Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FOS > Female Reproduction > Flashcards

Female Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

patient with many previous first trimester losses, uterus that is larger than expected for gestation age, >100,000 Beta hCG, multiple small cysts uterine =

______has ____ fetal structures and typically only has paternal DNA resulting in dipliod ________ DNA due to fertilized empty ovum by single sperm

_____ molar pregnancies have 69 XXX or 69XXY and contains fetal tissue and normal placenta villi intermixed with hydropic villi. results from fertilization of ovum by 2 sperm

A

molar pregnancy

complete mole, no, 46XX

partial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ovarian cancer has three histologic types: Epithelial germ cell, and sex cord stroma

Epithelial: Serous (bilateral, psammoma bodies) or Mucinous (pseudomyxoma peritonei, mucin cells) cystadenocarcinomas associated with increased levels of _________. Risk factors include age, nulliparity

Germ cell: dysgerminoma (fried egg cells, adolescents, increased ______ and LDH levels) or Endodermal sinus yolk sac (increased ______, aggressive, schiller duval bodies resemble glomeruli)

Sex cord Stroma: granulosa (increased ______, inhibin, call Exner bodies, coffee bean nuclei) or sertoli-leydig (increased __________)

A

CA-125

Beta hCG, AFP

Estrogen, Androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

prostaglandin E1 agonist =

progesterone and glucocorticoid antagonist

folic acid antagonist

all used for pregnancy ______

A

misoprostol

mifepristone

methotrexate

termination 1st tri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

tamoxife and raloxifene are ______ that competitively inhibit estrogen binding with mixed agonist/antagonist action and are indicated in the prevention of breast cancer in high risk patients. Tamoxifen is an adjuvant treatment of breast cancer, while raloxifene is used for postmenopausal __________. Adverse effects include hot flashes, VTE, and ___________ (tamoxifen only)

A

SERM

osteoporosis

endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the secretory phase of the menstrual cycle occurs from days _______. Progesterone from the corpus luteum causes the uterine glands to coil and secrete glycogen rich mucus. The stroma is completely traversed by tortuous spiral arteries that extend from the deep layers of the uterine lumen. THe ________ is the first half of the cycle, during this time estrogen stimulates the proliferation of the stratum _______

A

15-28

Proliferative

functionale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

anovulation is a common infertility cause. Menotropin is a treatment that acts like FSH and triggers the formationation of a dominant ovarian follicle. Ovulation is then induced by administration of hCG, which mimics the _______

A

LH surge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_______ is the primary hormone responsible for stimulating the endometrium so that it is suitable for implantation. Withdrawal causes endometrial cells to undergo ________, resulting in menstrual bleeding

A

Progesterone

apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

small, underdeveloped ovaries composed primarily of connective tissue with no follicles =

additional findings include coarctation of the aorta, horseshoe kidney, _______ valve

A

Turner syndrome

bicuspid aortic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

menopause occurs on average at age 51 and is diagnosable retrospectively after 12 months of amenorrhea. An elevated serum _____ confirms diagnosis

A

FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

HPV strains __ and ___ cause cervical, vaginal, vulvar and anal neoplasia and lead to overexpression of oncogenes E6 and E7. CIN precedes SCC. The most significant risk factor for CIN is a history of multiple sexual partners and a ______________

A

16, 18

lack of barrier protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

hirsutism, acne, ovarian dysfunction, insulin resistance, obesity =

exhibits enlarged ____
treat with weight loss, combination hormonal contraceptives, and metformin

patients who desire fertility can be treated with Clomiphene, which is an __________ that increases gonadotropic production

A

PCOS

ovaries

Estrogen receptor modulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

oral contraceptives, multiparity, and breastfeeding are ________ against epithelial ovarian cancer by decreasing the frequency of ovulation

A

protective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

E6 and E7 of HPV inhibit p53 and Rb respectively, which are _______ proteins

A

cell cylce regulatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

teenage, non sexually active female with normal secondary sex characteristics, primary amenorrhea with cyclic abdominal or pelvic pain and a vaginal bulge or mass palpated anterior to the rectum =

A

imperforate hymen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a ______ is an immature squamous cell with dense, irregularly staining cytoplasm and perinuclear clearing, resulting in a halo. It has an enlarged pyknotic nucleus where the chromatin has condensed, giving it a raisinoid appearance

typical of ______, which is a _____ DNA non enveloped virus

A

Koilocyte

HPV, ds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

adnexal mass with hair follicles, sebaceous glands, skin, teeth =

A

mature teratoma (cell lines of more than 1 germ layer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

short, high arched palate, broad chest, widely spaced nipples, primary amenorrhea =

will show ________

due to

A

Turner syndrome

atrophic ovaries

meiotic nondysjunction (45X)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

purulent discharge, friable cervix, spotting, sexually active, + NAT =

treatment =

can result in PID which can cause ______ due to scarring of fallopian tubes

A

Gonococcal cervicitis

3rd gen cephalosporin + azithromycin or doxycycline

infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

candida vaginitis will exhibit __________ due to antibiotic suppression but a normal vaginal pH

A

decreased numbers of G+ bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

_____ facilitate communication and coordiantion between cells in labor contractions. Connexins are proteins that assemble these and their density incrases in the uterus before delivery in response to rising Estrogen levels

A

Gap Junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

vaginal burning, itching, urinary discomfort, green frothy vaginal discharge =

best diagnosed by

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

Saline microscopy (wet mount)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

pulsatile administration of GnRH stimulates FSH and LH release and is useful in the treatment of _______. Constant infusion of GnRH or a long acting analog ___________ FSH and LH release and subsequently suppresses gonadal function

A

infertility

suppresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the primary mechanism of action of combined oral contraceptives is reduction of ____________.

primary MOA of progestin only pill or levonorgestrel IUD (Locally acting progestins) is __________

the primary MOA of copper IUD is to create a chronic ________ response in uterus to impair sperm migration

A

gonadotropin secretion == inhibits ovulation

thicken cervical mucus to impair sperm penetration

cytotoxic inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

_________ is the most common cause of bloody nipple discharge and typically presents without breast masses or skin changes. This lesion has a fibrovascular core

A

intraductal papilloma

25
Q

Invasive breast carcinoma typically presents as an irregularly shaped adherent breast mass, most commonly in the upper outer quadrant. Malignant infiltration of _______ of the breast causes dimpling of the overlying skin

A

suspensory ligaments

26
Q

postpartum hemorrhage is an emergency. bilateral ligation of the _____ can decrease uterine blood flow and control the hemorrhage that is unresponsibe to medical management

A

internal iliac artery

27
Q

LH stimulates the ____ of the ovarian follicle to produce androgens. Aromatase within the follicles ________ subsequently converts these androgens to estradiol under FSH stimulation. The ______ serve as connective tissue support structure for the follcile

A

Theca interna

granulosa cells

theca externa cells

28
Q

the _________ contains the ovarian artery, vein, lymph, and nerves. The ovarian artery is the major blood supply to the ovary and must be _____ during an oophorectomy to prevent heavy bleeding

A

suspensory ligament of the ovary

ligated

29
Q

incomplete ______ of the paramesonephric ducts results in a bicornuate uterus characterized by an indentation in the center of the fundus

A

lateral fusion

30
Q

heavy and painful menstrual bleeding witha uniformly enlarged uterus =

characterized as ___________

A

adenomyosis

benign myometrial smooth muslce cell proliferation

31
Q

a _____ nerve block is performed by injecting an anesthetic intravaginally, medially to the ischial spine, through the sacrospinous ligament. This provide anesthesia to most of the perineum

A

pudendal

32
Q

______ using a donated ovum is the most promising means of achieving pregnancy in a woman with Turner Syndrome

A

In vitro fertilization

33
Q

posterior subserosal surface ________ cause irregular uterine enlargement and constipation in young women despite normal rectal tone. Patients can relieve this pressure by splinting to defecate

A

leiomyomas (fibroids)

34
Q

stress urinary incontinence is defined as involuntary urine loss with increased IAP. Kegel exercises target the ______ to improve support around the urethra and bladder

A

levator ani

35
Q

_______ or ectopic endometrium refers to the prescence of endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus. It may be asymptomatic or present with dysmenorrhea, abdominal pain with menses, dyspareunia, and infertility. Implants and adhesions involving the uterosacral ligament can result in a fixed _________ . Infiltration of the posterior cul de sac can result in _________.

A

Endometriosis

retroverted uterus

painful intercourse

36
Q

grayish white vaginal discharge with fishy odor =

anaerobic gram ____ rod

____cells on wet mount

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

variable

clue

37
Q

fever, abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, foul smelling discharge after pregnancy termination =

common offending pathogens are ______ and E coli

A

Septic abortion

S aureus

38
Q

patients with ________ have no upper vagina (short vagina) and variable uterine development. These patients are XX females with normal ovaries and secondary sexual characteristics

patient with ____ are 46XY males who are phenotypically female, have minimal axillary or pubic hair, and have crytorchid testes and no uterus or ovaries

primary amenorrhea, no secondary sexual characteristics, olfactory sensory defect =

males with tall stature, poor secondary sex development, atrophic testes, infertility =

females with normal development, tall stature, decreased IQ =

A

Mullerian aplasia

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

Kallmann

Klinefelter

47XXX

39
Q

the ____ can be injured during hysterectomy due to its close proximity to the uterine structures. It passes inferior and lateral to the uterine artery at the level of the internal cervical os prior to entering the bladder

A

ureter

40
Q

patients receiving __________ for Trichomonas vaginitis can develop disulfiram like reaction (face flushing, HA, nausea, vomit, abdominal cramps) shortly after alcohol consumption due to _________ accumulation

A

metronidazole

acetaldehyde

41
Q

______ is most frequently caused by N gonorrhoeae and C trachomatis. Severe disease or _________ treatment can result in fallopian tube scarring. Treatment must cover both organisms

A

PID

inadequate

42
Q

pregnant, abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, hemodynamic instability, previous STI =

due to

A

ruptured ectopic pregnancy

PID

43
Q

_______ tumors are sex cord stromal tumors of the ovary (yellow, gland like due to lipid content) that secrete estrogen and cause endometrial ______. Call Exner bodies (cells arranged in a microfollicular or rosette pattern) are seen.

A

Granulosa cell

hyperplasia

44
Q

_______ cell tumors of the ovary arise from the sex cord stroma and secrete testosterone. Typical features include a large ovarian mass and signs of virilization. Tubular structures lined by round cells and surrounded by fibrous stroma are seen on pathology

A

Sertoli Leydig

45
Q

______ are the most common benign tumor of the breast. Characterized by cellular or myxoid stroma that encircles and sometimes compresses epithelium glandular and cystic spaces

A

Fibroadenomas

46
Q

lymphedema bilateral and cystic hygromas (posterior neck mass in this patient) in a neonate is indicative of

A

Turner syndrome

47
Q

the ______ is a fibromuscular tissue between the urogenital and anal triangle. A midline episiostomy is a vertical incision from the posterior vaginal opening to the perineal body. It transects the vaginal submucosal tissue but not the external anal sphincter or the rectal mucosa

A

perineal body

48
Q

unintentional weight loss, early satiety, gastric thickening on CT, lower abdominal pressure and adnexal masses =

primarily a gastric cancer that has ______ to the ovaries. The cardinal feature is nests of __________ with large amounts of _____ displacing the nucleus

A

Krukenberg tumor

metastasized

signet ring cells

mucin

49
Q

_____ is common in the first several years after menarche and the last few years before menopause. It manifests with marked menstrual cycle ________

A

Anovulation

variability (spotting, spotting, heavy bleeding)

50
Q

________ increases the most after ovulation due to secretion from the corpus luteum

A

progesterone

51
Q

venous stasis and hypercoagulability from pregnancy in addition to endothelial damage from delivery can cause ovarian vein ________ in the peurperium. Symptoms include fever and localized abdominal or flank pain. Most of these are right sided and can extend to the ______, left sided will extend to the left renal vein

A

thrombosis

IVC

52
Q

fever and painful vesicular genital rash =

infects the ___________

A

HSV2

53
Q

____________ results in a mixture of normal and mutated somatic cells (some X, some XX), often leading to a milder form of disease

A

Somatic mosaicism

54
Q

high grade CIN is characterized by expansion of ___________

A

immature basal cells to the epithelial surface

55
Q

The____ is covered by simple cuboidal epithelium involved in surface repair or defects from ovulation

A

ovary

56
Q

PCOS patients are at risk for endometrial

A

hyperplasia/carcinoma

57
Q

HIV coinfection allows _____ to persist and enhances expression of oncogenes, increasing risk for cervical dysplasia/cancer

A

HPV

58
Q

Ovarian _____ typically involves twisting of the _________ often due to the weight of a large adnexal mass. The resulting occlusion of the blood and nerve supply to the ovary results in severe, acute pelvic pain and ovarian ischemia

A

torsion

infundibulopelvic

FOS (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions