Cardiology U WORLD Questions Flashcards

1
Q

harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic mumur, right sternal border, syncope, dizzy, angina, on exertion

Most common cause world wide?

Most common cause in US?

3rd cause

A

aortic stenosis

Rheumatic heart disease

calcific aortic valve disease

congenital bicuspid valve that calcifies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

malaise, SOB, dec appetite, decrescendo diastolic murmur at 3rd intercostal space LSB, low hemoglobin, + Strep gallolyticus

symptoms similar to?

associated w/??

A

Subacute bacterial endocarditis

Strep viridans SBE

Colonic neoplasia (25%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

multiple epidoses of syncope, young male, sedentary, family history of sudden cardiac death

genetic mutation in

leads to

results in

A

congenital prolonged QT syndrome

K+ channel protein (dec. outward K flow)

prolonged QT interval and action potential

Ventricular arrhythmias (TSD, Vtach), sudden cardiac death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

dyspnea, gen weakness, fatigue, palpitations, tingling and numbness in both lower limbs, bilateral edema, basal crackles, dec. touch and vibration, dec DTRs

Dry vs wet

A

Thiamine deficiency

Dry is peripheral neuropathy, wet include HF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

non nodal conduction

A

rapid upstroke Na+, plateau w/ Ca++, hyperpolarize w/ K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

two categorical variables association test

A

Chi square test for independence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

stroke symptoms + afib, normal valves =

most like formed in

treatment

A

thromboembolic event

left atrial appendage

long term anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

myocardial cells increase in size due to ischemia caused by?

A

Ca2++ accumulation and Na+ accumulation, draw water into cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

1st aortic arch

2nd aortic arch

3rd aortic arch

4th aortic arch

5th aortic arch

6th aortic arch

A

maxillary artery

stapedial artery

common and proximal internal carotid arteries

true aortic arch and subclavian (portion of)

obliterated

pulmonary arteries and ductus arteriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

vasodilation of skeletal muscles blood vessels during active exercise results in ______ despite inc sympathetic tone

sympathetic tone inc

A

dec in Total systemic vascular resistence

inc Caridac output and splanchnic vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

NAVEL femoral triangle

A

Nerve, artery, vein, empty space, lymphatics

lateral to medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, bibasilar crackles, elevated JVP, LE edema =

diastolic HF due to and caused by

LV pressure/volume

A

decompensated congestive heart failure

dec. ventricular compliance
HTN, obesity, infiltrative disorders (TTR amyloidosis, sarcoidosis)

up and to the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

easy fatigue, exertional dyspnea, diminshed first heart sound, apical holosystolic murmur radiating to the axilla, diffuse pulmonary crackles, no elevated JVP, no peripheral edema =

major determinant of forward to regurgitant flow ratio

A

mitral regurgitation with left sided heart failure

left ventricular afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

episodic substernal chest pain, inc w/ activity and dec w/ rest, HTN, hyperLipid, smoker, S4 heart sound, LVH on ECG, inducible ischemia on inferior surface of heart =

which coronary artery occluded

A

angina

posterior descending branch of RCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

exertional dizzyness then syncope, followed by LOC; ECG bradycardia, unsynched P and QRS =

paced by

A

3rd degree heart block

AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

severe midback pain, nausea, diaphoresis, lightheadness, HTN, CKD, dissection flap of desc. aorta =

usually originates

Type A refers to?

usually originates

A

Standford Type B dissection

origin of L subclavian A

ascending aorta

sinotubular jxn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ANP secreted by

effects?

accentuated by

A

atrial cardiomyocytes

inc urinary exc. of Na+ and vasodilation

Neprilysin inhibitors (Sacubitril) prevents degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sudden palpitations in young man, carotid sinus massage leads to

A

PNS tone inc via vagus nerve, dec AV node conduction and prolonged AV node refractory period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CO =

CO also =

A

SV x HR

rate of O2 consumption / AV O2 content difference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

infant, continuous murmur along w/ inspiratory splitting of S2 machine like in left infraclavicular region

A

PDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

synthesis of fibrous cap on athersclerotic plaque caused by

A

Vascular smooth muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Lungs ant/post to heart?

midclavicular stab wound?

A

anterior

left lung, deep enough apex of LV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Wide fixed splitting S2 that does not vary w/ respiration =

can produce?

type of shunt

A

ASD

chronic pulmonary HTN, sclerosis, Eisenmenger syndrome (reversal of shunt)

L-to-R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

dec in BP >10mmHg on inspiration, JV distention, tachycardia after blunt chest trauma, muffled heart sounds, hypotension

lung exam

A

cardiac tamponade

normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
most common cause of Mitral Stenosis characteristics can cause? sounds like
Rheumatic fever fibrous thickening and fusion of valve leaflets atrial enlargement, a fib, mural thrombosis loud S1, opening snap, mid diastolic murmur
26
Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis (Trousseau) due to
paraneoplastic syndrome of visceral cancer
27
short stature, short thick neck, broad chest, short metacarpals = most common congenital cardiac malformation = sound at risk for
Turner Syndrome Bicuspid aortic valve early systolic high frequency click over right 2nd ICS stenosis, insufficiency, infxn
28
afib w/ rapid ventricular response treated w/ ____ for rate control works by also used in
digoxin dec. AV node conduction, inc PNS vagal tone, block Na+/K+ ATPase pump heart failure
29
low grade fever, fatique, early distolic murmur at left sternal edge, subungal splinter hemorrhages, elevated ESR gram stain synthesize associated w/
endocarditis: Strep viridans G+ cocci dextrans from sucrose dental caries
30
young adult, progressive exertional dyspnea past 6mos, no chest pain, light headness or syncope, FH of mother dying of pulm HTN young adult, loud second heart sound at upper left sternal border, clear lung fields, RAD = if inherited caused by Gene
idiopathic pulmonary HTN vascular sm muscle proliferation BMPR2
31
10 yo, SOB, palpitations, fever, poor appetite, fatigue for few days, tachypnea, tachycardia, hypotension, new holosystolic murmur pathology
acute rheumatic fever (untreated grp A Strep) - pancarditis, mitral regurg interstitial myocardial granuloma (aschoff body)
32
Sudden death of young adult, usually athletic biopsy shows Genetics
HCM myocyte hypertrophy and haphazard arrangemet AD familial 50%
33
flushing, watery diarrhea, bronchospams, valvular fibrous plaque, abnormal growth in adult diagnosis
carcinoid syndrome elevated 24hr 5hydroxyindoeacetic acid (HIAA) (product of serotonin metabolism)
34
acute graft rejection in cardiac transplant
dense interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate weeks after transplant: cell mediated
35
STEMI, days later chest pain inc w/ coughing and swallowing, radiates to neck, low grade fever
pericarditis overlying necrotic segment
36
immigrant, fever, progressive weakness, dyspnea, vegetations on mitral valve = most likely history of = predisposing factor initiating step (strep cultured)
infective endocarditis Rheumatic heart disease valvular abnormalities (valvular inflammation and scarring) fibrin deposition
37
Dobutamine inc = receptor? increases? used for?
heart rate and contractility B1 myocardial oxygen consumption acute MI w/ acute severe HF
38
young adult, progressive fatigue, dyspnea on exertion, LE edema over last 2 weeks w/ fever runny nose and myalgias resolved several days before, JVD, bibasilar crackles Echo results
decompensated heart failure of DCM caused by viral myocarditis Dilated ventricles w/ abnormal systolic ventricular fxn
39
decompensated systolic HF as a result of chemo for NHLymphoma: after initial stabilization use:
long term beta blockers: carvedilol, metoprolol
40
sudden death 1 week after after acute MI due to: actual cause of death
free wall rupture of left ventricle (anterior wall MI) profound hypotension and shock
41
pulsatile vessels w/in the intercostal spaces and diminished femoral pulses relative to brachial pulses in a 12 yo girl syndrome other problem w/ same syndrome
aortic coarctation Turners Bicuspid aortic valve
42
5yo, turning blue w/ exertion, relieved by squatting, prominent right ventricular impulse and a harsh systolic murmur Embryological mechanism Squatting does what
Tetralogy of Fallot: VSD, overriding aorta, Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, RVH deviation of infundibular septum (neural crest) inc afterload and dec R-L shunt across VSD
43
chest pain, diaphoresis, dyspnea, thrombosis, elevated homocysteine in plasma, mutation in THF reductase = inc risk of?
impaired conversion of homocysteine to methionine Thromboembolic events
44
patient started on low dose aspirin but experiences SOB and wheezing, best alternative? Mechanism?
Clopidogrel (blocks P2Y12 of ADP platelet receptors) prevents aggregation
45
vascular endothelium secretes ____ to inhibit platelet aggregation? what enhances platelet aggregation?
prostacyclin (PGI2) TXA2
46
number need to treat = ARR =
1/ARR control rate - experimental rate
47
common cardinal veins give rise to
superior vena cava (know on CT)
48
AV node located at
RA near orifice of coronary sinus, radio ablated in afib
49
calcium efflux from cardiac cells prior to relaxation is mediated by ____
Na+/Ca++ exchange pump
50
progressively worsening dyspnea, orthopnea, HTN, bilateral basilar crackles, JVD, LE edema, hilar prominence and cardiomegaly, LVH on ECG, echo shows PHTN: Mechanism
vasoconstriction due to pulmonary venous congestion Pulmonary HTN due to hypertensive heart disease
51
nitric oxide endothelial vasodilation requires ____
arginine, eNOS, cGMP
52
Flow(Q) = reduced by factor of __ means?
P1-P2/R or r^4 (radius of blood vessel to 4th power) divided by
53
chronic AV shunt such as ____ would ____ CO because of SNS stim to heart and____ venous return
chronic arteriovenous fistula increase increase
54
chest wound directed posterior adjacent to LSB in 4th ICS would injure would not injure?
RV last (anterior surface of the heart left lung (no middle lobe)
55
4 year old, irritable, vomit, traveled to china, fever, bilateral conjunctivaal injection, brigh red tongue, cracked lips, nonpitting edema on hands and feet, Asian = artery size? greatest risk for?
Kawaski disease medium coronary artery aneurysms
56
CHF (dyspnea, orthopnea, JVD, edema) results in ____ CO, _____ renal perfusion, and _____ renin production by JGA cells substance higher in pulmonary vein than pulmonary artery
decreased decreased increased Angiotensin II
57
flank pain, hematuria, wedge shaped kidney infarct = due to
thrombotic renal infarction Afib
58
primary collagen in MI scars is
type I found in tendons
59
aorta and LV pressure dont match up = peak of murmur intensity =
aortic stenosis ventricle pressure
60
amiodarone, sotalol, dofetilide work on downslope pahse ___
Class II antiarrhythmics: block K+ channels 3 of cardiac cycle
61
Free wall rupture occurs ____
5-14 days after acute MI
62
harsh ejection type systolic murmur at base of heart radiating to neck = due to
aortic stenosis calcific degen of trileaflet aortic valve (developed nations)
63
LV leads in biventricular pacemakers course thru _____ which resides in _____ on _______ aspect of heart
coronary sinus AV groove posterior
64
young boy, fatigue, clubbing, cyanosis w/o blood pressure-pulse discrepancy = sounds like
PDA continuous machine like murmur
65
ANP, BNP, and sildenafil (PDEI) all use
cGMP
66
depression, HTN, obtunded, hypotensive, bradycardic, IV glucagon admin and she improves = treatment of choice pathophys
beta blocker overdose glucagon glucagon increases cAMP, inc Ca++ release and inc SA node firing
67
lightning storm, dead, most likely cause of death
fatal arrhythmia
68
small heart, atherosclerosis, myocardial cells show intracytoplasmic granules tinged yellow brown due to ____ pigment name
lipid peroxidation lipofuscin (wear and tear of aging)
69
flail posterior mitral valve leaflet leads to ___left atrial pressure, ______ LV EDV (preload), and _____ afterload
acute mitral regurg due to chordae tendinae rupture increased, increased, decreased
70
drug resistant hypertension, shrunken kidney due to?
oxygen and nutrient deprivation from unilateral renal artery stenosis
71
spironolactone, eplerenone = spare? improve? should not be used with (2)
MC receptor antagonists: CHF K+ ventricle remodeling and LV EF hyperK or RF
72
absence of myocardial necrosis and scarring despite vessel occlusion explained by?
slow growth of occluding plaque
73
breast cancer survivor with radical mastectomy, radiation, presents with persistent right arm swelling: increased risk for
lymphangiosarcoma
74
chronic cough and angioedema due to
ACEI family (prils)
75
highest athersclerotic burden is on the ____ and ____ arteries
abdominal aorta coronary
76
endocarditis, gram +, catalase -, grow in hypertonic saline and bile = procedures in past month
enterococcus (normal UG flora) cystoscopy
77
Statin MOA Results in?
block HMG CoA increase in hepatocyte LDLR density
78
post endocarditis, holosystoli murmur that increases during inspiration
Tricuspid regurg, 2nd and 3rd ICS Left
79
increased HR, CO, unchanged parital pressures of O2 and CO2 =
exercise
80
amlodipine, felodipine, nifedipine location of action effects verapil effects? Dilitazem effects?
Ca++ channel blockers vascular smooth muscle only vasodilate ( lower BP, no ECG change) cardiac muscle (only ECG change) Both, vascular and cardiac mscle, combined effects
81
Vancomycin binds to resistance via
D alanyl D alanine D Lactate substitute D alanine
82
neither pts nor physicians aware of who takes drug or placebo = eliminates
double blind observer bias
83
increase in blood O2 saturation from right atria to right ventricle indicates Most commonly sounds like
left to right shunt VSD holosystolic murmur over L Sternal border
84
most heavily involved vessel in athersclerosis
abdominal aorta
85
sudden onset vision loss, left sided neck bruit = pathway
embolus ICA, ophthalmic artery, retinal artery
86
Left dominance coronary circulation = ____ supplies posterior descending artery. Right dominance = _____ supplies PDA. AV nodal artery arises from dominant artery
left circumflex artery right coronary artery
87
the most important mediator of coronary vascular dilation in larger arteries and pre arteriolar vessels is
NO
88
fastest to slowest cardiac tissue conduction velocity
PAVA Purkinje, atrial, ventricular, AV
89
dec in LV size, sigmoid shaped ventricular septum, myocardial atrophy, inc collagen deposition, ipofuscin pigment =
normal aging heart
90
cyanotic newborn, elevated serum lactate, machine murmur between scapulae, aorta anterior, inferior, and right of pulmonary artery = failure of must have ____ to survive
Transposition of great vessels spiraling PDA, patent foramen ovale, or septal defect
91
rapid bacterial endocarditis, rigors, high fever, IV drug use = can cause ____ sided endocarditis w/ ______ into the lungs
S aureus right septic embolization
92
combined use of __________ and ______ can lead to
verapamil, dilitiazem atenolol bradycardia and hypotension
93
abrupt onset severe chest pain radiates to back, high blood pressure =
aortic dissection: intimal tearing
94
chest pain reproduced w/ palpation and worsened w/ movement changes = follows
costochondritis repetitive activity
95
Rapid surge of serum CK due to
cell membrane damage from ischemia
96
nitroglycerin mainly affects
large veins
97
viridans infx, pre existing valvular lesion, adhere via
fibrin-platelet aggreagates
98
low frequency S3 over apex in older =
left ventricular failure and inc LV EDV
99
long history of HTN, S4 due to
inc stiffness of LV wall
100
measure for assessing the degree of mitral stenosis
A2 split to opening snap time interval, shorter is worse
101
Natriuretic peptides effects (3) metabolized by?? drug??
inc GFR dec Prox. Na+ resorb dec renin secretion neprilysin metalloprotease neprilysin inhibitor
102
severe fatigue and dyspnea, HF, chest radiation or viral illness or TB in endemic areas = path? Signs
constrictive pericarditis thick fibrous rigid pericardium Inc JVP, on inspiration (usually drops), pulsus paradoxus, pericardial knock
103
Nitrates are _____dilators that _____ preload, _____ LV EDV, ______ peripheral venous capacitance, and ______ systemic vascular resistance
venous dec dec incr dec
104
the best indicator of severity of MR is ____ sound Murmur associated w/ MR?
S3 gallop holosystolic best heart at apex of heart, radiates to axilla
105
chronic cough, sometimes blood when coughing hard, right sided face and arm swelling and engorgement of subcutaneous veins on same side of neck = due to blockage of subclavian vein would cause blockage of SVC would cause blockage of JV would cause
right brachiocephalic vein obstruction apical lung tumor or thrombotic occlusion (catheter placement) unilateral arm swelling only bilateral swelling unilateral face swelling only
106
IVC formed by union of
R and L common iliac veins
107
recurrent episodes of paroxysmal afib, usually treated w/
sotalol, Beta adrenergic and K+ channel block, both rate and rhythm control
108
cardiac tamponade due to pericardial fluid accumulation can result in ______ in pulse amplitude during _______ called? also seen in?
decrease inspiration pulsus paradoxus (>10mmHg) constrictive pericarditis
109
midsystolic click followed by mid to late systolic murmur at cardiac apex that disappears w/ squatting is due to ___ Squatting ____ venous return and LV volume
MVP, connective tissue disorder increases
110
common side effects of statins include _____ and _____ toxicity Labs needed before initiation of therapy?
muscle and liver hepatic transaminases
111
ate lots of fancy meats and cheeses w/ history of depression can lead to ______ because of ______ in the foods interaction w/ __________ used to treat depression
HTN emergency tyramine MOAI
112
started on low dose atenolol, stable angina w/ elevated BP acts on ____ receptors at ____ results in____cAMP of cardiac myocytes and JGA cells, and has ______ in cAMP in vascular smooth muscle
B1 receptors on cardiac myocytes and JGA cells (renal) decreased no effect
113
recurrent paroxysmal SVT in healthy individual manifests as _______ ECG finding?
WPW syndrome delta wave at start of QRS, short PR, widened QRS
114
0-4 hours after MI, biopsy would show ________ on cardiac myocytes 4-12 hours post MI 12-24hours post MI 1-5 days post MI 5-10 days post MI 10-14 days post MI 2wks - 2months post MI
minimal change early coagulation, wavy fibers coagulation necrosis neutrophil infiltrate macrophage infiltrate granulation tissue and neovascularization collagen deposition and scar
115
vague feeling of heaviness in legs, standing for long periods = physical finding complication very rare complication
venous stasis varicose veins skin ulcerations pulmonary embolism
116
Paroxysmal SVT (nodal arrhythmia) treated w/ ____ 2 drugs in this class block what type of channel
class IV antiarrhythmics verapamil, diltiazem L type Calcium channels
117
harsh holosystolic murmur, flat face, protruding tongue, small ears = due to =
Down syndrome meiotic nondysjxn
118
severe mitral regurg and pulmonary edema post MI due to rupture of posteromedial papillary muscle occurs because compromised blood flow through ______ artery
posterior descending
119
deep chest pain exacerbated on exertion or emotional stress relieved w/ nitroglycerin = due to _____% blockage of lumen of a coronary artery
stable angina >75%
120
cryptogenic stroke in young adult, +bubble study =
ASD or Patent foramen ovale due to incomplee fusion of atrial septum primum and secundum
121
old, isolated systolic HTN and HA due
aortic stiffening
122
young healthy boy, audible LSB sound, accentuated w/ handgrip (______afterload) =
increase VSD
123
immigrant, gray pharynx, cervical LAD, soft palate paralysis = mechanism of exotoxin risk of
Corynebacterium diphtheriae diphtheria toxin, intracellular ribosylation EF2 myocarditis
124
cardiac cath through common femoral artery above inguinal ligament leads to risk of ________ hemorrhage looks like
retroperitoneal ecchymosis surrounding puncture site
125
antiarrhythmic agent bids to rapidly depolarizing ischemic ventricular myocardial fibers = drug of choice? effect on normal ventricular myocardium
lidocaine no Amiodarone minimal
126
QT prolongation syndrome also called
Romano-ward Jervell and Lange Nielson
127
adenosine______ phase 4 in cardiac pacemaker cells by ______ K conductance
prolongs increasing
128
posterior surface of the heart is the _____atrium enlargement from _____ can lead to cardiovascular ________ from pressure on esophagus
left mitral stenosis/regurg from RHD dysphagia
129
bicuspid aortic valve predispose to early
aortic stenosis (50s rather than 70s-80s)
130
compare the means of 2 groups of subjects with
two sample T test
131
righward widening of the pressure volume loop due to an _____ in preload such as saline infusion
increase
132
best choice for long term HTN w/ congestive heart failure is not a diuretic but a ______
ACEI
133
coffee ground emesis, tachycardia, cool extremeties = first intervention = increases?
hypovolemic shock saline infusion rapid end diastolic sarcomere length due to increase preload
134
familial hypercholesteremia in heterozygotes common segment on effected individuals in a southern blot would represent the ______ gene
AD, high LDL, premature athersclerosis mutated
135
first peak on JVP tracing is second, small peak is steep decline is 3rd peak is 3rd decline is
RA contraction tricuspid bulge on RV contraction RA relax inflow venous blood passive RA emptying after Tricuspid open
136
thickened and calcified ring on CT around heart is = slowly progressive dyspnea, peripheral edema, ascites
constrictive pericarditis some clinical symptoms
137
early diastolic murmur at LSB at RSB in developed countries can be due to
Aortic regurg aortic root dilation aortic root dilation or bicuspid aortic valve
138
WPW due to young, palpitations, light headed, rapid heart beats
accessory pathway bypasses AV node
139
infant, rapid breathing, tired, mid diastolic rumbe at LSB, holosystolic murmur at apex radiates to axilla, defect in lower interatrial septum and interventricular septum = most common with?
complete AV canal defect Down syndrome tri 21
140
HTN crisis and hyperplastic arteriosclerosis in renal arteries looks like
onion like concentric thickening of arteriolar walls
141
exertional calf pain, foot ulcers, hypersensitivity to tobacco extract = path
thromboangiitis obliterans (Buergers) segmental hypersensitivity vasculitis into veins and nerves
142
progressive fatigue, splinter hemorrhages on nails due to = cause sound associated
microemboli infective endocarditis regurgitant murmur
143
thigh and leg pain, hypercoagulable, weak dorsalis pedis pulse = drug that acts as arterial vasodilator and inhibits platelet agg? mechanism should also recieve
peripheral artery disease cilstazol PDEI aspirin or clopidogrel (antiplatelet)
144
muscle pain and cramps that remits w/ rest and decreased sexual performance, MI history, symptoms caused by defined as
lipid filled intimal plaque claudication
145
acute onset chest pain and dyspnea, HTN, large perfusion defect = most likely from
pulmonary embolism DVT
146
sudden cardiac death in young athlete most likely due to
HCM
147
lightheaded while buttoning tight shirt collar, pass out, low pulse, HTN, DM = due to stimulation of _____ in carotid sinus afferent limb? efferent limb?
carotid sinus hypersensitivity baroreceptors CN9 CN10
148
dystrophic calcification of aortic valve preceded by
damaged or necrotic tissue
149
very high concentrations of NE, still no effect on BP drug? mechanism?
irreversible inhibitor phenoxybenzamine alpha 1 and 2 adrenergic antagonist
150
statins, muscle pain, fatigue, dark urine = metabolized by? precipitated by
stain induced myopathy CYP450 3A4 macrolides (mycins)
151
family history of sudden death, young, systolic murmur that accentuates with standing from supine = medications to avoid?
HCM vasodilators, diuretics
152
sublingual nitroglycerin in stable angina = ______ in LV EDV
decrease
153
nontender lesions on foot or palms in infective endocarditis = painful nodules on finger tips and toes in endcarditis =
vascular microemboli (Janeway lesions) immune complex Osler nodes
154
ivabradine inhibits _______ channels, thus ______ SA node firing w/o affecting ______
funny sodium channels slowing contractility
155
side effects of ACEI = use _____ instead
cough, angioedema ARB, sartans
156
adverse effects of thiazide diuretics
hypoNa, K HyperCa, glycemia, cholesterolemia, uricemia
157
esmolol is an IV _____ that decreases ______ node conduction, which correlates to PR interval _____ elongation
Beta blocker AV elongation
158
mitral valve replacement, fever, baceremia w/ catalase positive, coagulase neg g+ cocci in clusters adhere w/ ? assumed to be _____ resistant, so treat w/
nosocomial coagulase negative staph polysaccharide slime methacillin resistant vancomycin
159
nonbacterial platelet rich thrombi characteristic of ______ due to______
nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis advanced malignancy
160
crescendo-decresendo systolic murmur peaking in midsystole, super old, due to _____ or ______ stenosis due to _______
aortic, pulmonic valvular calfication
161
medial branch off of external iliac artery is lateral branch is
inferior epigastric deep circumflex iliac artery
162
IV drug that causes increased contractility and deccresed systemic vascular resistance is receptors
isoproterenol B1 and 2
163
pregnant, hypotension while supine = due to =
supine hypotension syndrome compression of IVC and reduced venous return
164
phenylephrine, methoaxamine are _______ that vasoconstrict systemic blood pressure. This stimulates carotid baroreceptors to increase ____ tone and _____ conduction through ____ node
alpha 1 selective adrenergic agonists vagal decrease AV
165
during ventricular systole (QRS), coronary arteries are _____ leading to a ________ in coronary blood flow
compressed reduction
166
10 yr old, restlessness, involuntary jerking, sore throat 3 months ago_____ which is a neuro manifestation of _____ due to anti strep antibodies affecting the ______. Patient is at a high risk of _________
Sydenham chorea acute rheumatic fever basal ganglia valvular heart disease
167
pulmonary edema, cephalization of pulmonary vessels, perihilar alveolar edema, plunting of costophrenic angles from pleural effusions =
acute decompensated HF
168
fatigue, progressive dyspnea, orthopnea, S3, recent MI = third heart sound best heard when listening at
decompensated heart failure end expiration in Lateral recumbent left side
169
LV EDV in MS is _____, and is _______ in combined aortic and mitral valve disease
decreased, increased
170
normal bleeding time indicates______ normal activated partial thromboplastin time indicates ______ prolonged Prothrombin time in setting of normal aPTT indicates _____ such as _____
adequate platelet hemostatic fxn intact intrinsic coagulation system (Factor VIII) defective extrinsic pathway in step not shared w/ intrinsic pathway such as deficient Factor VII
171
renin and BP stay the same after 3weeks of anti HTN therapy =
medication noncompliance
172
fatty streaks are the ______ lesions of atherosclerosis and are a collection of lipid laden ______ or foam cells in the intima
earliest macrophages
173
acute asthma and COPD exacerbations controlled by _____ such as _______ by _______ via
Beta adrenergic agonists, clenbuterol relaxing bronchial smooth muscle inc cAMP in smooth muscle cells
174
patients with tetralogy of fallot, the major determing factor of resulting cyanosis is the
degree of right ventricular outflow tract obstruction
175
doxorubicin forAML can cause presents w/
DCM exertional dyspnea and orthopnea
176
varicose veins result from chronically elevated venous pressure and ____
incompetent venous valves
177
severe chest pain, thrombus, thickened mitral valve leaflets w/ vegetations, glomerular basement membrane thickening, young adult woman =
SLE
178
polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) affects ______ but spares _____ fever, weight loss, myalgias, abdominal pain, high blood pressure
kidneys, heart, liver, GI tract pulmonary arteries
179
consolidation of _____ lung lobe can obscure x ray silhouette of ______ on X ray
right middle right atrium
180
MAAM COCO opening snap of mitral valve stenosis heard at bottom left corner of ventricular pressure looop (MO)
Mitral valve close Aortic Valve open Aortic Valve close Mitral valve open
181
dobutamine is a ____ agonist, acting at a ______ and ______ cAMP, which _______ contractility
B1 and weak B2 Gs GPCR increases increases
182
HCM involves is an ____ inherited disorder invovling sacromere genes that encode for _______ and ________
autosomal dominant beta myosin heavy chain myosin binding protein C
183
cough, chronic HTN, hemosiderin laden macrophages =
left sided heart failure
184
higher dose of oral nitrate needed compared to sublingual due to _____
first pass metabolism
185
slightly elongated QRS at high heart rate (stress test) due to Class_____ antiarrhythmics such as ______
1C flecainide (Na+)
186
pregnancy induced DVT, best anticogulant is
LMWH, such as enoxaparin
187
occasional dizzyness while moving UE, retrograde flow in left vertebral artery = results from _________ of proximal subclavian artery
subclavian steal syndrome severe stenosis
188
reliable valid
how many times can you hit the bullseye can you hit the bullseye
189
most coronary venous blood drains through
coronary sinus
190
abdominal pain, vascular tumor, arsenic or polyvinly chloride exposure, CD31+ cell
liver angiosarcoma: PECAM1
191
PDA remains open due to sounds like closes w/
PGE2 continous machine murmur indomethacin or ibuprofen
192
aspirin is associated w/ _____ injury and bleeding
GI mucosal
193
newborn benign vascular lesion, cutaneous strawberry type = most likely will
juvenile hemangioma first inc in size then regress
194
spontaneous episodes of rest and nighttime angina w/ transient ST elevation = due to can be caused by____ which is used to treat____ can also be caused by____ treatment
Prinzmetal angia (variant) coronary vasospams dihydroergotamine, migraines smoking, cocaine, meth, triptans amlodipine, Ca++ channel blocker that vasodilates
195
descending thoracic aorta lies ____to the esophagus and the left atrium
posterior
196
sudden cardiac death post MI most commonly due to
Vfib
197
K+ sparing diuretics such as ______ act on the _____ and the ____ to antagonize the effects of
spironolactone and eplerenone late distal tubule and CCD aldosterone
198
young, constitutional symptoms, mid diastolic rumbling murmur heard best at apex, positional dyspnea, large pedunculated mass in LA = Path?
atrial myxoma scattered cells w/in a mucopolysaccharide stroma, abnormal blood vessels and hemorrhaging
199
aortic regurg murmur most loudly heard after _____
aortic valve closure
200
ACEIs can cause significant first dose hypotension in patients w/ ______ from ______ or ______
volume depletion diuretic use heart failure
201
around the clock nitrate administration rapidly results in the development of ______
tolerance
202
myxomatous changes w/ pooling of proteoglycans in the media layer of large arteries predisposes to ______
aortic aneurysms
203
an abnormally prominent left atrial "v" wave during cardiac cath is a finding of presents w/
mitral regurg exertional dyspnea and orthopnea
204
smokers over the age of 35 are contraindicated for
OCPs
205
an increase in stroke volume or EF is depicted on the LV pressure-volume relationship by widening of the loop to the _____
left
206
adenosine and dipyridamole are selective vaso______ that can cause coronary _____ _____ where blood flow to an ischemic area is reduced
dilators - arterial steal syndrome
207
Subacute IE complicated by embolic stroke, most common predisposing factor in developed nations? in developing nations?
regurgitant MVP RHD
208
maintenance dose = half life = loading dose=
(desired steady state concentration x clearance) converted to hours Volume distribution x 0.7/clearance Volume distribution x Cpss/bioavailability fraction
209
ACEI induced angioedema is due to
bradykinin accumulation
210
Losartan (ARB) will cause an _____ in renin, AngI, AngII, and a ____ in aldosterone, with _____ in bradykinin
increase decrease no change
211
Milrinone is a selective ____ that ____ cAMP levels to causes systemic arterial and venous _____ and _____ contractility
PDE3 inhibitor increases dilation increases
212
night palpitations, pounding heart and head bobbing w/ exertions = due to
AR widening of pulse pressure
213
warfarin monitored w/ unfractionated heparin monitored w/
PT or INR aPTT
214
left ventricular systolic dysfunction due to reduced coronary blood flow at rest in angina completely reversible by
Hibernating myocardium coronary revascularization
215
nitrates are contraindicated for 24hrs w/ due to
PDEI cGMP accumulation
216
HyperK+ secondary to ACEI therapy is most common in patients w/ _____ and in patients taking _______ such as _____
renal insufficiency K+ sparing diuretics amiloride, triamterene, spironolactone
217
statin induced myopathy risk increased w/ co administration of ____ such as ____ that impair hepatic clearance of statins
fibrates gemfibrozil
218
most common adverse effect of alteplase post MI is
intracerebral hemorrhage
219
long standing HTN heart changes LA LV mass LV wall thickness
enlarged increased increased
220
Class IA drugs (3) are _______ inhibitors of phase 0 depolarization and _____ action potential. CLass IB drugs (2) are _____ inhibitors of phase 0 and ____action potential. Class IC drugs (2) are ____ inhibtors of phase 0 depolarization and have ______ on action potental
IA: quinidine, procainamide, disopyramide intermediate prolong IB: lidocaine, mexiletine weak shorten IC: flecainide, propafenone strong no change
221
arteriovenous shunts ____ preload and ____ afterload, which decrease LV pressure and increase LV volume
increase decrease
222
Leads I and aVL correspond to the lateral limb lead on ECG correspond to supplied by
lateral aspect of left ventricle Left circumflex artery
223
Fibrates (2) activate _______, which leads to _____ hepatic ________ production
gemfibrozil, fenofibrate PPAR-alpha VLDL production
224
Normal pressure in SVC and RA RV Pulmonary artery
1-6mmHg 15-30mmHg 6-12mmHg
225
great saphenous graft accessed just ____ to the _____
inferolateral pubic tubercle
226
marfanoid habitus is associated w/
aortic disease and dissections
227
leads II, II, aVF correspond to supplied by hemodynamic findings
inferior wall infaraction RCA dec CO, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure, inc central venous pressure
228
ST elevation and subsequent Q wave formation result of
transmural myocardial infarction fully obstructive thrombus
229
at 20minutes post ischemia, myocardium will at 30 minutes damage is
stop contracting irreversible
230
_______ provide major proliferative stimuli for cellular components of atherosclerotic plaque provide (mediator) macrophages promote ______ migration
platelets PDGF smooth muscle
231
Digoxins initial cellular event is to _____ sodium ion efflux
decrease
232
cortisol exerts a ____ effect on many hormones to improve response to stressors. It increases bronchial smooth muscle reactivity to _______
permissive catecholamines
233
DCM heart failure is due to
decreased ventricular contraction force
234
high interplaque activity of _____ results in MI
metalloproteinases
235
HCM murmur sounds like decreased intesnity by increased intensity by
harsh crescendo decrescendo at apex due to LVOT obstruction passive leg raise, phenylephrine, squatting, sustained hand grip sudden standing
236
selective arteriolar vasodilators (2) lower BP by reducing systemic vascular resistence. also results in reflex _____ activation, which inc HR, contractility and cardiac output. IT also stimulates ______ axis that results in ________ retention
hydralazine, minoxidil sympathetic RAA sodium and fluid
237
cardiac arrhythmia, nausea, vomit, confusion, weakness, visual problems, ELEVATED K
digoxin toxicity
238
pulmonary artery catheters pressure reading most likley corresponds to pressure in
let atrium
239
CLass III antiarrhythmic drugs (3) block _____ channels, thus prolonging repolarization
amiodarone, sotalol, dofetilide K+
240
old, progressive exertional dyspnea, edema, ascites, elevated JVP, prominent S4, left atrial enlargement, LVH, normal ejection fraction = due to = major causes acellular pink material =
diastolic heart fialure restrictive cardiomyopathy amyloidosis, sarcoidosis, hemochormatosis amyloid
241
straining during urination, HTN, which drug mechanism used for
Doxazosin alpha 1 blocker BPH
242
metnal status change, seizure, prolonged QRS, hallucinations, depression, arrhythmias, anticholinergic findings = drug used to treat cardiac toxicity
TCA toxicity sodium bicarbonate
243
metoprolol is a ____ blocker that ____ release of renin from renal JGA cells via B1 receptors
Beta inhibits
244
adrenergic various effects (up then down) with different doses = drug used receptor
dopamine D1
245
young adult dies of HTN problems and intrracerebral hemorrhage with no history of head trauma associated w/
coarctation of the aorta
246
progressive exertional dyspnea, smoker, inc AP diameter of chest, scattered wheezes, dilated RV, absence of peripheral edema is explained by?
increased tissue lymphatic drainage
247
SA node located at the right atrium near the opening of the ____
SVC
248
nitroprusside dec both ____ and ____
preload afterload
249
Congenital long QT syndrome mutations
KCNQ1, KCNE1
250
verapamil affects cardiac contractility but not skeletal muscle because skeletal muscle has little dependence on ______ influx
extracellular calcium
251
left atrial enlargement can impinge on _____ presents w/ also called
left recurrent laryngeal nerve hoarseness Ortner syndrome
252
supine dyspnea relieved by sitting up is indicative of
left sided heart failure
253
atherosclerosis is initiated by repetitive _______
endothelial cell injury
254
SLE cardiac manifestations
pericardial inflammation
255
statins inhibit
HMG CoA reductase
256
bounding femoral pulses, carotid pulsations, head bobbing =
aortic regurgitation
257
the ____ is an organ that is not vulnerable to arterial occulsion due to its dual blood supply, the ___ vein and_____ artery
liver portal hepatic
258
isolated diastolic heart failure shows ____ LVEDP, _____ LVEDV, _____LV EF
increased normal normal
259
IV agent that increased peripheral vascular resistance, increases systolic BP, decreases pulse pressure, decreases heart rate
phenylephrine: selective alpha 1 adrenergic receptor agonist
260
QT prolongation, lowest incidence of Torsades, what drug
amiodarone
261
MMA course deep to _____ and is a branch of the _____ artery. Laceration can lead to ______
pterion maxillary epidural hematoma
262
paradoxical embolism, atrial left to righ shunt: =
ASD wide a fixed splitting of S2
263
MI w/ COPD, use cardioselective beta blockers such as
meoprolol, atenolol, bisoprolol, nebivolol
264
compression in left renal vein can yield ____ can also form
hematuria and flank pain varicocele
265
main adverse effects of nitrates are
HA and flushing
266
IV medication that causes arteriolar dilation, improves renal perfusion, and increases natriuresis =
fenoldopam - HTN crisisL D1 receptor agonist
267
ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF =
RCA
268
thickened aortic on CT = due to HTN
aortic dissection
269
severe aortic regurgitation is compensated by an ___ in total
increase stroke volume
270
ventricular contraction rate in Afib is determined by
AV node refractory period
271
skin and mucosal telangiectasia with recurrent severe nosebleeds = inheritence
Osler Weber Rendu syndrome (hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia) AD
272
sharp mid chest pain that increases with deep inspiration and decreases when he sits up = sounds?
acute pericarditis friction rub
273
normal LV EDP, LV Peak systolic pressure, elevated pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
mitral stenosis
274
filter to preent further embolization is placed in the
IVC
275
central abdominal mass that pulsates = characterized by
abdominal aortic aneurysm chronic transmural inflammation
276
propranolol blocks ___ effects on HR and vasodilation
Epinephrine
277
Class IC>IA>IB ?
sodium channel binding strength
278
NE IV drip in vein, becomes white, cold, hard, pale = treated with ____ injection of the affected tissue
NE extravasation phentolamine
279
TdP polymorphic Vtach is precipitated by
sotalol, quinidine haloperidol macrolides fluoroquinolones
280
S4 due to _____ or ____
restrictive cardiomyopathy and LVH
281
palpitations, tachycardia, irregularly irregular rhythm = previous alcohol consumption night before
Afib, no P waves
282
orthostatic hypotension can be due to ____ blockade
alpha 1 adrenergic
283
hydralazine, procainamide, isoniazid can induce _____which shows with a rash and very high ____titers
lupus ANA
284
HCM has a thickened ______ and abnormal systolic anterior motion of ____ leaflet
interventricular septum anterior mitral valve
285
post op saddle embolism prevneted by
low dose heparin
286
constipation, AV block, worsening HF due CCB therapy such as (drugs)
diltiazem verapamil
287
palpitations and PSVT relieved by IV injection of
adenosine
288
_NS activation of ____ and the _____ system result in an increased afterload and contribute to HF symptoms
SNS JG cells RAA
289
sterile draping + alcohol based hand scrub prior to beginning procedure would prevent intravascular _____ related infxns
catheter
290
systemic and pulmonary circulation maintain similar
blood flow per minute
291
severe aortic stenosis can result in a sudden decrease in _____ and syncope
left ventricular preload
292
undectable pulse during inspiration + JVP
cardiac tamponade
293
CHF reulsts in a decrease in ___ output
Cardiac
294
irreversible myocardial cell injury indicated by mitochondrial _____
vacuolization
295
blowing, holosystolic murmur heard best over the cardiac apex w/ radiation to the axilla
MR
296
S aureus in IV drug user + for infective endocarditis is most likely to infect which valve
tricuspid
297
proximal pulmonary arteries and the ductus arteriosus develop from the ____ aortic arch
6th
298
increased levels of cGMP (nitrates) lead to _____ dephosphorylation, resulting in vascular smooth muscle relaxation
myosin light chain
299
niacin causes cutaneous flushing, warmth, itching, due to release of ____
prostaglandins
300
no murmur at birth but murmur at sternal border present 1 week after is indicatie of a ____ due to a decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance
VSD
301
difficulty chewing, persistent HA, tenderness over temples
Takaysu or temporal or giant cell arteritis (granulomatous)
302
myocardial infarction causes a sharp decrease in ____ and no change in venous return acutely
Cardiac output
303
sensitivity =
a/a+c
304
Specificty =
d/b+d
305
true positive =
sensitivity x # of pts w/ disease
306
truee negative =
1- specificty x # of pts w/disease
307
most common site of injury to the aorta in a MVA is the ____ because it is immobile and tethered by the ______
aortic isthmus ligamentum arteriosum