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FOS > General Principles > Flashcards

General Principles Flashcards

1
Q

HOX genes encode _________ that play an important role in the segmental organization of the embryo along the cranio-caudal axis

A

transcription regulations/factors

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2
Q

It takes _____ half life intervals to eliminate 75% of a drug. T1/2 =

a drug is almost completely eliminated after _____ half life intervals

A

2

(0.7xVd)/CL

5

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3
Q

_______ is the probability of not having a disease when the test result is negative

A

negative predicative value

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4
Q

drugs administered orally are subject to _________ while drugs administered anally are capable of partially bypassing this as a portion of rectal blood flow enters the systemic circulation directly, therefore these drugs will have a higher bioavailability if they typically undergo ________

A

first pass metabolism

extensive first pass metabolism

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5
Q

RT-PCR is used to detect and quantify levels of _________

A

mRNA

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6
Q

________ is the most abundant amino acid in collagen which occupies every 3rd amino acid sequence within each alpha chain

A

glycine

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7
Q

culture on antibiotic agar is called

A

selective media

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8
Q

________ is a rare AR condition caused by mutations in the BLM gene encoding _______, which unwinds DNA during replication. Patients present with growth retardation, facial anomalies, photosensitive skin rash, and immunodeficiency

A

Bloom syndrome

helicase

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9
Q

transport mechanisms using protein carriers are able to be ________, which shows a plateau curve on transport graph

A

saturated

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10
Q

________ is the single most important measure to reduce the risk of transmission of hospital acquired infections

A

hand hygiene

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11
Q

a ________ is defined as a preventable medical error that resulted in delayed diagnosis due to failure to follow evidence based best practice guidelines

A

preventable adverse event

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12
Q

DNA binding proteins include TFs (myc, CREB), ___________(Testosterone, Progesterone), fat soluble vitamin receptors (Vit D, Retinoic acid), and DNA transcription and replication proteins

A

steroid receptors

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13
Q

Risk of wrong site surgery can be reduced by requiring ___________ (usually a nurse and physician) to independently confirm they have the correct patient, site, and procedure

A

dual identifiers

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14
Q

____________ make eukaryotic DNA replication quick and effective despite large size

A

multiple origins of replication

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15
Q

competitive inhibitors change ______ and shift ______

Noncompetitive inhibitors change _______ and shift _____

A

ED50, right

Emax, down

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16
Q

DNA replication occurs in the _____ on both strands. In contrast to the continuous synthesis of the leading strand, the lagging strand synthesis occurs ________ and is composed of ___________. This process requires reptitive action of DNA primase and ligase

A

5’ -> 3’ direction

discontinuously

Okazaki fragments

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17
Q

during continuous infusion of a drug metabolized by first order kinetics, the steady state concentration is reached in ______ half lives

A

4-5

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18
Q

________ is a measure of the maximum pharmacodynamic effect achievable with a drug

_______ refers to the dose of drug that is required to produce a given effect

A

efficacy

potency

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19
Q

a key step in the ubiquin proteasome pathway is controlled by ________, which recognizes specific proteins and attach a ubiquitin tag. The proteins are then degraded to an appropriate size and coupled with the MHC I in the ER. Finally they are presented on the cell surface for recognition by ______

A

ubiquitin ligase

CD8+ CTL

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20
Q

lesions on the __________ cause superficial inguinal LAD, whereas lesions on the _________ are more likely to cause LAD in both the popliteal and inguinal areas.

The glans penis and penile urethra drain via the _________

A

medial foot

lateral foot

deep inguinal lymph nodes

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21
Q

flushed skin and dilated pupils (mydriasis) results from _______ blockade

A

muscarinic receptor

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22
Q

an increase in the number of trinucleotide repeats on the HTT gene is associated with _________. The larger number of repeats, the _________ of the disease. Trinucleotide expansion occurs more frequently during paternal transmission, causing a genetic phenomenon called ________

A

Huntingtons

earlier onset

anticipation

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23
Q

_______ describes instances where multiple phenotypic manifestations result from a single genetic mutation. Most syndromic genetic illnesses exhibit this.

A

pleiotrophy

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24
Q

the ______ is a promoter region that binds transcription factors and RNA polymerase II during the initiation of transcription. It is located approx. 25 bases upstream from the beginning of the coding region

A

TATA box

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25
Q

__________ may be located upsteram, downstream, or within a transcribed gene

A

enhancers and silencers

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26
Q

no change in radioactivity with increasing antigen concentrations on radioassy indicates

A

no epitopes shared

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27
Q

_________ play an important role in mRNA translation regulation and mRNA degradation. Intron splicing, 5’ capping, poly A tail addition all occur in the ______

A

cytoplasmic P bodies

nucleus

28
Q

in prokaryotes, _______ has 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity, which removes RNA primers created by RNA primase, in addition to 5’ to 3’ polymerase and 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activities.

A

DNA polymerase I

29
Q

in the presence of oxygen, pyruvate produced during glycolysis is converted by _______ to acetyl CoA

in inadequate oxygen, pyruvate is converted to lactate by _______, leading to lactic acidosis

A

pyruvate dehydrogenase

lactate dehydrogenase

30
Q

a highly lipophilic IV drug will be rapidly distributed to organs with high blood flow (brain, liver, kidneys, lungs), then redistributed to tissues with lower perfusion (_________, fat, bone)

A

skeletal muscle

31
Q

UAA, UAG, UGA are

A

stop codons

32
Q

hypobaric hypoxia due to high elevation presents with _____ respiratory rate with development of _______, which is compensated by renal excretion of HCO3 within 24-48 hours

A

increased

respiratory alkalosis

33
Q

the RER is covered with ribosomes and is involved in the transfer of proteins to ________

A

the cell membrane and Extracellular space

34
Q

increased _________ causes activation of phosphorylase kinase, stimulating glycogen phosphorylase to increase glycogenolysis

A

intracellular Ca+

35
Q

Isoniazid is metabolized by ________. THe presence of fast and slow _________ within the same population results in a bimodal distribution of the speed of isoniazid metabolism

A

acetylation

acetylators

36
Q

the __________ is most likely to bind to deoxythymidine residues fixed to the latex beads

A

poly A tail of mature mRNA

37
Q

the _____ tail of tRNA serves as the amino acid binding site.

A

3’ CCA

38
Q

in AR disease, an unaffected individual with unaffected parents but has an affected sibling has a ______ chance of being a carrier

A

2/3

39
Q

________ alter the reading frame of the genetic code, dramatically changing the protein structure and often resulting in the formation of a premature stop codon

A

frameshift mutations

40
Q

individual differences in phenotype of ______ alter treatment efficacy and drug toxicity

A

CYP450 enzymes

41
Q

_________ detect target mRNA in a sample and assess gene expression

A

northern blots

42
Q

high plasma protein binding, high MW, high charge, hydrophilicity result in

A

low Vd (3-5)

43
Q

_______ recognizes stop codons and terminates protein synthesis

A

releasing factors

44
Q

EBV is typically transmitted from an asymptomatic virus shedder to a susceptible individual through _________

A

saliva transfer

45
Q

first gen histamines, alpha blockers, TCAs, benzos, antipsychotics, most antiarrhythmics, and skeletal muscle relaxants, according to the Beers criteria, should be used with caution in

A

geriatric patients

46
Q

when phenylephrine binds to an alpha 1 receptor on vascular sm muscle cells, the alpha subunit of G(q) activates ________, which breaks down PIP2 into IP3 and DAG. IP3 increases intracellular Ca++, which also activates ________

A

PLC

PKC

47
Q

________ slow down a reaction, but do not change Vmax

A

competitive inhibitors

48
Q

the _______ states that the first two nucleotide positions on the mRNA codon require traditional base pairing, whereas the third _______ nucleotide position may undergo nontraditional base pairing

A

Wobble hypothesis

wobble

49
Q

________ have long telomeres due to high telomerase activity allowing them to proliferate indefinitely in a controlled manner

A

stem cells

50
Q

________ refers to the phenomenon in which an offsprings genes are expressed in a parent specific manner. This is caused by DNA methylation, an epigenetic process in which genes can be silenced by attaching methyl groups to cytosine residues in the DNA molecule

A

genomic imprinting

51
Q

pyridoxal phosphate (vitmain B6) serves as a cofactor in _____________________ reactions

______ is a cofactor for carboxylase enzymes

_______ is essential for nucleic acid synthesis

______ forms NAD+ and NADP+

_______ is used in FMN and FAD reactions

________ is cofactor for dehydrogenase enzymes

A

amino acid transamination and decarboxylation

Biotin B7

folic acid B9

Niacin B3

Riboflavin B2

Thiamine B1

52
Q

transmission of mitochondrial inherited diseases occurs through affected ________ and never through _______

A

females

males

53
Q

_______ blotting is used to detect DNA binding proteins such as c-Jun

A

Southwestern blotting

54
Q

the ______ and TATA box are promoters of tanscription

A

CAAT

55
Q

Trisomy 21, unbalanced Robertsonian translocations, and _______ are all causes of Down Syndrome

A

mosaicism

56
Q

high lipophilicity = _________ metabolism

A

hepatic

57
Q

________ is a process by which a single gene can code for various uniqu proteins by selectively including or exlcuding different DNA coding regions (exons) into mature mRNA

A

Alternative splicing

58
Q

_______ is an arrangement in which a payer pays a fixed, predetermined fee to provide all services required by a patient.

A

Capitation

59
Q

the total resistance for a group of vessels arranged in parallel is equal to _____

A

1/TPR = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 + … 1/Rn

60
Q

M6P residues ensure transit from the Golgi to the

A

lysosome

61
Q

________ is the failure of chromosome pairs to separate properly during cell division

A

nondysjunction

62
Q

Nucleosomes are composed of DNA wrapped around a core of 8 histone proteins = 2x(H2A, H2B, H3, H4). ____ is located outside of the histone core and helps package nucleosomes into more compact structures

A

H1

63
Q

all 3 _______ can remove mismatched nucleotides via their 3’-5’ exonuclease proofreading activity

A

prokaryotic DNA polymerases

64
Q

________ refers to coinfection of a host cell by 2 viral strains, resulting in progeny virions that contain nucleocapsid proteins from one strain and the unchanged parental genome of another strain

A

Phenotypic mixing

65
Q

in ________ a constant amount of drug is metabolized per unit of time, independent of serum levels

A

zero order kinetics

66
Q

_______ neutralizes ROS

A

superoxide dismutase

67
Q

_______ is condensed chromatin composed of heavily methlyated DNA in tight association with deacetylated histones, and has low transcriptional activity. In contrast, ______ is loosely arranged and exhibits a high level of transcriptional activity

A

heterochromatin

euchromatin

FOS (20 decks)

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