Basic Hematological Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

All information required for the development of a complete adult organism is contained in a single cell (________)

A

zygote

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2
Q

DNA contain only four different bases

List them!

A

Adenine (A); Guanine (G); Thymine (T) and Cytosine (C)

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3
Q

DNA exists as a ______ in which ___ is paired to ___ and ___ to __

A

double helix

A; T

G; C

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4
Q

A linear strand of DNA has one end where the OH - group attached to the 5-carbon is free (ie ______ end or ___ stream end) while the other end in which the OH-group attached to the 3-carbon is free (_____ end or _____ stream end)

A

5 primer ; up

3-primer; down

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5
Q

the 51 end and the 31 end of each DNA strands are ALWAYS complementarily paired.

T/F

A

T

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6
Q

DNA

By convention, the strand shown at the top is the ______ or _____ strand but the strand at the bottom actually serves as _______

A

coding or sense

template

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7
Q

_____ bases are required to specify for ___ commonly occurring amino acids in proteins. Therefore the genetic code has to be in triplets (____)

A

Four

20

codon

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8
Q

Here each amino acid is specified by one or more sequences of codon but these sequences that specifies amino acid are interrupted by intervening sequence (______) that do not code for amino acids sequence of the proteins.

A

introns

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9
Q

CHROMOSOMAL IDENTIFICATION

Chromosome are identified at ______ under _____ microscope.

They are distinguishable by the relative _____ and the ___________ but these features alone is not easy to use in distinguishing different chrom

A

mitosis

Light

sizes

position of their centromeres

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10
Q

CHROMOSOME BANDING

_________ procedures that allows ______ along the _____ axis of a ____ chromosome is called chromosome-banding technique.

A

Cytological

differential staining

longitudinal; mitotic

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11
Q

TYPES of banding techniques

___-banding technique
___-banding technique

A

C

G

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12
Q

TYPES of banding techniques

C-banding technique:
_______ the chromosome and heat treating with _____, stains the _____ region only.

So we can identify types of chromosome
________,______,______,______

A

Denaturing; Giemsa

centromeric

Metacentric Sub-metacentric Accrocentric Telomeric

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13
Q

TYPES of banding techniques

G-Banding: _____ of mitotic chromosome with ______, followed by _____ stain will give differential staining reaction along the ____ of the chromosome reflecting the heterogeneity and complexity of the chromosome

A

Digestion; TRYPSIN

GIEMSA

length

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14
Q

Centromere location:

Metacentric
Submetacentric
Acrocentric
Telocentric

A

Middle

Between middle and end

Close to end

At end

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15
Q

Parts of an Acrocentric Chromosome

A

Satellite
P arm
Centromere
Q arm

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16
Q

P is the ____ arm

Q is the ___ arm

A

Short

Long

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17
Q

In 1976 A uniform nomenclature for human chromosome banding pattern was established based on G-banding

______,_________, and _________

A

REGION,BAND AND SUB- BAND

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18
Q

Even with G banding, chromosomes that are homologs can’t be distinguished

T/F

A

F

So precise is the banding pattern of each chromosome that homologs can be distinguished

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19
Q

With G banding, chromosome that are identical in size and centromere placement can be easily identified (______).

T/F

A

T

Karyotyping

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20
Q

GENE MUTATIONS
Definition

Any ______ in ______. It may comprise single base pair substitution, or a deletion or insertion of one or more base pairs, or a major alteration in the structure of a chromosome

A

alteration

DNA sequence

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21
Q

CLASSIFICATION OF MUTATIONS: Cell type

_______ mutation
_______ mutation

A

somatic

Germ line

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22
Q

CLASSIFICATION OF MUTATIONS: Cell type

somatic mutation: Occurs in ____ cell of the body except ____ cells.
Germ line mutation: occur in _____ only

A

any; germ

gametes

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23
Q

CLASSIFICATION OF MUTATIONS: Cell type

______ mutation: They are not transmissible

_______ mutation: this is transmissible

A

somatic

Germ line

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24
Q

CLASSIFICATION BASED ON TYPE OF MOLECULAR CHANGE
We can describe mutation further in terms of nucleotide change.

Point mutations/sustitutions: A change in ______ to _____ in a DNA molecule.

A

one base pair to another

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25
CLASSIFICATION BASED ON PHENOTYPE Depending on type and location, mutation can have a wide range of phenotypic effect from non to severe 1.________ mutation 2.________ mutation 3.______ mutations
Loss of function Gain of function Lethal
26
CLASSIFICATION BASED ON PHENOTYPE Depending on type and location, mutation can have a wide range of phenotypic effect from non to severe 1. Loss of function mutation:_____ or ______ the function of the gene product (____ mutations)
reduces or eliminate null
27
CLASSIFICATION BASED ON PHENOTYPE Depending on type and location, mutation can have a wide range of phenotypic effect from non to severe 2.Gain of function mutation: Mutation resulting in a gene product with ______ or ______ function and may result from mutation in _____ region of the gene resulting in expression at a higher level
enhanced or new regulating
28
CLASSIFICATION BASED ON PHENOTYPE Depending on type and location, mutation can have a wide range of phenotypic effect from non to severe Lethal mutations: mutations interrupting a process that is _____________ of the organism
essential to the survival
29
A transition is said to occur when a _____ replaces _______ A transversion occurs when a _______ replaces a ________
pyrimdine another pyrimdine pyrimdine purine or vice versa
30
ABO blood group I gene encodes ________ which modifies substance ___. 3 alleles are known ___,___, and ___
glycosyltransferase H IA,IB and IO.
31
ABO blood group DNA sequence IA and IB when compared show _____ consistent single nucleotide _____ , and these changes result in different ______ functions leading to different ——— modification.
four substitution glycosyltransferase H-substance
32
ABO blood group DNA of IO show _____ of a single nucleotide early in the coding sequence thus resulting in a ______ mutation at the point of the ______. This then causes a ______ to arise after about _____ nucleotide sequence thus leading to chain termination of the enzyme product leading to non-functional product. There is gain of function in _____
deletion; frame shift; deletion stop codon 100 CML
33
CHROMOSOMAL ANOMALIES Can be: __________ (numerical) __________
Quantitative Qualitative
34
CHROMOSOMAL ANOMALIES Quantitative Chromosomal abberations: Can be __________ of one or more chromosome (_______ ) or even addition of one or more complete set of chromosomal (_____)
addition or loss aneuploidy Euploidy
35
Aneuploidy Monosomy –___of ___ chromosome from a ___________ Trisomy -_____ of ____ additional chromosome to _________ Tetrasomy: ___ of two additional chromosomes
loss; one; single haploid set Gain; one; a single haploid gain; two
36
Aneuploidy generally result from ________
Non-dysjunction
37
Euploidy polyploidy- ___,______,_____ As in: ______ = 3n _________= 4n ————— = 5n
3n, 4n,5n Triploidy Tetraploidy Pentaploidy
38
Qualitative chromosom anomalies: usually results when a chromosome ______________________
breaks in one or more places
39
Qualitative chromosom anomalies: 1. a portion can be ___ (______e.g 5q-) 2. Chromosomal ______ 3. ______ 4.__________ 5._________ (mirror image)
lost; deletion Duplication Inversion Translocations Isochromosome
40
Qualitative chromosom anomalies: 1. a portion can be lost (deletion e.g 5q-) This loss we can be: _______ deletion __________ deletion
Terminal intercalary
41
Qualitative chromosom anomalies: 1. a portion can be lost (deletion e.g 5q-) This loss we can be: Terminal deletion: occurring near _____of the chromosome intercalary deletion: Occurring ____ the chromosome
one end within
42
Note: in chromosomal deletion , The segment that ________ are usually retained after cell division while the other part is lost e.g cri du chat loss of small terminal part of p arm of chrom 5
has the centromere
43
Inversion (inv): Involves simultaneous ____ with _____ of the intervening segment
breaks rotation
44
Translocations: could be _________ _________ __________
Reciprocal Non-Reciprocal Robertson
45
KARYOTYPING: ________ of chromosomes from a particular cell according to a well established system such that the ______ chromosome are first and _______ are last to form an ________
Arrangement largest; smallest idiogram
46
further molecular technique _________ analysis of DNA __________ (FISH) _______ methods ___________ methods
Southern blot Florescent insitu hybridization PCR Nucleotide sequencing
47
APPLICATION OF FISH Detection of ______ and _______________ Identification of __________ (rearranged chromosome of uncertain origin)
numeric and structural chromosomal abnormalities marker chromosome
48
APPLICATION OF FISH Monitoring of the ________ and detection of ______ or _____ Identification of the ____ of marrow cell following marrow transplantation
effects of therapy; MRD or early relapse origin
49
APPLICATION OF FISH Identification of the _________ Examination of the _____ pattern of non –diving or _____ cells Detection of gene _______
neoplastic cell linage karyotypic; interphase amplification
50
FISH Efficiency of hybridization and detection is (low or high?) Sensitivity and specificity is (low or high?)
High High
51
FISH is a slow technique T/F
F It is a rapid technique
52
FISH Large number of cells can be analysed in a short time T/F
T
53
FISH cytogenetic data can be obtained from ________ or ________ cells or from _____ with (low or high?) mitotic index (e.g CLL), or poor samples that contain too few cells for routine cytogenetic study.
non- dividing or terminally differentiating tumors Low
54
With FISH, Automation of analysis is also possible T/F
T
55
ERYTHROCYTE ANTGENES AND ANTIBODIES A blood groups system is a group of _______ encoded by alleles at a ______ or _______ so closely linked that ___________
antigens single gene locus or at gene loci cross over does not occur
56
ERYTHROCYTE ANTGENES AND ANTIBODIES An antigen collection is a group of antigens that are _____,_______, or ______ related but their genes are _____________
phenotypically, biochemically or genetically not known to be allelic
57
International Society of Blood Transfusion has recently recognized ____ blood group systems.
34
58
_____ antigen collection have been defined generally.
7
59
Immunology of the blood group system. An antigen is a substance that can ___________ when introduced into an immuno competent host and can ____________
evoke an immune response react with the antibody.
60
Most blood group antigens are _______ and their specificity is mostly determined either by the _________ (e.g. ABO) or __________ (e.g. MN, Kell, Duffy, Kidd, Diego)
glycoproteins oligosaccharide amino acid sequence
61
An antigen can have several epitopes An antigen can have several antigenic determinant with each epitope capable of eliciting an antibody response. T/F
T T
62
Specificity of an antigen is determined by its _______ and ________ with its antibody
structure and stereochemical fit
63
The ability of an antigen to stimulate an immune response is called _____
immunogenicity
64
An antigen’s ability to react with the antibody is called its ________
antigenicity
65
Most erythrocyte antigen are detected early in fetal development T/F
T
66
all erythrocyte antigens are fully developed at birth T/F
F Not all are fully developed at birth
67
_____,______, and ______ blood group antigens are examples of Carbohydrate antigens
P, ABO and Lewis PABLO
68
RED CELL ANTIBODIES Classification ______ antibodies _____ antibodies
Auto Allo
69
RED CELL ANTIBODIES Classification: In terms of mode of sensitization ________ ___________
Naturally occurring Immune antibodies
70
RED CELL ANTIBODIES Classification: In term of optimal temperature Cold – __-__oc Warm – ___oc
2-4 37
71
IgG is the ______ type red cell antibody,
immune
72
receptors or macrophage in the liver and spleen removes Ig__ coated red cell from circulation.
G
73
IgG anti RBC antibody are not capable of complement fixation T/F
F They are
74
Binding to complement by IgG antibody is determined by ______ and ______
Surface density Location of the recognised antigen
75
C1q requires that at least _______ molecule bind to a red cell within a span of ________ to initiate the complement cascade
two IgG 20-30nm
76
IgG-anti-D rarely bind complement because ____________________; and the epitope is __________________
most D sites are spaced too far apart so small that only one anti –D molecule per epitope can bind
77
Most IgG anti ABH antibody do not agglutinate saline suspended red cell T/F If T, what do they do If F, why?
T rather they sensitize red cell at 37oc and can be detected with the help of AHG.
78
Ig__ antibody crosses placenta.
G
79
IgM is a pentamer IgM cross the placenta. T/F
T F
80
IgA is the primary antibody in _____ IgA Exist predominately as _____ with a _____ component there in
secretion dimers secretory
81
IgA Does not cross placenta m IgA can fix complement T/F
T F
82
aggregated IgA can activate _____ pathway of complement
alternate
83
Naturally occurring allo-antibodies are mostly associated with carbohydrate antigen T/F
T
84
Haemolytic Disease of the newborn _____ and ____ which crosses placenta are mostly implicated
IgG1 and IgG3