Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Epidemic

A

occurrence of a disease in a community or region that is more than normal

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2
Q

Endemic

A

when a disease is expected to be around to some degree within a geographical area. e.g. plague

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3
Q

Communicable diseases are those that are transferable from one _______ to another

A

from one host to another

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4
Q

Epidemiology is the study of _______

A

diseases

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5
Q

Pandemic

A

a disease that exists throughout a wide area

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6
Q

Zoonosis is a group of ____________ diseases that can be transmitted to ______. e.g. is __________

A

animal diseases transferable to man.

e.g. rabies

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7
Q

Acute vs. Chronic diseases

A

acute - rapid onset

chronic - prolonged exposure, long duration illness

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8
Q

Direct vs. Indirect transmission of diseases

A

direct - human to human, animal to human, animal to animal

indirect - vector, fomites

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9
Q

bacteria are usually ___ to ____ microns in size

A

.5 to 3 microns

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10
Q

Name 4 common bacterial shapes

A

rod, cocci, clumps, spiral

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11
Q

clinical vs carrier casses

A

clinical - symptomatic

carrier - asymptomatic (typhoid mary)

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12
Q

subclinical is the state of the host (before/after) the disease causes symptoms

A

before symptoms

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13
Q

the vehicle is how the infectious agent gets transmitted to the host.

e.g. are____ and _____

A

food and water

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14
Q

What are the 5 routes of infections. Which are the two most common.

A
respiratory - most common
oral/digestive - second most common
skin
eyes
injections
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15
Q

Passive vs. Active immunity and Natural and Acquired forms of both.

A

Passive - received from another source
naturally passive - maternal transfer
acquired passive - inoculation of antibodies

Active - formed by body’s immune system
naturally active - from infection
acquired active - inoculation by killed virus/agent then body builds immunity

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16
Q

Intrinsic vs. extrinsic host factors

A

intrinsic (genetic) - age, sex, race, immunologic state

extrinsic (controllable) - personal habits, nutritional state, stress level

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17
Q

synergist/synergy

A

two chemicals produce a greater effect together than either produce alone

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18
Q

additive effects

A

two chemicals produce an effect approximately twice that of either chemical alone.

e.g. cigarette smoking and air pollution

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19
Q

multiplicative effects

A

two chemicals produce an effect several times greater than either product alone

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20
Q

accelerator effect

A

one chemical enables or enhances the toxic effect of another. similar to a “catalyst.” e.g. soot

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21
Q

Top 4 accidental deaths

A

car accidents
accidental falls (most common in the home)
fire and explosion (most common in workplace)
accidental drowning

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22
Q

isolation vs quarantine

A

isolation - disease is know - physical separation to avoid spread

quarantine - disease is unknown

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23
Q

gram stain and colors

A

gram positive retain crystal violet dye (purple)

gram negative - counter stain (safranin) flushes out the crystal violet - microbes appear (red/pink) thinner cell wall

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24
Q

gram positive bacteria have a thick layer of _____

A

peptidoglycan

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25
Q

What are the four growth conditions of bacteria in regards to oxygen level

A

aerobic

microaerophillic - require lower levels of oxygen

facultative anaerobe - will use aerobic respiration but can use anaerobic respiration or fermentation if needed

anaerobic

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26
Q

What are toxins

A

poisonous substances produced by certain microrgaisms

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27
Q

exotoxins vs endotoxins

A

exotoxins - secreted by bacteria, a waste product - highly toxic. They are tissue or organ specific. Usually from gram positive.

endotoxins - part of gram negative cell wall called LPS which are released when the bacteria die

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28
Q

What are some of the damaging effects of endotoxins

A

vasodilation—-> hypotension (low bp)
fever
weakness
leukopenia

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29
Q

the following bacteria produce which types of exotoxins

staph aureus
clost. botulinum
clos. tetani
corneybacterium diptheriae

A

staph aureus - enterotoxin (GI tract)
clost. botulinum - neurotoxin
clos. tetani - neurotoxin
corneybacterium diptheriae - cytotoxin (attacks living cells)

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30
Q
Colorado Tick Fever
type
reservoir
mode
fatality
A

virus
rodents - squirrels, chipmunks
adult tick - dermacentor andersoni (wood tick)
deaths are rare

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31
Q

________________ is a disease that causes inflammation in parts of the brain, specifically the meninges and spinal cord. This disease is caused by a (bacteria/virus)

A

Ecephalitis

viral

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32
Q

What are the 4 types of encephalitis that affect humans. Name the mosquito vector(s) for each type

A

Eastern Equine - Culiseta melanura
St. Louis - Culex tarsalis, Culex pipens
Western Equine - Culex tarsalis
West Nile Virus - Culex tarsalis

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33
Q

In encephalitis, mild cases cane become viral ______________. Sever infections result in disorientation, convulsions and death. Incubation period is between __ and __ days.

A

mild cases –> viral meningitis

5-15 days incubation

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34
Q

____________ is a viral disease that usually affects the liver giving physical symptoms of jaundice

A

Hepatitis

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35
Q

What are the three types of hepatitis

A

Hep A - infectious

Hep B and C - Serum

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36
Q
Hep A
type
mode
average incubation period
typical illness duration
fatality rate
A
virus
fecal oral route
25-30 days incubation
1-2 week duration
low fatality, 1 per 1000
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37
Q
Hep B & C
type
mode
incubation time
fatality
A

virus
blood - hypodermic needles - drug use
60-90 day incubation
1% fatality

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38
Q
Rabies
type
reservoir
mode
incubation
symptoms
fatality
A

virus
reservoir - warm blooded animals - dogs, bats(most rabid), skunks
mode - bite from infected animal
incubation 3-6 weeks
symptoms - paralysis, painful swallowing, foaming mouth, disease attacks central nervous system
fatality - usually fatal once clinical symptoms arrive, treatable if caught during incubation

39
Q

Rabies treatment for humans includes either ______ or ______

Rabies testing for animals includes examination for ____________ in the brain

A

DEV - duck embryo vaccine
RIG - rabies immune globulin

negri bodies

40
Q
Yellow Fever
type
mode
region
incubation
symptoms
fatality
A
virus
Aedes aegypti mosquito
south American and Africa
3-6 day incubation
flu like symptoms
50% fatal to non indigenous
41
Q
AIDS
type
mode
symptoms
fatality
A

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
virus - HIV - human immunodeficiency virus
mode - bodily fluids - sexual transmission
symptoms - HIV causes flu like symptoms, then a long asymptomatic period and can later appear as the late stage disease of AIDS
fatality 80 to 90%

42
Q
Hanta Virus
type
mode
avg incubation
fatality
symptoms
A
virus
rodent aerosols
12-16 days
hemorrhagic fever and renal syndrome
8090 % fatality
43
Q
Cholera
type
mode
symptoms
fatality
A
bacti
Vibrio cholera
mode - fecal oral route
typically a waterborne disease
rice water stools
only fatal if no treatment
44
Q

Vibrio parahemolyticus is a bacterial illness from ____________

A

contaminated seafood

45
Q

Ornithosis/Parrot Fever
type
mode
symptoms

A

bacti
Chlamydia psittaci
contact with infected birds - parakeets, parrots, pigeons
cold/respiratory symptoms

46
Q
Anthrax
type
aka:
mode
incubation period
symptoms
fatality for untreated cases
control
A
bacti
Bacillus anthracis - spore former
aka: wool sorter's disease
mode - animal hides, hair, meat
incubation - 2-5 days
skin lesions or upper respiratory infection (serious)
20% fatality if untreated
control - dust control, wool/sheep brushes disinfected
47
Q
Plague
type
two types
mode
incubation
fatality
historically called \_\_\_\_\_\_
A

bacti
bubonic(swollen lymph nodes) and pneumonic (respiratory, 2nd stage, highly contagious)

Yersinia pestis
mode - rats (rats get it from flea - oriental rat flea)
symptoms - high fever, low bp, rapid pulse, convulsions, coma
incubation 2-6 days
fatality - untreated 50%

one of the deadliest disease known to man

historically called “black death”

48
Q

Rabbit Fever/Deerfly Fever/Tularemia
type
mode

A

bacti
Francisella tularensis
mode - deerfly bite, inoculation from infected rabbit/deer

49
Q

Brucellosis
type
aka
mode

A

bacti
Brucella abortus
aka: undulant fever (humans) Bang’s disease (cattle), Kennel Cough
mode - infected animals or dairy products

50
Q

Fever is not usually a symptom of this type of foodborne illness

A

foodborne intoxications

51
Q

heat stable vs heat labile toxins

A

heat stable - toxin survives heat (usually chemical based toxins)
heat labile - toxin does not survive heating (usually protein based toxins)

52
Q

___________ is an e.g. of a heat stable toxin

A

staph aureus

53
Q

___________ is an e.g. of a heat labile toxin

A

clost. botulinum

54
Q
Bacillus cereus
type
mode
infectious dose
incubation
symptoms
duration
A

gram pos, facultative anaerobe, spore former
intoxication
mode - ingestion of cooked food left out too long. meats, stews, gravies, rice
ID 500,000 bacti
incubation - 10-16 hours
symptoms - cramps, D, N
duration - 24-48 hours

55
Q
Clostridium botulinum
type
mode
ID
incubation
symptoms
duration
Fatality of untreated
A
gram pos, anaerobic, spore former
intoxication
mode - ingestion of improperly canned foods, home canned fish, vegetables, fermented fish, baked potatoes in aluminum foil
ID very few - most potent toxic to man
incubation - 12-72 hours
symptoms - V, D, blurred/double vision, difficulty swallowing
duration - variable
fatality - 30% of untreated cases
56
Q

floppy baby syndrome is associated with __________ and can be caused by the ingestion of ________

A

botulism

honey

57
Q

the botulism toxin is a (endotoxin/exotoxin) and is heat (stabile/labile)

A

exotoxin (neurotoxin), heat labile (protein structure)

58
Q
Clostridium perfringens
aka:
type
mode
ID
incubation
symptoms
duration
A
gram pos, anaerobic, spore former
toxin mediated infection
aka: cafeteria bacteria
mode - ingestion of meats (roasts), poultry, gravy, MEXICAN BEANS, time/temp abused foods
ID - 1-100 million organisms
incubation 8-16 hours
symptoms - intense cramps, watery D
duration - 24 hours
59
Q
Salmonella
type
mode
ID
incubation
symptoms
duration
Typhoid Fever
A

gram neg, non spore former, enterobacteria
infection
mode - fecal oral - ingestion of eggs, poultry, meat, unpasteurized milk/juice, cheese, contaminated raw fruits/vegetables - undercooked foods, cross contamination.
ID - 1000 to 10,000 bacti
incubation - 6-48 hours
symptoms - D, F, cramps, V
4-7 days
Typhoid fever - salmonella typhi - more serious than salmonellosis

60
Q

which organism is the control organism for the phenol coefficient

A

salmonella typhi

61
Q
Shigella
type
aka
mode
ID
incubation
symptoms
duration
A

Shigella dysenteriae - gram neg, facultative anaerobe, non spore former
infection
aka bacillary dysentery
mode - fecal oral - contaminated water, raw produce, uncooked foods or improperly reheated foods, cruise ship ice
ID - 10 or more bacti
incubation - 4-7 days
symptoms - crapms, F, D, stools may contain blood/mucus
duration - 24-48 hours

62
Q
Staph aureus
aka
type
mode
incubation
symptoms
duration
A

staphylococcus aureus - gram pos, aerobe
picnic food poisoning
intoxication (enterotoxin)
mode - from skin lesions, nose mouth of man to food - unrefrigerated or improperly refrigerated meats, potatos, egg salads, cream pastries
incubation - 1-6 hours
symptoms - sudden onset severe N and V. cramps, D and F may also be present. Normally no fever though
duration - 24-48 hours

63
Q

toxic shock syndrome in women is caused by ____________

A

staph aureus

64
Q

___________ is a nosocomial infection (commonly acquired at a hospital)

A

staph aureus

65
Q
E Coli O157 H7 
aka
type
mode
incubation
symptoms
duration
A

aka: enterohemoragic, or HUS - hemolytic uremic syndrome
type - Escherichia coli, gram neg, facultative anaerobe
Toxin Mediated infection
mode - undercooked beef, unpasteurized milk/juice, raw vegetables (sprouts), contaminated water
incubation - 1-8 days
symptoms - severe bloody D, abdo pain, V. usually no fever. kidney failure in kids.
duration - 5-10 days

66
Q
Norovirus
aka
type
mode
incubation
symptoms
duration
A

aka: viral gastroenteritis, winter diarrhea, food poisoning, Norwalk virus etc.
virus
mode - fecal oral route - raw produce, contaminated drinking water, poor food handler hygiene, shellfish from contaminated waters
incubation - 12-48 hours
symptoms - N, V, cramps, D, F, headache. D more prevalent in adults, V more prevalent in children.
duration - 12-60 hours

67
Q
Streptococcus pyogenes
aka
type
mode
symptoms
A

aka scarlet fever
gram positive
mode - direct contact with airborne droplets, contaminated food and milk
symptoms - sore throat

68
Q
Campylobacter jejuni
type
mode
ID
incubation
symptoms
duration
A
gram neg, microaerophillic
infection
mode - cross contamination or undercooked poultry, unpasteurized milk, contaminated water
ID 400 bacteria
incubation - 2-5 days
symptoms - D cramps, V, D may be bloody
duration - 2-10 days
easily killed by disinfection
69
Q

_______________ is bacterial disease especially from raw or undercooked oysters. Can be fatal to those with liver diseases or weakened immune systems

A

Vibrio vulnificus

70
Q

Gonyaulax C is the name of the toxin responsible for ____________

A

paralytic shellfish poisoning

71
Q

Tuberculosis
type
mode
symptoms

A
mycobacterium tuberculosis
acid fast, aerobic
mode - exposure to airborne droplets
symptoms - after 4 to 6 week incubation  cough, fever, fatigue
highly contagious
72
Q

Relapsing fever is caused by _______________ and is transmitted by ___________

A

borrelia recurrentis

transmitted by ticks

73
Q

____________’s disease is an atypical form of pneumonia and can be caused when the bacteria gets into air conditioning units

A

legionaires disease

74
Q

___________________ is a bacteria disease that can occur from contact with water that is contaminated with urine of infected animals such as cattle, dogs, horses and swine

A

leptospirosis

75
Q
Listeria
type
mode
incubation
symptoms
duration
A

listeria monocytogenes, gram pos, facultative anerobe
infection
mode - ingestion of unpasteurized milk, soft cheeses, ready to eat deli meets, seafood products
incubation - 9-48 hours for GI, 2-6 weeks for invasive disease
symptoms - flu like symptoms, pregnant women very susceptible to still birth
duration - variable
notes - very hardy organisms resistant to freezing, dry, hot environments etc.

76
Q

Thrush is a common name for the fungal infection caused by the yeast ________________

A

candida albicans

77
Q

Gilchrists disease is caused by the yeast _____________

A

blastomyces dermitidis

78
Q

Valley fever or desert fever can be caught by inhalation of spores form soil or vegetation. It’s caused by the fungus _______________

A

coccidiodes immitis

79
Q

Darlings disease is caused by the fungus ____________________ and can be found in soil around chicken coops and bat caves

A

histoplasma capsulatum

80
Q

Tinea, or ________________ is a fungal infection from the ______________ and ____________ species.

A

ringworm
microsporum
trichophyton

on the foot it’s called athletes foot

81
Q

Lymes disease is caused by the bacteria ____________ and is transmitted from the tick species ___________

the illness presents as a skin leasion followed by fatigue fever and lymph node inflammation

A

borrelia

ticks species Ixodes

82
Q

Rickettsia bacteria

A

gram neg, non spore forming
carried by limes, ticks and other arthropods
diseases include
rocky mountain spotted fever - dermacentor tick
typhus fever - pediculus humanis (lice) oriental rat flea (xenophylla) mite larvae (leptotrombidium)

83
Q

scabies is caused by bites from ________

A

mites sarcoptes scabiei

84
Q

entamoeba histolytica is an infection from _______________

A

protozoan

85
Q

Cryptosporodium is an infection caused by a ____________ which can be in contaminated water. the symptoms are usually______

A

protozoan

watery D, cramps, slight fever

86
Q

_______ is caused by a protozoan which can be in contaminated drinking water. It’s common for hikers and day care centers.

A

giardia

87
Q

Malaria is caused by the protozoan ___________________. The mode is by infected ______________

A

plasmodium vivax

mosquito

88
Q

the tse tse fly is the mode of transmission for _______________

A

African sleeping sickness

89
Q

swimmer’s itch is caused by the parasite ________________ and is the most common waterborne disease

A

schistosoma mansoni (blood fluke)

90
Q

beef and pork tape worms are scientifically known as

A
taenia solium (pork)
taenia saginata (beef)
91
Q

The two common varieties of hookworms are. to prevent infection do not ___________

A

ancylostoma duodenale
necator americanus
do not walk barefoot in soils known to have hookworms

they can survive wastewater treatment

92
Q

ascaris lumbricoides is a _________________

A

roundworm

93
Q

pinworms are called ____________

A

enterobius vermicularis