Hazmat, Toxicology Flashcards
1
Q
Hazardous materials/wastes have one or more of the following four characteristics
A
TRIC Toxicity Reactivity Ignitability Corrosivity
2
Q
WHat does RCRA stand for? What is it?
A
resource conservation and recovery act
federal guidelines used to classify hw
3
Q
most hw are considered RCRA hw because (list the four bullets)
A
the waste is listed in RCRA
the waste exhibits one of the characteristics
the combination of a solid and hw
it cannot be excluded from the RCRA category
4
Q
What information does an MSDS/SDS include about a product
A
chemical properties
methods of clean up
emergency procedures
first aid
5
Q
what is an EPA id number used for
A
a registration number that hazardous waste generators must have
6
Q
What is a manifest
A
a multiple copy document that must accompany hazardous waste shipments
7
Q
what 5 items must be listed on an HW manifest
A
quantity and type of packaging proper shipping name hazard class four digit ID number total weight of materials
8
Q
What does the term “cradle to grave” mean
A
the person/company generating the waste is responsible for it’s proper and legal disposal
9
Q
What is a bill of lading and how is it different from a manifest
A
bill of lading is required for any hazmat during transportation. it’s a shipping document.
the manifest is a specific document required for hw
10
Q
What agency regulates transportation of hm and hw
A
DOT department of transportation
11
Q
bill of lading is sometimes referred to as what in these other shipping industries
truck
rail
air
sea
A
freight bill - truck
waybill - rail
cargo manifest - air
dangerous cargo manifest - water
12
Q
placard identification is based on what four things
A
color
symbol
description of product
hazard class or ID number
13
Q
what do the following colors/backgrounds represent on a placard
orange red green yellow blue white white w/ vertical stripes white over black
A
orange - explosives/blasting agents red - flammable/combustible green - non flammable/highly pressurized yellow - reactive blue - violently reacts with water white - poison white w/ vertical stripes - flammable solid white over black - corrosive
14
Q
What are two color placards used for
A
for a material that has two major hazard characteristics
15
Q
what do the following symbols mean on a placard
bursting ball flame cylinder slash W skull cross bones circle with flame test tube, a hand, or metal propeller
A
bursting ball - explosives flame - flammable/combustible cylinder - non flammable slash W - violently reacts with water skull/cross bones - poison circle w/ flame - oxidizing material test tube, a hand or metal - corrosive propeller - radioactive
16
Q
What are some common descriptions used on placards
A
radioactive dangerous fuel oil combustible chlorine flammable gas corrosive blasting agent explosive
etc.
17
Q
define the 9 hazard classes for DOT placarding
A
1 - explosives 2 - gases 3 - flammable liquids 4 - flammable solids 5 - oxidizers or organic peroxides 6 - poisonous or etiological materials 7 - radioactive 8 - corrosives 9 - miscellaneous hm
18
Q
What are the four edges of a NFPA hazmat placard and where are these usually found
A
usually on exteriors of buildings that store materials
NFPA = national fire protection association
from the left clockwise A - health hazard B - fire hazard C - reactivity D - specific hazard
19
Q
What does 0-4 indicate on the health hazard portion of the NFPA placard
A
0 normal 1 slightly hazardous 2 hazardous 3 extremely hazardous 4 deadly
20
Q
what does 0-4 indicate on the fire hazard portion of the NFPA placard
A
0 will not burn 1 above 200F 2 below 200F 3 below 100F 4 below 73F
21
Q
what does 0-4 indicate on the reactivity hazard portion of the NFPA placard
A
0 stable 1 unstable 2 violent chemical reaction 3 shock or heat may detonate 4 may detonate
22
Q
What specifications would be listed in the specific hazard section of the NFPA placard
A
oxidize acid alkali water reactive corrosive radioactive
23
Q
buildings and structures will have _____ placards while transportation trucks and shipping containers will have _____ placards
A
NFPA
DOT
24
Q
containers less than _______ cubic feet must be marked with ____ inch labels
containers more than _______cubic feet must be marked with placards that are _______ inches
A
less than 640 4’’ labels
more than 640 10.75 ‘’ placards
25
what is the standard liquid container size
42 gallon drum
26
What are the safety perimeters for a hazmat incident (state the 4 zones)
after determining the wind direction then the zones can be identified.
isolation zone - immediate area of incident
hot zone/exclusionary zone - usually at least 1500 sq ft
warm zone/secondary zone/contamination reduction zone - works get decontaminated here after leaving the hot zone
cold zone - reasonable safe to conduct command post operations
27
What is an emergency contingency plan
procedures to be taken for businesses that store hm and hw
28
acids form ______ while bases form ______
acids hydronium ions (H+)
| bases hydroxide ions (OH-)
29
RCRA defines a corrosive as an aqueous solutions w/ a pH less than ___ or greater than ___
or a solid that exhibits corrosive characteristics
less than 2
| greater than 12.5
30
why do we no longer dilute corrosive liquid spills?
because it requires way too much water and the waste still needs to be contained
31
What is neutralization
a chemical reaction
H+ + OH- = H20 + salt + heat
exothermic (heat producing rxn)
can be used for spill clean up
32
What is stoichiometry
the chemistry science that deals with the quantities of substances that are necessary for, and produced by, chemical reactions
reactions are dependent upon the concentration of the substances, their molecular weights etc.
33
What is solubility how is it measured
ability or tendency for one substance to blend uniformly with another.
can vary from 0 to 100%
insoluble substances can be physically blended together for a short period of time but will eventually separate. e.g. oil and water.
34
What is specific gravity
ratio of a substance's density to the density of water
>1 sinks or is absorbed w/ water
35
what is vapor density? When would it be important to know this?
relative ratio of the density of a gas/vapor to the density of air.
>1 settles at lowest point of a room
36
an oxygen deficient atmosphere is one with less than ______%oxygen
19%
37
What is vapor pressure
pressure exerted by a liquids vapor in a closed container.
expressed as mm Hg @ ___ degrees
higher vapor pressure = more volatile substance
38
The boiling point is the point at which the _________ = the ________________
vapor pressure = atmospheric pressure
39
the (higher/lower) the boiling point, the (higher/lower) the vapor pressure and therefore a greater tendency to vaporize creating a potential inhalation hazard
lower bp
| higher vp
40
___ % concentration = _________ ppm
1% = 10,000 ppm
41
_____ mg/L = 1 ppm
1 mg/l = 1ppm
42
_____% = 1 ppb = ___ ugm/L
.001% = 1 ppb = 1 ugm/L
43
what are three important concepts when dealing with chemical hazards
1. existence of multiple hazards
2. chemical rxns
3. chemical compatibility factor
44
What is reactivity
a substance that can explode or react in a way that can be hazardous to humans and the environment
45
What are 7 criteria for reactivity
1. normally unstable - can undergo a violent change
2. reacts dangerously with water or air
3. can generate toxic gas, fumes, vapors when mixed with water
4. can form explosive mixtures
5. contains cyanide or sulfides
6. can produce a toxic gas or vapor
7. can explode when ignited at room temp
46
what are two types of chemical reactions. which are the most dangerous?
endothermic - removes heat source
| exothermic - creates heat source (dangerous)
47
What are some examples of incompatible hazard groups
```
oxidizers w/ flammables
oxidizer w/ organics
acids w/ bases
acids w/ cyanides
acids w/ sulfides
```
48
What are some e.g. of water reactives
potassium
sodium
lithium metals
calcium carbide
49
metals + acids = _____________
hydrogen gas
50
cyanides + acids = ___________
hydrogen cyanide gas
51
sulfides + acids = _________
hydrogen sulfide gas
52
oxidizers + acids or bases = ________
toxic gas formation, fires, explosions
53
metals + bases = _______
metal destruction
54
What are oxidizers
substances that spontaneously release oxygen at room temp or under slight heating.
increase fires
react w/ organics
55
What are some examples of oxidizers
```
peroxides
permanganates
persulfates
perchlorates
nitrates
nittites
chlorites
chlorates
```
56
what are 4 criteria for ignitability
liquid w/ fp less than 60C/140F
non liquid that can burn consistently and vigorously
flammable compressed gas
an oxidizer
57
What is a flashpoint
lowest temperature at which a liquid will give off enough vapors that will form an ignitable mixture
aka: air interlace
58
the lower the f.p. the (higher/lower) the hazard
higher the hazard... more flammable
59
What is the auto-ignition temperature
the last temperature at which a substance will spontaneously ignite. usually a very high temperature
60
What is the flammable range?
the range of vapor to air concentration of a substance that will ignite and burn if an ignition source is present
61
Most regulations state a flammable liquid as one with a flash point of _____F or lower
140F
62
NFPA has flammable classifications from IA to IIIB which end has the lowest flashpoints
IA has the lowest and IIIB has the highest
63
What is a combustible liquid
a liquid with a flash point between 100 and 200F
64
do flammable gases have flashpoints?
no because they are already in a gaseous state. they have flammable ranges instead
65
what is LEL and UEL
lower explosive limit - leanest vapor to air concentration that will sustain a burn or explosion
upper explosive limit - richest vapor to air concentration that will burn or explode
66
what happens above a UEL?
the vapor concentration is too high and there is not enough air to support burning
67
explosive dusts
usually explode if mixed with air and an ignition source such as static electricity
68
What are pyrophorics
substances that will ignite spontaneously in air below 130F
69
what are explosives
substances that undergo rapid chemical transformation which produce large amounts of gases and heat
70
high explosives usually contain ______
they require what to detonate?
nitrogen
require mechanical impact, friction or heat
they are higher velocity than low explosives
71
define corrosion
a substance that can cause harm to living tissue or react chemically with steel
72
what is the criteria for corrosivity
liquid w/ pH lower than 2 or higher than 12.5
reacts with steel at a rate of .025 '' (6.35mm) a year at 55C
73
caustics are a term for
acids and bases
74
toxicity.... LD50 for
acute oral ____
dermal ____
LC50 (lethal concentration)
inhalation _____
acute oral - less than 5,000 mg/kg single dose
dermal - less than 4300 mg/kg in 4 hour period
inhalation - less than 10,000 ppm or 1%
75
what is bioaccumulation or magnificaiton
any substance that can persist in the human body
76
what are cryogenics
liquefied gases kept at very low temperatures -260C
77
how can a gas be an asphyxiant
by depleting oxygen from the ambient air
78
what is IDLH
immediately dangerous to life and health
79
what is a BLEVE
boiling liquid expending vapor explosion
when a liquid evaporates in a confined area it puts pressure on its container. a common type of explosion to derailed railroad containers
80
if emergency flares are used they should be placed (upwind/downwind) of a hazmat spill
upwind
81
What is the ICS
incident command system (replaced the HMER haz mat emergency response plan)
82
what are the three phases in a hazmat incident/spill
critical phase
containment stage
clean up and disposal
83
absolute press = _________________ pressure + atmospheric pressure
gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
84
What is ACGIH
American conference of government industrial hygienists
85
acute exposure
short term, on time exposure with immediate response
86
what is an aerosol
dispersion of particles (may be solid, or liquid) in a gaseous medium
87
describe the condition of "air inversion"
when air temperatures are colder closer to earth and warmer farther away. typically it's the reverse.
this condition can trap gases and vapors close to the surface
88
CEQA stands for
California environmental quality act
89
CERCLA stands for
comprehensive environmental response, compensation and liability act (1980)
90
chronic
long term exposure
91
colorimetric tubes are aka _____- tubes and they contain chemical indicators for testing airborne concentrations
draeger tubes
92
what is a control agent
any material that is used to contain or extinguish a hazardous material or its vapors
93
what is evaporation
at ambient temperatures when a substance changes form a liquid to a vapor state
94
what is flame impingement
the points where flames contact the surface of a container
95
what is flashback
re-ignition of a flammable liquid
96
what is a floating roof
a type of roof used on oil tanks to prevent the vapor space over the liquid
97
what are fusible plugs
a threaded plug designed to melt away to allow the escape of a gas rather than combustion
98
NIOSH stands for
national institute of occupational safety and health
99
a non liquefied gas is one that is entirely gaseous at a temp of ____F
70F
100
OSHA stands for
occupational safety and heath administration
101
what is miscibility
a flammable liquids ability to mix with water
102
two common liquefied petroleum gases are
propane and butane
103
what is a plume
the general shape of a spill or release
104
PEL stands for
permissible exposure limit
105
SARA stands for
superfund amendments and reauthorization act 1986
106
STEL stands for
short term exposure limit
107
TLV stands for
threshold limit value
108
TSD stands for
treatment, storage, disposal
109
TSDF stands for
treatment, storage, and disposal facility
110
what is sublimation
the temperature at which a substance changes form a solid to a gas/vapor with no liquid stage in between.
111
What does TWA stand for?
time weighted average. a ceiling exposure limit value.
112
What is viscosity
the flow resistance characteristic of a liquid
113
hazmat reporting thesholds
500 lbs solid
55 gallons liquid
200 cubic feet gas
114
```
disposal time frames
sqg
lqg
cesqg
satellite accumulation area
```
sqg 180
lqg 90
100 kg then 180 days
within 90 days of reaching 55gal/1 quart
115
FEMA has a four category process regarding emergency management. what are the 4 categories
prevention or mitigation
preparedness
response
recovery
116
local vs. systemic effects
local - reaction affects a certain part of the body - typically externally, occurs at site of contact
system effects - occur at site distant from route of entry. typically attack a target organ or systems
117
TLV stands for ____ and is what?
threshold limit values
chemical concentrations to which workers may be exposed all day without adverse effect
118
TWA stands for ____ and is what?
time weighted average
avg concentration of a chemical most workers can be repeatedly exposed to during an 8 hour day, 40 hours work week without developing adverse or chronic effects
119
STEL stands for _____ and is what?
short term exposure limit
allowable exposure concentration for a short time period (15 minutes average)
120
IDLH stands for
immediately dangerous to life and health
irreversible damage or death
121
____________ is the maximum exposure concentration at any time
ceiling
122
a _______________ is a substance or condition resulting in congenital malformations/birthdefects
teratogen
123
a __________________ is an agent that causes chromosomal damage or rearrangement resulting in an alteration of the genetic code within a cell
mutagen
