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Hematopoiesis Flashcards

1
Q

HIM

Full meaning?

A

Hematopoietic inductive environment

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2
Q

why can bone marrow undergo and sustain hematopoiesis. ?

A

HIM

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3
Q

HIM

It consists of 4 things
List!!

a._____
b._____
c.______
d.______

A

Good Blood flow

Hematopoietic tissue stoma

Extracellular stroma matrix

Specific site of precursor cell differentiation

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4
Q

HIM contains Hematopoietic tissue stoma that _______

A

contains cells on which hematopoietic cells grow and divide

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5
Q

HIM contains Extracellular stroma matrix that ________ by acting as a ________

A

provide a framework on which differentiation can occur

specific recognition and adhesion sites

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6
Q

TABLE
-Pluripotent gives ___ and ____

A

myeloid and lymphoid

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7
Q

Structure of the bone marrow

*____-____-____-_____ (outer - inner)

A

Periosteum -cortex - endosteum - bone marrow space

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8
Q

The space surrounded by the endosteal surfaces is known as ____, and the structure within it is known as the _____

A

bone cavity

bone marrow.

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9
Q

Blood supply to the marrow

-Arterial supply is by the ____ artery.
-The artery pierces into the ____ via the ____

A

nutrient

bone cortex

nutrient canal.

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10
Q

Blood supply to the marrow

Once the nutrient artery reaches the bone marrow space/cavity, it becomes the _____ artery.

A

medullary

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11
Q

Blood supply to the marrow

In the bone marrow space, the medullary artery often divides into the ___________ that move ____________ to reach the _____ of the ______

A

ascending and descending medullary branches.

across the bone marrow space

endosteal surface of the opposite side.

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12
Q

Blood supply to the marrow

The branches the ascending and descending medullary arteries give off while running
in the bone marrow space are known as ________ or _____ arteries.

A

transverse or arcuate

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13
Q

Blood supply to the marrow

The arcuate arteries pierce through the ___ and _____ , and then become _____ that run through the _______

A

endosteum and cortex

capillaries

Haversian canal

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14
Q

Haversian canals are _____ or _____ in ____ bone that house ____ and _____

A

microscopic tubes or tunnels

cortical

nerve fibers and a few capillaries

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15
Q

The HIM

-Haemopoiesis occurs within the bone marrow’s _______; and Within these,there is a ____________

A

sinusoids

Haemopoietic Inductive Environment (HIM).

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16
Q

The HIM

-The outside of the HIM is lined by ____ cells

A

endothelial

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17
Q

the( outer or inner?) part of the HIM is the actual site of haemopoiesis.

A

inner

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18
Q

The HIM

-The newly formed cells move from the HIM to enter the ______, from which they enter the ______,and then enter the general circulation.

A

medullary veins

emissary veins

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19
Q

THE HIM

The outer surface of the HIM, which is lined by _____ cells is known as the
_____ surface, while the inner surface is known as the _____ surface.

A

Endothelial

luminal

abluminal

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20
Q

THE HIM

The abluminal surface is lined by:
_____
_____
______
____

A

• Reticulum cells
• Fibroblasts
• Adipocytes
• M&s

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21
Q

Bone marrow cell pool
There are 3 major cell pools:
1. The ____ cell pool
2. The _____ cell pool
3. The _____ cell pool

A

stem

progenitor

precursor

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22
Q

A stem cell
-is that cell with two main properties:
-It is capable of ____ and capacity for _____

A

mitotic division

cell renewal

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23
Q

A stem cell

It is capable of cell division that results in cell _____.

A

differentiation

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24
Q

(Stem, Precursor or progenitor?) cells

These are cells in the bone marrow that can be identified morphologically.

A

Precursor

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25
Q

Progenitor cells
-They are between the ____ and ___ cells.

A

stem cells and precursor

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26
Q

Progenitor cells

They are morphologically
identifiable

T/F

A

F

They are not morphologically
identifiable

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27
Q

Progenitor cells

-do not renew themselves.
T/F

A

T

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28
Q

Erythropoiesis
-All blood cells are derivatives of the _________ cell.

A

pluripotential stem

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29
Q

Erythropoiesis

A pluripotential stem cell is capable of renewal or division and differentiation into:
•____
•_____ committed stem cell
-The length of time between maturation of the polychromatic cell to reticulocyte in the bone marrow is approximately 5 days
-In the spleen, reticulocytes take another 48-72 hours to become fully mature
erythrocytes
-In all, it takes approximately 7 days for a proerythroblast to form mature
erythrocytes.

A

GEMM

Lymphoid

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30
Q

•GEMM: ___,__,____,____

A

granulocyte erythroid macrophage megakaryocyte

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31
Q

Erythropoiesis

The length of time between maturation of the polychromatic cell to reticulocyte in the bone marrow is approximately ______

-In the ____, reticulocytes take another _____ to become fully mature
erythrocytes
-In all, it takes approximately ______ for a proerythroblast to form mature
erythrocytes.

A

5 days

spleen

48-72 hours

7 days

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32
Q

Megakaryopoiesis

-Megakaryocytopoeisis produces _______ which divide to form ________.

A

CFU-megakryocytes.

the megakaryoblast

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33
Q

Megakaryopoiesis

the megakaryoblast is a (small or large?) sized cell with a (single or double?) nucleus and the cytoplasm is ____

A

Small

Single

hardly visible.

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34
Q

note that all platelet disorders have ___eased bleeding time , _____ bleeding and _______, platelet count is usually (high or low?) but may be normal in _____ disorders

A

Incr

mucous membrane

microhemorrhages

Low

qualitative

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35
Q

Eg of microhemorrhages
??

A

petechiae, epistaxis

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36
Q

Petechiae

Are ???

A

Tiny round, brown-purple spots due to bleeding under the skin, may be in a small area due to minor trauma, or widespread due to blood-clotting disorder.

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37
Q

Myelopoiesis
-The progenitor cells for the myeloid cells (____ and _____ ) are the highly proliferating potential colony forming cell type _, which proliferates
mitotically to form HPR CFC type __.

A

monocytes and granulocytes

1

2

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38
Q

The HPP CFC type 2 is capable of differentiating into various types of cells including:
1. _____
2.______
3.______

A

Granulocyte/Monocyte colony forming cell (GM-CFC)

Eosinophil colony forming cell (Eo-CFC)

Basophil colony forming cell (Ba-CFC)

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39
Q

The GM-CFC can divide mitotically into two types of daughter cells: _____ and ____

A

granulocyte-CFC and Monocyte-CFC

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40
Q

Granulopoiesis

-Granulocyte CFU, eosinophil CFU, basophil CFU, when they divide, all differentiate into the _____.

A

myeloblast

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41
Q

The myeloblast derived from Granulocyte CFU, eosinophil CFU, basophil CFU are differentiatable from one another.

T/F

A

F

They are not

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42
Q

The myeloblast of Granulocyte CFU, eosinophil CFU, basophil CFU are usually the same in morphological characteristics.

T/F

A

T

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43
Q

This myeloblast of Granulocyte CFU, eosinophil CFU, basophil CFU is usually a (small or large?) cell with ___ nucleus, usually ___ in shape

A

Large

One

Oval

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44
Q

Lymphopoiesis
-The formation of lymphocytes also starts from the _____ cells, which are capable of differentiating into the lymphoid committed stem cells (LCSCs).
-The LSCCs are capable of diving into two types of cells:
• _-cell lineage
• _-cell lineage

A

pluripotential stem

B

T

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45
Q

B-Cell Otogeny
-The B-cell lineage (first cell) is often referred to as the ___ cell, which is capable of maturing into the B-cell in transition (BT)
-The BT is capable of dividing and maturing into the ____-cells (__)

A

pre-B

virgin B ; VBCs

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46
Q

virgin B-cells are are capable of leaving the HIM to join the circulation.

T/F

A

T

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47
Q

B-cell ontogeny

The mechanism by which different B-cells have different surface membrane
immunoglobulins is due to the phenomenon of ______
-The immunoglobulin molecule usually has ____ and _____ chains.

A

gene arrangement.

two heavy and two light

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48
Q

The gene coding for the heavy chains is on chromosome ____.

Two genes code for the light chains: The gene for K__ chain is on chromosome __, and that for ____ chain is on chromosome __.

A

14

Kappa; 2

Lambda; 22

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49
Q

T Cell Otogeny

-T-cells are derived from ____ cells often simply called ___ cells.

A

pre-thymic ; pre-T-

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50
Q

The lymphoid committed cell is capable of giving rise to the Pre-T-cell.

T/F

A

T

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51
Q

The preT-cell is a cell that is going to the ___ for its further maturation.

A

thymus

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52
Q

The thymus gland is a lymphoid aggregate that is found in the ______ and made up of two lobes, each consisting of several lobules.

Each lobule consists of a __ and a ____

A

anterior mediastinum

cortex

Medulla

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53
Q

T-cell ontogeny

-The ____ cells and the ____cells constitute 94-95% of the total T-cells.

-There are three other subtypes of T-cells that could form in small proportion in
circulation:
• T- ______ cells
• T-_____cells
• T-_____ cells

A

T-helper

cytotoxic T-

delay-hypersensitivity

suppressor

natural killer

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54
Q

____and ____ cells are the main target of HIV

A

CD4

helper T

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55
Q

Eosinophils

They Fight against ______

They are highly phagocytic for _______ complexes

They produce _____,_____, etc

A

helminthic infections

antigen-antibody

histaminase, MBP

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56
Q

Basophils

They Mediate ____ reactions;

They contain _____ and ____

They can synthesize ____ on demand

A

allergic

heparin and histamine

leukotriene

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57
Q

Basophilia is (common or uncommon?) but can be a sign of _________

A

Uncommon

myeloproliferative disorders

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58
Q

Mast cells

They Mediate ___ reactions

They contain ____ granules

They are activated by ______

They release _____,_____,_____ and ____

A

allergic

basophilic

tissue trauma

heparin , histamine, tryptase, eosinophil chemotactic factors

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59
Q

Mastocytosis is (common or rare?) and is associated with ______, increase in serum _____ and _____

A

Rare

c-KIT mutations

typtase and histamine

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60
Q

Abluminal surface is lined by?

A

Reticulum/adventitia cells
Adipose cells
Fibroblasts
Marrow/stromal cells
Macrophages

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61
Q

The HIM reticulum cells are responsible for production of ________ that are secreted into the ______ into the space of the HIM

A

Reticulin fibers

Matrix tissue

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62
Q

The ______ and _______ cells produce collagen fibers

be specific about the collagen fibers

A

fibroblasts and stromal

Collagen 1,3,4

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63
Q

The cement tissue of the HIM space is often referred to as ________ and include

____
______
_____
____

A

Aminoglycans

Hyaluronic acid
Heparin sulfate
Chondroitin (4) sulfate
Dermatan

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64
Q

Besides aminoglycans, the cells of the abluminal surface also synthesize and secrete _______ into the HIM space

A

Hematopoietic growth factors

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65
Q

Hematopoietic growth factors include:

A

Granulocyte colony stimulating factor
Granulocyte macrophages colony stimulating factor

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66
Q

List proteins that ensure that immature cells do not leave the HIM

A

Fibronectin
Hemonectin
Vitrectin

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67
Q

Requirement for platelet adhesion

A

VWF
enough platelets
Glp 1b receptor

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68
Q

Requirement for platelet aggregation

A

Glp2b/3a receptor
Fibrinogen

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69
Q

Glanzmann’s disease- deficiency of ______

Bernard soulier’s disease- deficiency of ______

A

Glp 2b/3a receptor
Glp1b receptor

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70
Q

Platelet-platelet =_____
Platelet-sub endothelial structures=_____

A

Aggregation
Adhesion

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71
Q

MCV=_____

A

Pcv/ rbc count

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72
Q

MCH=_____

A

Hb/rbc count

73
Q

MCHC=_______

A

Hb/pcv

74
Q

In megaloblastic anaemia, issue is with ______ and not _____

In microcytic anaemia, issue is with ______ and not _____

A

Replication; transcription

Transcription; replication

75
Q

WHERE blood is formed

First 3-4 months of IUL
4th week
4th week-4th month of IUL
End of 4th month
6th month of IUL
7th month of IUL to 24months after birth

A

Yolk sac
Liver
Liver and spleen
Liver and spleen reduces
Liver and spleen ends
All bones in the body

76
Q

By the ______ month of IUL, the liver and spleen no longer form blood

A

Sixth to seventh

77
Q

When do long bones reduce or stop producing blood

A

18years of age

78
Q

Which bones produce forever

A

Bones at the base of the skull
Pelvic girdle
Shoulder girdle
Vertebral column
Rib cage

79
Q

By the _____ month, the human bones have been well formed, and cavitations appear to show in the bones. These cavities are usually occupied by the bone marrow. As early as the ______ of intra-uterine life, some haemopoiesis has begun to occur in these cavities.

However, in this early stage, only _______ and _______ occur in the foetal bone marrow.

A

5th

5th month

granulopoiesis and megakaryopoiesis

80
Q

sources of oxygen delivery to bone cells?

A

Haversian capillaries

81
Q

Haversian capillaries turn back to re-enter the bone marrow space and then
balloon out to become the _____, which drain into the ______ that leave the bone marrow as ______

A

bone marrow sinusoids

medullary veins

emissary veins.

82
Q

Separating the luminal from the abluminal surface is a very (thin or thick ?) subendothelial structure made of _____ and ______

A

Thin

laminin and elastin.

83
Q

Erythropoiesis occurs within HIM at the level that is closest to the ______
surfaces of the HIM.

Megakaryopoiesis occurs at __________ within the HIM.

A

abluminal

the same level as erythropoiesis

84
Q

Inner to the erythropoietic and megakaryopoietic islands within HIM are the ___________

A

granulopoietic islands.

85
Q

Lymphopoietic islands are found at the ________ of the HIM.

A

very core

86
Q

Progenitor cells renew themselves

T/F

A

F

87
Q

A pluripotential stem cell
is capable of renewal or division and differentiation into:
• ____
•______

A

GEMM

Lymphoid committed stem cell

88
Q

GEMM:_____

A

granulocyte erythroid macrophage megakaryocyte

89
Q

The GEMM can renew itself or divide and differentiate into:
1.____________
2.____________
3. ________________

A

BFU-E: burst forming unit—erythroid

BFU-MK: burst forming unt—megakaryocyte

HPP-CFC: highly proliferative potential colony forming cells

90
Q

the first morphologically identifiable erythroid cell in the bone marrow is
the ________ (the first precursor cell).

A

proerythroblast

91
Q

The most important morphological identity of a proerythroblast, like other red cell precursors, is the __________

A

coin circularity of the nucleus.

92
Q

The cytoplasm of the proerythroblast is completely _____ in colour.

Traces of haemoglobin can be
detected by ______ test.

A

dark bluish

Feugen

93
Q

The proerythroblast undergoes division and matures into the __________, which undergoes mitotic division and matures into ________, which in turn divides mitotically into the _________,
which in turn divides into the ________.

A

basophilic erythroblast type 1

basophilic erythroblast
type 2

polychromatophilic erythroblast

orthochromatophilic erythroblast

94
Q

The orthochromatophilic eryrthroblast is capable of further mitotic division

T/F

A

F

95
Q

The reticulocyte is capable of moving out of the HIM
T/F

A

T

96
Q

The reticulocyte travels out of the HIM through the blood to the _____, where it becomes a mature red blood cells.

A

spleen

97
Q

The orthochromatophilic erythroblast has (minimal or maximal?) amount of Hb RNA .

A

Minimal

98
Q

1 proerythroblast gives rise to ____ reticulocytes.

A

16

99
Q

erythroid maturation implies cytoplasmic ______ and _____ of
the nucleus.

A

haemoglobinization

pyknosis

100
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies: fragments of _____

Heinz bodies: are usually precipitates of ______

Pappeinheimer bodies: ion-laden _______

Cabot-ring inclusion bodies:_____

A

red blood cell nucleus

haemoglobin

mitochondria
Telophase strings

101
Q

Megakaryocytopoeisis produces __________ that divide to
form the ________.

A

CFU-megakryocytes.

megakaryoblast

102
Q

the megakaryoblast is a (small or large ?) sized cell with a single nucleus and the cytoplasm is ______

The megakaryoblast is often commonly confused or misidentified as a ______\in the bone marrow. But because it can easily be stained for ______, it can easily be differentiated

A

Small

hardly visible.

matured lymphocyte

platelet derived growth factor

103
Q

The _______ is the first morphologically identifiable megakaryocytic cell in the bone marrow.

A

megakaryoblast

104
Q

The megakaryoblast undergoes mitotic division, resulting in the single nucleus
becoming ______. But there is usually a failure of _______, such that the
daughter would remain a _______ single cell.
This cell is called the ___-stage
megakaryocyte which also undergoes mitotic division, to form the ____-stage megakaryocytes. Nuclear
differentiation can continue to the
____-N stage megakaryocytes.

A

binucleated; telophase; binucleated

2-N

4-N

128

105
Q

The phenomenon of mitosis with failure of telophase is referred to as ________.

A

endonuclear reduplication

106
Q

The progenitor cells for the myeloid cells (monocytes and granulocytes) are the
__________, which proliferates
mitotically to form ________.

A

highly proliferating potential colony forming cell type 1

HPP CFC type 2

107
Q

The HPR CFC type 2 is capable of differentiating into various types of cells including:
1. _______
2._______
3.________

A

Granulocyte/Monocyte colony forming cell (GM-CFC)

Eosinophil colony forming cell (Eo-CFC)

Basophil colony forming cell (Ba-CFC)

108
Q

The macrophage CFC, on mitotic division, becomes a ______ , which is the first morphologically recognisable monocytic cell in the bone marrow.

Which gives rise to ______, which gives rise to the ______.

A

monoblast

pro-monocyte

monocyte

109
Q

The monocyte is capable of leaving the HIM environment to join the circulation.

T/F

A

T

110
Q

Monocytes

Those that migrate to the liver become ______
• Those that migrate to the spleen are called _______
• Those that migrate to the lungs become the _________
• Those that migrate to the brain become the _____
• Those that move to the lymphatics become the ____.
• Those in the kidneys are known as the _______
• Those that move back to the bone marrow itself are known as the _____ or _____
• Those in the skin are the _______

A

Kupffer cells.

follicular dendritic cells.

pulmonary alveolar macrophages.

glial cells.

veil cells

mesangial cells.

histiocytes or bone marrow macrophages.

Langerhans cells.

111
Q

major function of monocyte-macrophage mononuclear system is to mediate:
1. ______
2. ___________

A

Opsonization

Phagocytosis of damaged cells or foreign cells

112
Q

The most important characteristic of monocytes is that they express on their
__________________ and are as such able to identify any other cell that have ________ deposited on them.

The _______ on bacterial or microbial surface is recognized as opsonin by the monocyte or monocyte-derived cell.

The monocyte also has, in addition to Fc fragment receptor, the _____ receptor.

A

membrane FC-fragment receptors

altered immunoglobulins

immunoglobulin

C3b

113
Q

When a microbial agent is opsonized, the altered Fc fragment, depending on the type of immunoglobulin, is also capable of activating ______, which generate
______, which is deposited on the membrane of the microbial agent.

Thus, the monocyte can identify the microbial agent either by identifying the immunoglobulin with _______ or by ______

A

complement proteins

C3b

Fc
fragment receptor, or by C3b.

114
Q

myeloblast is usually a (small or large?) cell with ____ nucleus, usually ____ or ____ in shape but never _______

A

Large

one

oval or round

point circular

115
Q

The cytoplasm of the myeloblast is filled with ohh granules .

T/F

A

F

usually empty of granules

116
Q

myeloblasts also undergo mitotic division and become or differentiate into a cell known as _______.

A

promyelocyte

117
Q

The promyelocyte is also a (small or big?) cell with a (small or big?) , round nucleus

A

Big
Big

118
Q

The promyelocyte is usually like the myeloblast.

T/F

A

T

119
Q

The major characteristic of
a promyelocyte is that it ________

A

has large numbers of primary granules.

120
Q

The promyelocyte undergoes mitotic division and differentiate into a cell called ______.

A

myelocyte

121
Q

The myelocyte are usually (smaller or larger?) than the promyelocyte

A

Smaller

122
Q

The major characteristic of the myelocyte is that it is at this stage of development that _______.

A

the secondary granules appear

123
Q

Difference between the secondary and primary granules

A

Secondary is more but smaller
Primary is less but larger

124
Q

Light microscopy is capable
of resolving the size of secondary granules.
T/F

A

F

125
Q

The myelocyte has a ____ nucleus and a _____ which many not be visible or prominent

A

Single round

Nucleoli

126
Q

myelocyte divides and differentiates into a cell referred to as _______.

A

metamyelocyte

127
Q

The morphological characteristic of metamyelocyte is that _________, and the____________. —

A

the round nucleus of the myelocyte has become indented

128
Q

The metamyelocyte is incapable of cell division

T/F
With reason

A

T
Doesn’t have nucleoli

129
Q

The metamyelocyte only further matures by ________ and when this covers more than 1/3 of the cytoplasm is usually
referred to as ___________

A

further deepening of its nuclear indentation.

band granulocyte.

130
Q

myelocytes of granulocytes, eosinophils, and basophils are (same or different?)
from one another

A

Different

131
Q

The promyelocytes of neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are (same or different ?) from one another.

A

Same

132
Q

The myeloblasts of neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are (same or different?) from one another.

A

Same

133
Q

For erythropoesis

Myeloid stem cells to ——- to ——- to ———- to ——— to ——— to ———- to ——— to ——- to ———

A

CFU GEMM
BFU E
CFU E
Proerythroblast
basophilic erythroblast 1
basophilic erythroblast 2
Polychromatic erythroblast
Orthochromatic erythroblast
Erythrocyte

134
Q

For megakarycytopoesis

From myeloid stem cells to —— to —— to ——— to ———— to ————

A

CFU GEMM
CFU MEG
megakaryoblast
Megakaryocyte
Platelets

135
Q

For Granulocytopoesis

From myeloid stem cells to —— to ——- to ——— to ——- to ——— to ——- to ——- to ——- to ——- to ———-

A

CFU GEMM
HPP-CFC type 1
HPP CFC type 2
CFU GM
CFU G
Myeloblast
Promyelocyte
Myelocyte(N,E,B)
Metamyelocyte(N,E,B)
Band (N,E,B)
N, E, B

136
Q

For monocytopoesis

From myeloid stem cells to —— to ——- to ______ to _______ to _______ to ______ to _____ to ______ to _______

A

CFU GEMM
HPP CFC 1
HPP CFC2
CFU GM
CFU M
monoblast
Promonocyte
Monocyte
Macrophages

137
Q

An average functional platelet has the lifespan of _____

RBC_____

A

5-7 days
120days

138
Q

What percentage of the adult marrow is occupied by hematopoetic tissue?
__%

A

50

139
Q

______ and _____ expresses immaturity receptors

A

Collagen

Recticulin

140
Q

List 2 other Hemopoetic growth factors besides Granulocytes Colony Stimulating Growth Factor and Granulocyte Macrophage Colony Stimulating Growth Factor

A

Eythropoetic Growth Factor
Thrombopoetic Growth Factor

141
Q

The homing factors help to _______

A

attract stem cells to the HIM

142
Q

List 6 homing factors for stem cells

A

Laminin
Vimentin
Fibronectin
Haemonectin
Tenascin
Endoglin

143
Q

The biochemical identification of an erythroid progenitor cell is the appearance of (small or large?) quantity of ________ on the membrane of these cells

A

Small
ABO blood group antigens

144
Q

Xterics of proerythroblast

______ nucleus
(Small or large?) cell
_______ cytoplasm

A

Large
Large
Thin rim of

145
Q

The most important morphological characteristic of the basophilic erythroblast 1 is ______

A

Coin circularity of nucleus

146
Q

Who has bigger cytoplasm
Who has deeper blue color

Proerythroblast or basophilic erythroblast1

A

basophilic erythroblast1

Proerythroblast

147
Q

Polychromatic erythroblast has a coin circular nucleus

T/F

A

T

148
Q

Orthocromatic erythroblast

_____ sized cell
Cytoplasm is ______ in size and ____ in color
Nucleus is ______ placed

A

Small
Large; reddish
Eccentrically

149
Q

Reticulocute leaves the HIM as _______ cell

A

Anucelated

150
Q

The basophils are referred to as the ___ cells of the body

A

Alarm

151
Q

Mention 2 opsonins

A

Immunoglobulin and C3b

152
Q

Stem cell pools are CD ___

A

34+

153
Q

Erythroid progenitor cells

Cannot be differentiated
Has morphologic characteristics
Divides to yield both progenitor and precursor cells
Can not be identified under a light microscope
T/F

A

F
F
F
T

154
Q

Polychromatic erythroblast

Increased cytoplasm
Stains both blue and red
Stains for both Hb and DNA
T/F

A

T
T
F(RNA)

155
Q

Pappeinheimer bodies are seen in ________ anemia

A

Sideroblastic

156
Q

Diameter of a discocyte

What is a discocyte

A

8 microns

Normal erythrocyte

157
Q

Blood cells are of_______ origin

A

mesodermal

158
Q

The blood cells are produced intra vascularly in the liver and yolk sac

T/F

A

F

extra

159
Q

Primitive hematopoietic stem cells are found first in the ____,_____,_____

A

aorta, gonad, and mesonephros

160
Q

Kidneys also produce blood in the IUL

T/F

A

F

Kidney doesn’t do shit

161
Q

Stem cell isn’t resistant to radiation

T/F

A

T

162
Q

The nucleus:cytoplasmic ration for proerythroblast is ______

A

80:1

163
Q

You shouldn’t be able to see proerythroblast to orthochromatic erythroblast in a peripheral smear.

T/F

If you do, it’s a ______

A

T

pathology

164
Q

During Bcell maturation, there is accompanying immunoglobulin production
T/F

A

T

165
Q

Bcell-numbers are (low or high?)
Tcell-numbers are (low or high?)

A

High

Low

166
Q

Answer with does or does not contain iron

Howell jolly bodies
Basophilic stippling
Heinz
Pappeinheimer

A

does not contain iron
does not contain iron
Does contain iron
Does contain iron

167
Q

Heinz is as a result of ______ deficiency

A

G6PD

168
Q

In megaloblastic anaemia,

Level of MCV, MCH, and MCHC

A

large/high
Large /high
Normal or high

169
Q

In microcytic anaemia,

Level of MCV, MCH, and MCHC

A

Low
Low
Low

170
Q

Which of the following is the primary site of hematopoiesis in a fetus at 20 weeks of gestation?
a. Spleen
b. Liver
c. Bone marrow
d. Yolk sac

A

B

171
Q

Which of the following interleukin is implicated in early hemato­ poiesis?
a. IL–1 b. IL–2 c. IL–3 d. IL–4

A

C

172
Q

Very high reticulocyte count is seen in:
a. Acute hemorrhage
b. PRCA
c. b-thalassemia
d. Hb E disease

A

A

173
Q

in b-thalassemia, there is ineffective erythropoiesis

T/F

A

T

174
Q

When there is ineffective erythropoiesis, reticulocyte count increases

T/F

A

F

does not increase

175
Q

CD34 is a marker of:
a. Angiogenesis b. T-lymphocytes c. B-Lymphocytes d. Myeloblasts

A

A

176
Q

Hematopoiesis in the fetus starts in the:
a. Liver at 12 weeks
b. Liver at 6 weeks
c. Bone marrow at 8 weeks
d. Yolk sac at 4 weeks

A

B

177
Q

Which of the following growth factors/cytokines are not of potential clinical value to stimulate hematopoiesis?
a. Thrombopoieitn
b. Erythropoietin
c. GM-CSF
d. Interleukins e. IFN-γ

A

E

178
Q

Earliest hemoglobin to appear is ??

Division occurs in orthochromatic erythroblast?

Erythropoietin therapy is most effective in??

Stem cell constitute 1% of bone marrow cells?

A

Portland

No

Anemia of renal failure

No

179
Q

Which of the following statements is not true regarding extra­ medullary hematopoiesis?
a. Occurs in severe hemolytic anemia
b. May rarely be seen in megaloblastic anemia
c. Occurs in fetus
d. Occurs in secondary polycythemia

A

D

House Hemat (29 decks)

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