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Lieutenants exam > FWFD SOPs > Flashcards

FWFD SOPs Flashcards

1
Q

Vehicle accident report form

A

FD 106

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2
Q

State of TX form to report initial injury/illness

A

DWC-1

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3
Q

State of TX form to outline employee health status

A

DWC-6

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4
Q

When the supervisor of an employee who is injured, becomes ill or is involved in an accident the must notify his supervisor

A

As soon as possible

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5
Q

Responsible for the submission of the DWC-1 to the Workers Comp Clerk

A

Immediate supervisor

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6
Q

Responsible for ensuring delivery of initial DWC-1 to FD Safety Officer

A

Workers Comp Clerk

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7
Q

FAO will notify the following in the event of a work related injury/illness (5)

A
  • Safety 99
  • BC and/or Shift Duty Chief
  • Fire apparatus and equipment shop
  • PD
  • Risk management
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8
Q

Official photographs taken by

A

Designated individuals

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9
Q

When in an accident the associated forms must be delivered by employee/supervisor to appropriate persons no later than

A

The next business day

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10
Q

Safety officer ensures form 106 is forwarded to the Appratus and Equipment shop and to Claims Office-Risk Management within

A

72 hours

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11
Q

For non-vehcle injury/illness the employee/supervisor must deliver the DWC-1 to Workers Comp Clerk in Fire Admin no later than

A

The morning of the next business day

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12
Q

Company members shall dress alike by

A

Class of uniform

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13
Q

Collar Insigne placement:

  • FF/Eng
  • Officers
A
  • FF/Eng = “FD” parallel to the ground, 1/4” from collar edges
  • Officers = Bugles shall align with collar tip, 1/4” from collar edges
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14
Q

Badge sizes

  • Coat
  • Shirt
  • Wallet
A
  • Coat = 2 3/4”
  • Shirt = 2 1/2”
  • Wallet = 1 5/8”
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15
Q

Wallet badges issued to (3)

A
  • Investigators
  • Chief Officers
  • Other personnel w/ approval of Fire Chief
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16
Q

Operations required to maintain the following number of uniform articles:

  • Trousers (BDU pants/shorts)
  • Work shirts
  • Dress shirt (blue or white)
  • Work jacket
  • Belt
  • Ball cap
  • Toboggan
  • Job shirt
  • Sweatshirt
  • Sweatpants
  • T-Shirt
  • Shorts
A
  • Trousers (BDU pants/shorts) = 5
  • Work shirts = 5
  • Dress shirt (blue or white) = 1
  • Work jacket = 1
  • Belt = 1
  • Ball cap = 1
  • Toboggan = 1
  • Job shirt = 1
  • Sweatshirt = 1
  • Sweatpants = 1
  • T-Shirt = 3
  • Shorts = 1
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17
Q

Non-Operations required to maintain the following number of uniform articles:

  • Operations approved work uniform
  • White dress/polo shirt
  • Black trousers
A
  • Operations approved work uniform = 1
  • White dress/polo shirt = 5
  • Black trousers = 5
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18
Q

T-shirts/sweatshirts/physical fitness clothing shall be worn only (6)

A
  • Exercising
  • Health and fitness evals
  • As sleeping atire
  • Station cleanup
  • Apparatus maintenance and cleanup
  • Hydrant/hose testing
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19
Q

Location of badge tab on Dress coat

A

1” above breast pocket

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20
Q

Patch location on Dress coat

A

Left shoulder

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21
Q

Dress Hat

  • Fire Chief, Assistant Chief, Deputy Chief
  • Battalion Chief
  • Captain, Lieutenant
  • Engineer, Firefighter
A
  • Fire Chief, Assistant Chief, Deputy Chief = White bell crown, WHITE CAP BAND, gold mylar strap, gold medallion, rank specific
  • Battalion Chief = White bell crown, BLACK CAP BAND, gold mylar strap, gold medallion, rank specific
  • Captain, Lieutenant = Black bell crown, BLACK CAP BAND, gold mylar strap, gold medallion, rank specific
  • Engineer, Firefighter = Black bell crown, BLACK CAP BAND, silver mylar strap, silver medallion, Firefighter scramble
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22
Q

One maltese cross for each 5 years of service shall be worn n the ___ sleeve and above the rank designation

A

Left sleeve

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23
Q

Rank designation shall be identified by a narrow ___ inch or wide ___ inch stripe near the sleeve cuff

  • Fire Chief
  • Assistant Chief
  • Deputy Chief
  • Battalion Chief
  • Captain
  • Lieutenant
  • Engineer
  • Firefighter
A 
Narrow = 1/2"
Wide = 1"
  • Fire Chief = 1 wide, 2 narrow gold
  • Assistant Chief = 1 wide, 1 narrow gold
  • Deputy Chief = 1 wide gold
  • Battalion Chief = 3 narrow, gold
  • Captain = 2 narrow, gold
  • Lieutenant = 1 narrow gold
  • Engineer = 2 narrow silver
  • Firefighter = 1 narrow silver
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24
Q

Types of signs and symptoms that characterizes critical incident stress (4)

A
  • Physical
  • Cognitive
  • Emotional
  • Behavioral
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25
Q

Peer driven, clinician guided and provided within 48-72 hours

A

CISD

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26
Q

Objectives of CISD (6)

A
  • Prevention of traumatic stress
  • Mitigation of traumatic stress
  • Intervention to assist in recovery
  • Acceleration of recovery
  • Restoration to function
  • Maintenance of worker health and welfare
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27
Q

Takes place within 8 to 12 hours of the incident and last 30-45 min

A

Defusing

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28
Q

Objectives of defusing

A
  • Rapid reduction of intense reactions
  • Normalizing of the experience
  • Re-establishment of the social network
  • Assessment of personnel to determine if a full CISD is needed
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29
Q

One-on-one conversations with a trained Peer

A

Peer support counseling

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30
Q

Appointed by the Fire Chief and responsible for coordinating critical incident stress interventions and networking with other agencies and departments

A

CISM team coordinator

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31
Q

Critical incident stress management program id proactive by ____ and reactive by ____

A
  • Educating members

- Activating the CISM

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32
Q

FAO will automatically activate the CISM when (4)

A
  • Line of duty death or life threatening injury to ff
  • Multiple or mass casualty
  • Fire fatality
  • Any disaster or prolonged incident
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33
Q

If the appropriate agency never picks up monetary donations left at the firehouse then the company officer should contact this person

A

Duty investigator

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34
Q

Maintenance problems with overhead doors should be reported to (2)

A
  • Building maintenance

- FAO (after hours)

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35
Q

Officer who determines areas in city where vehicles are subject to damage due to vandalism

A

Deputy chief of operations

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36
Q

Approval to move vehicles into station lies with

A

Station officer

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37
Q

Assumes responsibility for all damages that occur to FD vehicles as a result of moving personal vehicles into station

A

Station officer

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38
Q

Determines the staffing level of the fire department

A

City council

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39
Q

When called for OT, report for duty within ___ hr from the time of notification

A

1 hour

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40
Q

OT suspension time for working OT without after being off sick

A

90 days

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41
Q

Non-exepmt employees OT policy

A

Straight time for hours worked up to their 40/56 hour work week unless its emergency call-back; Time and a half for hours work beyond their regular work week

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42
Q

Deputy Chief OT policy

A

Are exempt and only receive straight time

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43
Q

Request for removal of Voluntary OT list must be made by

A

1st week of each calendar year; contact the Shift Tech by January 7th

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44
Q

Shift techs maintain OT records for

A

1 year

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45
Q

Must be available at provided telephone number at this time when waiting for OT

A

0715

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46
Q

Operations personnel using more than 72 hours or non-operational personnel using more than 54 hours of undocumented non-occupational sick leave without providing medical documentation will be removed from the OT list for ___ days

A

90 days

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47
Q

No employee may work more than ___ hours of voluntary OT in a single work week (midnight Friday to midnight friday)

A

36 hours

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48
Q

Selection criteria on separate list for mandatory/force hire OT

A
  • Employee with the least last OT day worked is hired
  • Least last OT day worked is the same then selection based on highest seniority
  • Paid 1 additional hour for travel
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49
Q

Acceptable reasons to refuse mandatory OT (3)

A
  • Personal illness
  • Family illness
  • Other emergency
    (Provide evidence in a letter to Deputy Chief)
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50
Q

All employees are limited to an unused balance of ___ hour of comp time

A

120 hours

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51
Q

Compensation for travel is limited to

A

30 min each way

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52
Q

When lieutenants begin earning acting pay when the station captain is off

A
  • The beginning of the 3rd consecutive shift in which the captain if off
  • Acting ay is earned the first day the captain off off when the absence is predetermined
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53
Q

Personnel may not voluntarily work more than ___ consecutive hours

A

72 hours

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54
Q

Number of weeks per calendar year of job-protected leave for absence of work because of serious health conditions or immediate family members serious health condition

A

12 weeks

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55
Q

Medical documentation is defined as (4)

A
  • Non-occupational injury/illness Status Form with employee’s physician signature
  • Doctors office receipt with patient’s name and date of visit
  • Copy of prescription
  • Written doctors statement confirming contact
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56
Q

FD MRCs (4)

A
  • FWFD Senior Admin assistant
  • Selected members of Admin Service Staff
  • Alarm Office CAD administrator
  • Limited number of alternates
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57
Q

Form signed by employee’s physician and describes any on the job limitations or light duty requirements

A

Non-Occupational Illness/Injury Status Form

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58
Q

Rate of sick time accrual

  • 56 hr
  • 40 hr
A
  • 56 hr = 6.93 per pay period

- 40 hr = 4.62 per pay period

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59
Q

Supervisor should require employee to submit appropriate medical documentation when (2)

A
  • Exceed the 72 hour undocumented leave limit (56 hr) or the 54 hour limit (40 hr)
  • Supervisor has documented suspicions of potential leave abuse
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60
Q

56 hour employee should make sick leave notification through telestaff or through verbal contact with supervisor by this time

A

0710 hrs

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61
Q

40 hour employee should make sick leave notification by

A

The beginning of the workday to his supervisor

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62
Q

A 56 hr employee who uses more than __ hrs of undocumented sick leave or a 40 hr employee who uses more than ___ hrs f undocumented sick leave will be placed on 90 day OT suspension

A

56 hr employee = 48 hrs

40 hr employee = 36 hrs

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63
Q

An employee must complete FD 006 within ___ calendar days for each instance of sick leave

A
  • 7 calendar days
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64
Q

Medical documentation may be submitted to the MRC in the following ways (4)

A
  • In person
  • Intra-departmental mailbag
  • US mail
  • Courier
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65
Q

Supervisor required to notify Payroll Group when employee has been absent for ___ consecutive days or when employee expresses a need for leave due to serious health condition

A

2 consecutive days

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66
Q

Approves assignments to all civil service personnel

A

Assistant Chief or designee

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67
Q

5 considerations of Assistant chief when filling vacancies

A
  • Properly executed FD 015
  • Job performance and relevant education
  • Diversity of the workforce
  • Seniority when all other factors are equal (rank, commission date, placement of entry exam)
  • Special assignment (receiving assignment pay)
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68
Q

Commitment for all assignments

A

2 years; unless special training is required and training hasn’t started in 6 months, commitment may be extended

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69
Q

Intra battalion transfers must be justified in writing and submitted to ___ for approval

A

Operations assistant chief

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70
Q

If an employee in a “special assignment” in unable to perform th duties of the spacial assignment for a period of ___ consecutive days, or ___ non-consecutive days in a consecutive 12 month period the the Chief or his designee may reassign the employee

A
  • 120 consecutive days

- 180 non-consecutive days

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71
Q

Vacation accural rate (56 hr)

  • 1 year
  • 5 yr
  • 10 yr
  • 15 yr
  • 20 yr
A
  • 1 yr = 6.93
  • 5 yr = 7.85
  • 10 yr = 8.31
  • 15 yr = 9.23
  • 20 yr = 10.62
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72
Q

Personnel are granted __ holidays plus one personal holiday for an additional ___ hours per calendar year

A
  • 8 holidays

- 108 hours

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73
Q

Fire ops will provide each battalion chief the following forms by September 15th (5)

A
  • Daily vacation quota
  • Vacation selection worksheet
  • Battalion vacation recap
  • Work schedule
  • FLSA schedule
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74
Q

Vacation selection process must be completed by

A

Dec. 1st

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75
Q

May only be used in 12 hr increments

A

Personal holiday

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76
Q

Emergency recall:

  • Level I
  • Level II
  • Level III
A
  • Level I = Partial recall; limited number
  • Level II = Single shift recall
  • Level III = Total recall of all personnel
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77
Q

A mandatory order to return to work unless otherwise incapacitated and unable to report

A

Recall

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78
Q

Non-manditory request to return to work to fill an unanticipated vacancy

A

Emergency call back

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79
Q

Responsible for completing and distributing inflow/outflow form FD 048, located in the ready reserve box

A

Company officers

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80
Q

Level I, II, or III recall can be instituted by (4)

A
  • Fire Chief
  • Assistant Operations Chief
  • Deputy Chief
  • Shift Deputy Chief
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81
Q

Preferred inflow points for Level II and III recall (3)

A
  • Will Rogers, Station 80
  • Fire training Center
  • Bolt Street
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82
Q

When the DWC-1 (occupational injury/illness) should be faxed to the Workers Comp Clerk

A

As soon as possible but no later than the end of the work day/shift

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83
Q

Employees with occupational injury/illness should request the examining physician complete a ___ for each examination/treatment resulting from the occupational injury/illness

A

DWC-73

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84
Q

A DWC-73 should be submitted at least every ___ days from the date of the first report until their return to work

A

30 days (requirement may be extended by Fire Chief, Assistant Chief, Deputy Chief)

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85
Q

Employee must contact their supervisor every ___ days for 56 hr employees and every ___ days for 40 hr employees

A

56 hr = every 6 days

40 hr = every 5 days

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86
Q

Employee must complete a 007 if returning to ops after being absent for more than ___ days

A

90 days

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87
Q

Qualified EMS supplies not resupplied by medstar should be documented on FD 703 and forwarded to the EMS Office with the following info (6)

A
  • Apparatus number
  • Incident number
  • Incident date
  • Incident address
  • Medstar unit
  • A brief account of circumstances
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88
Q

Items resupplied by EMS 99 (5)

A
  • Epinephrine Auto-injector
  • Defibrillators and their accessories
  • Pulse oximetry devices
  • Glucometers
  • Suction units
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89
Q

This is as important as the on-scene time

A

Time of arrival at patient

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90
Q

EMS 99 duties (10)

A
  • Respond to working structure fires
  • Respond to all multiple alarms, hazmat and mass casualty
  • Maintain and provide AED and H.P. Codemaster service
  • Provide monthly and quarterly reports to EPAB
  • On scene support for speciality teams
  • Medical support to the FWPD SWAT team
  • Service as the on duty Infectious Disease Control Officer
  • Serve as the after hours substance abuse officer
  • Notify the CISD Director at the appropriate times
  • Maintain and service EMS vehicles on a weekly basis
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91
Q

When evidence must be moved (3)

A
  • Use a bandage or cloth to handle it
  • Note the exact location prior to the move
  • Notify the PD officer in charge of the crime scene
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92
Q

If a victims clothing must be removed (3)

A
  • Handled only one person
  • Do not cut or tear through an entrance or exit hole
  • Do not cover evidence when garments are laid aside
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93
Q

The implementation and application of the infectious control plan is the responsibility of (3)

A
  • EMS 1
  • EMS 2
  • EMS 99
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94
Q

When an employee is exposed to any body substance (4)

A
  • Wash
  • Contact EMS 99
  • Accompany patient
  • Complete DWC-6 and PER Affidavit
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95
Q

Will draw blood samples when Concentra is closed

A

EMS 99

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96
Q

Texas Administrative Code requires a baseline blood sample to be drawn when

A

A workers compensation claim is filed

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97
Q

Ten or more victims at one incident

A

Mass causality incident

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98
Q

Less than ten victims at one incident or any incident where victims overwhelm the rescuers

A

Multipul casualty incident

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99
Q

Extrication and triage groups managed by

A

FD

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100
Q

Triage, treatment and transport (T3) managed by

A

Medstar

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101
Q

FD Triage group supervisor establishes

A

A causality collection point (CCP)

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102
Q

How to request additional medical personnel and equipment

A

Same manner as additional fire companies

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103
Q

5 rolls of surveyors tape

  • Red
  • Yellow
  • Green
  • Blue
  • Black
A
  • Red = Priority 1 - Critical/Immediate
  • Yellow = Priority 2 - Non-critical/Delayed
  • Green = Priority 3 - Minor or no injuries
  • Blue = Priority 4 - Expectant
  • Black = Priority 0 - Deceased
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104
Q

START

A

Simple Triage And Rapid Transport

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105
Q

START Method

A

Two interventions allowed

  • Open airway (two attempts)
  • Control life threatening hemorrhaging
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106
Q

Triage process is limited to ___ seconds per patient

A

30 seconds

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107
Q

START process (4)

A
  • Airway - attempt to open twice - not breathing = BLACK
  • Breathing - respirations > 30 = RED
  • Circulation - cap refill > 2 sec or absent radial pulse = RED
  • Mental status - unable to follow commands = RED or does follow commands = YELLOW/GREEN
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108
Q

T-3 Group is managed by

A

First in Medstar 80/81

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109
Q

May be established for incidents involving multiple T3 areas

A

Transportation Group Supervisor (A Medstar representative)

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110
Q

Medical Branch/Division established when a HAZMAT incident requires response personnel to wear

A

Level A or B protective suits

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111
Q

Medical Branch/Division officer

A

EMS 1/EMS 99

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112
Q

When determining what hazards are involved use at least ___ available references in order to compare the info and to determine the best course of action

A

3 resources

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113
Q

Medical Branch/Division is established here

A

Cold zone

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114
Q

Monitor personnel closely when oral temps exceed ___

A

99.6ºF

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115
Q

Do not allow personnel to wear encapsulating suits if their temperature exceeds ___

A

100.6ºF

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116
Q

Fluid loss in personnel should not exceed ___% of total body weight

A

1.5%

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117
Q

Fluid loss of ___ or greater will require an IV of NS for emergency hydration and transport to a hospital

A

6%

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118
Q

Administer ___ ounces of water for each ___ ounces of weight loss

A

24 ounces of water for each 8 ounces lost

3 for 1 replacement

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119
Q

Recommended that personnel drink ___ ounces of water before beginning work and ___ to ___ cups of liquid every 15-20 minutes during breaks

A
  • 16 ounces

- 2 to 3 cups

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120
Q

Personnel shall be evaluated if their heartbeat exceeds ___ bpm

A

110 bpm

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121
Q

In the event of an accident the FAO will notify the following (7)

A
  • Safety 99 (business hours)
  • Shift tech (after hours)
  • Closest Battalion Chief
  • Shift Division Chief
  • Apparatus and Equipment shop
  • PD
  • Risk management
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122
Q

Shall take official photographs at incidents (2)

A
  • Safety 99

- Shift Division Chief or designee

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123
Q

Forms associated with a vehicle accident will be faxed and originals forwarded trough the chain-of-command to the Safety Officer no later than

A

The morning of the next business day

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124
Q

The following will determine the need for a post-acident drug/alcohol test (4)

A
  • Fatality
  • Person is transported
  • Citation for a traffic violation is issued to city driver
  • Request by Battalion Chief or Shift Division Chief
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125
Q

If drug testing contractor is unavailable

A

Personnel are take to Harris Hospital Emergency room

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126
Q

How long are forms FD 901, 902, 902.1, 903 retained in station files

A

Until the apparatus is retired

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127
Q

Form is completed on Saturday

A

FD 903

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128
Q

Apparatus repairs contact during and after working hours (2)

A
  • During working hours = Apparatus & Equipment Shop

- After working hours = Light and Air shop

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129
Q

When exercising the air compressor in the CAFS system the air pressure and water pressure should not vary more than ___ psi while discharging air

A

10 psi

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130
Q

Continue to discharge air from the CAFS system for ___ min or until the system temp reaches ___ degrees

A
  • 10 minutes

- 180º F

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131
Q

With the CAFS system in the “fixed” position the RED needle (air pressure) should read ___ to ___ psi regardless of the pump pressure

A

140 to 150 psi

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132
Q

CAFS should be discharged at ___ psi

A

100 psi

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133
Q

Buzzers on LTI quints/trucks will sound when

A

Engine oil falls below the established critical point

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134
Q

Rescue ropes:

  • Type (4)
  • Diameter
  • Length
  • Tensile strength
A
  • Type (4) = Static Kernmantle; Non-elongational; Non- spinning; High abrasion resistance
  • Diameter = 1/2”
  • Length = 150’
  • Tensile strength = 9,000 lbs
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135
Q

When rescue ropes are used (2)

A
  • All life threatening situations

- Water rescue

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136
Q

Utility ropes diameter

A

3/8”

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137
Q

How rescue ropes are stored (2)

A
  • Sealed bag

- Metal container

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138
Q

Designated “rope station”

A

Station 1

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139
Q

When requesting rope replacement (3)

A
  • 703 or email to Station 1 with following info
    + Type of usage
    + Type of contamination
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140
Q

Station 1 shall maintain a rope log with the following info (4)

A
  • Company rope is issued to
  • Date of issue
  • Lot number of the rope
  • Length and color of the rope
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141
Q

Number of salvage/walk tarps:

  • Engine
  • Quint/truck
A 
- Engine 
   \+ 2 salvage 
   \+ 1 walk
- Quint/truck
   \+ 7 salvage
   \+ 3 walk
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142
Q

Salvage and walk tarps are made of

A

Vinyl covered nylon

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143
Q

Measurements:

  • Salvage
  • Walk
A
  • Salvage = 12’ x 18’

- Walk = 34” x 15 ‘

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144
Q

Rolls of plastic (20’ x 100’) are kept

A

At each truck/quint company and battalion HQ

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145
Q

When plastic is used in lieu of tarps (3)

A
  • When security of the salvage tarps are in question
  • When tarps are needed for extend periods of time
  • When supply of salvage tarps has been depleted
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146
Q

Company identification stenciled in these locations on a tarp

A

On both sides at each corner and center at both ends

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147
Q

When ground ladder must pass a service test (3)

A
  • Annually
  • After repair
  • Subjected to heat, unusual stress, integrity of ladder is in question
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148
Q

Will ensure the scheduling of annual ladder tests

A

Equipment coordinator

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149
Q

Protected area at a vehicle related roadway incident that is shielded by the block from apparatus

A

Protected zone

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150
Q

Area that is not protected by emergency vehicles

A

Hazard zone

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151
Q

Physical area of a roadway within which emergency personnel perform fire, EMS, and rescue tasks

A

Temporary work zone

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152
Q

Distance the first arriving apparatus shall be parked upstream to from an incident to create a protected zone

A

100’

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153
Q

When blocking to the left or to the right the apparatus should be at a ___ degree angle with wheels turned away from the incident

A

45º

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154
Q

Use the fire apparatus to block additional traffic lanes as necessary and when possible position the apparatus to protect the ____ from approaching traffic

A

Pump operator

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155
Q

The second arriving apparatus is for ..

A

the safety of all personnel

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156
Q

Traffic cone deployment

A

Upstream at 15’ intervals with the furthest cone 75’ to 100’ upstream

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157
Q

Shall take charge of recovered valuables

A

Investigator

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158
Q

Valuables shall be inventoried by both finder and investigator and placed into an evidence bag and signed by

A

The investigator and the finder

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159
Q

Reasons why FAO will dispatch a fire company on a lockout (6)

A
  • Person inside or outside of vehicle/structure and due to age, physical impairment, or special circumstances is unable to enter or exit
  • Animal confined to vehicle/structure capable of causing damage to self or structure
  • Urgency exists causing the caller to relocate
  • Risk due to time or area
  • Vehicle is creating a danger or hazardous situation
  • Any situation considered an emergency or matter of urgent nature
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160
Q

Lockout form FD 740 is retained in station files for

A

1 year

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161
Q

May request a post incident analysis (PIA) (2)

A
  • Operations Assistant Chief

- Educational and Support Services Assistant Chief

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162
Q

Responsible for the formal PIA program

A

Educational and Support Services Assistant Chief

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163
Q

PIA are expected to be a

A

Learning experience

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164
Q

Number of RED/YELLOW hydrant rings initially issued to each fire company

A

5 (additional rings can be obtained from supply)

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165
Q

After testing a hydrant that was previously out of service, fire company should remove the ring and complete form ___ and forward the top copy to ___ and rata in the bottom copy in station files

A
  • Form FD 711

- Top copy to FAO

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166
Q

Responsible for setting the response parameters for the FWFD (3)

A
  • Shift Deputy Chief
  • Assistant Chief of Operations
  • Fire Chief
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167
Q

Composition of Brush alarm (and all additional brush alarms)

A
  • 1 Battalion Chief
  • 2 Engines
  • 3 Brush trucks w/ primary engine/quint
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168
Q

A cooperative agency that includes the Texas Forest Service

A

Texas Interagency Coordination Center (TICC)

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169
Q

Agency who issues a Forecast Fire Danger Report

A

Texas Interagency Coordination Center (TICC)

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170
Q

Agency who issues Red Flag Warnings

A

National Weather Service

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171
Q

Paramaters for Red Flag Warnings (3)

A
  • Sustained wind average ≥ 15 mph
  • Relativity humidity ≤ 25%
  • Temperature > 75ºF
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172
Q

Fire Weather Watch issued by National Weather Service ___ to ___ hours in advance of expected Red Flag Warning conditions

A

12 to 48 hours in advance

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173
Q

Should drive the brush truck

A

Most experienced FF

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174
Q

The need for additional staffing and resource deployment will be determined by (2)

A
  • Operations Assistant Chief

- Shift Deputy Chief

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175
Q

Number of CAFS engines dispatched to all one-alarm or greater brush fires

A

At least 1

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176
Q

Authority to: (3)

  • Cancel all non-emergency activities
  • Establish Brush Fire Command (BFC)
  • Recall off duty personnel
  • Activate the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)
A
  • Fire Chief
  • Operations Assistant Chief
  • Shift Deputy Chief
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177
Q

The EOC will (3)

A
  • Monitor area wide conditions/fire activity
  • Notify adjoining cities of potential mutual aid needs
  • Notify Medstar of reduced response capabilities
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178
Q

A location (preferably a fire barrier), to start attacking the fire

A

Anchor point

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179
Q

A fire set between a wildfire and the control line to create a barrier

A

Backfire (used as a last resort)

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180
Q

A fire set between the main fire and control line or barrier to burnout any unburned fuels between the wildfire and the control line

A

Burnout

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181
Q

A natural or manmade barrier where the forward progress of the fire is expected to be stopped

A

Control line

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182
Q

Used to establish accountability in a wildfire incident that covers a large geographic area

A

Lookouts, Communications, Escapes routes, Safety zones (LCES)

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183
Q

Mop up distance for large brush fires

A

100’ wide and adjacent to the control line

184
Q

Part of the wild land fire with the greatest forward rate of speed

A

Head

185
Q

Indentations in a fire edge formed by fingers or slow burning areas

A

Pocket (activity inside a pocket is extremely dangerous)

186
Q

Unburned area inside a fire perimeter

A

Island

187
Q

Occurs when fire crosses a control line or natural barrier intended to confine the fire

A

Slopover

188
Q

Three basic modes of attack in a wild land situation

A
  • Direct
  • Indirect
  • Combination
189
Q

Factors used in determining mode of attack in a wild land situation (5)

A
  • Exposures
  • Area involved
  • Weather
  • Available resources
  • Flame length
190
Q

Flame length = Attack mode:

  • 0’ - 4’
  • 4’ - 8’
  • Over 8’
A
  • 0’ - 4’ = Direct attack on all sides
  • 4’ - 8’ = Direct attack flanks - Direct/indirect attack head
  • Over 8’ = Indirect attack head and right flank
191
Q

Tactical priorities at brush fire (4)

A
  • Life safety
  • Property protection
  • Fire containment
  • Exposures, resources, access, water, topography, weather
192
Q

10 Standard Firefighting Orders

A
  1. Keep informed on fire weather conditions and forecasts
  2. Know what the fire is doing at all times
  3. Base all actions on the current and expected behavior of the fire
  4. Identify escape routes and safety zones and make them known
  5. Post lookouts when there is possible danger
  6. Be alert. Keep calm. Think clearly. Act Decisively
  7. Maintain prompt communications with your supervisors
  8. Give clear instructions and be sure they are understood
  9. Maintain control of personnel at all times
  10. Fight fire aggressively, putting safety first
193
Q

First company on scene of a grass/brush fire shall give a CAN report (5)

A
  • What is burning
  • Exposures
  • Mode of attack
  • Safety considerations
  • Resources needed
194
Q

Water supply for brush trucks are a high incident priority and should be established by

A

Engineer assigned to the first pumping apparatus that resounded with the initial brush truck

195
Q

Accountability os maintained with each division by

A

Ensuring all fire units use one way in and one way out of all fire areas within a division

196
Q

Orientation at a wildland fire

A

Accomplished by giving directions relativity to a position at the rear/heal of the fire facing the head

197
Q

A critical element in determining the method of attack at a wildland fire

A

Access

198
Q

Every vehicle should have

A

Wire cutters

199
Q

Operating uphill from an advancing fire shall only be used in situations where ..

A

Immediate intervention is necessary to protect life

200
Q

How wildland fires are most effectively attacked

A

From a central point at the head of the fire with fire vehicles proceeding down each flank

201
Q

An exception to attacking the head first

A

When flank exposures exist

202
Q

Last step in wild land fire suppression

A

Mop up

203
Q

Goal of mop up

A

To prevent re-ignition

204
Q

Type of lay that is beneficial when other arriving units are delayed and marginal water supplies will be effective; Requires another apparatus to position at the hydrant to augment water supplies

A

Forward lay

205
Q

Standard humat valve forward lay configuration is adequate for

A

1 and 2 family dwelling classes

206
Q

Volume connection reduces intake velocities by ___% and intake friction loss by ___%

A
  • 50%

- 75%

207
Q

Compared to a boosted humat, a volume connection increases hydrant output by up to ___%

A

40%

208
Q

At apartment/commercial fires the hydrant will be designated by the apparatus officer by of the following (5)

A
  • Instructions from command
  • Visual identification
  • MDC hydrant info (F3)
  • Knowledge of hydrant location
  • Water map
209
Q

Not to exceed ___ psi discharge pressure with a 4” supply line

A

200 psi

210
Q

ARFF procedures are outlined in the following documents (5)

A
  • Letters of Agreement
  • Airport Emergency Plan
  • Airport Certification Manual
  • Federal Regulations
  • FWFD SOPs and ARFF Memos
211
Q

Control zones shall be used around all

A

Alert aircraft

212
Q

Access to the warm or hot zone requires (3)

A
  • Assignment by ARFF Commander
  • Proper PPE
  • Proper HAZMAT and NIMS training
213
Q

Battalion 6 will be dispatched on all ___ within the city and within ___ miles of the control towers of Meacham, Alliance, and Spinks

A
  • Allert III

- 5 miles

214
Q

Day and times of scheduled ARFF drills

A

Monday between 0900 - 1100 or within 1 hour of sunset

215
Q

ARFF personnel must monitor channel ___ when out of the station

A

Channel 6

216
Q

Compliance with the mobil fueler and fuel farm inspection discrepancies must be based on the risk determined by

A

The inspecting officer

217
Q

Minor discrepancies must be corrected within ___ days

A

7 days

218
Q

Firefighters contracted for specialized equipment standby at Meacham shall (2)

A
  • Familiarize themselves with aircraft being modified each shift
  • Physically tour the facility and aircraft at least once every 30 days
219
Q

Helicopter Utilization Guidelines are addressed in

A

EPAB Medical Protocols

220
Q

Officer dispatched to secure helicopter LZ (2)

A
  • The LZ coordinator

- Responsible for communications with helicopter

221
Q

Size of LZ

A
  • 100’ x 100’

Large heli = 120’ x 120’

222
Q

Helicopter approach considerations (3)

A
  • Wind direction
  • Approach/departure path free of obstructions
  • Advise heli crew on initial contact of any obstructions
223
Q

Ground guide for LZ (5)

A
  • In full bunker gear
  • Positioned on the upwind side of LZ
  • After heli has landed, will secure rear portion of LZ
  • Prior to takeoff, position in pilot’s view
  • Responsible for security of LZ
224
Q

Smoke deployed at LZ during daylight operations (3)

A
  • Downwind of areas of operations
  • Ignited 2 -3 minutes prior to arrival
  • Never used inside LZ
225
Q

Night operations LZ (3)

A
  • Non essential white lights turned off
  • Red lights left on
  • Strobe light placed on the ground in the center of the LZ
226
Q

LZ location at HAZMAT incidents

A
  • Upwind, at least 1 mile from the incident
227
Q

Bystanders should be kept ___ feet from the LZ

A

100’

228
Q

Normal working hours of Fire Apparatus and Equipment shop

A

M - F; 0700- 1730

229
Q

Lost or damaged equipment shall be explained in detail on Form FD703 and forwarded to (2)

A
  • Division Chief

- Apparatus and Equipment shop

230
Q

Confined space response (5)

A
  • Closest fire unit
  • Closest hazmat satellite
  • Closest Battalion
  • Station 2 including Battalion 2 Chief
  • Technical Operations Chief (notified)
231
Q

2 major confined space hazard categories

A
  • Hazardous atmospheres

- General safety hazards

232
Q

One-third of all confined space fatalities can be blamed on

A

Atmospheric conditions

233
Q

Atmosphere in a confined space incident should be tested in the following order (3)

A 
1. Oxygen level 
     < 19.5% = deficient
     >23.5% = enriched
2. Flammability or combustable gases and vapors
     > 10% of LEL
3. Toxic gases and vapors
234
Q

Primary responsibility of all confined space rescue members

A
  • Safety of themselves and team
235
Q

Rescuers who enter a confined space shall use a rescue barnes with

A

Safety line attached

236
Q

Breathing apparatus shall be used in confined spaces unless

A

Analysis of atmosphere determines it is safe

237
Q

Any unit that encounters a confined space incident will take the following steps (7)

A
  • Size up
  • Identify the hazards
  • Request Station 2 including Batt 2 Chief
  • Location, number of victims, types of injuries
  • Nature of the emergency (rescue/recovery)
  • How long has the victim been in place
  • Crowd and scene control
238
Q

Confined space incident warm zone (5)

A
  • Command
  • Rehab
  • Accountability
  • EMS
  • Stand-by teams
239
Q

Confined space incident cold zone (4)

A
  • Staging
  • Resource
  • Liaison
  • All others
240
Q

Type of ventilation used in confined spaces where there is:

  • One entry point
  • Two entry points
A
  • One entry point = Negative ventilation via duct

- Two entry points = Positive ventilation via hydraulic fan

241
Q

Will be assigned as Safety Officer on technical rescue incidents

A

Technical rescue team member

242
Q

Officer in charge of rescue or recovery

A

Technical rescue team leader

243
Q

Responsible for locating anchor points, setting up lowering or retrieval system

A

Rigging team

244
Q

Responsible of maintaining the safety line

A

Safety line attendant

245
Q

Can be used on one person load safety line

A

Munter hitch

246
Q

Responsible for coordinating with rescue team leader the type of communications the entry team will use

A

Communications team

247
Q

Ratio of personnel outside the confined space to support personnel working within

A

2:1

stand-by rescue team ratio = 1:1

248
Q

Horn blasts (3)

A

3 long = Evacuate (1 sec each)
1 long = Cease operations/all quiet (3 seconds)
1 long + 1 short = Resume operations

249
Q

Radio alerts (3)

A
  • Mayday
  • Emergency traffic
  • Emergency alert tone
250
Q

RITs shall be maintained outside all entry points and will consist of a minimum of ___ fully equipped firefighters

A

2

251
Q

A fire in the initial beginning stage which can be controlled or extinguished by a portable fire extinguisher, Class II standpipe, or small hose (no larger than a redline)

A

Incipient stage fire

252
Q

All deviations from the Two-in - Two-out policy shall be documented in the following manor

A

Written report submitted by company officer to the Fire Chief or designee and is subject to investigation by the TCFP

253
Q

Primary and secondary functions of automatic fire alarm systems

A
  • Provide early notification to building occupants

- Provide early notification to FD

254
Q

Composition of hazmat team (5)

A
  • 3 hazmat Batt Chiefs
  • 3 Captains
  • 6 Lieutenants
  • 9 Engineers
  • 18 Firefighters
255
Q

Primary hazmat units (4)

A
  • B-2
  • S-2
  • T-2
  • E-2
256
Q

Satellite hazmat units/stations (3)

A
  • B-1, B-3, B-4, B-5, B-6
  • EMS 99
  • Stations: 15, 17, 24, 32, 37
257
Q

Responsible for hazmat training, equipment, maintenance, personnel management, and , meet applicable standards of federal and state agencies

A

B-2 Chiefs and Station 2 Captains

258
Q

All injuries reported at hazmat Level I incidents will dictate a response by (2)

A
  • EMS 99

- A Battalion Chief

259
Q

For materials not listed in the ERG, refer to (2)

A
  • MSDS

- EMO

260
Q

Zone at a hazmat incident that is directed by the Hazmat Branch Officer and is contaminated by hazardous materials

A

Hot zone/Exclusion zone

261
Q

Zone at a hazmat incident where the Hazardous Materials Team Group is located and the Decontamination Group will be established

A

Warm zone/Contamination reduction zone

262
Q

Zone at a hazmat incident that contains the command post

A

Cold zone/Support zone

263
Q

Personnel assigned to Operations must have a minimum of ___ hours of training in hazmat procedures or have sufficient experience

A

24 hours

264
Q

All paramedics will be trained in hazmat to the ___ level

A

Technician level

265
Q

“3 UPS”

A

Uphill, Upwind, Upstream

266
Q

Hazmat Batt Chief shall designate a Hot Zone Safety Officer for Levels ___ and ___ incidents

A

Levels III and IV incidents

267
Q

Hazmat level defined as:

  • Small spill ≤ 55 gal
  • NFPA rating = 2-2-0 or lower
A

Hazmat Level I

268
Q

Hazmat level defined as:

  • Small spill that may cause injuries
  • Any chemical exposure that will require documentation
  • Large spill of NFPA 2-2-0 or lower
  • Fire involving hazmat of a significant quantity
A

Hazmat Level II

269
Q

Hazmat Branch will assign Hazmat team duties (5)

A
  • Establish a decontamination zone
  • Designate reference team
  • Establish zone boundaries
  • Establish entry teams
  • Establish a back up team
270
Q

Hazmat level defined as:
- Release of materials that has caused numerous injuries
- Release of materials in a congested area, possibility of injuries or environmental damage
- Release of materials with a moderate to high
Health hazard = 3 or 4
Flammability = 3 or 4
Reactivity = 1 - 4

A

Hazmat Level III

271
Q

Hazmat level defined as:

A hazmat emergency of community-wide significance

A

Hazmat Level IV

272
Q

Shall be notified on all hazmat Level II or higher incidents (5)

A
  • Deputy chief of Operations¿
  • Technical Operations Chief
  • Technical Officer
  • Duty Chief
  • Affected staff
273
Q

Responsible for assuming Hazmat Branch and for appointing a Hazmat Safety Officer

A

Battalion 2

274
Q

This Team shall:

  • Establish the Hot zone
  • Evacuate/rescue persons in critical danger
  • Identify materials involved
  • Confer with Hazmat Branch and use information to formulate an action plan
A

Hazmat Team

275
Q

Hazmat Safety Officer responsibilities (4)

A
  • Name and times kept on entry teams
  • Proper protective equipment being used
  • FWFD paramedics are monitoring the conditions of entry team members
  • Decon is properly set up and managed
276
Q

Primary objective of decontamination

A

To avoid contaminating anyone/anything beyond the decontamination zone

277
Q

Last step in resolving a hazmat incident

A

Debriefing affected emergency responders

278
Q

Activated when outside forces are required to support evacuation

A

EOC

279
Q

Activate the siren for ___ seconds then make an instructional announcement over the PA

A

10 seconds

280
Q

Responsible for the proper completion and disposition of the Hazardous Materials Incident Report from FD 715 or FD 726

A

Station 2 Hazmat Team officer

281
Q

Organizational level having functional and/or geographical responsibilities

A

Branch

282
Q

The organizational level with responsibility for major functional areas

A

Section

  • Operations
  • Logistics
  • Planing
  • Finance/Admin
283
Q

Utilized at incidents where the span of control with Divisions/Groups is maximized and/or incidents involving two or more distinctly different major management components

A

Branch Directors

284
Q

IC responsible for the following tactical objectives (3)

A
  • Life safety
  • Incident stabilization
  • Property conservation
285
Q

The first arriving unit shall initiate command by giving an initial radio report; CAN CAR

A

Conditions
Actions
Needs

Command
Accountability
RIT

286
Q

Command options (3)

A
  • Nothing showing - Investigative Mode
  • Fast attack - Mobile Command Mode
  • Command Mode - Stationary Command post
287
Q

Officer assuming command shall

A

Communicate with the individual being relieved by radio or face-to-face (face to face is preferred)

288
Q

Individual being relieved should communicate the following to the officer assuming command (3)

A
  • General situation status
  • Deployment and assignments of on scene companies
  • A needs appraisal for additional resources
289
Q

Provides the most effective framework for command transfer

A

Tactical worksheet

290
Q
  • Strategic level
  • Coordination level
  • Tactical level
  • Task level
A
  • Strategic level = Incident Commander
  • Coordination level = Branch Directors
  • Tactical level = Division Supervisors
  • Task level = Companies
291
Q

Section functions (4)

A
  • Operations
  • Logistics
  • Planing
  • Finance/Admin
292
Q

Section responsible forecasting and obtaining future resource needs

A

Logistics section

293
Q

Section responsible for evaluating future resource requirements

A

Planing

294
Q

Section responsible for assigning units to Divisions/Branches

A

Operations

295
Q

High rise

A

Any building with 4 or more stories above the lowest FD access or in which complete evacuation is not practical due to height and/or configuration

296
Q

High rise packs (9)

A
  • One - 2 1/2” x 1 1/2” gated lightweight wye
  • One - 2 1/2” x 1 1/2” reducer fitting
  • One - 1 1/2” nozzle
  • 100’ of 1 3/4” hose
  • One - 12” pipe wrench
  • One roll of duct tape
  • Water thief
  • 6’ of 2 1/2” hose
297
Q

Minimum of 2 companies who’s primary goal is to locate and extinguish the fire

A

Suppression Group

298
Q

Keyed switch inside an elevator; places elevator in Phase II operation

A

Emergency Operations Switch

299
Q

Should met with building reps in they area to pre-plan responses/actions (3)

A
  • Battalion chiefs
  • Company officers
  • Bureau of Fire Prevention
300
Q

High rise response to automatic alarm (3)

A
  • 1 Battalion Chief
  • 1 Truck/quint
  • 2 Engines
301
Q

Rice response to a report of fire

A
  • 2 Battalion Chiefs
  • 2 Trucks/Quints
  • 4 Engines
  • Squad 2 or a fifth engine
302
Q

A quints assignment upon arrival at a high rise alarm will be dictated by their sequence of arrival

A

.

303
Q

Upon confirmation of a working fire in a high rise FAO shall dispatch (4)

A
  • Second alarm
  • Safety officer
  • Shift Deputy Chief
  • All but one Battalion Chief
304
Q

First alarm objectives at a high rise fire (7)

A
  • Suppression
  • Water supply
  • Lobby
  • Rapid intervention
  • Resource
  • Floors above
  • Command
305
Q

First company on scene (3)

A
  • Secure elevator keys
  • Recall elevators
  • Meet with next appropriate company to for suppression group
306
Q

First on engine and quint/truck shall form the

A

Suppression group

307
Q

First truck/quint engineer to establish

A

Lobby Division

308
Q

If smoke is confirmed, Suppression Group Supervisor becomes

A

Division Supervisor

309
Q

Second on Truck

A

Assumes/establishes Lobby Division

310
Q

Second on scene engine (4)

A
  • Establish water supply
  • Locate sprinkler standpipe and supply standpipe (200’ away)
  • Check standpipe from lobby to floor below fire
  • Report to Resource Division
311
Q

Third on scene engine (4)

A
  • Establish Resource Division (2 floors below)
  • Establish/maintain accountability for companies assigned to Resource
  • Advise Command and/or Logistics when resources fall below designated levels
  • Assign crew duties as requested by Command
312
Q

Fourth on scene engine (3)

A
  • Establish Floors Above Group
  • Search floors above
  • Communicate CAN to Command
313
Q

Squad 2/fifth engine on scene (2)

A
  • Establish RIT

- Position in Resource Division

314
Q

First on scene Battalion Chief (2)

A
  • Assumes Command (outside a 200” area)

- Establish a 200’ parameter around entire structure

315
Q

Refuge and Treatment location (rehab)

A

2 or 3 floors below

316
Q

First engine of second alarm

A

Staging Supervisor

317
Q

Staging supervisor reports to

A

Logistics

318
Q

High rise Safety Officer must be knowledgable of (4)

A
  • Building construction
  • Effects of fire on certain types of construction
  • Firefighting tactics
  • Command procedures
319
Q

No FWFD personnel may enter or exit the incident without

A

Reporting to Lobby or appropriate accountability officer

320
Q

Accountability shall be established and maintained at each

A

Division

321
Q

This will indicate priority areas for search within a high rise after hours

A

Log book used by building security

322
Q

Elevatore used for evacuation must be approved by a

A

Division/Group Supervisor and operated by a FF

323
Q

Personnel should not use the elevator if (4)

A
  • Fire is on or reported below the 5th floor
  • Does not have FF controls
  • Has visible smoke or water
  • Has a history of problems
324
Q

A flashing firefighter helmet on the control panel indicates

A

An imminent shunt trip

325
Q

Never stop an elevator by using the ..

A

Elevator stop button

326
Q

To stop an elevator while in Phase II use the

A

Call Cancel button

327
Q

To hold an elevator at a certain floor

A

Turn the key to the HOLD position

328
Q

Ventilation must be started …

A

At the top floor

329
Q

4 types of standpipe systems

A
  • Wet
  • Dry
  • Wet combination
  • Automatic Sprinkler and standpipe combination
330
Q

Standpipes configuration in modern high-rise

A

2 1/2” connection in stairway at each landing and a 1 1/2” connection in hallways with 1 1/2” unlined hose

331
Q

FD standpipe line shall be (2)

A
  • 2 1/2” lined hose

- 1 3/4” lined hose

332
Q

Initial pumping pressure to FDC should be

A

150 psi (boosted to 200 psi if fire is obvious)

333
Q

Should not be used on standpipe lines

A

Automatic nozzles

334
Q

Basic communications resources typically available at high-rise fires (5)

A
  • FD radios
  • Public service telephones
  • In-building telephone system
  • Public address system
  • Cell phones
335
Q

All Suppression Group Passports will be left on first arriving engine and the ___ shall collect the Suppression Groups Passports before establishing Lobby Division

A

Second arriving Truck

336
Q

___ arriving engine company shall carry the Suppression Groups Passports (along with their own) to an area 2 floors below the fire and establish Resource Division

A

Third arriving engine

337
Q

Hydrant shall be inspected annually between

A

March 1st and November 30th

338
Q

The coordination point for hydrant inspections

A

Water Resource Officer

339
Q

Assigne new and/or repaired hydrant inspections

A

Water Resource Officer

340
Q

Hydrant testing should be done between these times

A

8am - 5 pm; M-F (excluding downtown companies)

341
Q

Downtown hydrants inspected on

A

Sunday

342
Q

Hydrant inspection schedule:

  • South
  • North/Downtown
  • East
  • West/Southwest
A
  • South = March 1 - April 15
  • North/Downtown = April 16 - May 31
  • East = Sept 1 - Oct 15
  • West/Southwest = Oct 16 - Nov 30
343
Q

Operating a power saw above chest height shall only be conducted

A

Under direct order and under supervision of officer

344
Q

SCBA includes (5)

A
  • Face piece
  • Regulator
  • PASS
  • Voice amplifier
  • Cylinder and harness
345
Q

SCBA cylinders with less than __ psi must be filled or replaced

A

4000 psi

346
Q

High pressure hose coupling should be

A

Hand tight

347
Q

All fire companies will inspect extra cylinders monthly to ensure a minimum pressure of ___ psi and the ___ date is correct

A
  • 4000 psi

- hydrostatic date

348
Q

Hydrostatic test intervals:

  • Kevlar wrapped
  • Carbon fiber
A
  • Kevlar wrapped = 3 year

- Carbon fiber = 5 year

349
Q

Level I staging

A

Automatically applies to multi unit response (3 or more companies)

350
Q

Acknowledge arrival at Level II staging area via

A

MDC

351
Q

Staging Officer (first officer on scene of second alarm) will communicate with

A

Command or Logistics if set up

352
Q

Hold shall be put on vehicles that are 95)

A
  • Part of a crime scene
  • Product of a crime
  • Subject to impound under state law
  • Search warrant is anticipated
  • Subject to seizure under state/federal law
353
Q

No vehicle holds shall be continued after

A

Final disposition

354
Q

Common hazard associated with drug labs (6)

A
  • Flammable, toxic, explosive atmospheres
  • Water reactive, pyrophoric, shock sensitive
  • Leaking or damaged chemical containers
  • Electrical hazards
  • Chemical reactions
  • Booby traps
355
Q

Appropriate action when issuing a parking citation (3)

A
  • Request driver move vehicle
  • Issue a citation
  • Issue a citation and have vehicle towed (does not apply to handicap parking violation)
356
Q

When issuing a parking citation the fire company must provide the report number to the wrecker driver

A

Entered in the “Service Number” space on the Wrecker Selection and Property Form

357
Q

Fire lane violations are coded as

A

05

358
Q

Obstruction of fire plug violations are coded as

A

10

359
Q

Yellow copy of the citation goes to

A

Violator

360
Q

White and pink copies of the violation goes to

A

Fire Prevention Bureau

361
Q

Considered a priority for the FWFD

A

Physical fitness

362
Q

Consider fitness training as

A

Suppression training

363
Q

Main objective of the physical fitness program

A

Lessen the frequency and severity of employee injuries

364
Q

40 hour personnel are allowed ___ minutes of physical fitness per day

A

30 min

365
Q

Designates Board positions and coordinates the Accident Review and Safety Board meetings

A

Safety Officer

366
Q

Composition of the Accident Review and Safety Board (5)

A
  • Chairperson
  • Vice-Chairperson
  • Investigator/recorder
  • Other members as assigned by the Fire Chief
  • 440 shall have one appointment to the board
367
Q

Where crews must operate from opposing or conflicting positions

A

Radio or face-to-face communications shall be used to coordinate actions

368
Q

Retains the responsibility for personnel safety

A

IC

369
Q

Major reason for the implementation of an incident management system

A

Safety of firefighting personnel

370
Q

Group supervisors must maintain he capability of communicating with forces under their command to control both ___ and ___ of assuaged companies

A

position and funcrion

371
Q

Hazards affecting only a specific Division or Group will be dealt with within that area and not necessarily affect the entire operation

A

.

372
Q

A ladder shall be extended ___ to ___ rungs above the roof line

A

2 to 3 rungs

373
Q

A leading cause of serious injury and death to firefighters

A

Structural collapse

374
Q

In a typical fire involved building this is the most likely candidate for collapse

A

roof

375
Q

Telltale signs of collapse (6)

A
  • Cracks in exterior walls
  • Bulges in exterior walls
  • Sounds of structural movement
  • Smoke or water leaking through walls
  • Flexible movement of any floor or roof
  • Interior or exterior bearing walls or columns twisting, leaning, or flexing
376
Q

Structures other than fire protected or heavy timber can be expected to fail after ___ minutes of heavy fire involvement

A

20 minutes

377
Q

After ___ to __ minutes of interior operations the IC should initiate a careful evaluation of structural conditions

A

10 to 15 minutes

378
Q

When conditions become untenable (4)

A
  • Evacuate
  • Regroupe
  • Re-communicate
  • Redeploy
379
Q

If search personnel are searching without a hoseline, ___ must be used when encountering conditions of limited visibility

A

Lifelines

380
Q

Passport system measurements:

  • Name tag
  • Passport
  • Status board
A
  • Name tag = 3/4” x 2 1/2”
  • Passport = 3” x 4”
  • Status board = 8” x 11”
381
Q

Minimum crew size

A

2, with radios

382
Q

First engine to each geographical side of an incident becomes the initial accountability location

A

Passports of the first engine to each geographic side of the incident will remain with the apparatus

383
Q

FAO will alert the IC at ___ minute intervals until the operations changes from offensive to defensive or until the fee is declared under control

A

15 minute intervals

384
Q

PAR shall be initiated by the IC if (4)

A
  • Report of a missing or trapped FF
  • Change from offensive to defensive
  • Sudden hazardous event at the incident
  • Determined necessary by command
385
Q

Passport accountability shall be maintained through to ___ at which time a PAR for all crews should be obtained

A

“fire under control”

386
Q

Best defense when responding to scenes of reported violence

A

Following proper procedure

387
Q

Second apparatus dispatched to scene of reported violence should

A

Stage until given instructions by on scene company

388
Q

Before responding too a call of reported violence the officer should

A

Don protective equipment, bunker coat/pants, and helmet

389
Q

Vehicle specifically designed for FF rehab with seating up to 10 -12

A

Rehab vehicle

390
Q

Rehab located ___ floors below a fire in high rise fire

A

2 floors below

391
Q

FF sent to rehab after using ___ 30 min bottles or ___ 45 to 60 min bottle

A
  • Two 30 min bottles

- One 45 to 60 min bottle

392
Q

Rehab Unit Leader or Group Supervisor

A

Usually EMS 99

- assigned under logistics

393
Q

If a F heart rate exceeds ___ bpm and oral temp will be taken

A

110 bpm

394
Q

If the FF oral temp exceeds ___ degrees then he is not permitted to wear protective clothing and not allowed to return to work until HR and temp return to normal

A

100.4ºF

395
Q

A sustained HR of greater than ___ after 20 minutes of rest FF should remain in Rehab and transport to a medical facility should be considered

A

100

396
Q

FF with a BP greater than ___ systolic and or greater than ___ diastolic should not be released from rehab and transport should be considered

A
  • 160 Systolic

- 100 Diastolic

397
Q

If units are engage for ___ or more hours, arrangements should be made for food and toilets

A

3 or more hours

398
Q

In hot and humid conditions a min of ___ minutes, ___ minutes is preferred, of active cooling shall be applied following the use of the second and each subsequent SCBA bottle

A

10 minutes, 20 minutes is preferred

399
Q

Personel experiencing chest pain, shortness of breath, dizziness, or nausea shall

A

Be transported to a medical facility immediately

400
Q

Station personnel contacted by any organization wanting to make a donation should direct the organization to

A

Fire Administration Senior Administrative Assistant or Management Analyst

401
Q

Resident reporting location of used hypodermic needles should be directed to

A
  • CFW Environmental Management Division

- City staff is not allowed to go on private property to collect needles

402
Q

Pharmacy must have ____ to dispense the prescription at no cost

A

Authorization

403
Q

Fire department is organized around 4 divisions

A
  • Administrative Services
  • Executive Services
  • Operations
  • Educational and Support Services
404
Q

FD division over:

Information technology

A

Administrative Services

405
Q

FD division over:

Engineering Section

A

Executive Services

406
Q

FD division over:

Building Maintenance

A

Operations

407
Q

FD division over:

Special Projects

A

Operations

408
Q

FD division over:

Fiscal Services

A

Administrative Services

409
Q

FD division over:

Vehicle Services

A

Educational and Support Services

410
Q

FD division over:

EMS

A

Educational and Support Services

411
Q

Initial dollar amount for items when reporting stolen, destroyed, auctioned, traded or transferred

A

≥ $250

412
Q

Removal of any city-owned property assigned to the FD for any reason must be reported to the department’s ..

A

Fixed Assets Coordinator in Fire Administration

413
Q

Personnel are scheduled to work on a normal class day they should make prior arrangements in the following order of priority:

  • 56 hr (4)
  • 40 hr (2)
A 
- 56 hr
   \+ Attend same class on a different day
   \+ Use exchange of time
   \+ Use vacation
   \+ Use comp time

-40 hr
+ Use comp time
+ Use vacation time

414
Q

Mailbags are delivered

A

Biweekly, payday Friday

415
Q

BCs pick up mailbags from the Shift Tech on

A

Thursday afternoon and are due back by 1000 Monday

416
Q

Must be hand delivered or picked up at Admn (5)

A
  • Expense Report Form
  • Travel Authorization and Advance Request
  • Payroll deduction
  • W4 Forms
  • Direct Deposit changes
417
Q

Target audience of Vial of Life (3)

A
  • Elderly
  • Disabled
  • Infirm
418
Q

Vial contains (3)

A
  • 2 stickers
  • Magnet
  • Medical information form
419
Q

Officer must complete this form after the issuance of each vial

A

FD 850

420
Q

Viles of Life are purchased and assembled through the

A

Emergency Medical Unit

421
Q

Coordinates the departments research and development program

A

Technical Operations Chief

422
Q

Develops SOPs and policies for technical operations and Operations Division

A

Technical Operations Chief

423
Q

Situations as prime indicators for requesting Helicopter support (8)

A
  • Congested traffic
  • Extended extrication ( > 10-15 min)
  • Patient inaccessibility
  • Extended travel time
  • Level of patient care needed and available at appropriate receiving facility
  • Multiple casualty incidents
  • Higher level of care needed
  • Depleted ground transportation resources
424
Q

From initiation of Stand-by then alert-go, helicopter requires ___ min preparation to launch

A

2 min

425
Q

Once launched the helicopter can only be canceled by (2)

A
  • Initiating official/agency

- Senior medical paramedic on scene

426
Q

Must be notified anytime a boiler explodes

A

Texas Department of Licensing and Regulation

427
Q

The following info must be provided to the FAO after a boiler explosion (3)

A
  • Business name
  • Address
  • Boiler brand, type, capacity, etc.
428
Q

Project Safe Place is sponsored by

A

Bridge Emergency Youth Services

429
Q

Role of the FD in Project Safe Place

A

Act as a link between the troubled person and the Bridge staff

430
Q

The value of contents

A

50% of the TAD value

431
Q

Fire Saves Report categories (3)

A
  • Highly probable
  • Probable
  • Possible
432
Q

Estimated losses are determined by

A
  • Fire officers
  • Investigators
  • IC
433
Q

Goals of determining fire save values (3)

A
  • Credible estimates
  • Public consideration from fire loss to fire department effectiveness
  • Measure the vale of adopted codes, ordinances, SOPs
434
Q

The key in determining fire saves

A

How a fire would have extended had the FD not intervened

435
Q

Station inspection date and times are available through the

A

Master Scheduler

436
Q

Inspection checklist details 4 main areas

A
  • Facilities
  • Equipment
  • Personnel
  • Station Administration
437
Q

Station inspection ratting and subsequent scores

  • Exemplary
  • Excellent
  • Good
  • Acceptable
  • Unacceptable
A
  • Exemplary = 4
  • Excellent = 3
  • Good = 2
  • Acceptable = 1
  • Unacceptable = 0
438
Q

Hugely fitness ratings (6)

A
  • Superior
  • Excellent
  • Good
  • Fair
  • Poor
  • Very poor
439
Q

Requires a level of personal conduct well above reproach

A

High visibility if the FWFD

440
Q

Disregard of professional responsibility, written or verbal commands

A

Neglect of duty

441
Q

Occurring on-duty and outside the course and scope of employment

A

High risk activity

442
Q

Harassment based on (8)

A
  • Sex
  • Color
  • Religion
  • National origin
  • Age
  • Disability
443
Q

Stations are likely to have people who come there to (3)

A
  • Conduct city business
  • Visit station personnel
  • Request assistance
444
Q

Chain of command (8)

A
  • Fire Chief
  • Assistant Chief
  • Deputy Chief
  • Battalion Chief
  • Captain
  • Lieutenant
  • Engineer
  • Firefighter
445
Q

Smoking is permitted in (2)

A
  • Fire stations

- Building under long-term lease

446
Q

Deputies shall ensure no smoking signs are placed at the entrances to each fire station and they will have the universal “no smoking symbol” and read (4)

A
  • “No Smoking”
  • ‘No Smoking, City Code Section 29.5-4”
  • “No Smoking Except in Designated Areas”
  • “Spoking is Prohibited in This Building”
447
Q

Hair will not completely cover the ears or extend below the bottom of the collar

A

.

448
Q

Mustache shall not extend more than ___ inches beyond the edges or below the mouth and the top must be visible

A

3/4”

449
Q

Non-operational personnel may wear ___in each ear lobe

A

1 small stud

450
Q

Employees must report to immediate supervisor within ___ hrs all vehicle collisions, arrests, pending judgements, convictions, revocation/suspension/withdrawal/denial of license, requirement of interlocking device on vehicle

A

72 hours

451
Q

Responsible for the safe and prudent operation of the apparatus and for the safety of all passengers in the apparatus

A

Company officer and driver

452
Q

When driving on slippery pavement, water, ice, or other conditions

A

Not to exceed the posted speed limit

453
Q

When backing in diminished visibility backer is equipped with

A

Helmet and flashlight

454
Q

Firearms are not to be carried anywhere while on duty unless approved to do so by (2)

A
  • Fire Chief

- City Manager

455
Q

Entity with the right to control the worker at the time of the accident

A

Employer

Lieutenants exam (7 decks)

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