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Anatomy Mid term > Final from Power Points > Flashcards

Final from Power Points Flashcards

1
Q

A nurse recalls the reflex withdrawal of an affected body part from painful stimuli before the pain is perceived is controlled by
myelinated A-beta fibers.
unmyelinated C fibers.
unmyelinated C-alpha fibers.
myelinated A fibers.

A

Myelinated A Fibers

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2
Q

Which finding would the nurse expect to recognize during the assessment of a person with chronic pain?
The person is
1.experiencing tachycardia.
2.probably malingering (faking).
3depressed.
4hypertensive.

A

Depressed

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3
Q

Fever is stimulated by

arginine vasopressin.
endogenous pyrogens (endotoxins).
metabolism of brown fat.
tumor necrosis factor-α.

A

Tumor necrosis factor A

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4
Q

A nurse recalls the majority of the sleep cycle is spent in stage
N1.
N2.
N3.
REM.

A

N2

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4
Q

A nurse recalls the majority of the sleep cycle is spent in stage
N1.
N2.
N3.
REM.

A

N2

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5
Q

A person has glaucoma. Which pathophysiologic process is occurring in this person?
Cloudy or opaque area is located in the lens.
Circumscribed defect alters the central field of vision.
Intraocular pressure is above normal.
Drusen accumulates within the deep retinal layers.

A

Intraocular pressure is above normal

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6
Q

A person is admitted to the hospital after experiencing delusions. The nurse knows that a delusion

is a perception experienced without external sensory stimulation.
is a persistent belief that is contrary to the background of the individual.
is caused by inadequate acetylcholine in the brain.
involves auditory, tactile, visual, gustatory, and olfactory characteristics.

A

is a persistent belief that is contrary to the background of the individual.

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7
Q

Which food item would be most appropriate for a person taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor?
Liver
Avocados
Ham
Raisins

A

ham

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8
Q

A patient has excessive and persistent worrying. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?
PTSD
Generalized anxiety disorder
Agoraphobia
Panic disorder

A

generalized anxiety

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9
Q

Blood flows from the pulmonary veins into the
right atrium.
left atrium.
right ventricle.
left ventricle.

A

left atrium

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10
Q

A nurse is looking at an ECG and is measuring the time interval from the onset of atrial electrical activity to the onset of ventricular electrical activity. What is the nurse measuring?
QRS complex
QT interval
PR interval
Width of the P wave

A

PR interval

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11
Q

A person’s heart rate is reduced. What is happening physiologically?
Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system
Stimulation of the cardioexcitatory system
Reduction in blood pressure, detected by the baroreceptors

A

Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system

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12
Q

Which finding will cause the resistance in blood vessels to be increased?
Short length of the vessel
Increased radial lumen
Parallel vessel system
Increased blood viscosity

A

increased blood viscosity

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13
Q

A nurse observes a “hot spot” from the injection of a radioactive solution. Which test is the nurse reviewing?
Technetium scanning
Coronary angiography
Doppler study
Echocardiogram

A

Technetium scanning

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14
Q

The fetus receives oxygenated blood and nutrients through the
umbilical artery.
umbilical vein.
ductus venosus.
ductus arteriosus.

A

umbilical vein

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15
Q

A child is admitted with chronic hypoxia. The nurse anticipates the child will exhibit
normal growth and development.
splitting of the second heart sound.
periorbital edema.
clubbing of the nail beds.

A

clubbing of the nail beds

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16
Q

In a child with a ventricular septal defect (VSD), blood flow is shunted from the
left ventricle to the right ventricle.
right ventricle to the left ventricle.
aorta to the pulmonary artery.
left atria to the right atria.

A

left ventricle to the right ventricle.

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17
Q

A nurse is assessing a child with coarctation of the aorta. What will the nurse find?
Squatting when short of breath
Hypercyanotic spells
High blood pressure in the upper extremities with decreased pulses in feet
Syncopal episodes with chest pain

A

High blood pressure in the upper extremities with decreased pulses in feet

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18
Q

A child with Kawasaki disease in the acute phase is admitted to the hospital. The nurse understands this child will
exhibit desquamation of the palms and soles
receive steroids
have surgery in a three-stage approach
be febrile

A

be febrile

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19
Q

During pulmonary stenosis, resistance to blood flow causes
left ventricular hypertrophy.
hypoxemia and cyanosis.
leakage of the mitral valve.
right ventricular hypertrophy.

A

right ventricular hypertrophy.

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20
Q

In many children, moderate weight loss has been found to decrease
systolic and diastolic pressures.
afterload reduction.
vascular resistance.
thinning of the myocardium.

A

systolic and diastolic pressures.

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21
Q

An individual has primary hypertension and recurrent strokes. Which drug should the nurse prepare to administer?
Aldosterone agonists
Beta activators
ACE inhibitors
Osmotic diuretics

A

ACE INHIBITORS

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22
Q

A person has atherosclerosis. Which pathophysiologic process has occurred?
Fatty streaks produce foam cells that accumulate and block the flow of blood in the vessel.
Macrophages release enzymes and toxic oxygen radicals that create oxidative stress.
Vasospasm in the small arteries from an imbalance between vasodilation and vasoconstriction produce fibrous plaque.
Significant T-cell activation and a lack of endothelial precursor cells affect blood vessel linings.

A

Macrophages release enzymes and toxic oxygen radicals that create oxidative stress.

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23
Q

A person with an MI is releasing angiotensin II. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
Releasing angiotensin II is
beneficial; it helps the heart pump effectively.
counterproductive; it causes the heart to work harder.
beneficial; it decreases the release of catecholamines.
counterproductive; it causes myocardial stunning

A

counterproductive; it causes the heart to work harder.

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24
Q

A person has a diagnosis of valvular regurgitation. What pathophysiologic process is the person experiencing?
The valves
are constricted and narrowed, impeding the forward flow of blood.
fail to close completely, permitting the backflow of blood to continue.
have an inherited defect, such as thickening of the septal wall.
cause acute pericarditis and filling of the pericardial sac.

A

fail to close completely, permitting the backflow of blood to continue.

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25
Q

Systolic heart failure is associated with the activation of the
parasympathetic nervous system.
hypothalamic pituitary adrenal axis.
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) vasopressin aldosterone system.

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).

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26
Q

Pyloric stenosis is associated with
muscle hyperplasia.
diarrhea.
anorexia.
increased maternal cholecystokinin.

A

muscle hyperplasia.

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27
Q

An infant arrives in the emergency department with a diagnosis of intussusception. Which data will the nurse typically find during the assessment?
Olive-sized mass in the right upper quadrant
Meconium ileus
Painless rectal bleeding
Currant-jelly stools

A

Currant-jelly stools

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28
Q

What is the pathophysiologic process that occurs in a person with gluten-sensitive enteropathy?
T cell-mediated autoimmune injury to the intestinal epithelial cells
Deficiency of pancreatic enzyme, which causes maldigestion
Atopic disease, involving immediate and delayed hypersensitivity reactions to food ingestion
Return of stomach contents because of an incompetent lower esophageal sphincter

A

T cell-mediated autoimmune injury to the intestinal epithelial cells

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29
Q

Which disease is correctly matched to its pathophysiologic process?
Kwashiorkor—severe deficiency of all nutrients
Necrotizing enteropathy—noxious substances damage the intestines
Marasmus—severe protein deficiency
Lactose intolerance—inadequate intake, absorption, or excessive expenditure of calories

A

Necrotizing enteropathy—noxious substances damage the intestines

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30
Q

Intrahepatic portal hypertension is associated with
umbilical vein catheterization.
obstruction of the portal vein.
cirrhosis.
pancreatitis.

A

CIRRHOSIS

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31
Q

Severe acute malnutrition is a state of starvation associated with food shortages. Severe deficiency of all nutrients is also known as
Marasmus.
Kwashiorkor.
failure to thrive.
biliary atresia.

A

MARASMUS

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32
Q

The major pathophysiologic characteristic of gluten sensitivity is an autoimmune injury to the
lymphatic capillary.
intestinal epithelial cells.
H2-receptor antagonists.
crypts of Lieberkühn.

A

INTESTINAL EPITHELIAL CELLS

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33
Q

Saliva
production is inhibited by the sympathetic nervous system.
has a pH of approximately 6.5.
contains immunoglobulin A.
secretion is controlled in part by ptyalin concentration.

A

contains immunoglobulin A.

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34
Q

Which information is correct regarding gastric secretions?
The chief cells secrete hydrochloric acid.
Enterochromaffin-like cells secrete pepsinogen.
D cells secrete the hormone gastrin.
The parietal cells secrete gastroferrin.

A

The parietal cells secrete gastroferrin.

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35
Q

A person has problems with lacteals. Which nutrient will be affected?
Fats
Carbohydrates
Protein
Water-soluble vitamins

A

FATS

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36
Q

The gastrocolic reflex
stimulates the release of hepcidin.
initiates propulsion in the entire colon.
is inhibited by gastrin.
has micelles components.

A

nitiates propulsion in the entire colon.

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37
Q

What substance is located in the sinusoids of the liver that removes bacteria from the blood in the hepatic circulation?
Conjugated bilirubin
Kupffer cells
Choleretic agents
Bile

A

KUPFFER CELLS

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38
Q

Which statement is correct regarding disorders of motility?
Dysphagia causes hematemesis from accumulation of blood in the GI tract.
A succussion splash from jarring of the abdomen occurs in pyloric obstruction.
Achalasia is a type of referred pain from the esophagus to the small intestine.
Obstruction in the proximal small intestine causes vomiting with fecal material.

A

A succussion splash from jarring of the abdomen occurs in pyloric obstruction.

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39
Q

Which finding is typical for Crohn’s disease?
Noncaseating granulomas
Continuous primary lesion with no skipped lesions
Prone to the development of Cushing ulcer
Intermittent epigastric pain when the stomach is empty

A

Noncaseating granulomas

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40
Q

Which intervention is most appropriate fora person with portal hypertension?
Increase dietary fiber intake.
Administer N-acetylcysteine.
Eat small high-protein meals.
Monitor for hematemesis.

A

MONITOR FOR HEMATEMESIS

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41
Q

A person has alcoholic liver disease. What is the sequence for the development of this disease?
Incubation, prodromal, icteric, and recovery
Prehepatic, intrahepatic, and extrahepatic
Steatosis, steatohepatitis, and fibrosis
Overflow, underfill, and peripheral artery vasodilation

A

Steatosis, steatohepatitis, and fibrosis

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42
Q

A person has cancer in the left descending colon. What will the nurse typically find upon assessment?
Stools mixed with mahogany-colored blood
Narrow and pencil shaped stools
Stools bloody with purulent mucus
Clay-colored stools and the presence of steatorrhea

A

Narrow and pencil shaped stools

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43
Q

The most common cause of hypoxemia is
reduced diffusion distance.
hyperventilation with hypocapnia.
ventilation-perfusion mismatch.
traveling to a low altitude.

A

ventilation-perfusion mismatch.

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44
Q

A person has pneumoconiosis. Which information would the nurse find in the history of this person?
Inhaled inorganic dust particles, resulting in a change in the lungs
Fractured ribs, causing paradoxical movement of the chest with breathing
Ruptured visceral pleura, which allows air or gas into the pleural space
Bronchial inflammation with a persistent abnormal dilation of the bronchi

A

Inhaled inorganic dust particles, resulting in a change in the lungs

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45
Q

A child has asthma. Which pathophysiologic process occurs in this disease?
Acute injury to the alveolocapillary membrane, producing severe pulmonary edema and shunting
Chronic inflammatory disorder, causing mucosal edema and reversible airflow obstruction
Airway obstruction, increasing resistance to airflow and decreasing flow rates, especially inspiratory flow
IL-17 impairs mucociliary clearance and contributes to bronchoconstriction

A

Chronic inflammatory disorder, causing mucosal edema and reversible airflow obstruction

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46
Q

A person has pneumococcal pneumonia. Which pathophysiologic process has occurred?
Progressive airflow limitation is associated with an abnormal inflammatory response and is not fully reversible.
Continual bronchial inflammation causes bronchial edema and increases the size and number of mucous glands and goblet cells.
Abnormal permanent enlargement of the acini is accompanied by the destruction of alveolar walls without obvious fibrosis.
Inflammatory cytokines cause alveolar edema, which creates a medium for microorganisms that leads to consolidation.

A

Inflammatory cytokines cause alveolar edema, which creates a medium for microorganisms that leads to consolidation.

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47
Q

A person has a pulmonary embolism. What will the nurse find upon assessment?
Positive PPD skin test, night sweats, weight loss
Productive cough, fever, pain behind the sternum
Sudden pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, unexplained anxiety
Barrel chest, hyperresonant chest sounds, very little sputum

A

Sudden pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, unexplained anxiety

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48
Q

A nurse recalls that the acinus contains
ciliated cells.
goblet cells.
alveolar ducts.
striated muscle.

A

alveolar ducts

49
Q

J-receptors are
sensitive to noxious aerosols.
located in the smooth muscle of airways.
stimulated by increases in volume.
sensitive to alterations in pulmonary capillary pressure.

A

sensitive to alterations in pulmonary capillary pressure.

50
Q

Which statement indicates the nurse has a correct understanding of surfactant?
Surfactant
is found in the bronchi.
is produced by type 1 alveolar cells.
reduces surface tension.
promotes phagocytosis

A

reduces surface tension.

51
Q

Which conditions cause a shift to the left in the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve?
Acidosis and increased Paco2
High pH and hypocapnia
Hyperthermia and increased 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)
Decreased hila and gluconeogenesis

A

High pH and hypocapnia

52
Q

A newborn has a blunted ventilatory response to hypoxia. What process causes this to occur?
Increased responsiveness in the respiratory center in the cerebral cortex
Reduced activity of the peripheral chemoreceptors
Cell-mediated immunity not fully developed
Nonadaptive responses from inspiratory intercostal muscles

A

Reduced activity of the peripheral chemoreceptors

53
Q

A child has laryngotracheobronchitis. Which information should the nurse remember when planning care for this child?
Laryngotracheobronchitis
is caused by subglottic edema from infection.
usually occurs in children from 2 to 5 months.
produces supraglottic edema and airway obstruction.
requires antibiotic therapy.

A

is caused by subglottic edema from infection.

54
Q

Obstructive sleep apnea is most commonly associated with
seal-like barking cough.
epiglottis folding inward, covering the glottis.
adenotonsillar hypertrophy.
allergy.

A

adenotonsillar hypertrophy.

55
Q

Which pathophysiologic response is correctly matched to its disease?
Bronchiolitis: Is caused by a surfactant deficiency, which decreases the alveolar surface area.
Pneumonia: Is a viral-induced lower respiratory tract infection of the small airways in children younger than 2 years of age.
Bronchiolitis obliterans: Is caused by fibrotic obstruction of the respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts.
RDS: Is an infection and inflammation in the terminal airways and alveoli.

A

Bronchiolitis obliterans: Is caused by fibrotic obstruction of the respiratory bronchioles and alveolar ducts.

56
Q

A nurse recalls that cystic fibrosis is associated with

  1. defective epithelial chloride ion transport.
  2. increased mucociliary action.
  3. bronchial hyperreactivity.
  4. propensity for upper respiratory infections.
A

1.defective epithelial chloride ion transport.

57
Q

1.Cystic fibrosis is characterized by abnormal secretions that cause obstructive problems within the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive tracts. Because the lungs are the most critical site of involvement, pulmonary health is the primary concern. Cystic fibrosis causes persistent chronic bronchial inflammation, which also causes

A.idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis.

B.pneumoconiosis.

C.bronchiectasis.

surfactant impairment.

A

C.bronchiectasis.

58
Q

Cystic fibrosis airway fluids are conducive to promoting inflammation as a result of abnormal profiles. Direct damage to elastin in the lungs, induction of airway cells to augment inflammation, destruction of IgG that devours pathogens, and stimulation of mucous secretion all occur as a result of

A.neutrophils.

B.parenchymal involvement.

C.dysregulation of the airway epithelial sodium channel.

D.peripheral bullae.

A

A.neutrophils.

59
Q

If a person’s glomerular filtration membrane (visceral epithelium) has been injured, which structures would be affected? Podocytes Juxtaglomerular apparatus Macula densa Vasa recta

A

Podocytes

60
Q

The bladder and internal urethral sphincter are innervated by the

  1. pudendal nerve supply.
  2. sympathetic nervous system.
  3. parasympathetic nervous system.
  4. somatic nervous system.
A

parasympathetic nervous system

61
Q

A person has low sodium levels. Which response will this person’s body initiate in the renal system?

Stimulation of the

  1. mesangial cells.
  2. renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).
  3. micturition reflex.natriuretic

peptide hormones.

A

2.renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).

62
Q

One of the forces favoring filtration in the glomerulus is

  1. capillary oncotic pressure.
  2. Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure.
  3. capillary hydrostatic pressure.
  4. interstitial hydrostatic pressure.
A

capillary hydrostatic pressure

63
Q

The primary function of the loop of Henle is to

  1. establish a hyperosmotic state within the medullary interstitial fluid.
  2. regulate acid-base balance by excreting hydrogen ions and forming bicarbonate.
  3. become more permeable to water and urea in the thick portion of the ascending segment.
  4. maintain the pH of the filtrate.
A

establish a hyperosmotic state within the medullary interstitial fluid.

64
Q

Which statement is correct regarding fluid and electrolyte balance in the infant?

  1. The infant excretes approximately 2000 mL of water daily.
  2. The percentage of ECF volume of the newborn infant is nearly triple that of an adult.
  3. The infant produces a more dilute urine when compared with an adult.
  4. The infant’s kidney is more responsive to ADH.
A

The infant produces a more dilute urine when compared with an adult.

65
Q

A child with unilateral renal agenesis is seen in the clinic. The nurse realizes the child

  1. requires dialysis.
  2. has a hypertrophied kidney.
  3. may have facial anomalies.
  4. is more susceptible to infections.
A

has a hypertrophied kidney.

66
Q

Edema with nephrotic syndrome is associated with increased

  1. immune-mediated IgA vasculitis.
  2. aldosterone activity.
  3. plasma oncotic pressure.
  4. atrial natriuretic peptide.
A

aldosterone activity

67
Q

A child has a UTI. Which assessment finding is most typical in this condition?

  1. Enlarging asymptomatic upper abdominal mass
  2. Periorbital edema that descends into the extremities
  3. Prodromal gastrointestinal illness with diarrhea
  4. Incontinence in a previously dry child
A

4.Incontinence in a previously dry child

68
Q

1.Platelet clustering in the damaged vessels produces

A.leukopenia.

B.thrombocytopenia.

C.pancytopenia.

D.neutropenia.

A

thromboycytopenia

69
Q

2.In the normal kidney, within the various segment of the nephron tubules, cells responsible for the functions of reabsorption and secretion are

A.endothelial.

B.epithelial.

C.contractile.

D.neurons.

A

endothelial

70
Q

A person has a lesion on the lower neuron that involves the sacral micturition center. Which condition is the person experiencing?

  1. Detrusor areflexia
  2. Dyssynergia
  3. Renal colic
  4. Tubulointerstitial fibrosis
A

detrusor areflexia

71
Q

Mechanisms that protect the urinary tract from infection include

  1. monocytes in the urine.
  2. acidic urine.
  3. decreased urine osmolarity.
  4. type-I pili.
A

acidic urine

72
Q

Nephrotic syndrome produces

  1. sodium loss.
  2. protein retention.
  3. susceptibility to infection.I

IgA nephropathy

A

susceptibility of infection

73
Q

A person with acute kidney injury is prescribed glucose and insulin. The nurse understands this prescription is intended to

  1. treat hyperglycemia.
  2. prevent seizures as a result of hypoglycemia.
  3. reduce serum potassium concentration.
  4. decrease azotemia symptoms.
A

reduce serum potassium concentration.

74
Q

Individuals with chronic renal failure often develop

  1. hypocalcemia.
  2. macrocytic anemia.
  3. increased erythropoietin secretion.
  4. metabolic alkalosis.
A

hypocalcemia

75
Q

˜A person has rhabdomyolysis. Which typical clinical manifestation will the nurse find upon assessment?1.

Dark urine

  1. Scar-tissue calcification
  2. “Tennis elbow”
  3. “Rider’s bone”
A

Dark Urine

76
Q

Which information is correct regarding the pathophysiologic process of osteomyelitis?

Osteomyelitis produces

  1. bone density less than 648 mg/cm2.
  2. stimulation of osteoclasts.
  3. formation of fistula.
  4. sequestrum.
A

sequestrum

77
Q

The primary defect in osteoarthritis is

  1. enlargement and softening of bones.
  2. development of pannus.
  3. loss of articular cartilage.

permeative pattern of bone destruction

A

loss of articular cartilage

78
Q

A person has gout. Which typical clinical manifestation may the nurse find upon assessment?

  1. Crepitus
  2. Polyarticular arthritis
  3. Tophi

Decreased uric acid

A

Tophi

79
Q

Which information is correct regarding polymyositis?

  1. Is mediated humorally.
  2. Is mediated by T cells.
  3. Involves cutaneous manifestations.
  4. Involves muscle degeneration
A
  1. Is mediated by T cells.
80
Q

Which information is true regarding osteoclasts?

Osteoclasts

  1. use integrins to bind to bone.
  2. synthesize osteoid.
  3. have podocytes.
  4. are located in a lacuna.
A

1.use integrins to bind to bone.

81
Q

Which information is correct regarding spongy bone?

Spongy bone

1.consists of the Haversian system

.2.is only found in long bones.

  1. can also be called cortical bone.
  2. is arranged in plates called trabeculae.
A

4.is arranged in plates called trabeculae.

82
Q

Which information is true regarding the synovial membrane?

The synovial membrane

  1. covers a synarthrosis joint that is immovable.
  2. contains type A phagocytic cells.
  3. allows callus formation to occur.
  4. is the functional unit of the neuromuscular system.
A

2.contains type A phagocytic cells.

83
Q

A person has a problem with a muscle that has a low innervation ratio. Which problem will this person have?

  1. Impaired myogenesis
  2. Lack of endurance
  3. Easily fatigued
  4. Inadequate precision movement
A

4.Inadequate precision movement

84
Q

The initial process in muscle contraction consists of

  1. sarcomere lengthening.
  2. calcium migrating to myofilaments.
  3. excitation.
  4. cross-bridge formation.
A

3.excitation.

85
Q

An infant has a positive Ortolani sign. Which condition is the infant experiencing?

  1. Syndactyly
  2. Developmental dysplasia of the hip
  3. Genu varum

Periosteal collar

A

2.Developmental dysplasia of the hip

86
Q

Structural scoliosis may be caused by

  1. neuromuscular disease.
  2. postural abnormalities.
  3. discrepant leg length.vitamin

C deficiency.

A

1.neuromuscular disease.

87
Q

A preadolescent arrives at the clinic and reports pain and swelling in the left knee after playing sports. The nurse suspects

  1. rickets
  2. osteogenesis imperfecta
  3. Osgood-Schlatter diseasee

quinovarus

A

3.Osgood-Schlatter diseasee

88
Q

A nurse is assigned to care for a child newly diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy. Because of this diagnosis, the nurse expects

  1. the child to have shoulder girdle weakness.
  2. the child will be a boy.
  3. atrophic calf muscles.
  4. decreased creatine phosphokinase (CPK) levels.
A

a child will be a boy

89
Q

1.Duchenne muscular dystrophy is the most common of the muscular dystrophies and occurs only in boys. It is a progressive weakness associated with large calf muscles that are said to be

A.equinovariant.

B.pseudohypertrophic.

C.facioscapulohumeral.

osteochondromatic

A

B.pseudohypertrophic.

90
Q

The nurse receives an order from the healthcare provider to insert a Foley catheter and to monitor the patient’s intake and output.2.What is the most likely reason why the nurse is inserting the Foley catheter?

A.The patient has multiple fractures.

B.The patient is partially ambulatory.

C.The patient has a cognitive disorder.

D.The patient is experiencing incontinence.

A

D.The patient is experiencing incontinence.

91
Q

Acne vulgaris is

  1. follicular hypokeratinization.
  2. pustules that develop when inflammation is deep.
  3. associated with excessive sebum production.
  4. composed of whiteheads (open comedones).
A

3.associated with excessive sebum production.

92
Q

Which information is correct regarding bacterial skin infections?

  1. Bullous impetigo is a rare variant of impetigo caused by Candida albicans.
  2. Impetigo causes small vesicles with a honey-colored crust.
  3. Topical antibiotics are applied to treat SSSS.
  4. Itching is the hallmark of nonbullous impetigo.
A

2.Impetigo causes small vesicles with a honey-colored crust.

93
Q

A child is seen at the local clinic with an erythematous maculopapular rash, high fever, enlarged lymph nodes, and a barking cough. Which diagnosis will the nurse observe documented on the chart?

  1. Rubella
  2. Rubeola
  3. Roseola

Chickenpox

A

2.Rubeola

94
Q

Salmon patches

  1. become red and elevated with minute capillary projections.
  2. heal with flashlamp pulsed dye laser therapy.
  3. are benign tumors that form extra blood vessels.
  4. result from distended dermal capillaries that fade over time.
A

4.result from distended dermal capillaries that fade over time.

95
Q

The baby develops diaper rash due to wearing a dirty diaper for prolonged periods of time. The baby has erythematous papular lesions on both buttocks, the groin, and inner thighs. The rash spreads to the baby’s abdomen and upper portion of thigh and now has pustulovesicular lesions that are sharply marginatedand very erythematous.

1.Which microorganism is the cause of the baby’s rash that is now worse in comparison to the original diaper rash?

A.Candida albicans

B.Staphylococcus aureus

C.Streptococcus pyogenes

D.Propionibacterium acnes

A

A.Candida albicans

96
Q

The mother eventually takes the baby to the community clinic for evaluation. The nurse teaches the mother to change the baby’s diaper frequently and to keep the area clean and dry. The nurse also educates the mother about the topical medication the healthcare provider has prescribed.

2.Which type of medication has the healthcare provider most likely prescribed for the baby?

A.Oral antiviral

B.Topical antifungal

C.Systemic antibiotic

Parenteral steroid

A

topical antifungal

97
Q

Dermal appendages that are important in body temperature regulation are

  1. Sebaceous glands.
  2. eccrine sweat glands.
  3. apocrine sweat glands.
  4. papillary capillaries.
A

eccrine sweat glands

98
Q

Allergic contact dermatitis is associated with

  1. unmyelinated C-nerve fibers.
  2. delayed hypersensitivity.
  3. venous stasis and edema.

nonimmunologically mediated inflammation

A

.delayed hypersensitivity.

99
Q

Which information is correct regarding acne rosacea?

Acne rosacea

  1. occurs most commonly during adolescence.
  2. is primarily found on the lateral portions of the forehead.
  3. exhibits a single lesion called a herald patch.
  4. is likely an immune-mediated inflammation.
A

4.is likely an immune-mediated inflammation.

100
Q

A person has verrucae. Which microorganism is the causative agent?

  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungus
  3. Virus

Pemphigus

A

virus

101
Q

Basal cell carcinoma is associated with

  1. depressed center and rolled borders.
  2. heavy smoking of cigarettes and cigars.
  3. mutations in the BRAF and RAS genes.
  4. x-rays and gamma rays.
A
  1. depressed center and rolled borders.
102
Q

A woman has secondary amenorrhea. What is the most probable cause for this finding?

  1. Polycystic ovary syndrome
  2. Hypothyroidism
  3. Pregnancy
  4. Turner syndrome
A

pregnancy

103
Q

PID is

  1. associated with infertility.
  2. primarily caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
  3. associated with a hyperandrogenic state.
  4. caused by an infection of the cervix.
A

associated with infertility

104
Q

One characteristic of uterine leiomyomas is that they

  1. lodge in the endometrium.
  2. are associated with nulliparity and obesity.
  3. contain glands, stoma, and blood vessels.
  4. require a hysterectomy.
A

2.are associated with nulliparity and obesity.

105
Q

Which information is correct regarding ovarian cancer?

Ovarian cancer

  1. has a hereditary (genetic) cause.
  2. is the rarest of the female genital cancers.
  3. has often metastasized prior to diagnosis.
  4. is easily detected with Pap smears.
A

3.has often metastasized prior to diagnosis.

106
Q

While taking a history from a postmenopausal woman, which finding will place this woman at the greater risk for breast cancer?

  1. Pregnancy before the age of 24 years
  2. Early involution
  3. Estrogen therapy

Diet low in fat

A

estrogen therapy

107
Q

An individual has syphilis, secondary stage. What will the nurse typically find upon assessment?

  1. Hard chancre and firm enlarged lymph nodes
  2. Low-grade fever, malaise, and sore throat
  3. Gummas, cardiovascular lesions, and neurosyphilis
  4. Nothing except antibodies present on laboratory results
A

2.Low-grade fever, malaise, and sore throat

108
Q

A woman has chlamydial cervicitis. What will the nurse typically find upon assessment?

  1. Yellow mucopurulent discharge
  2. Buboes
  3. Thin, gray malodorous discharge
  4. Abnormal menses (increased flow or dysmenorrhea)
A

1.Yellow mucopurulent discharge

109
Q

An individual has herpes simplex virus (HSV). Which treatment will the nurse prepare to administer?

  1. Vaccine
  2. Oral acyclovir
  3. Cryotherapy
  4. Parenteral antibiotics
A

oral acyclovir

110
Q

An individual has intense itching and works in a nursing home. Where is the first place the nurse should inspect to find if scabies are present?

  1. Between the fingers
  2. Axilla
  3. Skene gland
  4. Face
A

between the fingers

111
Q

A 38-year-old woman is consulting a fertility specialist after being unable to conceive. She and her husband have been having unprotected intercourse for several years in an attempt to have a baby. The woman’s husband is not with her and does not support the use of artificial conception methods. Near tears, the woman asks whether the specialist can do anything to help her. The physician agrees to conducting screening tests on the woman; hopefully, then, informed decisions may ensue.

1.What is the possible explanation for her infertility?

A.Destruction of lactobacillus acidophilus from douching and vaginal deodorants

B.The endocervical canal is missing the endometrial layer as a result of inflammation from the chlamydial infection.

C.Increased peristalsis within the infundibulum prevents the embryo from attaching.

D.Suppression of immune modulation causes the mother’s immune system to attack the fetus.

A

.Destruction of lactobacillus acidophilus from douching and vaginal deodorants

112
Q

2.After a lengthy discussion with her husband, the woman learns that her husband has been unfaithful. He and his new sexual partner have been treated for nongonococcal urethritis, but he chose not to notify his wife to keep his infidelity from being discovered. Urethritis may lead to

A.prostatitis.

B.phimosis

.C.urethral stricture

.D.impaired spermatogenesis.

A

.C.urethral stricture

113
Q

A man is admitted to the hospital with a urethral stricture. Which clinical manifestation is typical of this disorder?

  1. Urgency
  2. Increased force of urinary stream
  3. Mucus-like discharge

Double urine stream

A

double urine stream

114
Q

A man is admitted to the hospital with a torsion of the testis. The nurse understands this indicates that

  1. blood vessels to the testis are twisted in the spermatic cord.
  2. the testis has not correctly descended.
  3. fluid has collected in the tunica vaginalis.
  4. a vein in the spermatic cord is abnormally dilated.
A

1.blood vessels to the testis are twisted in the spermatic cord.

115
Q

Which of the following is true about BPH?

  1. Is caused by cellular hypertrophy
  2. Produces compression of the spermatic cord
  3. Produces obstructive and irritative symptoms
  4. Is associated with stress incontinence
A

3.Produces obstructive and irritative symptoms

116
Q

A male has impaired spermatogenesis from a lack of inhibin B. Which cells are functioning improperly?

  1. Leydig
  2. Sertoli
  3. Pituitary
  4. Anti–sperm antibodies
A

sertoli

117
Q

Which information is most accurate regarding puberty?

Puberty is complete when

  1. adrenarche occurs.
  2. reproduction is possible.
  3. gonadarche occurs.

thelarche is complete.

A

2.reproduction is possible.

118
Q

Which statement indicates the nurse has an accurate understanding about Lactobacillus acidophilus?

  • Lactobacillus acidophilus*
    1. is secreted from the Skene glands.
    2. maintains an alkaline pH in the vagina.
    3. is secreted from the Bartholin glands.
    4. maintains an acidic pH in the vagina.
A

4.maintains an acidic pH in the vagina.

119
Q

During the follicular or proliferative phase
of ovulation

  1. ovulation occurs.
  2. estrogen causes endometrial growth.
  3. progesterone secretion occurs.
  4. the corpus luteum degenerates.
A

2.estrogen causes endometrial growth.

120
Q

When an erection occurs, arterioles in the penis

  1. vasodilate in response to norepinephrine.
  2. allow the filling of the corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum with 50–75 mL of blood.
  3. vasodilate in response to nitric oxide.
  4. allow filling of the tunica albuginea with 25–50 mL of blood.
A

When an erection occurs, arterioles in the penis

1.vasodilate in response to norepinephrine.2.allow the filling of the corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum with 50–75 mL of blood.3.vasodilate in response to nitric oxide.4.allow filling of the tunica albuginea with 25–50 mL of blood.

121
Q

A nurse knows that testosterone

  1. produces a catabolic effect on skeletal muscle.
  2. increases hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.
  3. suppresses activity of the sebaceous glands

.4.is a peptide hormone.

A

2.increases hemoglobin and hematocrit levels.

Anatomy Mid term (17 decks)

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