Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Blood volume amounts to how much blood in adults

A

6 quarts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

plasma amounts to how much

A

50 - 55%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what percent of plasma weight is water

A

91%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does albumin do

A

serves as a carrier for molecules for normal components of blood as well as drug that have low solubility in water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

lymphocytes are seen in what type of infections

A

viral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

neutrophils are seen in what type of infection

A

bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

basophils

A

secrete histamine, secretes inflammatory mediators, involves in allergic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

eosinophils

A

parasites and allergic reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

neutrophils when there is an increased need the bands shift to the

A

left - leukemoid reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

basopenia

A

acute infections, hyperthyroidism, and long term steroid therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Mono cause

A

EBV

personal contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Incubation period of EBV

A

4- 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what else is caused by EBV

A

Burrkits lymphoma and Hodgkins lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the s/s of mono

A

Fever, pharyngitis, lyphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the test for EBV

A

EBV and monspot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are causes of anemia

A
  1. bleeding - loss of RBC, acute and chronic
  2. low bone marrow production of RBC - def in B12, FE, folate)
  3. Hemolysis - destruction of RBC (sickle cell, thalassemia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV) (RBC size) is values

A

80-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MCH - hemoglobinazation is the

A

RBC color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Anisocytosis means

A

different RBC sizes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

poikylocytosis means different

A

RBC shapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

WBC lab value (Wanna buy a Car)

A

5,000 - 10,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

RBC (blood)

A

4.5 - 5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Hemoglobin (oxygen)

A

12 - 18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Hematocrit (middle age)

A

37 - 45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Platelete (think china plate)

A

150 - 400 K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Iron deficiency anemia is ______ and _____

A

microcytic and hypochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what are the s/s of iron deficiency anemia

A
pallor
fatigue
tachypnea
palpations
***koilonychia** - spoon nails- depression in nails
PICA
Glossitis - tongue swollen and inflammed
** angular stomatitis - red cracked lips**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what do labs say when someone has iron deficiency anemia

A

low HGB
Low HCT
Low FE
high TIBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

anemia of chronic blood loss the what is increased and what is high

A

Ferritin decreased and TIBC is high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the most common anemia in infants and children

A

iron deficiency anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

siderblastic anemia

A

excessive accumulation of iron in the mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what does the lab show with siderblast anemia

A

dimorphic blood smears with microcytes and macrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is the cause of siderblastic anemia

A

drugs and alcohol
toxins - lead, zinc
nutritional def - copper and pyridoxine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Thalassemia is

A

absence or insufficient goblin chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

thalassemia is an autosomal _______ disorder

It is mainly seen in

A

recessive

mediterranean region, Middle East , south east Asia, African

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is seen in the blood smear of Thlassemia

A

basophilic stippling and Poikilocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is the dx test for beta thalassemia

A

hemoglobin electrophoresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what test is needed to detect alpha - thalasemia

A

HGB prep or DNA analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Macrocytic/megablastic anemia is

A

microcytic, normochromic or hyperchromic

40
Q

microcytic/megaloblastic anemia is a what def

A

B12/folate deficiency

41
Q

what drugs interfere with B12

A

metformin

42
Q

what Is the dx for microcytic anemia

A

Positive IF antibodies serum

43
Q

schillings test does what

A

distinguishes pernicious anemia from other anemias

44
Q

what are some complications with mesoblastic anemia and B12 deficiency

A

spacid and flaccid paralysis

paresthesia of fingers and toes

45
Q

Aplastic anemia is a form of

A

bone marrow failure

46
Q

aplastic anemia is primary a disease of

A

young children and younger adults

47
Q

the most common cause of aplastic anemia is

A

your immune system attacking stem cells in your bone marrow

48
Q

pancytopenia is

A

lower than normal number of red and white blood cells and platelets in your blood

49
Q

Sickle cell disease is and autosomal _____

A

recessive disorder

50
Q

what is the acute treatment of sickle cell anemia

A

fluids, oxygen, pain control,

51
Q

what is other treatment for sickle cell anemia

A

hydroyurea, magnesium

52
Q

what should someone with sickle cell stay up on

A

flu vaccine

53
Q

Acute myelogeneous Leukemia (AML) usually seen in patients

A

65 years and older

more in males

54
Q

what is the primary cause of Acute myelogeneous Leukemia (AML)

A

prior chemo or radiation

exposure to chemicals

55
Q

what is seen in bone marrow biopsy with AML

A

Auer Rods - abnormal red staining or rod like granule inclusions

56
Q

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL) who does it affect

A

most common type of childhood leukemia

57
Q

What happens to bone marrow with ALL

A

physical crowding

suppress normal hematopoiesis

58
Q

what is the survival rate for ALL

A

5 year

80%

59
Q

chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is seen in adults

A

25 - 60 year olds

60
Q

what percentage of cases are Philadelphia chromosomes

A

95%

Transposition of chromosome 9 and 22

61
Q

chronic lymphocytic leukemia is most common in

A

adults over 40

62
Q

where does Chronic Lymphocytic leukemia originate

A

in the B cell

63
Q

what does CLL supress

A

AB production

64
Q

what is damaged on the cell for someone who has CLL

A

smudge cells or basket cells

65
Q

polycythemia vera is an

A

abnormal idiopathic proliferation of RBC in bone marrow

66
Q

what are s/s of Polycythemia vera

A

increased blood volume and hyperviscosity
splenomegaly , thrombi, infarct
pruritus after warm shower or bath
plethora - ruddy completion in face, palms and nailbeds

67
Q

treatment for polycythemia is

A

phelebotomy

68
Q

multiple myeloma is due to

A

large number of malignant plasma cells -Bence Jones proteins

69
Q

Hodgkins lymphoma is mostly found in the

A

B - cell

70
Q

who is most likely to get Hodgkins lymphoma

A

2 peaks
30 -40 years old
60-70 years old

71
Q

causes of Hodgkins lymphoma

A

EBV

72
Q

what are the s/s of Hodgkins lymphoma

A

painless lymphadenopathy

B systems - fever, night sweats, weight loss

73
Q

what is present in cells of someone who has Hodgkins lymphoma

A

Reed Sternberg cells

74
Q

Burkitts lymphoma is a ___ cell lymphoma

A

B cell

75
Q

causes of Burkitts lymphoma

A

EBV

76
Q

Burkitts lymphoma mainly affects

A

African Bl

77
Q

what is seen in Burkitts lymphoma

A

mass involving the maxilla or mandible

78
Q

biopsy reveals for Burkitts lymphoma a

A

starry sky pattern

79
Q

Non - Hodgkins lymphoma what do you never give

A

live vaccines

80
Q

Non - Hodgkins lymphoma is ____ mediated

A

B cell

81
Q

what are the s/s of non-hodgkins lymphoma

A

B symptoms fever, night sweats weight loss, indicates a worse prognosis

82
Q

treatment for Non-hodgkins lymphoma

A

Rituximab AB that attacks B cells

83
Q

what do you not see In non Hodgkins lymphoma labs

A

lack of reed Sternberg cells

84
Q

hemophilia is an ____ linked trait mainly seen in __

A

x linked, mainly in males

85
Q

Type A hemophilia is lacking clotting factor

A

VIII

86
Q

Type B hemophilia is lacking clotting factor

A

IX

87
Q

Von Willebrands disease is the most common

A

inherited bleeding disorder - autosomal dominant

88
Q

Labs for Von Willebrands disease show

A

Increased PTT, PT and Platlet are normal

89
Q

Von willebrands disease causes easy

A

bruising and bleeding

90
Q

PTT is

A

intrinsic

91
Q

Pt is

A

extrinsic

92
Q

PT normal lab value is

Coumadin

A

10-13

93
Q

INR lab values

A

0.9 - 1.3 in normal person

2-3 if take coumadin

94
Q

PTT (heparin)

A

28 - 35

95
Q

DIC is when u have a state of

A

hypercoagulation, thrombosis, hemorrhage occurring simultaneously