Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RRPA Pathophysiology II > Hematopathology - Schoenwald > Flashcards

Hematopathology - Schoenwald Flashcards

1
Q

Anemia is a ______ in RBC count and erythrocytosis is a ________ in RBC count. (Not going into super detail on this lecture because we did a lot of this in clin med, feel free to add stuff)

A

decrease increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 3 mechanisms of anemia.

A
  • Blood loss
  • Decreased RBC production
  • Increased RBC destruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a reticulocyte?

A

Immature RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are schistocytes?

A

RBC fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is erythroblastosis fetalis?

A

It is an Rh factor incompatibility between mother and fetus leading to anemia due to increased destruction of RBCs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

People with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria have acquired a defect in what gene?

A

Phosphatidylinositol class A (PIG-A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What two organs remove RBCs from circulation?

A

Spleen and liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An increase in unconjugated bilirubin levels is associated with what clinical findings?

A

Jaundice and gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name 2 conditions associated with spherocytes

A

hereditary spherocytosis

immune hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name 2 conditions associated with schistocytes

A

TTP

HUS

(also, having a mechanical valve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of conditions should be associated with target cells?

A

Hemoglobinopathies (thalassemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What condition is associated with teardrops?

A

Myelofibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a rouleaux and what is one condition they are commonly seen in?

A

“stacking of coins” - RBCs are stacked together.

Common in multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which thalassemia is more worrisome, alpha or beta thalassemia?

A

Beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A patient with alpha thalassemia, with a loss of 3 copies of the alpha globulin chain gene will have which of the following?

a) the patient will be stillborn
b) the patient will have marked anemia
c) the patient will be a carrier for alpha thalassemia
d) the patient with be asymptomatic with a low MCV

A

b)the patient will have marked anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What patient population is most commonly diagnosed with beta thalassemia?

A

Patients of Mediterranean descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F? Patients with beta thalassemia minor usually require blood transfusions

A

False - patients with beta thalassemia major usually require blood transfusions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

There are ____ copies of alpha globulin and ____ copies of beta globulin. This is important for classifying thalassemias

A

4 alpha, 2 beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

you have a patient who is asymptomatic but their labs exhibited a low MCV. Upon further investigation they have a loss of 2 of the alpha globulin chains. this is characteristic of what disease

A

alpha thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

a complete loss of the hemoglobin protein is what disease?

A

Beta thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Beta thalassemia major is usually seen at 6 months of age due to the loss of _____ which transitions into ____

A

Hgb F (fetal) and it transitions into Hgb A (adult)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

a characteristic lab finding of thalassemia minor is a disproportionate _____ and _____

a. MCV/ MHC
b. MCHC/ MCH
c. Hgb/ MCV
d. Hgb/ MCH

A

c. Hgb/ MCV (10/55)

23
Q

labs of thalassemia: ____MCV ____Hgb anisocytosis Poikilocytosis

A

decreased MCV Decreased hgb

24
Q

what is hepcidin and how does it play a role in anemia of chronic disease

A

it is a protein that is key regulator of the entry of iron into circulation. it impairs the release of iron from storage. therefor there will be elevated levels of iron in storage and decrease levels of iron in the serum.

25
Q

Levels of ferratin, iron, TIBC, transferrin in IDA

a. increased, increased, decreased, decreased
b. decreased, decreased, increased, increased
c. decreased, increased, increased, increased
d. decreased, decreased, increased, decreased

A

d. decreased, decreased, increased, decreased

26
Q

Transferrin is usually _____ related to TIBC

a. inversely
b. directly
c. not
d. the two are the same

A

a. TIBC and transferrin are inversely related

27
Q

one way to differentiate between B12 deficiency and folate deficiency is_______

A

Elevated homocysteine and methyl-malonic acid with B12 deficiency. Also B12 deficiency has neuro deficits that you don’t get with folate deficiency.

28
Q

you have a patient that has some paralysis in their left arm. You’ve done every workup you can think of for a stroke and they are negative. Finally you get the blood work back and they are deficient in an important substance that causes an anemia. This substance is____

A. folate

B. B12

C. Copper

D. iron

A

b. B12. folate will not cause iron deficiencies. This paralysis is from spinal cord lesions caused by b12 deficiency

29
Q

your patient who has B12 deficiency has a condition that creates antibodies against the parietal cells in the stomach. This is called_____

A

pernicious anemia

30
Q

its a strange day in the ER and you have yet another case of B12 deficiency. This patient really likes sushi and eats it often. You suspect that his B12 deficiency is from ________.

A

Diphyllobathrium latum infection (fish tapeworm)

31
Q

alcoholics are prone to ____ deficiency

A

folate

32
Q

aplastic anemia is due to absence of ____ in bone marrow

a. reticulocytes
b. leukocytes
c. Hemoglobin
d. RBCs

A

d. RBCs

33
Q

Labs:

Haptoglobin: decreased

Unconjugated bilirubin: increased

LDH: markedly increased urine is brown (due to hemosiderin and hemoglobin)

A

Intravascular hemolysis

34
Q

in extravascular hemolysis the RBC are broken down in:

a. spleen
b. Liver
c. blood vessels
d. A and B

A

d. the RBCs are broken down in the liver and the spleen.

35
Q

what is haptoglobin

A

glycoproteins produced by the liver. They are very powerful free hemoglobin binding proteins. Haptoglobin decreases with hemolytic anemia because liver is unable to rapidly compensate to make more haptoglobin.

36
Q

Indirect coombs testing tests the ______ for antibodies where in direct coombs the _____is tested for antibodies

A

serum, RBC

37
Q

ABO tranfusion reaction is mediated by which antibodiy?

a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE

A

b. IgM causes acute renal failure

38
Q

Blood type O has which antigens?

a. A
b. B
c. none
d. A,B

A

c. none

39
Q

None ABO tranfusion reaction is mediated by which antibody?

a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgE

A

c. IgG causes jaundice

40
Q

Mothers with a ____ RH factor have to get Rhogam injections throughout pregnancy, every pregnancy

A

negative

41
Q

In warm auto immune anemia, direct coombs will be ____

A

postive

42
Q

In cold autoimmune anemia direct coombs will be ______

A

negative

43
Q

In hereditary spherocytosis there is a defect in the cytoskeleton of the RBC. The RBC gets caught in the spleen. A cure fo rthe disease is _____

a. transfusion
b. spleenectomy
c. no cure
d. iron supplimentation

A

b. spleenectomy

44
Q

In paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, red cells are more prone to lysis by ___________.

A

In paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, red cells are more prone to lysis by complement (because complement-regulating proteins CD55 and CD59 are deficient).

45
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria can result in ___________________________.

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria can result in venous thrombosis in hepatic portal, mesenteric, and cerebral veins.

46
Q

T/F: Vitamin B12 deficiency causes hypersegmented neutrophils on CBC due to incorrect maturation of DNA.

A

True

47
Q

T/F: Pts with aplastic anemia will often have splenomegaly

A

False. No splenomegaly.

48
Q

Indirect bilirubin, AKA __________

A

Unconjugated bilirubin

49
Q

Direct bilirubin, AKA __________

A

Conjugated bilirubin

50
Q

ABO transfucion reaction has (intravascular/extravascular) hemolysis, whereas non-ABO transfusion reaction has (intravascular/extravascular) hemolysis.

A

ABO transfucion reaction has intravascular hemolysis, whereas non-ABO transfusion reaction has extravascular hemolysis.

51
Q

Pts with sickle cell anemia have “sticky” hemoglobin due to _______ substitution for _________ in Beta globin chain.

A

Pts with sickle cell anemia have “sticky” hemoglobin due to valine substitution for glutamic acid in Beta globin chain.

52
Q

G6PD: microscopy will show _______ and ________

A

Heinz bodies and Bite cells

53
Q

Which type of anemia is this describing: RBC unable to regenerate glutathione, which normally helps to reduce oxidized substances

A

G6PD deficiency

54
Q

Clinical findings of red faces, headaches, and hgb >60%, indicative of….

A

Polycythemia

RRPA Pathophysiology II (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions