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Lieutenants exam > Fire Inspection/ Code Enforcement 7th edition > Flashcards

Fire Inspection/ Code Enforcement 7th edition Flashcards

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1
Q

4 groups that make up the IFSTA Validation Conference

A
  1. Key fire Dept executives & training officers
  2. Educators from colleges and universities
  3. Reps from gov’t agencies
  4. Delegates of FF associations and industrial organizations
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2
Q

Why the Fire Inspection & Code Enforcement manual was written

A

To assist fire and emergency personnel in meeting the Fire Inspector job performance requirements

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3
Q

Year firefighting in North America was established

A

1600’s

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4
Q

Number killed in the Station Night Club fire

A

100

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5
Q

NFPA 1031

A

Standard for professional qualifications for fire inspector and plan examiner

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6
Q

Level of fire inspector that must be able to determine the occupant load for a multi use building

A

Level II

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7
Q

Fire marshal typically holds the equivalent rank of …

A

assistant or deputy chief

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8
Q

The building dept is generally responsible for the following activities: (4)

A
  • Reviewing and approving all new construction and alterations to existing
  • Conducting plans reviews
  • Issuing permits
  • Making field inspections
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9
Q

Two common roles for private-sector inspectors

A
  1. An inspector whom a co. employs

2. An inspector an insurance or underwriting co. employs

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10
Q

NFPA 1031 separates the duties of an inspector into three levels

A

Level I
Level II
Level III

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11
Q

Categories of Inspections (7)

A
  • Annual
  • Issuance of a permit
  • Response to a complaint
  • Eminent hazard
  • New construction
  • Change in occupancy
  • Owner occupant request
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12
Q

Court order prohibiting a person or business from continuing a particular course of conduct

A

Cease-and-Desist order

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13
Q

Procedures when performing an inspection (11)

A
  • Be easily identifiable
  • State the reason for the inspection
  • Invite the building owner to accompany the inspector
  • Other local authorities may participate in an inspection
  • Follow a written inspection procedure
  • Seek an administrative warrant if denied entry
  • Issue a stop-work or cease-and-desist order for extremely hazardous conditions
  • Have guidelines for issuing a stop-work order
  • All licenses and permits allow periodic inspections throughout the duration of the license or permit
  • Must be trained in applicable laws, codes, standards & ordinances
  • Maintain a reliable record keeping system of inspections
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14
Q

Codes military bases follow

A

Unified Facility Criteria (UFC), portions of the International Fire Code (IFC) & NFPA

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15
Q

Local jurisdictions may adopt state/provincial laws by way of two methods

A

by Reference or by Enabling act

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16
Q

Most important laws to the inspector is …

A

the Enabling legislation that establishes the municipal fire dept

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17
Q

Inspectors may be authorized to … (5)

A
  • Arrest or detain individuals
  • Issue a summons
  • Issue a citation
  • File complaints for code violations
  • Issue warrants
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18
Q

Inspectors are not held liable for…

A

Discretionary Acts

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19
Q

To indemnify the inspector means…

A

the AHJ assumes responsibility for any claims against the individual

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20
Q

Inspectors who take on a special duty or obligation to a person …

A

can be held liable

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21
Q

Property owners have the right under the ___ and the ___ Amendments to the US constitution to refuse admittance to an inspector unless proper legal instrument or warrant to enter the premises has been obtained

A

Fourth and Fourteenth Amendments

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22
Q

Form that eliminates questions regarding the original authorization to enter and perform an inspection

A

Consent-to-enter form

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23
Q

Codes regulate (4)

A
  • Construction Materials
  • Designs
  • Occupant behavior
  • Processes
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24
Q

A set of principals, protocols or procedures that is developed by a committee through a consensus process

A

A Standard

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25
Q

A collection or compilation of rules and regulations enacted by a legislative body to become law in a particular jurisdiction

A

A Code

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26
Q

Building and fire codes or standards may be classified in two ways

A
  • Prescriptive

- Performance based

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27
Q

Addresses one broad topic

A

Code

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28
Q

Based on requirements described in standards

A

Code

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29
Q

May be amended

A

Code

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30
Q

Have the force of law when adopted

A

Code

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31
Q

Addresses one specific topic

A

Standard

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32
Q

Establishes design, behavior, and installation criteria

A

Standard

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33
Q

Become law only when adopted

A

Standard

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34
Q

Developed through a consensus process

A

Standard

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35
Q

Underwriters Laboratories Inc. founded in…

A

1894

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36
Q

Two model code orgs. and one in Canada

A
  • Canadian Commission on Building and Fire Codes (CCBFC)
  • International Code Council (ICC)
  • National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
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37
Q

Typical lifecycle of a model code edition

A

3 to 5 years

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38
Q

Primary goal of all municipal agencies

A

Public Safety

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39
Q

Process for developing or amending local codes (5)

A
  • Identify the problem
  • Identify affected stakeholders
  • Forming a code development task force
  • Drafting the proposed code
  • Submitting the code for legal review prior to adoption
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40
Q

First step in any code or amendment development process

A

Identifying the problem

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41
Q

Stakeholders in the model code adoption process (5)

A
  • Insurance agency
  • Elected officials
  • Building industry
  • Chamber of commerce
  • Citizen groups
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42
Q

Most effective way to adopt a code change or amendment

A

Explain the benefits the new code will bring

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43
Q

Days until new codes become effective and are enforced

A

90 days, can be reduced to 30 day in an emergency

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44
Q

Code adoption and amendment process (7)

A
  1. Set up the code adoption committee
  2. Public comments
  3. Committee deliberates on new code and public comments
  4. Committee provides written document with recommendations
  5. Code official develops official document
  6. Council provides documents to and hear testimony from the public
  7. Council adopts new rules with modifications
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45
Q

How many members on a Board of Appeals?

A

3 to 7 members

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46
Q

Time limit for submitting an appeal

A

7 to 30 days from the time of the inspection

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47
Q

Primary goal of all fire-prevention code activities

A

Compliance

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48
Q

Due process clauses are in what two US Constitution Amendments?

A

Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments

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49
Q

Actions that can be taken to ensure code compliance (in order (4))

A
  1. Notification
  2. Follow-up inspection
  3. Sanction
  4. Prosecution
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50
Q

Suggestions regarding courtroom procedure and behavior

A
  • Provide evidence
  • Review all files and notes
  • Resist attempts to modify testimony
  • Appear in proper uniform
  • Confine testimony to the facts
  • Remain impartial
  • Limit information provided to only that which is necessary
  • Make responses as brief as possible
  • If unable to answer then say so
  • Ensure that all physical evidence has been reviewed by the prosecutor
  • Answer all questions factually and truthfully
  • Anticipate personal attacks
  • Never become argumentative
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51
Q

Two types of permits

A

Operational and Construction

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52
Q

Permits that relate to fire and life safety (5)

A
  • Maintenance, storage, or use of hazardous products
  • Hazardous operations
  • Installation of equipment
  • Open burning
  • Large-area tents
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53
Q

Permit process (4)

A
  1. Application
  2. Review
  3. Issuance
  4. Expiration
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54
Q

Primary duty of a fire inspector

A

To ensure the life safety of both citizens and fire/emergency responders

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55
Q

A fuels potential energy is released in combustion and converted to …

A

Kinetic energy

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56
Q

Fire tetrahedron (4)

A
  • Fuel
  • Heat
  • Oxygen
  • Self-sustained chemical reaction
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57
Q

Type of fuel tag does not contain carbon

A

Inorganic fuel

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58
Q

Type of fuel that does contain carbon

A

Organic fuel

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59
Q

Characteristics of liquid fuels that contribute to their ability to ignite and burn (6)

A
  • Vaporization (atmospheric pressure = 14.7psi)
  • Vapor pressure
  • Flash point (non-sustained combustion)
  • Flammable/Combustable liquid
    • 100F = combustable
  • Surface area
  • Solubility
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60
Q

Materials can burn in oxygen levels as low as …

A

14%

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61
Q

Energy exists in two states:

A

Potential and Kinetic

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62
Q

Temperature is a measurement of …

A

Kinetic energy

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63
Q

Flammable range of CO

A

12% - 75%

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64
Q

Flammable range of Methane

A

5 -15%

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65
Q

Flammable range of Propane

A

2.1 - 9.5%

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66
Q

Flammable range of Gasoline

A

1.4-7.4%

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67
Q

Two forms of ignition

A
  • Piloted

- Autoignition

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68
Q

Temperature conversion formula C to F

A

F = (Cx1.8) + 32

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69
Q

Temperature conversion formula F to C

A

C = (F - 32)/1.8

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70
Q

Heat energy usually comes from…(5)

A
  • Chemical
  • Mechanical
  • Electrical
  • Nuclear
  • Light
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71
Q

Most common sources of energy that result in the ignition of fuel (3)

A
  • Chemical
  • Electrical
  • Mechanical
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72
Q

Most common source of heat in combustion reactions

A

Chemical heat reaction

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73
Q

When a material increases in temperature without the addition of external heat

A

Self-heating or spontaneous heating

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74
Q

For spontaneous ignition to occur the following conditions must be met (3)

A
  • Heat cannot dissipate as fast as its being generated
  • Heat production must be great enough to raise the temp of material to its ignition point
  • Air supply around materials must be adequate to support combustion
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75
Q

Electrical heat can occur in several ways (4)

A
  • Resistance heating
  • Overcurrent or overload
  • Arcing
  • Sparking
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76
Q

Rate at which most materials chemical reactions occur doubles with each ___ F increase in temperature of the reacting materials

A

18F

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77
Q

As temperature of the heat source increases, the radiant energy increases by a factor to the ____ power. Doubling the temperature increases radiant heat by a factor of ____.

A
  • Fourth power

- Sixteen

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78
Q

Materials that absorb heat but do not participate actively in the combustion reaction.

A

Passive agent

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79
Q

Thermal conductivity (greatest to least) (4)

A
  • Copper
  • Steel
  • Concrete
  • Wood
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80
Q

Fourth method for heat transfer

A

Direct flame contact (combination of conduction and radiation)

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81
Q

Complete combustion of Methane results in (4)

A
  • Heat
  • Light
  • Water vapor
  • Carbon dioxide
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82
Q

Three of the more common products of combustion

A
  • Carbon Monoxide (CO)
  • Hydrogen Cyanide (HCN)
  • Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
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83
Q

Classes of fires (5)

A
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
  • K
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84
Q

Stages of fire development (4)

A
  • Incipient
  • Growth
  • Fully developed
  • Decay
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85
Q

Factors influencing development of a fuel-controlled fire (6)

A
  • Mass and surface area
  • Chemical content
  • Fuel moisture
  • Orientation
  • Continuity
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86
Q

During the growth stage of a compartment fire the fire exhibits a variety of traits (4)

A
  • Thermal layering
  • Isolated flames
  • Rollover
  • Flashover
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87
Q

The interface of hot and cool-gas layers at the opening is commonly referred to as …

A

Neutral plane

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88
Q

Flashover temperature range

A

Appx. 900 - 1200F

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89
Q

Two interrelated factors determine weather a fire in a compartment will progress to flashover

A
  • Fuel must have sufficient heat energy

- Fire must have sufficient oxygen

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90
Q

Fire is termed this when at the fully developed stage

A

Ventilation controlled

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91
Q

Factors influence fire development within a compartment (7)

A
  • Fuel type
  • Availability of fuels
  • Compartment volume and ceiling height
  • Ventilation
  • Thermal properties of the compartment
  • Ambient conditions
  • Effects of changing conditions
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92
Q

Most fundamental fuel characters influencing fire development are … (2)

A
  • Mass

- Surface area

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93
Q

6 factors influence the availability and location of additional fuels

A
  • Building configuration
  • Contents of the building
  • Construction of the building
  • Construction/interior finish materials
  • Fuel proximity and continuity
  • Fire location
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94
Q

Firefighters influence fire behavior by doing one or more of the following actions (5)

A
  • Reducing temps
  • Eliminating fuel
  • Separating the fire from available fuel
  • Changing the oxygen concentrations
  • Interrupting the self sustained chemical reaction
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95
Q

Most effective method available for the extinguishment of a smoldering fire

A

The use of water

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96
Q

Water expands …

A

1700 times

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97
Q

Composed of only noncombustible or limited combustible materials and provides the highest level of safety

A

Type I

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98
Q

Composed of building materials that will not contribute to fire development or spread

A

Type II

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99
Q

Exterior walls constructed of noncombustible materials and interior elements constructed of any material permitted by the code

A

Type III

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100
Q

Heavy timber construction

A
  • Type IV
  • Large dimension lumber greater then 4” for all structural elements
  • Materials not made of wood must have a fire-resistance rating of at least 1 hour
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101
Q

Wood frame construction

A

Type V

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102
Q

National Building Code of Canada has three types of building construction

A
  • Combustible construction
  • Noncombustible construction
  • Heavy timber construction
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103
Q

Occupancy classifications (12)

A
  • Assembly
  • Business
  • Educational
  • Day Care
  • Factory/Industrial
  • Institutional
  • Mercantile
  • Residential
  • Residential Board and care
  • Storage
  • Utility/Misc
  • Multiple
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104
Q

Assembly Class A

A

Occupant loads over 1000

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105
Q

Assembly Class B

A

Occupant loads of 301 to 1000

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106
Q

Assembly Class C

A

Occupant loads of 50 to 300

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107
Q

Educational Occupancies

A
  • Used for purposes of educating 6 or more persons from preschool to 12th grade
  • Meets for more than 4 hrs a day or more than 12 hrs in a week
  • One person for every 20 sq/ft
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108
Q

NFPA classifies manufacturing and processing facilities as industrial occupancies with three subdivisions

A
  • General purpose
  • Special purpose
  • High hazard
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109
Q

Evacuation capabilities of a residential board and care occupancy are properly classified as … (3)

A
  • Slow
  • Prompt
  • Impractical
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110
Q

Residential occupancies are subdivided into 5 categories

A
  • One and two family dwelling
  • Lodging or rooming house
  • Hotel
  • Dormitory
  • Apartment
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111
Q

ICC subdivides Mixed Use (3)

A
  • Accessory (limited to 10% of the area, <750sqft not included)
  • Non-separate (w/ two or more uses)
  • Separate
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112
Q

Three or more independently attached dwellings w/ cooking and bathroom

A

Apartment building

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113
Q

Sleeping accommodations are provided to 16 or more persons who are not related and w/o cooking facilities

A

Dormitory

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114
Q

Any building or group of building that provides sleeping rooms for transients

A

Hotel

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115
Q

24 hour accommodations for 16 or fewer individuals w/o cooking

A

Lodging

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116
Q

Compressive strength parallel to the wood grain

A

325 to 1,850 psi

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117
Q

Moisture content od structural lumber

A

19% or less

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118
Q

Wood products for construction use take the following specific foms

A
  • Solid lumber
  • Laminated members
  • Panels
  • Manufactured members
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119
Q

Nominal thickness of boards

A

2” or less

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120
Q

Nominal thickness of dimension lumber

A
  • 2” - 4”
  • 8’ - 16’ in 2’ increments
  • 24’ rafters
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121
Q

Nominal thickness of timbers

A

5” or more

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122
Q

Depths and lengths of Glulam beams

A
  • 3” - 75”

- 100’ length

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123
Q

Panel span rating of 32/16

A

Rafters 32” apart, joists 16” apart

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124
Q

Two main methods of fire retardant treatment of wood

A
  • Pressure impregnation

- Surface coating

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125
Q

Types of concrete (6)

A
  • Ordinary stone
  • Structural lightweight
  • Insulating lightweight
  • Gypsum
  • High early strength
  • Expansive
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126
Q

Superplasticizer

A

An admixture used with concrete to produce a mixture that flows more freely

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127
Q

Percent of carbon content in steel and cast iron (2)

A
  • Steel = 0.3%

- Cast iron = 3-4%

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128
Q

Steel column encased in 3’ of concrete with a siliceous aggregate would have a fire resistance rating of …

A

4 hours

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129
Q

Intumescent coatings that expand when exposed to heat have fire resistance rating up to …

A

3 hours

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130
Q

Melting point of aluminum

A

1,220F

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131
Q

Types of glass (5)

A
  • Ordinary, single strengthen annealed
  • Heat strengthened (surface compression 3,500-10,000psi)
  • Fully tempered (surface compression >10,000psi)
  • Laminated
  • Glass block
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132
Q

Types of glass that are suitable where fire resistance is required (2)

A
  • Wired glass (.24” thick, max 1,296sq”, 45min rating, doors w/ 90min rating require max size of 100sq”
  • Fire rated glass (45 min and 90 min available)
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133
Q

Fire resistance ratings of gypsum board

A

1 - 4 hr

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134
Q

Types of gypsum board (7)

A
  • Regular
  • Water resistant
  • Type X
  • Type C
  • Foil backed
  • Gypsum backed
  • Coreboard
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135
Q

Plastics with low flammability are subject to deterioration and may evolve toxic gases at temps above …

A

500F

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136
Q

Common cast-in-place concrete systems (3)

A
  • Flat slab
  • Slab and beam
  • Waffle construction
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137
Q

Beam and girder frames can be classified as … (3)

A
  • Rigid
  • Semirigid
  • Simple
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138
Q

Two commonly encountered applications of the basic steel truss

A
  • Open web joist (depths up to 6’, span up to 144’)

- Joist girder

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139
Q

Steel rigid frames usually are used for spans from __to __.

A

40’ - 200’

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140
Q

Steel arches can be constructed to span distances in excess of …

A

300’

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141
Q

Bridge cables have strengths as high as …

A

300,000 psi

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142
Q

Most common column cross sections (3)

A
  • Hollow cylinder
  • Rectangular tube
  • Wide flange
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143
Q

Non-rieinforced masonry walls limited to a maximum height of around ..

A

6 stories

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144
Q

Reinforced masonry buildings with load bearing walls built to a height of …

A

20 stories with 10” thick walls

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145
Q

Walls constructed with fire rated concrete masonry units or bricks can have fire-resistance ratings of…

A

2 - 4hrs

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146
Q

Two basic types of wood framing

A
  • Timber framing (Type IV)

- Light wood (Type V)

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147
Q

Heavy timber minimum column and beam dimensions

A
  • Column = 8”x8”

- Beams = 6”x10”

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148
Q

Post and Beam construction typical post dimensions (2)

A
  • 4”x4”, 6”x6”

- Posts spaced 4’ - 12’

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149
Q

Two basic types of light wood framing

A
  • Balloon

- Platform (western framing)

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150
Q

Exterior walls of a wood frame building include the following (3)

A
  • Sheathing
  • Siding material
  • Insulation
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151
Q

Types of walls (6)

A
  • Fire walls
  • Party walls
  • Fire partitions
  • Enclosure and shaft walls
  • Curtain Walls
  • Movable partitions
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152
Q

Resistance rating of a Fire wall

A

2 or more hours

Highest rating is 4 hours

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153
Q

Fire wall with a 4 hr rating will have a fire door rated at ___ on each side of the wall

A

3 hrs

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154
Q

Resistance rating of of a Fire partition is typically rated at …

A

1 Hr

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155
Q

Fire barriers can have a fire resistance rating of ___ to ___

A

1 to 4 hrs

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156
Q

1/2’’ gypsum applied to each side of a 2’‘x4’’ stud the partition would have a fire rating of …

A

1 hr

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157
Q

Enclosure walls have a fire resistance aging of___ or___

A

1 or 2 hours

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158
Q

Movable partitions are usually not fire resistive although fire resistive movable partitions are available with rating of___or___

A

1 or 2 hrs

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159
Q

Primary function of a roof

A

Protection from weather

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160
Q

Building roofs can be broadly classified into three categories

A

Flat, pitched, curved

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161
Q

Truss span lengths run from___to over___feet

A

10 to 60 feet

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162
Q

Asphault shingles are fundamentally combustable, they tend to drip and run under fire conditions and produce…

A

A heavy black smoke

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163
Q

Three methods of steel structural support systems

A
  • Open web joists (bar joists) or trusses
  • Steel beams
  • Light gauge steel joists
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164
Q

Minimum dimensions of floor decking and their supporting beams in Type IV

A
  • 3’’ thick plank with a 1’’ finished flooring

- 6’‘x10’’ beam

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165
Q

Two classes of finished floors

A
  • Class I (can withstand higher temps)

- Class II

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166
Q

Minimum stairway rise and run dimensions

A

4’’ to 7’’ rise and 11’’ run

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167
Q

Each successive step cannot differ in size more than …

A

3/8’’

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168
Q

Types of stairways typically considered when assessing stairways as a means of egress (5)

A
  • Protected Stairs (1 or 2 hr rating)
  • Exterior stairs
  • Fire escape
  • Smokeproof stair enclosure (active/passive smoke control)
  • Unprotected stairs (connect only 2 adjacent floors, “access” or “convenience stairs”)
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169
Q

Five types of doors

A
  • Swinging
  • Sliding (not allowed as a part of egress)
  • Folding
  • Vertical
  • Revolving (swinging door within 10’, collapse wings 130 lbs.)
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170
Q

Three methods of classifying fire doors

A
  1. Hourly fire-protection rating (4, 3, 1 1/2, 1, 3/4, and 1/3 hour)
  2. Alphabetical letter designation (no longer used) (A - E)
  3. Combination of hour and letter
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171
Q

Primary test criterion for acceptability of fire doors

A

If the door remains in place

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172
Q

Smooth galvanized sheet metal is used on wood-core door is known as …

A

Kalamein Door

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173
Q

Fire doors with rating of 3, 1 1/2, and 3 hours can have glass panels up to …

A

100 sq inches

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174
Q

Fire doors with a rating of 3/4 hours can have a total area of glass consistent with its rating but no piece of glass can exceed …

A

1,296 sq inches

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175
Q

Devices that operate fire doors are listed as … (3)

A
  • Fire door closers
  • Electromagnetic door holders
  • Door operating devices
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176
Q

Oldest and simplest detection device

A

Fusible link

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177
Q

Types of windows (8)

A
  • Double hung (2 sashes, can move past each other)
  • Single hung (lower sash)
  • Casement (swing out)
  • Horizontal sliding
  • Awning (top hinged/outward-swinging)
  • Jalousie (4’’ wide glass louvers)
  • Projecting (slides up/down in grooves)
  • Pivoting (pivots horz/vert)
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178
Q

Doors, door/window frames, chair railings, wainscotings, paint thicker then 1/28’’

A

defined as interior finishes

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179
Q

Hanging fabric materials, drapes, curtains, paint no thicker then 1/28’’

A

Are not treated as interior finishes

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180
Q

Flame and smoke spread rating of Red Oak

A

100 during a 10 min test

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181
Q

Maximum flame spread rating allowed

A

200

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182
Q

Types of fire-retardant coatings (4)

A
  • Intumescent
  • Mastics
  • Gas-forming paints
  • Cementitous and mineral-fiber coatings
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183
Q

Elevator hoistways and doors are required to be fire-rated assemblies with ___or___ hour rating

A

1 or 2 hour

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184
Q

Common types of hoistways (3)

A
  • Single
  • Multiple (limited to no more then 4)
  • Blind (doors are provided for rescue every 3 floors)
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185
Q

HVAC systems over a certain capacity, usually 2,000 sq3 feet/min be provided with …

A

Internal dust smoke detectors

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186
Q

Most common cooling method for transformers (2)

A
  • Air-cooled transformers

- Oil-cooled or oil-filled transformers

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187
Q

Lead-acid batteries contain (2)

A
  • Sulfuric acid

- Metallic lead

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188
Q

Three basic elements of of an egress system

A
  • Exit access
  • Exit
  • Exit discharge
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189
Q

A public way must have a minimum width and height of …

A

10 ft

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190
Q

Horizontal exits may be substituted for other exits if they do not compose more then ___% of the total exit capacity of the building

A

50%

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191
Q

Two of the most important life safety functions of doors

A
  1. Act as a barrier to the movement of smoke and fire

2. Serve as a component of a means of egress

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192
Q

Doors serving as a means of egress must be at least ___ in. wide and no more then ___ in. wide

A

36” and 48”

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193
Q

Force required to cause the latch to operate on panic hardware and fore required to set the door in motion (2)

A
  • 15 lbs

- 30 lbs

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194
Q

Required width of stairs in multistoried buildings

A

44’’; 36’’ if occupant load is less then 50

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195
Q

Landings must be provided so that no flights of stairs are greater then___ft.

A

12 ft

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196
Q

The stairway door must have a 1 hour rating when used in a ___ hr rater enclosure and a 1 1/2 hour rated door when used in a ___ hr rated enclosure.

A
  • 1 hour

- 2 hour

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197
Q

Ramps must be at least 44” wide with a max slope of ___ and a max distance between landings of ___ft

A
  • 1 to 12

- 30 ft

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198
Q

Fire escape slides must have a rated capacity of ___

A

60 persons

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199
Q

Emergency lighting must be ___ foot-candle for ___ min.

A
  • 1 foot

- 90 minutes

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200
Q

Letter on exit signs must be at least ____ in. high with individual letter strokes ____ in. wide

A
  • 6 inches high

- 3/4 inches wide

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201
Q

Responsible for calculating the occupancy load

A

Inspectors

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202
Q

Formula for determining Occupant Load

A

Occupant Load = Net Floor Area / Area per Person (factor)

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203
Q

To determine the required width for a means of egress ___ in. is multiplied per person for stairways and ___ in. is multiplied per person for ramps or level exits components

A
  • 0.3 inches for stairways

- 0.2 inches for ramps and level exit components

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204
Q

Minimum number of exits for:

  • 500 or less
  • More then 500
  • At 1000
A
  • 2 exits
  • 3 exits
  • 4 exits
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205
Q

When more then one exit is required for a building this rule is applied

A

One-half Diagonal Rule - requires that exits be located not less then one-half the length of the overall diagonal dimension of the room of building area

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206
Q

Define - Dead-end corridor

A

A corridor that has no outlet to egress and is more than 20’ in length

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207
Q

5 steps in determining the means of egress requirements

A
  1. Determine the occupant load
  2. Determine clear width of each component
  3. Determine egress capacity of each component
  4. Determine most restrictive capacity of each route
  5. Determine if egress capacity is sufficient
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208
Q

Four components of an effective public water supply

A
  • Water supply source
  • Treatment or processing facilities
  • Means of moving the water
  • Distribution system
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209
Q

Ocean water is ___ times saltier then freshwater

A

220 times saltier

210
Q

Three methods of moving water

A
  • Gravity
  • Direct pumping
  • Combination system
211
Q

Water distribution system consists of three types of water mains loosely referred to as …

A
  • Primary feeders (16’’ - 72’’
  • Secondary feeders (12’’ - 14’’)
  • Distributors (6’’ - 8’’)
212
Q

How often valves be exercised

A

Once a year

213
Q

Valve spacing (2)

A
  • 500’ in high value districts

- 800’ in other areas

214
Q

To open a dry barrel hydrant turn the stem in this direction

A

Counterclockwise

215
Q

Hydrant specification require a ___ in. valve opening for standard three-way hydrant and a ___ in. connection to the water main.

A
  • 5 inch valve

- 6 inch connection

216
Q

How often Hydrants should be inspected

A

At least twice a year

217
Q

Crome yellow hydrant indicates

A

Municipal hydrant

218
Q

Red hydrant

A

Private hydrant

219
Q

Violet hydrant

A

Nonpotable water

220
Q

Class and fire flow of a red hydrant

A

Class C, 500 or less

221
Q

Class and fire flow of a orange hydrant

A

Class B, 500-999

222
Q

Class and fire flow of a green hydrant

A

Class A, 1000-1499

223
Q

Class and fire flow of a blue hydrant

A

Class AA, 1500 or greater

224
Q

Private water supply distribution systems exist for three purposes

A
  • Fire protection
  • Sanitary and fire protection
  • Fire protection and manufacturing
225
Q

Typical suction tank capacity and range (2)

A
  • 5,000 - 1,000,000 gal.

- Typical is 100,000 - 300,000 gal.

226
Q

Pressure tank capacity range

A

3,000 - 9,000 gal

227
Q

Water tank 100’ high will generate a pressure of …

A

43 psi

228
Q

Gravity tank capacity range

A

5,000 - 500,000 gal.

229
Q

When flow tests should be conducted (3)

A
  • After extensive water main improvements
  • Following the construction of line extensions
  • At least every 5 years
230
Q

The clearance between the bottom of the butt (discharge outlet) of a hydrant and the grade should be at least ___ in

A

15 inches

231
Q

Formula for finding GPM in a fire-flow hydrant test

A

GPM = (29.83) x Cd x d2 x √P

  • Cd = Coefficient of discharge
  • d = Actual diameter of the hydrant orifice
  • P = Pressure in psi
232
Q

Minimum required residual pressure

A

20psi

233
Q

Flow hydrant is located ___ from the test hydrant

A

Downstream

234
Q

Reduced water flow may be the result of one or more of the following (7)

A
  • Encrustations
  • Sedimentation deposits
  • Malfunctioning valves
  • Malfunctioning pipes
  • malfunctioning pumps
  • Foreign matter other then deposits
  • Increased friction loss
235
Q

Two ways to compute fire flow test results

A
  • Graphical analysis

- Mathematical computation

236
Q

Hazen-Williams formula

A

Qr = (Qf x h2^.54) / hf^.54

  • Qr = Flow available at desired residual pressure
  • Qf = Flow during test
  • hr = Pressure drop to residual pressure
  • hf = Pressure drop during test
237
Q

Fire protection systems are divided into two broad categories

A
  • Systems that detect hazards

- Systems that control hazards

238
Q

Four basic types of automatic sprinklers

A
  • We-pipe
  • Dry-pipe
  • Deluge
  • Preaction
239
Q

Six variations of the four basic types of sprinklers

A
  • Antifreeze
  • Circulating closed loop
  • Combined dry-pipe and pre action
  • Gridded (Parallel cross mains)
  • Looped (Interconnected cross mains)
  • Multicycle (turns on and off)
240
Q

Four common types of indicating control valves

A
  • Outside stem and yoke (OS&Y)
  • Post indicator valve (PIV)
  • Wall post indicator valve (WPIV)
  • Post indicator valve assembly (PIVA) (butterfly valve)
241
Q

The arrangement of pipes is based on one of two methods

A
  • Pipe schedule tables

- Hydraulic calculations

242
Q

Sprinkler head designed to cover a 20’ x 20’ area

A

Extended coverage (EC)

243
Q

Sprinkler head designed to direct 40% - 60% of its discharge in a downward direction

A

Old style or conventional

244
Q

Sprinklers may be installed as follows (6)

A
  • Concealed
  • Flush
  • Pendant
  • Recessed
  • Sidewall
  • Upright
245
Q

Detection and activation devices (5)

A
  • Sprinkler activation (most common)
  • Specific application sprinkler
  • Electronic heat detector
  • Water flow alarm
  • Manually activated system
246
Q

Systems designed in accordance with NFPA 13D must have a minimum of ___ minutes of water supply

A

10 minutes

247
Q

NFPA 13R requires a minimum supply of ___ minutes

A

30 minutes

248
Q

Minimum flow rate for a residential sprinkler

A

18 gpm

249
Q

Spacing for sprinklers in a residential is a max of ___sq ft and spacing between sprinklers is a max of ___ft

A
  • 144 sq ft

- 12 ft

250
Q

Minimum pipe size in a residential system

A

1/2”

251
Q

Mist systems are designed to protect lives and property by extinguishing …

A

Class A & B fires

252
Q

Three basic pressure ranges for mist systems

A
  • Low pressure (≤175psi)
  • Intermediate (175 - 500psi)
  • High pressure (≥500psi)
253
Q

Foam-water systems produce a thin foam solution that is expanded __ to ___ times when discharged

A

6 to 8 times

254
Q

Types of foam used in Foam-water systems (3)

A
  • Protein
  • Fluoroprotein
  • AFFF
255
Q

Class I standpipe

A

Firefighters; 2 1/2 outlets minimum flow rate 500gpm

256
Q

Class II Standpipe

A

Trained building occupant; 1 1/2” hose, nozzle, rack; minimum flow of 100gpm

257
Q

Class III standpipe

A

Combination; 2 1/2” & 1 1/2”; minimum flow rate 500gpm

258
Q

5 types of standpipe systems

A
  • Automatic-wet
  • Automatic-dry
  • Semiautomatic-dry
  • Manual-dry
  • Manual-wet
259
Q

Most desirable type of standpipe

A

Automatic-wet with and automatic water supply

260
Q

Minimum riser diameter for class I &III standpipes in buildings

A

4”

261
Q

Minimum riser diameter for class I &III standpipes in buildings >100’

A

6”; top 100’ of building can have 4” riser

262
Q

Minimum riser diameter for class II standpipes in buildings

A

2”

263
Q

Minimum riser diameter for class II standpipes in buildings >50’

A

2 1/2”; buildings over 275’ must be divided into sections

264
Q

Current practice is to locate standpipes so that any part of a floor is within ___ feet of the standpipe

A

130’

265
Q

Required to have a 2 1/2” outlet on roof if any of the following three situations are present

A
  • Combustable roof
  • Combustable structure or equipment on roof
  • Exposure that present a fire hazard
266
Q

Pressure regulating devices (3)

A
  • Pressure-restricting (not preferred)
  • Pressure-control (preferred; most reliable)
  • Pressure-reducing (preferred)
267
Q

Height to which a fire engine can effectively supply water

A

450’

268
Q

5 major types of centrifugal pimps

A
  • Horizontal split-case (most common)
  • Vertical split-case
  • Vertical inline
  • Vertical turbine
  • End suction
269
Q

A column of water 2.304’ high will exert ___psi

A

1 psi

270
Q

Three types of pump drivers

A
  • Electric motor (most common)
  • Diesel engine (tested weekly for 30 min)
  • Steam turbine
271
Q

The pressure at which the pressure switch is set to start the fire pump must be ___ than the pressure in the system

A

Higher

272
Q

Four opportunities to review, inspect and witness tests to water based fire suppression systems

A
  • Plans review
  • Construction phase
  • Acceptance test
  • During the life of the system
273
Q

During construction some codes require operational standpipes for structures that are ___ stories in height or greater

A

4 stories

274
Q

In wet pipe systems all areas containing sprinkler piping must have temps greater than

A

40 degrees

275
Q

The distortion of a material caused by the repeated heating of a fusible link to near it operating temp

A

Cold flow

276
Q

A clearance of ___ to ___ should be maintained under sprinklers

A

18” to 36”

277
Q

Water spray fixed system’s response time

A

< 40 sec

278
Q

Ultrahigh-speed water spray response time

A

< 100 milliseconds

279
Q

Empty cylinders in water mist systems must be hydrostatically tested prior to recharging if its been more than ___ years since its last test

A

5 years

280
Q

Full cylinders in water mist systems must be discharged and hydrostatically tested every ___ years

A

12 years

281
Q

Dry-pipe standpipe systems are hydrostatically tested every ___ years

A

5 years

282
Q

Private water supply systems should be flow tested at a minimum of every ___ years

A

5 years

283
Q

Private hydrants tested

A

Annually

284
Q

Types of special-agent fire extinguishing systems (5)

A
  • Dry chemical
  • Wet chemical
  • Clean agent
  • Foam
  • Carbon dioxide
285
Q

Two methods for application of Dry chemical

A
  • Fixed system

- Handheld hoseline

286
Q

Types of Dry chemical agents (3)

A
  • Sodium bicarbonate
  • Potassium bicarbonate
  • Monoammonium phosphate
287
Q

Class D agents (3)

A
  • NA-X (up to 1400 degrees)
  • MET-L-X (salt)
  • LITH_X
288
Q

NFPA 17 recommended Dry chemical inspection frequency

A

Semiannually

289
Q

Fusible links on dry chemical systems should be replaced …

A

Annually

290
Q

Dry chemical agent storage cylinders less then 150 lbs should be hydrostatically tested every __ years

A

12 years

291
Q

Clean agent fire extinguishing systems effective in what classes of fire

A

A, B, & C

292
Q

Clean agent storage containers myst be hydrostatically tested every…

A

5 years

293
Q

Carbon dioxid total flooding systems are designed to deliver at least ___% concentration of CO2 into an enclosed area

A

34%; lethal concentrations to humans

294
Q

Three means of actuation for CO2 systems

A
  • Automatic operation
  • Normal manual operation
  • Emergency manual operation
295
Q

2 types of CO2 systems

A
  • High pressure; 850 psi

- Low pressure; 300 psi

296
Q

Foam extinguishes a fire by one or more of four methods

A
  • Smothering
  • Separating
  • Cooling
  • Suppressing
297
Q

Five types of foam fire extinguishing systems

A
  • Fixed
  • Semifixed type A (not attached to permeant source of foam)
  • Semifixed type B (Foam hydrant)
  • High expansion
  • Foam-water
298
Q

Device that introduces the correct amount of foam concentrate and water into the water stream

A

Foam proportioner

299
Q

Four elements are need to produce high quality fire fighting foam

A
  • Foam
  • Water
  • Air
  • Mechanical agitation
300
Q

Two stages of foam formation

A
  1. Proportioning stage

2. Aeration

301
Q

Foams used at 1% to 6% are for …

A

Hydrocarbons

302
Q

Foams used at 3% or 6% are for …

A

Polar solvents

303
Q

Expansion rates for low, medium and high expansion foams

A
  • Low = 7:1 to 20:1
  • Med = 20:1 to 200:1
  • High = 200:1 to about 1,000:1
304
Q

Foam concentrate types (5)

A
  • Fluoroprotein
  • Film forming fluoroprotein (FFFP)
  • Aqueous film forming foam (AFFF)
  • Alcohol-resistant aqueous film forming foam (AR-AFFF)
  • Med and High expansion foams
305
Q

Types of foam proportioners (4)

A
  • Balanced pressure proportioner (most reliable)
  • Around the pump proportioner (most common)
  • Pressure proportioning tank system
  • Coupled water motor-pump proportioner
306
Q

Class A extinguisher ratings ranges tests

A
  • 1-A through 40-A

- Tested on wood cribs, wood panels, excelsior

307
Q

Class B extinguisher ratings range

A

1-B through 640-B

308
Q

Common fire extinguishing agents and extinguishers (6)

A
  • Water
  • CO2
  • Foam
  • Dry chemical
  • Wet chemical
  • Clean agent
309
Q

Types of fire extinguishers (3)

A
  • Stored pressure
  • Cartridge-operated
  • Pump-operated
310
Q

Obsolete extinguishers (5)

A
  • Inverted-type
  • Soldered or riveted shell soda-acid
  • Chemical foam
  • Cartridge-operated water
  • Loaded stream
311
Q

Maximum travel distance to extinguisher (except for Class K)

A

75 ft

312
Q

Maximum travel distance to Class K extinguisher

A

30 ft

313
Q

Top mounted height for extinguisher < 40 lbs

A

Not > 5ft and not < 4” from the floor

314
Q

Top mounted height for extinguisher > 40 lbs

A

Not > 3 1/2 ft and not < 4” from the floor

315
Q

NFPA 10 recommends extinguisher inspection be performed …

A

Monthly

316
Q

Two most significant factors in preventing large losses due to fire

A
  • Early detection

- Signaling of appropriate alarm

317
Q

Secondary power systems must make the fire detection and alarm system fully functional within ___ seconds of main power failure

A

30 seconds

318
Q

4 basic types of automatic alarm initiating devices

A
  • Detect heat (fixed temp & rate of rise)
  • Smoke
  • Flame
  • Fire gases
319
Q

Oldest type of heat detection divide still in service, inexpensive, least prone to false activations, slowest to activate

A

Fixed temperature heat detector

320
Q

Temperature rating for Uncolored heat detectors (2)

A
  • Low = 100-134

- Ordinary = 135-174

321
Q

Temperature rating for White heat detector

A

Intermediate = 175-249

322
Q

Temperature rating for Blue heat detector

A

High = 250-234

323
Q

Temperature rating for Red heat detector

A

Extra High = 235-399

324
Q

Temperature rating for Green heat detector

A

Very Extra High = 400-499

325
Q

Temperature rating for Orange heat detector

A

Ultra High = 500-575

326
Q

Two types of continuous-line heat detectors

A
  • Tubing Type

- Wire Type

327
Q

All rate of rise heat detectors automatically reset. Styles of rate of rise detectors (4)

A
  • Pneumatic rate of rise line heat detectors (max 1000’)
  • Pneumatic rate of rise spot heat detectors
  • Rate comparison heat detectors
  • Electronic spot type heat detector
328
Q

Percent of fire deaths attributed to smoke inhalation

A

65%

329
Q

Two types of smoke detectors

A
  • Photoelectric

- Ionization

330
Q

Three types of flame detectors

A
  • Detect ultraviolet
  • Detect infrared
  • Detect IR and UV
331
Q

Pull stations should be no higher then ___ and no lower then ___ from the floor

A
  • No higher then 4 1/2 feet

- No lower then 3 1/2 feet

332
Q

Travel distance to a pull station should not exceed …

A

200’

333
Q

NFPA 72 requires that pull stations be located within ___ feet of every exit

A

5 feet

334
Q

Five major types of alarm systems

A
  • Protected premises
  • Auxiliary fire alarm
  • Proprietary
  • Central station
  • Remote receiving
335
Q

Two less common types of alarm systems

A
  • Emergency voice alarm communications system

- Parallel telephone system

336
Q

Three basic types of local alarm systems

A
  • Noncoded local (simplest type)
  • Zoned/annunciated
  • Addressable (most effective)
337
Q

Most important part of the fire detection system

A

Fire alarm control panel (FACP)

338
Q

Automatic alarm initiating devices should be checked …(3)

A
  • After install
  • After a fire
  • On a reoccurring schedule
339
Q

Detector test records must be maintained for …

A

5 years

340
Q

Nonrestorable detectors are not required to be tested for …

A

15 years; 2% removed for testing at that time

341
Q

Fusible link detectors should have the link replaced every …

A

5 years

342
Q

Fire hazards are categorized into three areas

A
  • Unsafe behavior
  • Unsafe conditions
  • Hazardous processes
343
Q

Uncontained fires should not be allowed within ___ feet of a structure

A

50 ft

344
Q

Open burning that might not require a permit (2)

A
  • Salamander- type portable heater

- Burning of construction debris

345
Q

5 most common causes of electrical hazard fires

A
  • Worn electrical equipment
  • Improper use of electrical equipment
  • Defective or improper electrical install
  • Power surges
  • Static electricity
346
Q

Primary hazard of a lumberyard

A

High fuel load

347
Q

Max height of a stack in a lumberyard

A

20 feet

348
Q

Driveways through lumberyards must be spaced so that a maximum grid system of not more than ___ by ___ is produced

A

50’ by 150’

349
Q

“High-piled storage” is defined as high hazard commodities are stored over ___ ft in height and combustable materials are stored over ___ ft in height

A
  • 6 ft

- 12 ft

350
Q

3 primary storage methods

A
  • Pallet storage
  • Rack storage
  • Solid piling
351
Q

Most critical item for an inspector to check

A

Automatic sprinkler system

352
Q

Weeds and vegetation must be cleared within ___ ft of any tire pile

A

50 ft

353
Q

Two main hazards at recycling facilities

A
  • Bulk storage of combustable materials

- Hazardous processes

354
Q

Materials stored in building must not be stacked closer then ___ feet from the ceiling in buildings without sprinklers or at least ___ inches below the sprinkler

A
  • 2 feet

- 18 inches

355
Q

Three processes used to to clean, disinfect and sanitize hazardous waste

A
  • Steaming
  • Microwaving
  • Ozone sanitizing
356
Q

The largest concern with incinerators

A

Hazardous waste

357
Q

Two primary hazards of an HVAC system

A
  • The heating appliances

- The spread of fire and products of combustion

358
Q

Three types of fuel usually used to fuel a boiler

A
  • Natural gas
  • Coal
  • Oil
359
Q

Class A refrigerants are not considered toxic and Class B refrigerants are considered toxic when exposed to concentrations less than ___ ppm

A

400 ppm

360
Q

Cooking equipment must have a clearance of at least ___ in from any combustible material

A

18 inches

361
Q

If a fusible link device controls the activation of the fire extinguishing system then the link should be replaced at least___

A

Annually

362
Q

Frequency at which dry chemical cylinders that weigh less than 150 lbs should be hydrostatically tested

A

Every 12 years

363
Q

Vegetation must be cleared in and around the tent up to ___ ft around the tent

A

10 feet

364
Q

Primary fire hazard associated with oxy-fuel gas equipment

A

The storage of oxygen and fuel gases in cylinders

365
Q

Where combustable materials are on the floor an area with a radius of ___ feet must be cleared before welding or cutting

A

35 feet

366
Q

Two basic processes for coating fabricated products

A
  • Fluid coating

- Powder coating

367
Q

Major causes of fire within powder coating processes

A

Static accumulations

368
Q

Two types of quenching and associated temps/flash points

A
  • Heated - 200F-400F / Flash pont = 500F

- Unheated - 100F-200F / Flash point = 300F

369
Q

Classification and flash points of cleaning solvents (5)

A
  • Class I = < 100F
  • Class II = ≥ 100F and < 140F
  • Class IIIA = ≥ 140F and < 200F
  • Class IIIB = ≥ 200
  • Class IV = Nonflammable
370
Q

A dry cleaning room must be separated from the rest of the building by partition with a fire rating with a ___ hr fire resistance rating

A

2 hour

371
Q

Combustable dusts are categorized in the following three groups

A
  • Group E = Metal dusts
  • Group F = Volatile dusts containing more than 8% carbonaceous materials
  • Group G = Flour, wood, grain, plastic, chemical
372
Q

Combustable dusts comprise Class II Locations and include two divisions defined as:

  • Class II, Division 1
  • Class II, Division 2
A
  • Division 1 = normal operating conditions

- Division 2 = abnormal operating conditions

373
Q

Subterranean tunnels ≥ 50’ must have …

A

Two means of egress as remote from one another as possible

374
Q

Most common place for fires to occur in woodworking operations

A

Dust hogger

375
Q

A portable fire extinguisher rated at ___ must be located within 25’ of a tar kettle and if the kettle is being used for roofing an additional ___ extinguisher must be available

A
  • 40-B:C

- 3-A:40-B:C

376
Q

A “clean room” is defined as one having less than ___ particles per cubic foot of air

A

100,000

377
Q

Fire lanes must extend to within ___ feet of all portions of a building

A

150’

378
Q

Minimum width and vertical clearance of a fire lane (2)

A
  • 16’

- 13.5’

379
Q

Generally, and angle of __ degrees is necessary to allow an apparatus to drive onto the lane without striking the bumper or tailboard

A

8 degrees

380
Q

“Dead-end” fire lanes and access roads are defined as

A

Those that extend > 150’ from a public street or road

381
Q

A dead-end fire lane or access road must conform to one of three types of turnarounds

A
  • T or Hammerhead
  • Cul-de-sac
  • Alley dock
382
Q

Two basic methods used to determine a flash point

A
  • Open cup (10-15 degrees higher then closed cup)

- Closed cup (considered more accurate)

383
Q

Flash point below 100 degrees

A

Flammable liquid

384
Q

Flash point above 100 degrees

A

Combustable liquid

385
Q

Boiling point of cryogens

A

-130 degrees

386
Q

Common cryogens (10)

A
  • Nitrogen
  • Oxygen
  • Hydrogen
  • Helium
  • Argon
  • Neon
  • Krypton
  • Xenon
  • Liquified natural gas/Methane
  • Carbon monoxide
387
Q

Cryogen defined

A

A gas that is converted into a liquid by being cooled below -150 degrees

388
Q

Ignition temp of a flammable solid

A

< 212 degrees

389
Q

Two primary types of spontaneously combustable materials

A
  • Pyrophoric (ignition after 5 min of contact with air)

- Self-heating

390
Q

Concentration of a given material that may be tolerated for an 8 hour exposure without ill effects

A

Threshold Limit Value (TLV)

391
Q

Multiple routs of entry into the body (4)

A
  • Ingestion
  • Inhalation
  • Injection
  • Absorption (contact)
392
Q

LD50

A

Ingested dose that was lethal to ≥ 50%

393
Q

LC50

A

Concentration in air that was lethal to ≥ 50% when inhaled or absorbed

394
Q

5 types of ionizing radiation

A
  • Alpha (stopped by paper)
  • Beta (stopped by thin aluminum)
  • Gamma (Stopped by lead or concrete)
  • X Ray (stopped by .08” of lead)
  • Neutron (stopped by large mass of hydrogen rich materials)
395
Q

7 things the SDS, formally known as Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS), will provide

A
  • Hazardous ingredients
  • Physical and chemical properties
  • Physical and health properties
  • Routes of exposure
  • Precautions for safe handling
  • Emergency response and first aid
  • Control measures for the product
396
Q

9 UN hazard classes

A
  • Class 1 = Explosive
  • Class 2 = Gases
  • Class 3 = Flammable liquids
  • Class 4 = Flammable solides
  • Class 5 = Oxidizing
  • Class 6 = Toxic and infectious
  • Class 7 = Radioactive
  • Class 8 = Corrosive
  • Class 9 = Misc. dangerous
397
Q

DOT label measures

A

3.9 inches square on point

398
Q

Any material that is shipped in quantities ≥ ___ pounds must have a DOT placard

A

≥ 1001 lbs

399
Q

Class 7 Radioactive I, II, III labels must always contain the following information (2)

A
  • Isotope name

- Radioactive activity

400
Q

Orange DOT placard =

A

Explosive

401
Q

Yellow DOT placard =

A

Oxidizer

402
Q

Red DOT placard =

A

Flammable

403
Q

White DOT placard =

A

Health hazard

404
Q

Blue DOT placard =

A

Water reactive

405
Q

Green DOT placard =

A

Nonflammable gas

406
Q

Warning words indicating minor, moderate and high degrees of hazards (3)

A
  • Caution = Minor health effects
  • Warning = Moderate hazard
  • Danger = Highest degree of hazard
407
Q

Colored pages in ERG where 4 digit UN number is found

A

Yellow pages

408
Q

Colored pages in ERG where name of material is found

A

Blue pages

409
Q

Colored pages in ERG where initial action guide is found

A

Orange pages

410
Q

Colored pages in ERG where initial isolation and protective actions are found

A

Green pages

411
Q

Shape of caution symbols in Mexico

A

Triangle

412
Q

Shape of caution symbols in Canada

A

Circle

413
Q

Shape of caution symbols in USA

A

Rectangle

414
Q

Spanish for Danger

A

Peligro

415
Q

Spanish for cryogenic liquid

A

Liquido Criogenico

416
Q

Three types of storage and transportation containers

A
  • Fixed-site storage tanks
  • Nonbulk packaging
  • Bulk packaging
417
Q

Pressures for aboveground Atmospheric, Low-pressure, and High-pressure storage tanks (3)

A
  • Atmospheric tanks = 0 - .5 psi
  • Low-pressure tank = .5 - 15 psi
  • High-pressure vessel = greater than 15 psi
418
Q

Minimum distance between tanks

A

3 ft

419
Q

Minimum distances between tanks containing liquids classified as Class IA - IC, Class II, or Class IIIA

A

1/6 the sum of all tank diameters

420
Q

Minimum distance between tanks containing unstable flammable or combustable liquids

A

1/2 the sum of all tank diameters

421
Q

Minimum inside diameter of a vent

A

1 1/4”

422
Q

Tanks must have at least one of the four following emergency relief valves

A
  • Loose utility cover
  • Rupture disk
  • Weak seams between roof and shell
  • Conventional emergency relief device
423
Q

Commercial venting device should be stamped with (3)

A
  • Operating pressure
  • Pressure at which valve reached full-open position
  • Flow capacity in ft3/hr
424
Q

Three types of cryogenic containers

A
  • Dewars
  • Spherical
  • Cylindrical
425
Q

Underground tanks must vent a minimum ___feet above ground

A

12’

426
Q

Nonbulk packaging is defined as a vessel used to store or transport liquids in quantities of ____ gal. or less

A

119 gal

427
Q

Nonbulk packaging for storing flammable and combustable liquids (4)

A
  • Glass
  • Metal
  • Polyethylene
  • Safety can
428
Q

Type A radioactive packaging (2)

A
  • Low level commercial radioactivity

- Cardboard boxes, wooden crates, metal drums, cylinders

429
Q

Type B radioactive packaging (2)

A
  • High grade raw materials, fissionable materials

- Steel reinforced concrete, lead pipes, heavy gauge metal drums, combination of these materials

430
Q

Types of packaging for radioactive materials (3)

A
  • Strong, tight
  • Excepted
  • Industrial
431
Q

Permanent magazine facility for the storage of explosive materials, sensitive to a no.8 blasting cap

A

Type 1 Magazine

432
Q

Portable magazine facility used for outdoor or indoor storage of explosive storage of materials sensitive to a no.8 blasting cap

A

Type 2 Magazine

433
Q

Magazine facility under the constant attendance of a qualified employee and secured with a five-tumbler pad lock

A

Type 3 Magazine

434
Q

Magazine storage facility for explosives which are not bullet sensitive and will not mass detonate

A

Type 4 Magazine

435
Q

Magazine storage facility for explosives classified as blasting agents

A

Type 5 Magazine

436
Q

A magazine must be opened and inspected once every ___days

A

3 days

437
Q

The ATF, PD and fire marshal must be notified within ___ hours when explosives are lost, stolen or removed without authorization

A

24 hours

438
Q

Maximum net mass for bulk packaging

A

882 lbs

439
Q

Minimum capacity of an International bulk container (IBC)

A

.45 cubic meters (15.9 ft3)

440
Q

Maximum capacity of an International bulk container

A

3 cubic meters (106 ft3)

441
Q

Tank cars are divided into three main categories

A
  • Nonpressure
  • Pressure
  • Cryogenic liquid
442
Q

Pressures for:

  • Nonpressure liquid tank
  • Low pressure chemical tank
  • High pressure tank
  • Cryogenic liquid tank
  • Compressed gas/Tube trailer
  • Dry bulk cargo tank
  • Corrosive liquid tank
A
  • Nonpressure liquid tank = 100 psi

- Cryogenic liquid tank =

443
Q

Tank container capacity

A

6340 gal

444
Q

Powder kegs must be stored either (2)

A
  • On end (bung down)

- on the side (seam down)

445
Q

How empty cylinders should be marked

A

With the word EMPTY or MT

446
Q

If transporting over ___ pounds of flammable solids, required to have a DOT placard

A

1001 lbs

447
Q

Vehicles transporting flammable solids must not be left unattended or driven within ___ feet of each other

A

300’

448
Q

Consignee must remove explosives from airport terminal within ___ hours

A

48 hours

449
Q

Plans review and permit process (6 steps)

A
  1. Apply
  2. Submit
  3. Review
  4. Change
  5. Accept
  6. Authorize
450
Q

Two variations to the plans review process

A
  • Fast-track

- Phases

451
Q

4 main views found on working drawings

A
  • Plan
  • Elevation
  • Sectional
  • Detailed
452
Q

Large construction projects are usually divided into four basic areas

A
  • Architectural
  • Structural
  • Mechanical
  • Electrical
453
Q

The process of listing the construction materials is referred to as ..

A

“Calling up” the materials

454
Q

According to the NFPA the proper operation of sprinkler systems resulted in the extinguishment of fire ___% of the time

A

96%

455
Q

The general elements reviewed in a plans review (7)

A
  • Size of building
  • Occupancy classification
  • Occupant load
  • Means of egress
  • Exit capacity
  • Building compartmentation
  • Additional concerns
456
Q

Two reasons why the inspector should visit the site during construction

A
  • Verify code requirements are being met

- Ensure fire and life safety requirements are being met

457
Q

Enforcement occurs when inspectors perform the following 5 duties

A
  • Inspect new and existing buildings
  • Compute occupant loads
  • Investigate complaints
  • Evaluate emergency preparedness plans
  • Review construction/renovation plans
458
Q

Interpersonal skills can be summarized into three skills

A
  1. Listening
  2. Conversing
  3. Persuading
459
Q

A person only remembers ___% of what they hear 24 hours after they hear it and only ___% after 48 hours

A
  • 50%

- 25%

460
Q

Listening constitutes ___% of a persons average day

A

42%

461
Q

Listening consists of five components

A
  • Attending
  • Understanding
  • Remembering
  • Evaluating
  • Responding
462
Q

Listener’s greatest distraction

A

Internal voice

463
Q

Listening barriers (4)

A
  • Information overload
  • Personal concerns
  • Outside distractions
  • Prejudice
464
Q

Communication model

A
  • Sender
  • Message
  • Medium or Channel
  • Receiver
  • Interference
  • Feedback
465
Q

Monroe’s Motivated Sequence Pattern (5)

A
  • Attention
  • Need
  • Satisfaction
  • Visualization
  • Action
466
Q

Personal space in US culture:

  • Intimate
  • Personal
  • Social
  • Public
A
  • Intimate = 1.5’
  • Personal = 4’
  • Social = 12’
  • Public = 25’
467
Q

The first consideration of an inspector when conducting an inspection

A

Ensure the inspection is conducted safely

468
Q

Minimum clearance between freestanding stoves and walls and ceilings

A

36”

469
Q

Three general types of drawings used to show structure, facility, or site information

A
  • Plot/Site plan
  • Floor plan
  • Elevation view
470
Q

Secondary goal of the inspection

A

To build long-term relationships with the owner/occupant

471
Q

Three key elements to an evacuation plan

A
  • Evacuation routes
  • Monitor duties
  • Employee/occupant duties
472
Q

Minimum number of emergency evacuation drills per year

A

2

473
Q

Evacuation drill at health care facilities are conducted …

A

Quarterly on each shift

474
Q

Health care evacuation phase activities:

  • Phase 1
  • Phase 2
  • Phase 3
  • Phase 4
A
  • Phase 1 = Single room
  • Phase 2 = Entire zone of a building
  • Phase 3 = Entire floor and zones above incident floor
  • Phase 4 = Entire building
475
Q

R E A C T

A 
R = Remove
E = Ensure door is closed
A = Activate alarm
C = Call FD/PD
T = Try to extinguish
476
Q

R A C E

A 
R = Remove
A = Alert
C = Confine
E = Extinguish
477
Q

A memo should contain one of three main communicative elements

A
  • Direction
  • Advice
  • Information
478
Q

Formal business letter has four basic parts

A
  • Heading
  • Opening
  • Body
  • Closing
479
Q

Standard letter format for:

  • Heading
  • Date line
  • Inside address
  • Subject line
  • Salutation
  • Body
  • Closing
A
  • Heading - letterhead/logo
  • Date line - 2 lines below heading
  • Inside address - 4 spaces below date line
  • Subject line - 2 lines below inside address/salutation
  • Salutation -
  • Body
  • Closing
480
Q

It is recommended that records be maintained on a building for … (2)

A
  • Its lifetime

- ICC - kept 5 years after building is demolished

481
Q

Adams vs. State of Alaska

A

State breached its duty of care by failing to abate fire hazards uncovered in a fire inspection of a hotel

482
Q

Hazmat Awareness level role (3)

A
  • Identify
  • Call for emergency responders
  • Get themselves and other out of danger
483
Q

Most energetic and hazardous form of radiation

A

Ionizing radiation

484
Q

Asphyxiants can be divided into two classes

A
  • Simple asphyxiants (displace oxy)

- Chemical asphyxiants (prevent body from using oxy)

485
Q

Compound containing hydrogen that reacts with water to produce hydrogen ions; liquid compound with a pH less than 2; corrosive

A

Acid

486
Q

Corrosive water-soluble compound; an alkaline (caustic) substance

A

Base

487
Q

Two broad categories of corrosives

A
  • Acid

- Base (caustic, alkalis)

488
Q

Simplest type of microorganism; can only replicate in living cells

A

Viral agent

489
Q

Microscopic single-celled organism

A

Bacterial agent

490
Q

Live and multiply in the gastrointestinal tract

A

Rickettsias

491
Q

Poisons produced by living organisms

A

Biological toxin

492
Q

Two most common types of mechanical hazards

A
  • Striking

- Friction

493
Q

An explosion can trigger four hazards (3 mechanical, 1 thermal)

A
  • Blast pressure wave (primary reason for injuries/damage)
  • Shrapnel fragmentation
  • Seismic effect
  • Incendiary thermal effect
494
Q

7 clues to the presence of hazardous materials

A
  1. Location and occupancy
  2. Container shapes
  3. Transportation placards, label, markings
  4. Other markings/colors
  5. Written resources
  6. Senses
  7. Monitoring and detection devices
495
Q

Safest of the 5 senses to use in the detection of a hazardous material

A

Vision

496
Q

Symptoms of exposure to chemical warfare agents

S L U D G E M

A 
S = Salivation
L = Lacrimation
U = Urination
D = Deification
G = Gastrointestinal
E = Emesis
M = Moisis (pinpoint pupils) or Muscler twitching
497
Q

CDC divided potential biological agents into three categories

A
  • A (highest priority)
  • B
  • C
498
Q

Vehicle bomb evacuation distances

  • Compact sedan
  • Full sedan
  • Passanger/Cargo van
  • Sm box van
  • Box van or Water/fuel truck
  • Semitrailer
A
  • Compact sedan = 1,500ft
  • Full sedan = 1,750ft
  • Passanger/Cargo van = 2,750ft
  • Sm box van = 3,750ft
  • Box van or Water/fuel truck = 6,500ft
  • Semitrailer = 7,000ft
499
Q

80% to 90% of all in clandestine drug labs are assembled to produce …

A

Meth

500
Q

Two of the most common recipes to produce meth

A
  • Red phosphorous (Red P)

- Anhydrous ammonia (Nazi, Birch)

501
Q

For every pound of meth produced ___ pounds of waste is produced

A

6 lbs

502
Q

Protection goals at the awareness level (4)

A
  • Identifying materials and relaying that info to responders
  • Securing and isolating the scene
  • Using and wearing appropriate PPE
  • Taking measures to protect responders and the public
503
Q

4 types of PPE used by awareness level personnel

A
  • SCBA (demand; pressure demand; positive pressure)
  • Escape respirator (15 min)
  • Structure firefighting protective clothing
  • Chemical protective clothing (CPC)
504
Q

Ensamble provides the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles

A

Level A suit

505
Q

Ensamble requires a garnet that includes an SCBA and provides protection against splashes

A

Level B suit

506
Q

Ensamble is composed of a splash protection garnet and an air purifying respirator

A

Level C suit

507
Q

Ensamble considered to be a typical work uniform

A

Level D

508
Q

The best protective action in a hazmat situation

A

Evacuation

509
Q

Protective action distance

A

Downwind distance from a hazmat incident

510
Q

Initial isolation zone

A

Circular area within which persons may be exposed to dangerous concentrations

511
Q

Initial isolation distance

A

Distance within which all persons are considered for evacuation

512
Q

Protecting/defending in place is considered a ___ role

A

Offensive

513
Q

C B R N E

A 
C = Chemical
B = Biological
R = Radiological
N = Nuclear
E = Explosive
514
Q

Thickened concrete panel that extends a minimum of 4” in all directions from the top of a column to provide support for the concrete slab

A

Drop panel

515
Q

Site (plot) plan is usually one of the first sheets of a set of construction drawings and usually includes the following (8)

A
  • North direction symbol
  • Lot dimension
  • Utility lines
  • Contour lines
  • Grade levels
  • Structures to be removed
  • Sidewalks, parking lots, and driveways
  • Areas to be landscaped
516
Q

Type of alarm designed to transmit both advisable and audible alarm only within the immediate premises.

A

Protected premises

517
Q

Alarm that is connected to a municipal fire alarm system and transmitted over this system to a public fire telecommunications center.

A

Auxiliary fire alarm system

518
Q

The receiving point for alarms in this type of alarm system is located outside the protected premise and is monitored by a contracted service.

A

Central station

519
Q

Type of alarm system that is considered to be supplementary to another type of alarm with the purpose of providing a reliable communications system for residents and firefighters.

A

Emergency/voice alarm communications

520
Q

Alarm system that consists of a dedicated telephone line between each individual alarm box or protected property and the fire department telecommunications center

A

Parallel Telephone

Lieutenants exam (7 decks)

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