Heme/Onc Flashcards
(388 cards)
1
Q
What does the S score in testicular cancer staging refer to?
A
Elevated serum tumor markers
2
Q
How many stages are there for testicular cancer?
A
3
3
Q
What is classic triad for renal cell carcinoma presentation?
A
Hematuria
Pain
Upper abdominal mass
4
Q
What size of renal mass should always be treated as malignant?
A
> 3-4 cm
5
Q
What histological type of renal cell carcinoma tends to have the better prognosis?
A
Papillary cell - tends to be lower stage at diagnosis
6
Q
What size RCC can a partial nephectomy be considered over a total?
A
4 cm
7
Q
What are primary immunotherapy agents for RCC?
A
Sunitinib, sorafenib, or bevacizumab
Or mTOR inhibitors such as everolimus or temairolimus
8
Q
What is main chemotherapy agent used for treatment of CLL?
A
Fludarabine based chemo plus rituximab
9
Q
What is main treatment of hairy cell leukemia?
A
Cladribine
10
Q
What lymphoma is associated with a cyclin D1 and t(11;14) translocation?
A
Mantle cell lymphoma
11
Q
What chemo regimen is now used to treat mantle cell lymphoma?
A
R-HYPERCVAD
12
Q
What is chemo for Hodgkin lymphoma?
A
ABVD
13
Q
Does elevated AFP in testicular cancer indicated seminoma or nonseminoma?
A
Nonseminoma
14
Q
What is mycosis fungoides and Sezary syndrome forms of?
A
Cutaneous T cell non Hodgkin lymphoma
15
Q
What is the most likely origin of tumor in a male with poorly differentiated carcinoma with bulky retro peritoneal or mediastinal LAD?
A
Likely unrecognized germ cell tumor - treat like testicular cancer with platinum based therapy
16
Q
What cancer should be assumed if a woman presents with CUP involving single axillary lymph node?
A
Breast cancer
17
Q
If a woman with abdominal carcinomatosis and ascites with CUP, what cancer is it assumed it is?
A
Ovarian
18
Q
What thickness of melaninoma requires sentinel lymph node biopsy?
A
> 1 mm
19
Q
What immunolomodulatory agent can be used for metastatic melanoma is BRAF gene mutation is positive?
A
Vemurafenib
20
Q
What are two main chemo agents used for primary CNS tumors?
A
Carmustine
Temozolomide
21
Q
Which type of cancer accounts for 65% of superior vena cava syndromes?
A
Lung
22
Q
What are the most common cancers that cause spinal cord compression?
A
Breast
Lung
Prostate
23
Q
Which cancers have the highest risk for developing hypercalcemia?
A
Multiple myeloma
Breast
Kidney
Lung
24
Q
What valvular heart disease can cause an acquired form of Von willebrands disease?
A
Severe aortic stenosis
25
What factor deficiency is associated with isolated elevation in PT and normal PTT?
Factor 7
26
What does the thrombin clotting time differentiate between?
If concern for heparin contamination (prolonged time)
| Also by low fibrinogen levels
27
Which type of hemophilia does desmopressin sometimes help?
Hemophilia A (factor 8 deficiency)
28
What conditions can give an acquired hemophilia?
Postpartum state
Malignancy
Autoimmune conditions
- due to an acquired inhibitor
29
What is normal lifespan of a platelet?
7-10 days
30
What skin finding on exam for thrombocytopenia confers higher risk of intracranial hemorrhage?
Wet purpura (petechia on mucous membranes)
31
What are common drugs that can induce ITP?
```
B lactam antibiotics
Sulfa
Vancomycin
Quinine
Cephalosporins
```
32
What test has mostly replaced the bleeding time in most hospitals?
Platelet Function Analyzer - 100
33
What herbal supplements impair platelet function?
Garlic
Ginseng
Chinese black tree fungus
34
What is Virchow's triad?
Stasis
Vessel wall integrity
Hypercoagulability
35
What type of thrombosis does factor V Leiden predispose to - arterial or venous?
Venous
36
Which thrombophilia tests can be done at any time even if on anticoagulation?
Factor V Leiden
| G20210A gene mutation
37
How long should anticoagulation be discontinued in patients who need thrombophilia testing?
2-4 weeks
38
Which factors does prothrombin complex concentrate have?
2, 9, 10
39
What type of DVT prophylaxis is preferred with trauma surgery?
LMWH
40
What is typical oral replacement dose for vitamin B12 deficiency?
1000-2000 ug/d
41
What is the most common form of congenital aplastic anemia?
Fanconi anemia
42
What cell ligands are deficient in PNH?
CD55 and CD59
43
What is primary treatment of aplastic anemia if older than age 40?
Antithymocyte globulin and cyclosporine
44
What common virus can cause a pure red cell aplasia?
Parvo B19
45
What tumor in the chest can cause a pure red cell aplasia?
Thyoma
46
What condition has pure red cell aplasia with CD57+ T cell clonality?
Large granular lymphocytosis
47
What syndrome is characterized by:
Rheumatoid arthritis
Splenomegaly
Neutropenia
Felty syndrome
48
What syndrome can have hypolobulated neutrophils?
Muelodysplastic syndrome
49
What is chemo agent used to treat MDS?
Azacitidine
50
An elevated hematocrit with microcytosis is pathognomonic for what disorder?
Polycythemia Vera
51
Is epo level high or low in PV?
Low or undetectable
52
What are potential treatment agents for essential thrombocytosis?
Anagrelide - watch for side effect of heart failure and arrhythmias
Hydroxyurea -1st line
53
What leukemia is Sweet syndrome associated with?
AML
54
What form of AML has increased association with DIC?
APL
55
What additional chemo agent is added to APL treatment?
ATRA
56
What is chemo regimen for AML?
7-3 treatment
| 7 days cytarabine followed by 3 days anthraxycline
57
What leukemia is associated with a t(15:17) translocation?
APL
58
What complication of AML/APL treatment presents with pulmonary infiltrates, edema, hypotension, dyspnea and fever?
Differentiation syndrome - treat with dexamethasone
59
What percent of lymphoblasts on bone marrow biopsy gives diagnosis of ALL?
>25%
60
What is typical chemo treatment for ALL?
Anthracycline
Vincristine
L-asparginase
Prednisone
61
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
62
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
63
What is goal platelet count in ITP and pregnancy?
30-40,000 until delivery then >50000 to prevent bleeding complications
64
When does the increased risk of VTE due to pregnancy resolve after delivery?
6-12 weeks post partum
65
What trimester MUST warfarin be avoided?
1st avoid weeks 6-12!
66
What drug can be added to lung adenomacinoma if EGFR mutation positive?
Erlotinib
67
What chemo agent can treat GIST?
Imatinib (gleevac)
68
Which is more likely to cause hyperviscosity syndrome - MM or waldenstroms macroglobinemia?
Waldenstroms - IgM is pentamer which is bigger immunoglobulin
69
What percent clonal cells are needed to diagnosis MM?
>10%
70
What M protein level is consistent with MGUS?
1.5-3.0 g/dL
71
What agents are used to treat multiple myeloma?
Thalidomide
Lenalidode
Melphalan
Bortezomib
72
Which drug used to treat MM is contraindicated if HSCT is being considered in future?
Melphalan- stem cell toxicity
73
What clotting factor deficiency can be seen with amyloidosis?
10
74
What is typical chemo treatment for ALL?
Anthracycline
Vincristine
L-asparginase
Prednisone
75
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
76
What is goal platelet count in ITP and pregnancy?
30-40,000 until delivery then >50000 to prevent bleeding complications
77
What is main treatment of amyloidosis?
Melphalan and dexamethasone
78
What immunoglobulin is elevated in Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia?
IgM
79
What conditions cause target cells on peripheral smear?
Liver disease
Thalassemias
Splenectomy
80
What causes teardrop cells in peripheral smear?
Myelofibrosis/marrow infiltration
81
What causes bite cells on peripheral smear?
G6PD deficiency
82
What causes burr cells?
Kidney disease
83
What causes spur cells?
Severe liver disease
84
How do you calculate reticulocyte count?
Percent reticulocyte count x patient hematocrit/45 x0.5
85
What condition commonly has low hepcidin levels?
Iron deficiency anemia
86
What is major complications of treatingn with erythropoietin stimulating agents?
Hypertension
| Thrombosis
87
What type of immunoglobulin causes warm hemolytic anemia?
IgG
88
What immunoglobulin causes cold hemolytic anemia?
IgM
89
When does the increased risk of VTE due to pregnancy resolve after delivery?
6-12 weeks post partum
90
What trimester MUST warfarin be avoided?
1st avoid weeks 6-12!
91
What drug can be added to lung adenomacinoma if EGFR mutation positive?
Erlotinib
92
What chemo agent can treat GIST?
Imatinib (gleevac)
93
Which is more likely to cause hyperviscosity syndrome - MM or waldenstroms macroglobinemia?
Waldenstroms - IgM is pentamer which is bigger immunoglobulin
94
What percent clonal cells are needed to diagnosis MM?
>10%
95
What M protein level is consistent with MGUS?
1.5-3.0 g/dL
96
What clotting factor deficiency can be seen with amyloidosis?
10
97
Which drug used to treat MM is contraindicated if HSCT is being considered in future?
Melphalan- stem cell toxicity
98
What agents are used to treat multiple myeloma?
Thalidomide
Lenalidode
Melphalan
Bortezomib
99
What monoclonal antibody can be used to treat paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
Eculizumab
100
What infection is increased risk if using eculizumab to treat PNH?
Neisseria - needs meningitis vaccine!
101
What is The most sensitive test for hemochromatosis?
Transferrin saturation - if > 60% in men or 50% in women suggestive
102
What pre-treatment to blood products can help prevent febrile transfusion reactions?
Leukoreduction
103
What pre-treatment of blood products can help prevent allergic reactions?
Washing of cellular blood products
104
What pre-treatment can help prevent anaphylaxis to blood products?
Washing cellular products
| IgA deficient donor
105
Which type of donors of blood products may cause increased risk of TRALI?
Multifarious women as blood donor
106
What pre treatment of blood products can help prevent t-GVHD?
Gamma irradiation
107
How much should 1 unit of platelets raise the platelet count?
20-30,000
108
What is the best way to dose FFP?
10-15 ml/kg. there are 200-300 ml per unit FFP
109
What is recommended dose of cryoprecipitate?
1-2 units per 10 kg
110
What factors are in cryoprecipitate?
8, vWF, 13, fibronectin, fibrinogen
111
How long after blood product transfusion do you expect a delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction?
5-10 days
112
What is a TACO?
Transfusion associated circulatory overload - dyspnea, cough, tachycardia, cyanosis and Pulm edema within 1-2 hrs of transfusion
113
What are indications for using erythrocytapheresis?
Sickle cell acute chest syndrome
Malaria
Babesia infections
114
What 2 drugs have been studied as prophylaxis for primary invasive breast cancer?
SERMs - tamoxifen and raloxifene
| SE - increased endometrial cancer, thrombosis, cataracts
115
What is primary treatment for DCIS breast cancer?
Lumpectomy plus radiation or mastectomy
| Plus hormone therapy x 5 years with tamoxifen
116
What tumor size characterized stage 1 breast cancer?
117
What is standard drug treatment added for hormone receptor positive breast cancer tumors in pre menopausal women?
Tamoxifen
118
What is standard drug treatment added for hormone receptor positive breast cancer tumors in post menopausal women?
aromatase inhibitor such as anastrozole
119
What is treatment alternative for premenopausal women with breast CA if tamoxifen is contraindicated (ie h/o VTE or endometrial CA)?
Ovarian ablation
120
What chemo agent is the single most effective agent in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
| Usually use FOLFOX regimen
121
What is primary chemo agents for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
| Plus radiation
122
What is most common agent used for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine +/- FOLFIRINOX
123
What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor?
Appendix
124
What kind of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia and PTHrP?
NSCLC
125
Which type of lung cancer tends to be located peripherally?
NSCLC
126
What change in FEV1 is associated with a positive bronchodilator challenge test?
Falls 20% from baseline
127
What are the main adverse side effects of theophylline?
Cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
128
What part of the lungs is primarily affected by alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency?
Bases
129
What is the most common cause of a macrocytic anemia with MCV >115?
Megaloblastic diseases ie MDS
130
Is MCV typically normal, elevated, or low in hemolytic anemia?
Elevated
131
When should you check for G6PD activity following an acute hemolytic event?
2-3 months later, can be falsely normal right after a hemolytic event
132
What is potential complication of using meperidine in sickle cell disease?
Accumulation of metabolites that lead to seizures
133
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
134
What condition is a contraindication for using lepirudin?
Kidney disease
135
What condition is a contraindication to using argatroban?
Hepatic dysfunction
136
What is treatment of Sezary syndrome (t cell lymphoma of blood/bone marrow?)
Alemtuzumab
137
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
138
What is standard chemo regimen for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
139
What chemo agent is the single most effective agent in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
| Usually use FOLFOX regimen
140
What is primary chemo agents for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
| Plus radiation
141
What is most common agent used for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine +/- FOLFIRINOX
142
What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor?
Appendix
143
What kind of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia and PTHrP?
NSCLC
144
Which type of lung cancer tends to be located peripherally?
NSCLC
145
What change in FEV1 is associated with a positive bronchodilator challenge test?
Falls 20% from baseline
146
What are the main adverse side effects of theophylline?
Cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
147
What part of the lungs is primarily affected by alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency?
Bases
148
What is the most common cause of a macrocytic anemia with MCV >115?
Megaloblastic diseases ie MDS
149
Is MCV typically normal, elevated, or low in hemolytic anemia?
Elevated
150
When should you check for G6PD activity following an acute hemolytic event?
2-3 months later, can be falsely normal right after a hemolytic event
151
What is potential complication of using meperidine in sickle cell disease?
Accumulation of metabolites that lead to seizures
152
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
153
What condition is a contraindication for using lepirudin?
Kidney disease
154
What condition is a contraindication to using argatroban?
Hepatic dysfunction
155
What is treatment of Sezary syndrome (t cell lymphoma of blood/bone marrow?)
Alemtuzumab
156
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
157
What is standard chemo regimen for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
158
What chemo agent is the single most effective agent in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
| Usually use FOLFOX regimen
159
What is primary chemo agents for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
| Plus radiation
160
What is most common agent used for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine +/- FOLFIRINOX
161
What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor?
Appendix
162
What kind of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia and PTHrP?
NSCLC
163
Which type of lung cancer tends to be located peripherally?
NSCLC
164
What change in FEV1 is associated with a positive bronchodilator challenge test?
Falls 20% from baseline
165
What are the main adverse side effects of theophylline?
Cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
166
What part of the lungs is primarily affected by alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency?
Bases
167
What is the most common cause of a macrocytic anemia with MCV >115?
Megaloblastic diseases ie MDS
168
Is MCV typically normal, elevated, or low in hemolytic anemia?
Elevated
169
When should you check for G6PD activity following an acute hemolytic event?
2-3 months later, can be falsely normal right after a hemolytic event
170
What is potential complication of using meperidine in sickle cell disease?
Accumulation of metabolites that lead to seizures
171
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
172
What condition is a contraindication for using lepirudin?
Kidney disease
173
What condition is a contraindication to using argatroban?
Hepatic dysfunction
174
What is treatment of Sezary syndrome (t cell lymphoma of blood/bone marrow?)
Alemtuzumab
175
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
176
What is standard chemo regimen for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
177
What chemo agent is the single most effective agent in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
| Usually use FOLFOX regimen
178
What is primary chemo agents for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
| Plus radiation
179
What is most common agent used for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine +/- FOLFIRINOX
180
What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor?
Appendix
181
What kind of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia and PTHrP?
NSCLC
182
Which type of lung cancer tends to be located peripherally?
NSCLC
183
What change in FEV1 is associated with a positive bronchodilator challenge test?
Falls 20% from baseline
184
What are the main adverse side effects of theophylline?
Cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
185
What part of the lungs is primarily affected by alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency?
Bases
186
What is the most common cause of a macrocytic anemia with MCV >115?
Megaloblastic diseases ie MDS
187
Is MCV typically normal, elevated, or low in hemolytic anemia?
Elevated
188
When should you check for G6PD activity following an acute hemolytic event?
2-3 months later, can be falsely normal right after a hemolytic event
189
What is potential complication of using meperidine in sickle cell disease?
Accumulation of metabolites that lead to seizures
190
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
191
What condition is a contraindication for using lepirudin?
Kidney disease
192
What condition is a contraindication to using argatroban?
Hepatic dysfunction
193
What is treatment of Sezary syndrome (t cell lymphoma of blood/bone marrow?)
Alemtuzumab
194
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
195
What is standard chemo regimen for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
196
What chemo agent is the single most effective agent in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
| Usually use FOLFOX regimen
197
What is primary chemo agents for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
| Plus radiation
198
What is most common agent used for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine +/- FOLFIRINOX
199
What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor?
Appendix
200
What kind of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia and PTHrP?
NSCLC
201
Which type of lung cancer tends to be located peripherally?
NSCLC
202
What change in FEV1 is associated with a positive bronchodilator challenge test?
Falls 20% from baseline
203
What are the main adverse side effects of theophylline?
Cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
204
What part of the lungs is primarily affected by alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency?
Bases
205
What is the most common cause of a macrocytic anemia with MCV >115?
Megaloblastic diseases ie MDS
206
Is MCV typically normal, elevated, or low in hemolytic anemia?
Elevated
207
When should you check for G6PD activity following an acute hemolytic event?
2-3 months later, can be falsely normal right after a hemolytic event
208
What is potential complication of using meperidine in sickle cell disease?
Accumulation of metabolites that lead to seizures
209
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
210
What condition is a contraindication for using lepirudin?
Kidney disease
211
What condition is a contraindication to using argatroban?
Hepatic dysfunction
212
What is treatment of Sezary syndrome (t cell lymphoma of blood/bone marrow?)
Alemtuzumab
213
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
214
What is standard chemo regimen for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
215
What chemo agent is the single most effective agent in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
| Usually use FOLFOX regimen
216
What is primary chemo agents for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
| Plus radiation
217
What is most common agent used for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine +/- FOLFIRINOX
218
What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor?
Appendix
219
What kind of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia and PTHrP?
NSCLC
220
Which type of lung cancer tends to be located peripherally?
NSCLC
221
What change in FEV1 is associated with a positive bronchodilator challenge test?
Falls 20% from baseline
222
What are the main adverse side effects of theophylline?
Cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
223
What part of the lungs is primarily affected by alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency?
Bases
224
What is the most common cause of a macrocytic anemia with MCV >115?
Megaloblastic diseases ie MDS
225
Is MCV typically normal, elevated, or low in hemolytic anemia?
Elevated
226
When should you check for G6PD activity following an acute hemolytic event?
2-3 months later, can be falsely normal right after a hemolytic event
227
What is potential complication of using meperidine in sickle cell disease?
Accumulation of metabolites that lead to seizures
228
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
229
What condition is a contraindication for using lepirudin?
Kidney disease
230
What condition is a contraindication to using argatroban?
Hepatic dysfunction
231
What is treatment of Sezary syndrome (t cell lymphoma of blood/bone marrow?)
Alemtuzumab
232
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
233
What is standard chemo regimen for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
234
What chemo agent is the single most effective agent in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
| Usually use FOLFOX regimen
235
What is primary chemo agents for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
| Plus radiation
236
What is most common agent used for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine +/- FOLFIRINOX
237
What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor?
Appendix
238
What kind of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia and PTHrP?
NSCLC
239
Which type of lung cancer tends to be located peripherally?
NSCLC
240
What change in FEV1 is associated with a positive bronchodilator challenge test?
Falls 20% from baseline
241
What are the main adverse side effects of theophylline?
Cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
242
What part of the lungs is primarily affected by alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency?
Bases
243
What is the most common cause of a macrocytic anemia with MCV >115?
Megaloblastic diseases ie MDS
244
Is MCV typically normal, elevated, or low in hemolytic anemia?
Elevated
245
When should you check for G6PD activity following an acute hemolytic event?
2-3 months later, can be falsely normal right after a hemolytic event
246
What is potential complication of using meperidine in sickle cell disease?
Accumulation of metabolites that lead to seizures
247
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
248
What condition is a contraindication for using lepirudin?
Kidney disease
249
What condition is a contraindication to using argatroban?
Hepatic dysfunction
250
What is treatment of Sezary syndrome (t cell lymphoma of blood/bone marrow?)
Alemtuzumab
251
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
252
What is standard chemo regimen for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
253
What chemo agent is the single most effective agent in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
| Usually use FOLFOX regimen
254
What is primary chemo agents for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
| Plus radiation
255
What is most common agent used for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine +/- FOLFIRINOX
256
What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor?
Appendix
257
What kind of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia and PTHrP?
NSCLC
258
Which type of lung cancer tends to be located peripherally?
NSCLC
259
What change in FEV1 is associated with a positive bronchodilator challenge test?
Falls 20% from baseline
260
What are the main adverse side effects of theophylline?
Cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
261
What part of the lungs is primarily affected by alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency?
Bases
262
What is the most common cause of a macrocytic anemia with MCV >115?
Megaloblastic diseases ie MDS
263
Is MCV typically normal, elevated, or low in hemolytic anemia?
Elevated
264
When should you check for G6PD activity following an acute hemolytic event?
2-3 months later, can be falsely normal right after a hemolytic event
265
What is potential complication of using meperidine in sickle cell disease?
Accumulation of metabolites that lead to seizures
266
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
267
What condition is a contraindication for using lepirudin?
Kidney disease
268
What condition is a contraindication to using argatroban?
Hepatic dysfunction
269
What is treatment of Sezary syndrome (t cell lymphoma of blood/bone marrow?)
Alemtuzumab
270
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
271
What is standard chemo regimen for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
272
What chemo agent is the single most effective agent in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
| Usually use FOLFOX regimen
273
What is primary chemo agents for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
| Plus radiation
274
What is most common agent used for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine +/- FOLFIRINOX
275
What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor?
Appendix
276
What kind of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia and PTHrP?
NSCLC
277
Which type of lung cancer tends to be located peripherally?
NSCLC
278
What change in FEV1 is associated with a positive bronchodilator challenge test?
Falls 20% from baseline
279
What are the main adverse side effects of theophylline?
Cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
280
What part of the lungs is primarily affected by alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency?
Bases
281
What is the most common cause of a macrocytic anemia with MCV >115?
Megaloblastic diseases ie MDS
282
Is MCV typically normal, elevated, or low in hemolytic anemia?
Elevated
283
When should you check for G6PD activity following an acute hemolytic event?
2-3 months later, can be falsely normal right after a hemolytic event
284
What is potential complication of using meperidine in sickle cell disease?
Accumulation of metabolites that lead to seizures
285
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
286
What condition is a contraindication for using lepirudin?
Kidney disease
287
What condition is a contraindication to using argatroban?
Hepatic dysfunction
288
What is treatment of Sezary syndrome (t cell lymphoma of blood/bone marrow?)
Alemtuzumab
289
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
290
What is standard chemo regimen for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
291
What chemo agent is the single most effective agent in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
| Usually use FOLFOX regimen
292
What is primary chemo agents for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
| Plus radiation
293
What is most common agent used for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine +/- FOLFIRINOX
294
What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor?
Appendix
295
What kind of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia and PTHrP?
NSCLC
296
Which type of lung cancer tends to be located peripherally?
NSCLC
297
What change in FEV1 is associated with a positive bronchodilator challenge test?
Falls 20% from baseline
298
What are the main adverse side effects of theophylline?
Cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
299
What part of the lungs is primarily affected by alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency?
Bases
300
What is the most common cause of a macrocytic anemia with MCV >115?
Megaloblastic diseases ie MDS
301
Is MCV typically normal, elevated, or low in hemolytic anemia?
Elevated
302
When should you check for G6PD activity following an acute hemolytic event?
2-3 months later, can be falsely normal right after a hemolytic event
303
What is potential complication of using meperidine in sickle cell disease?
Accumulation of metabolites that lead to seizures
304
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
305
What condition is a contraindication for using lepirudin?
Kidney disease
306
What condition is a contraindication to using argatroban?
Hepatic dysfunction
307
What is treatment of Sezary syndrome (t cell lymphoma of blood/bone marrow?)
Alemtuzumab
308
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
309
What is standard chemo regimen for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
310
What chemo agent is the single most effective agent in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
| Usually use FOLFOX regimen
311
What is primary chemo agents for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
| Plus radiation
312
What is most common agent used for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine +/- FOLFIRINOX
313
What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor?
Appendix
314
What kind of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia and PTHrP?
NSCLC
315
Which type of lung cancer tends to be located peripherally?
NSCLC
316
What change in FEV1 is associated with a positive bronchodilator challenge test?
Falls 20% from baseline
317
What are the main adverse side effects of theophylline?
Cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
318
What part of the lungs is primarily affected by alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency?
Bases
319
What is the most common cause of a macrocytic anemia with MCV >115?
Megaloblastic diseases ie MDS
320
Is MCV typically normal, elevated, or low in hemolytic anemia?
Elevated
321
When should you check for G6PD activity following an acute hemolytic event?
2-3 months later, can be falsely normal right after a hemolytic event
322
What is potential complication of using meperidine in sickle cell disease?
Accumulation of metabolites that lead to seizures
323
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
324
What condition is a contraindication for using lepirudin?
Kidney disease
325
What condition is a contraindication to using argatroban?
Hepatic dysfunction
326
What is treatment of Sezary syndrome (t cell lymphoma of blood/bone marrow?)
Alemtuzumab
327
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
328
What is standard chemo regimen for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
329
What chemo agent is the single most effective agent in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
| Usually use FOLFOX regimen
330
What is primary chemo agents for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
| Plus radiation
331
What is most common agent used for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine +/- FOLFIRINOX
332
What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor?
Appendix
333
What kind of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia and PTHrP?
NSCLC
334
Which type of lung cancer tends to be located peripherally?
NSCLC
335
What change in FEV1 is associated with a positive bronchodilator challenge test?
Falls 20% from baseline
336
What are the main adverse side effects of theophylline?
Cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
337
What part of the lungs is primarily affected by alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency?
Bases
338
What is the most common cause of a macrocytic anemia with MCV >115?
Megaloblastic diseases ie MDS
339
Is MCV typically normal, elevated, or low in hemolytic anemia?
Elevated
340
When should you check for G6PD activity following an acute hemolytic event?
2-3 months later, can be falsely normal right after a hemolytic event
341
What is potential complication of using meperidine in sickle cell disease?
Accumulation of metabolites that lead to seizures
342
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
343
What condition is a contraindication for using lepirudin?
Kidney disease
344
What condition is a contraindication to using argatroban?
Hepatic dysfunction
345
What is treatment of Sezary syndrome (t cell lymphoma of blood/bone marrow?)
Alemtuzumab
346
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
347
What is standard chemo regimen for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
348
What chemo agent is the single most effective agent in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
| Usually use FOLFOX regimen
349
What is primary chemo agents for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
| Plus radiation
350
What is most common agent used for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine +/- FOLFIRINOX
351
What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor?
Appendix
352
What kind of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia and PTHrP?
NSCLC
353
Which type of lung cancer tends to be located peripherally?
NSCLC
354
What change in FEV1 is associated with a positive bronchodilator challenge test?
Falls 20% from baseline
355
What are the main adverse side effects of theophylline?
Cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
356
What part of the lungs is primarily affected by alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency?
Bases
357
What is the most common cause of a macrocytic anemia with MCV >115?
Megaloblastic diseases ie MDS
358
Is MCV typically normal, elevated, or low in hemolytic anemia?
Elevated
359
When should you check for G6PD activity following an acute hemolytic event?
2-3 months later, can be falsely normal right after a hemolytic event
360
What is potential complication of using meperidine in sickle cell disease?
Accumulation of metabolites that lead to seizures
361
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
362
What condition is a contraindication for using lepirudin?
Kidney disease
363
What condition is a contraindication to using argatroban?
Hepatic dysfunction
364
What is treatment of Sezary syndrome (t cell lymphoma of blood/bone marrow?)
Alemtuzumab
365
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
366
What is standard chemo regimen for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
367
What chemo agent is the single most effective agent in colorectal cancer?
5-FU
| Usually use FOLFOX regimen
368
What is primary chemo agents for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
| Plus radiation
369
What is most common agent used for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine +/- FOLFIRINOX
370
What is the most common site of carcinoid tumor?
Appendix
371
What kind of lung cancer is associated with hypercalcemia and PTHrP?
NSCLC
372
Which type of lung cancer tends to be located peripherally?
NSCLC
373
What change in FEV1 is associated with a positive bronchodilator challenge test?
Falls 20% from baseline
374
What are the main adverse side effects of theophylline?
Cardiac arrhythmias and seizures
375
What part of the lungs is primarily affected by alpha 1 anti trypsin deficiency?
Bases
376
What is the most common cause of a macrocytic anemia with MCV >115?
Megaloblastic diseases ie MDS
377
Is MCV typically normal, elevated, or low in hemolytic anemia?
Elevated
378
When should you check for G6PD activity following an acute hemolytic event?
2-3 months later, can be falsely normal right after a hemolytic event
379
What is potential complication of using meperidine in sickle cell disease?
Accumulation of metabolites that lead to seizures
380
What platelet count in pregnancy requires further monitoring or work up?
381
What condition is a contraindication for using lepirudin?
Kidney disease
382
What condition is a contraindication to using argatroban?
Hepatic dysfunction
383
What is treatment of Sezary syndrome (t cell lymphoma of blood/bone marrow?)
Alemtuzumab
384
What size of renal mass is usually treated with just observation?
385
What is standard chemo regimen for anal cancer?
Mitomycin plus 5-FU
386
What adjacent endocrine therapy is recommended for men with breast CA?
Tamoxifen
387
What is major side effect of aromatase inhibitors?
Increased bone loss/osteoporosis
388
What antidepressants are contraindicated in patients on tamoxifen?
Fluoxetine
Paroxetine
Bupropion
They affect CYP2D6 and decrease effectiveness of tamoxifen
