed-Sternberg cell Hodgkin lymphoma
157
kid with pancytopenia, HSM, distended macrophages with wrinkled tissue paper appearance = inheritence deficiency in
Gacher disease autosomal recessive B glucocerebrosidases
158
Beta globin with impaired ionic interaction between beta subunit and 2,3 bisphosphoglycerate is most similar to
HbF
159
patients with sickle cell trait have relative protection from _______
malaria caused by plasmodium falciparum
160
carbon monoxide ________ binds to hemoglobin with a much greater affinity than oxygen
competitively
161
Ig___ cannot cross placenta, while Ig___ can
IgM IgG
162
undifferentiated (anaplasti) tumors bear ______ to tissue of origin
no resemblence
163
abnormal ______ is seen in patients with chronic ____ and ________
bleeding time kidney disease uremia
164
tumor with cystic and solid component in cerebellum in a child is most lilkely a completely solid tumor is most likely =
pilocytic astrocytoma medulloblastoma
165
bone metastases are either ______, _______, or mixed. Increased uptake on radionuclide bone imaging is indicative of _________. multiple myeloma, non small cell lung cancer, NHL, RCC, and melanoma tend to be ________ Prostate cancer, small cell lung cancer, HL tend to be ________ GI and breast cancer tend to be _________
osteoblastic, osteolytic osteoblastic osteolytic osteoblastic mixed
166
HER2 is a _______ kinase receptor
tyrosine
167
sore throat, malaise, LAD, myalgias, splenomegaly in young = cell that attacks EBV in IM?
IM CD8 CTL activated
168
patients with ______ present with lifelong mucosal bleeding, heavy menstruation, normal platelet levels, but prolonged bleeding time due to impaired platelet functioning
von Willebrand disease
169
von Willebrand factor promotes ________ by binding to and crosslinking __________ with exposed ______. It also functions as a protective carrier protein for ______
platelet adhesion platelet glycoproteins GpIb collagen factor VIII
170
prostate cancer is usually _______ dependent. In combination with long acting gonadotropin releasing hormone agonsts, ________ is added and acts as a ___________ of testosterone receptors
testosterone dependent Flutamide competitive inhibitor
171
ALL is the most common malignancy of childhood. _____ ALL often presents with a _______ that can cause respiratory symptoms, dysphagia, and SVC syndrome
T cell mediastinal mass
172
_________, or fragmented RBCs suggest ____________ such as HUS, TTP, DIC, or mechanical damage (prosthetic valve). In childhood, HUS is often preceded by ______. Coaguation studies (Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time) are normal in _______ and _______ but abnormal in ______
schistocytes microangiopathic hemolytic anemia bloody diarrhea HUS, TTP DIC
173
___________ is the most common disorder of porphyrin (heme) synthesis and is caused by ________ defciency, and manifests as a vesicle and blister on sun exposed areas along with edema, pruritus, pain, and erythema. exacerbated by ____, smoking, halogenated hydrocarbons, hep C, HIV
porphyria cutanea tarda - late step porphyria uroporphyringoen decarboxylase (UROD) alchol
174
_______ prevents chromosomal shortening
telomerase
175
____________ syndrome is characterized by dysphagia from ________ formation and ________ deficiency anemia. Patients also exhibit koilonychia or spoon shaped nails and a shiny red tongue
Plummer Vinson esophageal web iron
176
prolonged bleeding and hemoarthosis = desmospressin can be used for treatment of mild hemophilia A by increasing the circulating level of ______
hemophilia Factor VIII
177
methotrexate competitively inhibits ______, which causes this intermediate to accumulate intracellularly
dihydrofolate reducatse dihydrofolate
178
G6PD presents in a similar way to __________ deficiency
glutathione reductase
179
low immunoglobulins and recurrent infections is indicative of ________. A positive response to candida antigens indicates that ________ is intact. In this disorder, the ______ and primary lymphoid follicles doe not form due to an absence of B cells. This condition results from a mutation in _____
X linked agammaglobulinemia T cell function germinal centers bruton tyr kinase
180
__________ is a significant adverse of effect of ganciclovir and is increased with co adminstration of zidovudine or TMP SMX
neutropenia
181
Auer rods are found in blast cells of ______ but not in _____. More mature cells and fewer blasts are found in ______
AML ALL CML
182
HIV with diffuse medium sized lymphocytes with basophilic cytoplasm and high proliferation index (high Ki67 fraction) = due to = translocation
burkitt lymphoma EBV t8;14 c-myc
183
hemophilia due to decreased levels of ______ or _______. The addition of _______ to the blood of a patient with hemophilia results in clotting
factor VIII Factor IX thrombin
184
painless gross hematuria with lack of other symptoms = usual form? most likely prognostic factor?
bladder cancer urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma depth of invasion into the muscular layer
185
adhesion of cells to the ECM involves _______ mediated binding to ________, collagen, and laminin
integrin fibronectin
186
drug used for heparin reversal
protamine
187
constitutive active tyrosine kinase lymphoma =
CML: BCR-ABL
188
BCRA1 and BCRA1 gene mutations are associated with ___________ and are involved in _______
hereditary breast cancer DNA repair
189
most common opportunistic mycosis (fever, dyspnea, malaise while immunosuppressed) is show ______ on light microscopy
candida albicans yeasts and pseudohyphae
190
the _______ is the site of ribsomal subunit maturation and assembly and houses ______
nucleolus RNA polymerase I
191
polycythemia vera, essential thrombocytosis, and primary myelofibrosis are the often have mutations in
chronic myeloproliferative disorders JAK2
192
severe fatigue, HSM, early satiety, bone marrow fibrosis =
primary myelofibrosis
193
AL amyloidosis is associated with
multiple myelomas
194
DNA synthesis can occur only in the ____ direction _______ are short stretches of DNA that form the discontinous synthesis of DNA on the lagging strand
5 --> 3 Okazaki fragments
195
alcoholic with neutrophils that have hypersegmented nuclei due to ______ deficiency
folic acid
196
iron deficiency anemia is associated with _____ ferritin, ________ total iron binding capacity (transferrin) and _______ ______ RBCs
decreased increased microcytic hypochromic
197
HUS presents with ______ diarrhea, hemolyic anemai with schistocytes, ______, AKI, and elevated ________
bloody thrombocytopenia elevated serum indirect bilirubin
198
the process of ______ in T cell maturation is essential for eliminating T cells that bind to self MHC or self antigens with high affinity. THis occurs in the _______
negative selection thymic medulla
199
intravascular hemolytic anemias are characterized by decreased____ and increased _______ and _______
serum haptoglobin LDH bilirubin
200
splenic infarcts in SCD are due to
microvascular occlusion
201
monoclonal lymphocytic proliferation is strong evidence of
malignancy
202
methotrexate and 5-FU effectively inhibit
thymidylate formation
203
heparin induced thrombocytopenia is treat with ______ such as argatroban
direct thrombin inhibitors
204
the most common causes of thrombocytopenia in hospitalize patients is
heparin
205
back pain not relieved with rest or NSAIDs =
metastatic cancer
206
nitrites are oxidizing agents used to treat ____ poisoning by inducing methemoglobinemia during occupational exposure from fumes
cyanide
207
Squares on a pedigree are circles are
males females
208
enlarging jaw mass from east africa =
Burkitt lymphoma
209
ristocertin aggregation test will show _______ aggregation of platelets in vW disease
decreased
210
Irinotecan and topotecan inhibit etoposide inhibits
topoisomerase I II
211
conditions that increase RBC turnover rate such as ____ can cause falsely low HbA1c levels
Beta thalassemia trait
212
_______ leukemia is a indolent B cell neoplasm found in middle aged men and characterized by bone marrow failure, pancytopenia, and massive splenomegaly. Presents with dry tap, lymphocytes with ____ and TRAP+
Hairy cell cytoplasmic projections
213
BCL2 normally inhibits
cell death cascade
214
pure RBC aplaisa is associated with (3)
thymoma, lymphocytic leukemias, and parvo B19 infection
215
thrombotic occlusion of microvasculature with skin necrosis following initiation of warfarin therapy due to
Protein C deficiency
216
HbS promotes _____ interaction among Hb moleclues and results in HbS polymerization and erythrocyte sickling
hydrophobic