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Lieutenants exam > Hazmat Responses: Surviving the Initial Response > Flashcards

Hazmat Responses: Surviving the Initial Response Flashcards

1
Q

A first responders success depends upon these 5 things

A
  • Level of planning before the incident
  • Training
  • Ingenuity
  • Capabilities and limitations of equipment
  • Ability to use equipment
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2
Q

Defined as anything that can harm people, property, or the environment

A

Hazardous material

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3
Q

A material or device created specifically to explode on demand

A

Explosive

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4
Q

Liquid with a flashpoint below 100F

A

Flammable liquid

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5
Q

Liquid with a flashpoint of 100F or greater

A

Combustable liquid

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6
Q

Controlling factor in determining the flashpoint of a liquid

A

Temperature of the liquid

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7
Q

Poisons can enter the body in one of four ways

A
  • Inhalation
  • Ingestion
  • Absorption
  • Entry through a wound
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8
Q

Where the term ionizing radiation originates

A

When particles collide with an electron, the tendency is to remove that electron from the atom thus leaving a particle that is now an ion

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9
Q

Hazard classes

  • Class 1
  • Class 2
  • Class 3
  • Class 4
  • Class 5
  • Class 6
  • Class 7
  • Class 8
  • Class 9
A
  • Class 1 = Explosives
  • Class 2 = Gases
  • Class 3 = Flammable liquids
  • Class 4 = Flammable solids
  • Class 5 = Oxidizers
  • Class 6 = Poisonous
  • Class 7 = Radioactive
  • Class 8 = Corrosive
  • Class 9 = Misc hazards
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10
Q

Precedence of Hazard Table

A

Used to classify hazardous materials

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11
Q

OSHA uses this term to define any chemical which is a physical hazard or health hazard

A

Hazardous chemical

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12
Q

OSHA Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response Standard uses this term

A

Hazardous substance

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13
Q

First responders trained to this level are to initiate an emergency response sequence

A

Awareness level

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14
Q

The first responders trained to this level function to contain the release from a safe distance and keep it from spreading and prevent exposures

A

Operations level

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15
Q

The responder trained to this level will respond to an incident with the purpose of stopping the release

A

Technician level

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16
Q

This responder is trained to provide support to the technician

A

Specialist

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17
Q

The process of containing a release may be …

A
  • Passive

- Active

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18
Q

Important actions to take prior to even considering containing a release (5)

A
  • Identify the material and asses potential harm
  • Isolate affected areas
  • Account for all personnel who might have been exposed
  • Provide medical care and decontamination to those exposed
  • Protect people from the potential of exposure
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19
Q

First responders consider this to be “aspirin” for all incidents

A

Water

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20
Q

Clean up involve three distinct steps

A
  • Removal of waste
  • Disposal of the waste material
  • Restoration of the contaminated area
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21
Q

Most valuable (important) role of a first responder

A

Ensure everyone goes home

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22
Q

Defesive practices include (4)

A
  • Contain release
  • Protect people
  • Protect property
  • Protect environment
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23
Q

To encourage and support emergency planning efforts at the state and local levels and provide the public and local governments with information concerning potential chemical hazards present in their communities

A

Purpose of Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA)

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24
Q

EPCRA include 4 major sections

A
  • Emergency planning
  • Community Right-to-Know requirements
  • Emergency release notification
  • Toxic chemical release reporting
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25
Q

This tier identifies a hazard by category and is the minimum requirement by law

A

Tier I

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26
Q

This tier provides greater detail and identifies materials by specific chemical name

A

Tier II

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27
Q

Tier reports must be submitted every

A

Year

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28
Q

TPQ

A

Threshold Planning Quantities

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29
Q

TPQ quantities are measured in ___ rather then in ___

A
  • Pounds

- Gallons

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30
Q

Local Emergency Planning Committee (LEPC) is responsible for developing an emergency response plan that should include these 7 components

A
  • Emergency response procedure
  • Evacuation plan
  • Notification procedure
  • Determination of the severity of a release and the populations likely affected
  • Ways to notify the public when a release happens
  • Identification of emergency resources and equipment
  • Determination of training for local responders
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31
Q

LEPC is responsible for evaluating the emergency response plan every ..

A

Year

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32
Q

Hazard assessment involves three factors

A
  • The material
  • The container
  • The environment
  • Its physical state
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33
Q

Three stages of hazardous materials incident

A
  • Containers that have released their contents
  • Containers that have an ongoing release
  • Containers that have not yet released their contents (but have the potential to do so)
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34
Q

Two components to aid in determining the amount of gas that could release from a container

A
  • Size of the compressed gas cylinder

- Pressure at which the material is stored

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35
Q

Defensive actions (3)

A
  • Protect People
  • Protect Property
  • Protect environment
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36
Q

When deciding on how best to manage an incident these 3 things must be considered

A
  • Material
  • Container
  • Environment
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37
Q

Regulation governing ground transportation requires an emergency telephone number to be included on shipping papers

A

Code of Federal Regulations

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38
Q

Emergency telephone must be monitored at all times while material is …

A

In transportation and storage incidental to transportation

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39
Q

CHEMTREC

A

Chemical Transportation Emergency Center

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40
Q

CHEMNET

A

Nationwide network of response contractors

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41
Q

Support during hazardous materials incidents can be divided into the following three categories

A
  • Technical support
  • Legal support
  • Logistical support
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42
Q

At the local and state level first responders should be able to contact the following 9 agencies

A
  • Emergency management
  • Public works
  • Highway dept
  • Health dept
  • Game dept
  • Environmental regulatory and enforcement
  • Motor carrier law enforcement
  • Occupational safety
  • Public affairs
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43
Q

3 documents capable of providing first responders with specific info

A
  • Emergency Response Guidebook
  • MSDS
  • Hazardous Materials Guid for First Responders
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44
Q

Latest edition of the ERG

A

2004

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45
Q

ERG2004 contains ___ individual guides

A

61

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46
Q

When finding n.o.s. (not otherwise specified) in the ERG2004

A

Means the actual chemical name is not listed in the regulations

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47
Q

A distinct advantage provided by the ERG2004

A

Provides recommendations for the size of immediate isolations areas

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48
Q

Color pages where the “Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances” is found in the ERG

A

Green pages

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49
Q

Atmospheric mixing is ___ effective at dispersing vapor plums during nighttime thus protective action distances ___

A
  • Less

- Increase

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50
Q

Should be one of the first decisions made

A

To isolate and evacuate

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51
Q

Each MSDS shall contain at least the following (12)

A
  • Identity used on the label
  • Physical and chemical characteristics
  • Physical hazards of the hazardous chemical
  • Health hazards
  • Primary routs of entry
  • OSHA permissible exposure limits
  • If listed in the National Toxicology Program (NTP)
  • Precautions for safe handling
  • Control measures
  • Emergency and first aid procedures
  • Date MSDS was prepared
  • Name, address, telephone number of the chemical manufacture
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52
Q

On MSDS, N/A =

A

Not Available

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53
Q

MSDS sheets are required on products known to have either a ___ hazard or a ___ hazard

A
  • Health

- Physical

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54
Q

Type of hazard that includes carcinogens, toxins, irritants, corrosive, sensitizers, and agents that damage the lungs, skin, or eyes

A

Health hazard

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55
Q

Type of hazard that includes chemicals that are compressed gas, flammable, an oxidizer, or water reactive

A

Physical hazard

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56
Q

Chemical and physical properties that are of importance to first responders (4)

A
  • Specific gravity
  • Vapor density
  • Miscibility
  • Solubility
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57
Q

Capable of being liquified or dissolved

A

Solubility

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58
Q

Will mix with another material, such as water

A

Miscibility

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59
Q

minimum temperature of a liquid at which it gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with the air near the surface

A

Flash point

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60
Q

Defined as the maximum concentration of chemical to which an individual can be exposed during various periods of time without suffering adverse health effects

A

Exposure limit

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61
Q

Those requiring access to MSDS sheets (3)

A
  • Employees who use the chemicals in the workplace
  • Vendors who sell to employers
  • LEPC
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62
Q

Those exempted from access to MSDS

A
  • Retail vendors who do not sell to employers and operations where employees only handle chemicals in sealed containers
  • Employee exposure is no greater then normal consumer use
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63
Q

Intended users of the Hazardous Materials Guide for First Responders

A

First responders trained to the Awareness and Operations level

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64
Q

To select appropriate response tactics first responders should alway pay attention to four things

A
  • Specific gravity
  • Vapor density
  • Miscibility
  • Solubility
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65
Q

The lower the ppm value for any exposure limit the more ___ the material

A

Harmful

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66
Q

Best way to determine how to effectively manage any hazardous material incident

A

Identify it by name

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67
Q

Use of a materials identification number is referred to as a ___ in the federal transportation regulations

A

Marking

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68
Q 
Hierarchy of hazardous materials identification
Best = 
Better = 
Good = 
(*) =
A 
Best = Name 
Better = 4-diget id number
Good = Hazard class
(*) = Synonym for various names
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69
Q

Types of stress a container can be exposed to (3)

A
  • External heating
  • Chemical reaction inside the container
  • Physical damage
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70
Q

General characteristics of containers (2)

A
  • Size

- Used for transport or fixed

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71
Q

Special characteristics of containers (4)

A
  • What the container is constructed from
  • Pressurized or not
  • Type and configuration of intended openings
  • Whether the container has the means to relieve internal pressure
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72
Q

Capacity of bulk highway cargo tank

A

9,000 gal of liquid

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73
Q

Capacity of high pressure containers intended for transport

A

11,000 gal

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74
Q

Capacities of bulk rail tank cars:
Non-pressurized =
Pressurized =
Chlorine =

A 
Non-pressurized = 10,000 - 26,000 gal
Pressurized = 30,000 gal
Chlorine = 90 tons
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75
Q

Bulk fixed storage tank capacities

A

Several hundren to several thousand gallons

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76
Q

Type of cargo tank that has a distinctive horseshoe shape

A

Insulated highway cargo tank

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77
Q

Type of container that usually presents the greatest danger

A

Pressurized container

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78
Q

Container pressure:
Low-pressure container=
High-pressure bulk transport container =

A

Low-pressure container= 25 to 75 psi

High-pressure bulk transport container = As high as 300 psi

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79
Q

Two primary characteristics for most compressed gas cylinders

A
  • Pressure relief valve

- Rounded tank ends

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80
Q

Damage is especially troublesome when it occurs at ___ on a high pressure metal containers

A

The weld lines

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81
Q

Propane has an expansion rate of

A

270 to 1

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82
Q

The vapor space in a container is sometimes as high as ___% to ___% of the capacity of the container

A

15% to 20%

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83
Q

Presence of a container with an OPD is usually indicated by a ___

A

Triobular hand wheel

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84
Q

Defined as molecules with extremely high levels of energy and normal temps so that no reasonable about of pressure is capable of compressing these molecules into a liquid state

A

Nonliquified gas (eg. oxygen, nitrogen)

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85
Q

Cryogenics can reduce the temp of a material to …

A

-150F

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86
Q

Expansion ratios:
Liquid oxygen =
Liquid nitrogen =

A

Liquid oxygen = 857 to 1

Liquid nitrogen = 694 to 1

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87
Q

Factors to consider when evaluating the location of an incident and its exposures (5)

A
  • Population density
  • Location of highway
  • Waterways
  • Railroads
  • Environmentally sensitive areas
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88
Q

Environmental factors (2)

A
  • Weather

- Time of day

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89
Q

A communities critical systems include (4)

A
  • Highways
  • Waterways
  • Utilities
  • Industrial / Commercial areas
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90
Q

One of the best ways to provide for safe working conditions at night

A

Provide portable lighting

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91
Q

Defensive actions tat first responders can undertake (5)

A
  • Prevent release
  • Contain the release of liquid
  • Contain the release of gas and vapor
  • Contain the release of solid
  • Protective action (evacuation/in-place protection)
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92
Q

Assessment of conditions should attempt to determine (3)

A
  • Containers that have already released their contents
  • Containers that have an ongoing release
  • Containers that have not released their contents
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93
Q

Types of stress (3)

A
  • Thermal
  • Mechanical
  • Chemical
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94
Q

The sound of gas and vapor escaping from an operating pressure relief device during a fire will increase in both __ and __ as internal pressure continues to rise

A

Volume and pitch

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95
Q

The weakest locations of non pressure containers

A

Ends

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96
Q

Indicators that underground utilities are nearby (4)

A
  • Pad-mounted tranformers
  • Manhole covers
  • Valve boxes
  • Utility poles outfitted with an attached cable that runs from the pole to an underground connection at its base
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97
Q

Booms are manufactured in ___ ft sections

A

10 foot

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98
Q

An important consideration when attempting to contain a release

99
Q

Factors first responders should consider when deciding what steps they may take to control a release of gases and vapors (4)

A
  • Type of material released
  • Quantity released
  • Speed of release
  • Duration of release
100
Q

Most difficult form of material to control

A

Gas or vapor

101
Q

When determining what actions to take these two environmental elements will play a key role

A
  • Wind speed

- Direction

102
Q

Protective actions are considered

A

Defensive tactics

103
Q

Protective actions include (3)

A
  • Isolating and denying entry
  • Evacuation
  • In-place protection
104
Q

Erg provides recommended distances for immediate isolation of spill or leak areas under the heading …

A

“Public Safety”

105
Q

The “Table of Initial Isolation and Protective Action Distances” (green pages) is intended to show areas likely affected during the first ___ min after the materials are spilled

A

30 minutes

106
Q

Two generally accepted defensive tactics

A
  • Evacuation

- In-place protection

107
Q

The preferred method of defensive protection if a material released is flammable or will likely take a long time to dissipate

A

Evacuation

108
Q

Three serious consideration when deciding to evacuate

A
  • Where to shelter
  • How to transport to shelter
  • How to care for evacuees once they arrive
109
Q

Best way to decontaminate any protective clothing

A

Avoid contamination

110
Q

The purpose of putting contaminated clothes in clear plastic bags

A

To assist with the identification of the bags contents

111
Q

When dealing with a citizen complaint regarding decisions to evacuate remember

A

An inconvenience is temporary, dead is forever

112
Q

When responding to a highway transportation incident first responders must determine the following (2)

A
  • Are there hazardous materials involved

- Is there a release or potential release

113
Q

Included in the Code of Federal Regulations - Transportation are identifications known as … (2)

A
  • Labels

- Placards

114
Q

Normally applied to non bulk containers and measure …

A

Labels, 3.9”

115
Q

Affixed to the front, rear, and both sides of transport vehicles and measure

A

Placards, 10.8”

116
Q

Label and placard info system includes the following components (4)

A
  • Background color
  • Hazard class name (displayed in center)
  • Hazard class number (single fidget, displayed in lower corner)
  • Symbol (displayed in upper corner)
117
Q

Four digit identification number is referred to as a

A

Marking (displayed in center of placard)

118
Q

Prohibited for use on a radioactive placard

A

Four digit identification number

119
Q

Labels and placards are used only during the transport of ___ hazardous materials

120
Q

Placards from Table __ must be affixed to a transport vehicle whenever that vehicle contains any amount of these materials, regardless of weight

121
Q

Shipments of classes of hazardous materials not found on Table 1 are exempt from placarding requirements if the aggregate gross weight of hazardous materials is less than ___ pounds

A

1,001 pounds

122
Q

Two other ways of displaying a four-digit identification number other than in the center of a hazard class placard

A
  • On an orange rectangular panel

- Using a white square-on-point configuration

123
Q

Type of transport container that is required to display the four digit identification number regardless of th amount of material being shipped

A

Cargo tank

124
Q

Identification numbers not required at this location of the cargo tank when having more than one compartment

A

At the ends

125
Q

When vans or flatbed trucks display a placard any of the following situations could exist (5)

A
  • Any quantity of material found on Table 1
  • 1,001 lbs or more aggregate gross weight of materials from Table 2
  • Any amount of material from Table 2
  • DANGEROUS placard likely indicates a mixed load from Table 2
  • Display of a four digit number in the center of a placard could indicate the presence of materials shipped in intermediate containers or large number of non bulk containers
126
Q

When transport vehicles such as box trucks and flatbeds do not display a placard the following situations could exist (3)

A
  • Material being transported does not meet the transportation regulations definitional criteria of a hazardous material
  • Material meets the definitional criteria of a hazard class found in Table 2 with a gross aggregate weight less than 1,001 lbs
  • Transport vehicle is empty
127
Q

When a transport vehicles such as cargo tanks display the four digit identification number the following situations could exist (3)

A
  • Presence of that material assigned the displayed four digit identification number
  • The distillate number with the lowest flashpoint may be displayed
  • Placards cannot usually be removed from a cargo tank unless it is sufficiently cleaned
128
Q

Examples of placards not being displayed when required (4)

A
  • Misunderstanding of placarding requirements
  • Desire to avoid unwanted attention
  • Damaged, stolen, vandalized
  • Underestimating the weight of materials
129
Q

Placards may be displayed when prohibited due to causes such as (4)

A
  • Vandalism
  • Misunderstanding of placarding requirements
  • Failure to remove placards from transport vehicle
  • Desire to scare away potential thieves
130
Q

Shipping papers for shipments of hazardous materials include the following types of information (6)

A
  • Proper shipping name of material
  • Hazard class and 4 digit identification number
  • Total quantity of materials
  • Number and type of packages
  • Packaging group
  • Emergency response telephone number
131
Q

For each regulated hazardous material shipment, shipping papers will include (2)

A
  • Shipper

- Consignee (destination)

132
Q

Several ways in which the hazardous materials listed on shipping papers can get the readers attention (3)

A
  • Listed first
  • Entered in a color that contrasts with that of info for other types of shipments
  • Identified with an “X” in a specified “HM” column
133
Q

Packaging groups indicate …

A

Degree of danger presented by the material (Group 1 is bad stuff)

134
Q

Most important information contained on shipping papers

A

Emergency response telephone number

135
Q

Running leak

A

Rail tank car is leaking while the train is moving

136
Q

Stenciled onto the sides of rail tank cars (2)

A
  • Shipping name

- Four digit identification number

137
Q

One of the best ways to preplan for a rail emergency

A

Ride in one of the railroads highway vehicles designed to drive on the tracks

138
Q

Rail tank car capacity

A

30,000 gal

139
Q

Critical contact for any incident occurring along a railroad right-of-way

A

Utility locating company

140
Q

Building where hazardous materials may be manufactured, used, stored or sold

A

Fixed facility

141
Q

5 rules designed to prevent first responders from becoming part of the problem

A
  • Identify the materials
  • Isolate affected areas
  • Account for all personal who may have been exposed
  • Provide medical care and decon
  • Protect persons from the potential of exposure
142
Q

Entitled “Standard System for the Identification of the Hazards of Materials for Emergency Response”

143
Q

NFPA 704 addresses the health, flammability, instability and related hazards that are presented by …

A

Short-term, acute exposure

144
Q 
NFPA 704 degrees of Health hazards (BLUE)
4 = 
3 = 
2 = 
1 = 
0 =
A 
4 = Lethal 
3 = Serious or permanent injury
2 = Temporary incapacitations or residual injury
1 = Significant irritation
0 = No hazard beyond that of ordinary combustable materials
145
Q 
NFPA 704 degrees of Flammability (RED)
4 = 
3 = 
2 = 
1 = 
0 =
A 
4 = Rapidly or completely vaporize at atmospheric pressure and ambient temps, will burn readily 
3 = Can be ignited under almost all ambient temps
2 = Moderately heated or exposed to high ambient temps prior to ignition
1 = Must be preheated before ignition
0 = Will not burn under typical fire conditions
146
Q 
NFPA 704 degrees of Instability (YELLOW)
4 = 
3 = 
2 = 
1 = 
0 =
A 
4 = Readily capable of detonation or explosion at normal temps and pressures
3 = Requires a strong initiating source or must be heated under confinement before initiation
2 = Readily undergo violent chemical change at elevated temps and pressures
1 = Normally stable, can become unstable at elevated temps and pressures
0 = Stable under fire conditions
147
Q

Locations on 704 sign and associated color

  • Health
  • Flammability
  • Instability
  • Special hazard
A
  • Health = BLUE / 9:00 position
  • Flammability = RED / 12:00 position
  • Instability = YELLOW / 3:00 position
  • Special hazard = NO COLOR / 6:00 position
148
Q

NFPA 704 says that at a minimum signs shall be posted at these locations (3)

A
  • Two exterior walls or enclosures containing a means of access to a building or facility
  • Each access to a room or area
  • Each principal means of access to an exterior storage area
149
Q

NFPA 704 allows three ways to identify

A
  • Composite method (single sign summarizes maximum ratings)
  • Individual method (a sign for each hazard with chemical name displayed)
  • Composite/Individual combined method (single sign for the building and individual signs for chemicals at each location within building)
150
Q

For spills in a residence from home heating oil, first responders should contact these agencies who are responsible for determining the extent of the clean-up required (4)

A
  • Local health official
  • Environmental
  • Code/Compliance official
  • Fire marshal
151
Q

Numerical values associated with occupational exposure levels to carbon monoxide do not apply to

A

The general public

152
Q

Document that provides recommended techniques for conducting atmospheric monitoring of residential occupancies

A

“Responding to Residential Carbon Monoxide Incidents - Guidelines for Fire and Other Emergency Response Personnel”

153
Q

When dealing with a fuming trash container or trash truck (3)

A
  • Isolate and deny entry to affected area
  • Notify company that owns the truck or bin
  • Take no remediation activities (preferred response)
154
Q

Actions taken when responding to a suspicious odor in building (5)

A
  • Asses the scene
  • Evacuate affected building
  • Account for all personnel
  • Treat those who are symptomatic
  • Control any ongoing release (if it can be done safely)
155
Q

Referred to when deciding whether to enter a contaminated area for rescue

156
Q

When structure firefighting protective clothing (SFPC) provides limited protection

A

SFPC and SCBA may be worn to perform an expedient operation

157
Q

Hazardous Material Guide for First Responders states this is the most important first aid action that can be initiates

A

Removal of hazardous material from the skin, eyes, or clothing of a victim (decon)

158
Q

Eye should be flushed for ___ min

A

20 Minutes

159
Q

Multigas monitors can detect and simultaneously measure ___ to ___ different hazardous atmospheres

160
Q

Should be considered before ever using an atmospheric monitor (7)

A
  • Basic operation
  • Functional bump and full calibration
  • General use
  • Readings as a basis for decision making
  • Multipul hazards during an incident
  • Potential for inaccurate readings
  • Interpreting “zero”
161
Q

Atmospheric monitor may not be capable of detecting ___ or ___

A

Dusts or mists

162
Q

Concentrations of toxic gas and vapor is generally determined through the use of an ___ sensor

A

Electrochemical

163
Q

To determine the concentration of ____ gases a sensor containing an electric circuit with a heated filament is often used

A

Combustible

164
Q

A functional calibration is often referred to a

A

Bump test (conducted before each use)

165
Q

Full calibration should be performed … (4)

A
  • On a regular schedule
  • When it fails a bump test
  • After any repairs
  • After replacement of the sensor
166
Q

If a gas cylinder does not display an expiration date it will likely display …

A

A production date (manufacturer will advise on how to calculate expiration)

167
Q

When purchasing atmospheric monitors consideration should be given to (4)

A
  • Life expectancy of sensors
  • Difficulty associated with sensor replacement
  • Cost of sensor replacement
  • Delivery time
168
Q

Explosive atmosphere may require additional precautions (3)

A
  • Hoseline for protection
  • Utility control
  • Proper ventilation
169
Q

Two types of toxic gasses usually measured with a multi gas detector

A
  • Carbon monoxide

- Hydrogen sulfide

170
Q

In addition to knowing what materials a monitor can detect, first responders must also know the ___ of the material

A

Vapor density

171
Q

Vapor density:

  • Natural gas
  • Propane
  • Gasoline
A
  • Natural gas = 0.55
  • Propane = 1.56
  • Gasoline = 3-4
172
Q

Info made available for atmospheric monitors usually measured in one of two ways

A
  • ppm

- Percent of LEL

173
Q

OSHA defines a hazardous atmosphere as one with combustable gas concentrations that exceed ___% of the LEL

174
Q

STEL

A

Short Term Exposure Limit = 15 min exposure

175
Q

The permissible STEL to vapors of regular unleaded gasoline

A

500ppm (LEL = 1.4%)

176
Q

Atmospheric monitor manufacturer supplied numbers by which readings must be multiplied or divided

A

Correction factors

177
Q

Oxygen content below ___% and above ___% are themselves defined as hazardous atmospheres

A
  • 19.5%

- 23.5

178
Q

Response time is the time necessary to obtain a reading is usually measured in

179
Q

Flashpoint:
Gasoline =
Diesel =

A
  • Gasoline = -45F

- Diesel = above 100F

180
Q

Class B foam works in 4 ways

A
  • Smothers
  • Separates
  • Suppresses vapor production
  • Cools surrounding surfaces
181
Q

Liquids that will not mix with water

A

Nonpolar solvents

182
Q

Liquids that will mix with water

A

Polar solvents

183
Q

ERG2004 refers to foam for polar solvents as ___ and foam for non polar solvents as ___

A
  • Alcohol resistant

- Regular foam

184
Q

Class B foam may be referred to as either ___ or ___

A
  • Alcohol resistant

- Regular foam

185
Q

Types of foam that consist of products from protein hydrolysate and produce a relatively thick foam blanket (2)

A
  • Protein

- Fluoroprotein

186
Q

Produces a thiner, more fluid foam blanket

187
Q

AFFF 3%/6%

A
  • 3% = nonpolar solvents

- 6% = polar solvents (alcohol)

188
Q

Handheld appliance most critical to production of foam

A

Inline educator

189
Q

Discharge or male thread of an inline educator is normally ___ inches in diameter while intake or female coupling may be ___ or ___ inches in diameter

A
  • 1 1/2”

- 2 1/2” or 1 1/2”

190
Q

Two important points for first responders to remember when selecting the discharge outlet to which the inline educator will be attached

A
  • Ensure the siphon tube will reach the bottom of the foam bucket
  • Someone must be available to switch the siphon tube
191
Q

Minimum application rate of foam defined as

A

GPM/ft2 of spill surface

192
Q

Defined as a spill that is not contained in a dike with an average depth that does not exceed 1 in. and is bound only by the contour of the surface

A

Spill fire

193
Q

Dilution ratio is determined by

A

Manufacturer of the foam

194
Q

Minimum application rate of AFFF on nondiked spill fire

A

0.1 GPM/ft2 of spill surface

195
Q

Minimum application rate of protein and fluoroprotein foams

A

0.16 GPM/ft2 of spill surface

196
Q

NFPA 11 states a minimum discharge time of

A

15 minutes

197
Q

To preplan foam firefighting capabilities first responders need the following (4)

A
  1. Foam concentrate dilution ratio
  2. Minimum application rate
  3. Capacity of the apparatus water tank
  4. Amount of foam carried on apparatus
198
Q

Minimum discharge time

A

15 minutes

199
Q

Increasing the foam application rate above the minimum recommended by NFPA 11 will not extinguish a larger fire, it can ____ the time required to achieve control

200
Q

Increasing the application rate (bigger nozzle) can ___ the time to control a fire

201
Q

Increasing the dilution ratio (adding more concentrate to less water) ____ decrease the time to control but rather will waste foam concentrate

202
Q

Pre-plan calculations for AFFF:

  • 1%, 500 gal, 5 gal foam
  • 1%, 1000 gal, 10 gal foam
  • 3%, 500 gal, 15 gal foam
  • 3%, 1000 gal, 30 gal foam
  • 6%, 500 gal, 30 gal foam
  • 6%, 1000 gal, 60 gal foam
A
  • 1%, 500 gal, 5 gal foam = 333 sq ft
  • 1%, 1000 gal, 10 gal foam = 666 sq ft
  • 3%, 500 gal, 15 gal foam = 333 sq ft
  • 3%, 1000 gal, 30 gal foam = 666 sq ft
  • 6%, 500 gal, 30 gal foam = 333 sq ft
  • 6%, 1000 gal, 60 gal foam = 666 sq ft

Hint: (500 gal = 333 sq ft; 1000 gal = 666 sq ft)

203
Q

Most important components of ICS to first responders during the initial phase of a hazardous materials incident (2)

A
  • Command structure

- Action plans

204
Q

Command structure should include no less than (2)

A
  • IC

- Safety officer

205
Q

Key functional areas during the initial phase of a hazardous materials incident (7)

A
  • Scene control
  • Research
  • Protective action
  • Fire control
  • Product containment
  • Decontamination
  • Patient care
206
Q

Key to survival to any additional responding resources

A

Safest route to the scene

207
Q

Type of command structure where the IC is solely responsible for establishing the incident management strategies and objectives

A

Single command structure

208
Q

Command structure where individuals designated by their jurisdictional authorities jointly determine objectives, plans, and priorities

A

Unified command structure

209
Q

Stakeholders during most hazardous materials incidents (9)

A
  • Fire department
  • Police department
  • Local government officials
  • Environmental regularity agency
  • Health department and hospital
  • Responsible party
  • Property owner
  • Cleanup contractor
  • Recovery service
210
Q

These decisions serve as the basis for developing the action plan (3)

A
  • Strategies
  • Tactics
  • Task assignments
211
Q

Best defense for incidents involving hazardous materials

212
Q

Action plan is developed using th following modes (3)

A
  • Thinking mode
  • Action mode
  • Waiting mode
213
Q

This mode must come first

A

Thinking mode

214
Q

The thinking mode allows first responders to conduct the following hazard assessments (3)

A
  • The material
  • The container
  • The environment
215
Q

The result of the Thinking mode

A

The action mode

216
Q

The action mode includes (3)

A
  • Strategies
  • Tactics
  • Task assignments
217
Q

Actions of first responder should be limited to

A

Public safety

218
Q

Whenever the results of the thinking mode caution first responders against action they should employ the ____ mode

A

Waiting mode

219
Q

Any action must include safe work practices (9)

A
  • Selection of proactive clothing
  • Decon of first responders
  • Limits on the number of personnel operating in the hazardous area
  • Use of a buddy system
  • Detection and monitoring of airborne contaminants
  • Avoidance of contamination
  • Evacuation signal with area of safe refuge
  • Rehab and shelter for personnel
  • Roadway safety
220
Q

To protect firefighters from traffic the apparatus should be parked at a ___ degree angle and ___ ft ahead pf the work area

A
  • 45 degree

- 100 feet

221
Q

Before progressing to the action mode have the answers to (3)

A
  • What
  • How
  • Who
222
Q

First responders on scene of a potential crime scene involving hazardous materials should accept the responsibility to (3)

A
  • Identify evidence
  • Preserve evidence
  • Notify appropriate authorities
223
Q

When dealing with abandoned materials or containers, preserving evidence is best accomplish by

A

Staying away from it

224
Q

During an emergency incident first responders should base their actions on (5)

A
  • Experience
  • Accepted practices
  • Training
  • applicable industry standards
  • Rules and regs of their agency
225
Q

One way for first responders to prepare for their defense

A

Documentation of actions taken on scene

226
Q

Primary mission of first responders

A

Protect public safety

227
Q

Agency who decides who is qualified to conduct cleanup and when cleanup is complete

A

Local or state environmental regulatory agency

228
Q

Disposal of contaminated absorbent is governed by

A

Local or state environmental regulatory agency

229
Q

Recovery operations involving commercial vehicles require the (3)

A
  • Right equipment
  • Right skills
  • Right experience
230
Q

For incidents involving overturned vehicles on the highway, this should be done prior to contacting a wrecker service

A

Consult with law enforcement officers on scene

231
Q

Scene restoration includes (3)

A

Restoring the:

  • Safety
  • Appearance
  • Function
232
Q

Defer the question of “Is is safe to go home?” to

A

Industrial hygienists

233
Q

Briefings conducted after any exercise should include ___ for progress reports on efforts to solve problems identified during the exercise.

A

Milestone dates

234
Q

Upon arrival at any incident, first responders should always ___ that could indicate the involvement of hazardous materials

A

Look for clues

235
Q

CHEMTREC also has available a mutual aid networked called …

236
Q

A treating physician is authorized to obtain ___ excluded on the MSDS during situations when it is needed in order to provide emergency medical care

A

Trade secrets

237
Q

Use of a materials identification number is referred to as a ___ in the federal transportation regulations

238
Q

Required in various circumstances on some individual packages, on transport vehicles that contain large shipments of small packages, and vehicles intended for bulk shipments such as cargo tanks

239
Q

Containers that carry liquid petroleum products may be constructed ___ that is ___ inches thick

A
  • Aluminum

- 1/4” thick

240
Q

Containers that carry liquified petroleum gas stored at high pressures are usually made of ___ with a wall that is ___ inches thick

A
  • Steel

- 1/2” thick

241
Q

The ones to determine if a material release is a harm to first responders or the environment

A

First responders

242
Q

Manner in which First responders at the operations level should be capable of responding

A

In a defensive manner

243
Q

Should be used to determine the effectiveness of a foam blanket

A

Atmospheric monitor

Lieutenants exam (7 decks)

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