Haz Mat Flashcards
Operations at hazardous material incidents have different levels of incidents. A Level 1 incident would be which the following:
A. A major motor vehicle accident involving a spill.
B. Break or rupture of domestic natural gas lines to a house.
C. Rupture of high-pressure domestic natural gas line.
D. A fire that is posing a serious BLEVE threat.
A. A major motor vehicle accident involving a spill. (Level 2)
C. Rupture of high-pressure domestic natural gas line. (Level 2?)
D. A fire that is posing a serious BLEVE threat. (Level 2)
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
Level ___ - This type of incident is within the capabilities of the fire or emergency services organization or other first responders having jurisdiction. It is the least serious and easiest to handle. It may pose a serious threat to life or property, although this situation is not usually the case. Evacuation (if required) is limited to the immediate area of the incident.
Level 1
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
Level ___ - This type of incident is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene and maybe beyond the capabilities of the first response agency/ organization having jurisdiction. These incidents may require the services of a formal hazmat response team.
Level 2
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
Level ___ - This type of incident requires resources from state agencies, federal agencies and/or private industry and also requires unified command. These incidents are the most serious of all hazardous material incidents. A large-scale evacuation may be required. Most likely, the incident will not be concluded by any one agency; rather, successful handling of the incident requires a collective effort from several resources/ procedures.
Level 3
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Small amount of gasoline or diesel fuel spilled from an automobile.
Level 1
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Leak from domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter.
Level 1
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Broken containers of consumer commodities such as paint, thinners, bleach, swimming pool chemicals, and fertilizer (owner or proprietor is responsible for cleanup and disposal).
Level 1
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Spill or leak requiring limited-scale evacuation.
Level 2
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Any major accident, spillage, or overflow of flammable liquids.
Level 2
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Spill or leak of unfamiliar or unknown chemicals.
Level 2
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Accident involving extremely hazardous substances.
Level 2
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Rupture of an underground pipeline.
Level 2
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Fire that is posing a BLEVE (boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion) threat in a storage tank.
Level 2
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Incidents that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries.
Level 3
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Incidents beyond the capabilities of the local hazardous material response team.
Level 3
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Incidents that activate (in part or in whole) the federal response plan.
Level 3
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Use chemical protective clothing.
Level 2
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Dike and confine within the contaminated areas.
Level 2
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Perform plunging, patching, and basically control activities.
Level 2
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Sample and test unknown substances.
Level 2
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Perform various levels of decontamination.
Level 2
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Specialists from industry and governmental agencies.
Level 3
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Sophisticated sampling and monitoring equipment.
Level 3
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Specialized leak and spill control techniques.
Level 3
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Decontamination on a large scale.
Level 3
Incident Levels:
Level ___ incidents includes small fuel spills.
Level 1
Incident Levels:
A hazmat team might be needed to conduct offensive operations at a Level ___ incident.
Level 2
Incident Levels:
Level ___ incidents will likely involve unified command, multiple agencies, and a lengthy mitigation period.
Level 3
Incident Levels:
The following are examples of Level 1 incidents… the exception is:
A. Spill or leak requiring limited-scale evacuation.
B. Small amount of gasoline or diesel fuel spilled from an automobile.
C. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter.
D. Broken containers of consumer commodities such as paint, thinners, bleach, swimming pool chemicals, and fertilizers.
A. Spill or leak requiring limited-scale evacuation. (FALSE - Level 2)
Incident Levels:
The following are examples of Level 2 incidents… the exception is:
A. Spill or leak requiring limited-scale evacuation.
B. Any major accident, spillage, or overflow flammable liquids.
C. Spill or leak of unfamiliar or unknown chemicals.
D. Accident involving extremely hazardous substances.
E. Rupture of an underground pipeline.
F. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat in a storage tank.
G. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the customer side of the meter.
G. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the customer side of the meter. (FALSE - Level 1)
Incident Levels:
The following are examples of Level 3 incidents… the exception is:
A. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat in a storage tank.
B. Incidents that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries.
C. Incidents beyond the capabilities of the local hazardous materials response team.
D. Incidents that activate (in part or in whole) the federal response plan.
A. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat in a storage tank. (FALSE - Level 2)
Incident Levels:
Level 2 incidents may require the services of a formal hazmat response team. A properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following tasks… the exception is:
A. Use chemical protective clothing.
B. Dike and confine within the contaminated areas.
C. Perform plunging, patching, and basically control activities.
D. Sample and test unknown substances.
E. Specialized leak and spill control techniques.
F. Perform various levels of decontamination.
E. Specialized leak and spill control techniques. (FALSE - Level 3)
Incident Levels:
A Level 3 incident is the most serious of all hazardous material incidents. Successful handling of the incident requires a collective effort from several of the following resources/procedures… the exception is:
A. Specialists from industry and governmental agencies.
B. Sophisticated sampling and monitoring equipment.
C. Specialized leak and spill control techniques.
D. Decontamination on a large scale.
E. Sampling and testing of unknown substances.
E. Sampling and testing of unknown substances. (FALSE - Level 2)
Unfortunately, there are no clues as to when tank rupture will occur. However, there are some warning signs that indicate to first responders a worsening situation. A _____ sound occurs when metal has been softened by high heat and pressure is stretching the metal.
A. Whistling. C. Pinging.
B. Rumbling. D. Hissing.
C. Pinging.
Which of the following is least true in regards to a waybill.
A. Waybills are carried by the conductor.
B. There is a waybill for each car.
C. Waybills indicate the origin, destination, route and product.
D. The waybill lists the cars in the train in order.
D. The waybill lists the cars in the train in order. (FALSE)
Shipping Paper Identification:
If the Transportation Mode is by AIR:
1.) The _____ is the Shipping Paper Name.
2.) The _____ is the Location of Papers.
&
3.) The _____ would be the Party Responsible.
- ) Air Bill
- ) Cockpit
- ) Pilot
Shipping Paper Identification:
If the Transportation Mode is by HIGHWAY:
1.) The _____ is the Shipping Paper Name.
2.) The _____ is the Location of Papers.
&
3.) The _____ would be the Party Responsible.
- ) Bill of Landing
- ) Vehicle Cab
- ) Driver
Shipping Paper Identification:
If the Transportation Mode is by RAIL:
1.) The _____ is the Shipping Paper Name.
2.) The _____ is the Location of Papers.
&
3.) The _____ would be the Party Responsible.
- ) Trainlist/Consist
- ) Engine (or Caboose)
- ) Conductor
Shipping Paper Identification:
If the Transportation Mode is by WATER:
1.) The _____ is the Shipping Paper Name.
2.) The _____ is the Location of Papers.
&
3.) The _____ would be the Party Responsible.
- ) Dangerous Cargo Manifest
- ) Bridge or Pilot House
- ) Captain or Master
Shipping Papers:
_____ (aka _____) - Shipping paper used by the trucking industry (and others) indicating origin, destination, route, and product; placed in the cab of every truck tractor. This document establishes the terms of a contract between shippers and transportation companies; serves as a document of title, contract of carriage, and receipt for goods.
Bill of Landing (aka Waybill)
Which of the following is a Class A explosive:
A. Blasting caps.
B. Flash powder.
C. Special fireworks.
D. Small arms ammunition.
A. Blasting caps.
Classification of Explosives:
HIGH explosives decompose extremely rapidly (almost instantaneously), which is normally called detonation. In other words, high explosives detonate (explode). Simply put, high explosives have detonation velocities that are faster than the speed of sound. Examples of commercially available high explosives include… the exception is:
A. Plastic explosives. B. Fireworks. C. Nitroglycerin. D. TNT/Dynamite. E. Blasting caps. F. Ammonium nitrate and fuel oil (ANFO) and other blasting agents.
B. Fireworks. (FALSE - Low explosive)
Classification of Explosives:
LOW Explosives decompose rapidly but do not produce an explosive effect unless they are confined; rather, they deflagrate (burn rapidly). Low explosives confined in small spaces or containers are commonly used as propellants. Unconfined low explosives may also be considered incendiary materials. The following are examples of low explosives the exception is:
A. Black powder. B. Flash powder. C. Bullets. D. Fireworks. E. Blasting caps. G. Road flares.
E. Blasting caps. (FALSE - High explosive)
Color cannot be used for product identification with rail cars but a white cars with red stripes, one horizontally around the car and two vertically, three feet from each end always hydrogen cyanide or _____ .
A. Ethylene.
B. Chlorine.
C. Acrolien.
D. Hydrocyanic acid.
D. Hydrocyanic acid.
Color cannot be used for product identification with rail cars but a white cars with red stripes, one horizontally around the car and two vertically, three feet from each end always hydrocyanic acid or _____ .
A. Ethylene.
B. Chlorine.
C. Acrolien.
D. Hydrogen cyanide.
D. Hydrogen cyanide.
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds that are different colors. The diamond that is colored “yellow” indicates which of the following?
A. Health.
B. Special information.
C. Flammability.
D. Instability.
D. Instability.
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds that are different colors. The diamond that is colored “blue” indicates which of the following?
A. Health.
B. Special information.
C. Flammability.
D. Instability.
A. Health.
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds that are different colors. The diamond that is colored “red” indicates which of the following?
A. Health.
B. Special information.
C. Flammability.
D. Instability.
C. Flammability.
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds that are different colors. The diamond that is in the six o’clock position (has no specified background color but is usually “white”)indicates which of the following?
A. Health.
B. Special information.
C. Flammability.
D. Instability.
B. Special information. (Special hazards)
The NFPA 704 System:
Special hazards are located in the 6 o’clock position and have no specified background color; however, white is most commonly used. Only two special hazard symbols are presently authorized for use in this position by the NFPA: The symbol that is a capital W with a horizontal line through it indicates an unusual:
reactivity to water.
The NFPA 704 System:
Special hazards are located in the 6 o’clock position and have no specified background color; however, white is most commonly used. Only two special hazard symbols are presently authorized for use in this position by the NFPA: the OX symbol indicates that the material is an _____ .
Oxidizer.
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Health (Blue) rating of 0 indicates:
A. Severe hazard B. Serious hazard C. Moderate hazard D. Slight hazard E. Minimal hazard
E. Minimal hazard
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Health (Blue) rating of 1 indicates:
A. Severe hazard B. Serious hazard C. Moderate hazard D. Slight hazard E. Minimal hazard
D. Slight hazard
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Health (Blue) rating of 2 indicates:
A. Severe hazard B. Serious hazard C. Moderate hazard D. Slight hazard E. Minimal hazard
C. Moderate hazard
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Health (Blue) rating of 3 indicates:
A. Severe hazard B. Serious hazard C. Moderate hazard D. Slight hazard E. Minimal hazard
B. Serious hazard
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Health (Blue) rating of 4 indicates:
A. Severe hazard B. Serious hazard C. Moderate hazard D. Slight hazard E. Minimal hazard
A. Severe hazard
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Flammability (red) rating of 0 indicates:
A. Flammable gases, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials B. Ignites at ambient temperatures C. Ignites when moderately heated D. Must be preheated to burn E. Will not burn
E. Will not burn
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Flammability (red) rating of 1 indicates:
A. Flammable gases, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials B. Ignites at ambient temperatures C. Ignites when moderately heated D. Must be preheated to burn E. Will not burn
D. Must be preheated to burn
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Flammability (red) rating of 2 indicates:
A. Flammable gases, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials B. Ignites at ambient temperatures C. Ignites when moderately heated D. Must be preheated to burn E. Will not burn
C. Ignites when moderately heated
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Flammability (red) rating of 3 indicates:
A. Flammable gases, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials B. Ignites at ambient temperatures C. Ignites when moderately heated D. Must be preheated to burn E. Will not burn
B. Ignites at ambient temperatures
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Flammability (red) rating of 4 indicates:
A. Flammable gases, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials B. Ignites at ambient temperatures C. Ignites when moderately heated D. Must be preheated to burn E. Will not burn
A. Flammable gases, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Instability (yellow) rating of 0 indicates:
A. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition at ambient conditions
B. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition with strong initiating source
C. Violent chemical change possible at elevated temperature and pressure
D. Normally stable, but becomes unstable if heated
E. Normally stable
E. Normally stable
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Instability (yellow) rating of 1 indicates:
A. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition at ambient conditions
B. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition with strong initiating source
C. Violent chemical change possible at elevated temperature and pressure
D. Normally stable, but becomes unstable if heated
E. Normally stable
D. Normally stable, but becomes unstable if heated
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Instability (yellow) rating of 2 indicates:
A. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition at ambient conditions
B. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition with strong initiating source
C. Violent chemical change possible at elevated temperature and pressure
D. Normally stable, but becomes unstable if heated
E. Normally stable
C. Violent chemical change possible at elevated temperature and pressure
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Instability (yellow) rating of 3 indicates:
A. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition at ambient conditions
B. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition with strong initiating source
C. Violent chemical change possible at elevated temperature and pressure
D. Normally stable, but becomes unstable if heated
E. Normally stable
B. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition with strong initiating source
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Instability (yellow) rating of 4 indicates:
A. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition at ambient conditions
B. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition with strong initiating source
C. Violent chemical change possible at elevated temperature and pressure
D. Normally stable, but becomes unstable if heated
E. Normally stable
A. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition at ambient conditions
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds. The diamond that is located in the 9 o’clock position is what color:
A. Blue (Health)
B. Red (Flammability)
C. Yellow (Instability)
D. White (Special hazard)
A. Blue (Health)
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds. The diamond that is located in the 12 o’clock position is what color:
A. Blue (Health)
B. Red (Flammability)
C. Yellow (Instability)
D. White (Special hazard)
B. Red (Flammability)
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds. The diamond that is located in the 3 o’clock position is what color:
A. Blue (Health)
B. Red (Flammability)
C. Yellow (Instability)
D. White (Special hazard)
C. Yellow (Instability)
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds. The diamond that is located in the 6 o’clock position is what color:
A. Blue (Health)
B. Red (Flammability)
C. Yellow (Instability)
D. White (Special hazard)
D. White (Special hazard)
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 System markings provide very useful information but the system does have its limitations. The following are TRUE regarding the NFPA 704 system limitations… the exception is:
A. Doesn’t tell exactly what chemical or chemicals may be present.
B. Doesn’t indicate specific quantities.
C. Tells exactly were hazardous materials may be located when the sign is used for a building, structure, or area (such as a storage yard).
D. Positive identification of the material needs to be made through other means such as container markings, employee information company records, and preincident surveys.
Doesn’t tell exactly were hazardous materials may be located when the sign is used for a building, structure, or area (such as a storage yard) rather than an individual container.
p. 134
Personnel who are trained and certified to the Awareness Level are individuals who, in the course of their normal duties, may be the first to arrive at or witness a hazmat/WMD incident. Individuals trained to the Awareness Level are expected to assume the following responsibilities when faced with an incident involving hazardous materials… the exception is:
A. Recognize the presence or potential presence of a hazardous material.
B. Recognize the type of container at the site and identify the material in it if possible.
C. Transmit information to an appropriate authority and call for appropriate assistance.
D. Identify actions to protect themselves and others from hazards.
E. Develop a defensive plan of action to address the problems presented by the incident (plan a response).
F. Establish scene control by isolating the hazardous area and denying entry.
E. Develop a defensive plan of action to address the problems presented by the incident (plan a response). (FALSE - Operations Level)
Responders who are trained and certified to the _____ Level are individuals who respond to releases (or potential releases) of hazardous materials as part of their normal duties. This responder is expected to protect individuals, the environment, and property from the effects of the release in a defensive manner.
Operations Level
The Operations Level is responsible for all Awareness Level responsibilities in addition to confining a release in a defensive fashion from a safe distance. First responders at the Operational Level must be able to perform the following actions… the exception is:
A. Identify hazardous material(s) involved in an incident if possible.
B. Analyze an incident to determine the nature and extent of the problem.
C. Protect themselves and nearby persons but not the environment or property from the effects of a release.
D. Develop a defensive plan of action to address the problem presented by the incident (plan a response).
E. Implement the planned response to mitigate or control a release from a safe distance (initiate defensive actions to lessen the harmful incident) and keep it from spreading.
F. Evaluate the progress of the actions taken to ensure that response objectives are safely met.
C. Protect themselves and nearby persons but not the environment or property from the effects of a release. (FALSE)
The correct statement: Protect themselves, nearby persons, the environment, and property from the effects of a release.
Limited Offensive Operations are allowed to Operations Level responders who have appropriate training, appropriate protective clothing, and adequate/appropriate resources. These responders can perform offensive operations involving flammable liquid and gas fire control of the following materials… the exception is:
A. Gasoline. B. Diesel fuel. C. Ammonia. D. Natural gas. E. Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG).
Gasoline, Diesel fuel, Natural gas, & Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) are the only 4 materials allowed for Operations Level responders to perform “Offensive” operations in flammable liquid and gas fire control.
Corrosives have different effects on the body depending on whether they are acidic or basic. A telltale sign of exposure to a bases is:
A. A sticky feeling of the skin.
B. A greasy or slick feeling of the skin.
C. Blurred or double vision.
D. Dizziness.
B. A greasy or slick feeling of the skin.
Corrosives are commonly divided into two broad categories - acids and bases. A telltale sign of exposure to an acid is… the exception is:
A. Immediate pain.
B. Chemical burns to flesh.
C. Burning sensation.
D. Greasy or slick feeling of the skin.
D. Greasy or slick feeling of the skin. (FALSE - Base)
Corrosives are commonly divided into two broad categories - acids and bases. Acids have pH values of 0 to 6.9. The following are examples of common acids… the exception is:
A. Hydrochloric acid.
B. Nitric acid.
C. Sulfuric acid.
D. Potassium hydroxide.
D. Potassium hydroxide. (FALSE - base)
Corrosives are commonly divided into two broad categories - acids and bases. Bases have pH values of 8-14. The following are examples of common bases… the exception is:
A. Caustic soda.
B. Potassium hydroxide.
C. Household drain cleaners.
D. Sulfuric acid.
D. Sulfuric acid. (FALSE- Acid)
Corrosives are commonly divided into two broad categories - acids and bases. _____ are any chemical that ionizes (breaks down) to yield hydrogen ions in water.
Acids
Corrosives are commonly divided into two broad categories - acids and bases. _____ are water-soluble compounds that break apart in water to form a negatively charged hydroxide ion.
Bases
Both acids and bases are called corrosives. However, some other terms often used interchangeably for the word “base” are… the exception is:
A. Caustic.
B. Alkali.
C. Alkaline.
D. Neutral.
A pH of 7 on the pH Scale is considered neutral (distilled water).
Using on next or leather gloves to handle contaminated hoseline can cause exposure in minutes, particularly if:
A. The gloves have been used before.
B. The gloves are damaged.
C. The gloves are wet.
D. The gloves are new.
B. The gloves are damaged.
Hazardous materials are best identified before they are released from containers. Much of the first responders hazardous materials identification training can be accomplished through _____ .
A. Having local high school students from the chemistry class teach the men.
B. Researching the subject at the local library.
C. Tours of fixed facilities.
D. Local college courses.
C. Tours of fixed facilities.
Corrosives have different effects on the body depending on whether they are acidic or basic. Acids will generally cause:
A. Pain on contact.
B. A greasy slick feeling of the skin.
C. Pain and a greasy slick feeling.
D. Greasy but not slick feeling.
A. Pain on contact.
Pyrophoric liquids can be best described as liquids that ignite spontaneously in dry or moist air at or below:
A. 130°F. B. 140°F.
C. 150°F. D. 250°F.
A. 130°F.
Some materials pass easily through areas of the body where the skin is the thinnest allowing the least resistance to penetration. One of these areas is:
A. Scalp. B. Groin.
C. Chest. D. Feet.
B. Groin.
Some hazardous materials pass easily through the mucous membranes or areas of the body where the skin is the thinnest, allowing the least resistance to penetration. The following list these areas of concern… the exception is:
A. Eyes. B. Ears. C. Nose. D. Mouth. E. Neck. F. Wrists. G. Hands. H. Groin. I. Feet.
I. Feet. (FALSE)
A through H are TRUE p.33
Regardless of the magnitude, all hazardous material incidents can be viewed as learning experiences. When should incidents be examined and analyzed:
A. When there are fatalities.
B. When there are multiple injuries.
C. After every injury.
D. After every response.
D. After every response.
The dangers of hazardous materials are toxicity, flammability, reactivity, decomposition. The least of concern is:
A. Toxicity.
B. Flammability.
C. Reactivity.
D. Decomposition.
D. Decomposition.
Fire entry suits are useful for such an operation as:
A. Entry in total flame environments.
B. Valve shutdowns and fire streams.
C. Entry in a steam atmosphere.
D. Where there is need for good mobility.
A. Entry in total flame environments.
High-Temperature Protective Clothing:
2 types: Proximity suits; Fire-entry suits
_____ suits - Permit close approach to fires for rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation activities such as in aircraft rescue and firefighting or other firefighting operations involving flammable liquids.
-Such suits provide greater heat protection than standard structural firefighting protective clothing.
Proximity suits
High-Temperature Protective Clothing:
2 types: Proximity suits; Fire-entry suits
_____ suits - Allow a person to work in total flame environments for short periods of time.
- Provide short duration and close proximity protection at radiant heat temperatures as high as 2000°F.
- Each suit has a specific use and it’s not interchangeable.
Fire-entry suits
The best solution for a working fire and a pesticide warehouse may be to:
A. Use only handle lines.
B. Use heavy stream appliances.
C. Use dry chemical.
D. Let it burn.
D. Let it burn.
The upper respiratory tract includes the nose, mouth, throat, layynx, pharynx, and trachea. Irritants that affect these areas are very soluble in water and easily removed. Of the following choices, the one that is not an upper respiratory tract irritant is:
A. Hydrochloric acid.
B. Hydrofluoric acid.
C. Ozone.
D. Sulfur dioxide.
C. Ozone. (Lower RT irritant)
No single type of Chemical-Protective Clothing (CPC) protects against all chemical hazards. _____ provide protection against acids, caustics, bases, and alcohol; they are NOT recommended for “ketones and most solvents”.
A. Butyl rubber.
B. Neoprene (polychoroprene).
C. Urethane (polyurethane/PUR).
D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
No single type of Chemical-Protective Clothing (CPC) protects against all chemical hazards. _____ provide resistance to highly corrosive acids, ketones, and esters; Protect well against bases, alcohols, etc… NOT recommend for “halogen compounds and hydrocarbons”.
A. Butyl rubber.
B. Neoprene (polychoroprene).
C. Urethane (polyurethane/PUR).
D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
A. Butyl rubber.
No single type of Chemical-Protective Clothing (CPC) protects against all chemical hazards. _____ provides the highest resistance to permeation of gases and water vapors.
A. Butyl rubber.
B. Neoprene (polychoroprene).
C. Urethane (polyurethane/PUR).
D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
A. Butyl rubber.
No single type of Chemical-Protective Clothing (CPC) protects against all chemical hazards. _____ provides protection against oils, acids, caustics, and solvents; but are the least cut resistant.
A. Butyl rubber.
B. Neoprene (polychoroprene).
C. Urethane (polyurethane/PUR).
D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
B. Neoprene (polychoroprene).
No single type of Chemical-Protective Clothing (CPC) protects against all chemical hazards. _____ resists bases, acids, alcohols, grease, and animal fats. NOT recommended for most types of “organic solvents”. Provide excellent cut resistance.
A. Butyl rubber.
B. Neoprene (polychoroprene).
C. Urethane (polyurethane/PUR).
D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
C. Urethane (polyurethane/PUR).
Combustible liquids are liquids with flash points between 100°F and 200°F. Of the following choices, which one is a combustible liquid?
A. Gasoline.
B. Alcohol.
C. Pine oil.
D. Parathion.
C. Pine oil.
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is “Flammable” or “Combustible”. Examples of Flammable liquids include… the exception is:
A. Gasoline.
B. Alcohol.
C. Acetone.
D. Plastic solvents.
D. Plastic solvents. (FALSE - Combustible Liquid)
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is “Flammable” or “Combustible”. Examples of Combustible liquids include… the exception is:
A. Gasoline. B. Fuel oil. C. Pine oil. D. Lubricating oils. E. Plastic solvents.
A. Gasoline. (FALSE - Flammable Liquid)
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is flammable or combustible. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) define a flammable liquid of having a flash point of ____ °F or less and labels these liquids as “____ ____”.
140°F
Ignitable Waste
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is flammable or combustible. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) define a flammable liquid of having a flashpoint less than ____°F.
100°F
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is flammable or combustible. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) define a combustible liquid of having a flashpoint of ____°F or greater.
100°F or greater.
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is flammable or combustible. The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) define a combustible liquid of having a flashpoint of ____°F or greater.
100°F or greater.
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is flammable or combustible. The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) define a flammable liquid of having a flashpoint of less than ____°F.
100°F
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is flammable or combustible. The Department of Transportation (DOT) define a combustible liquid of having a flashpoint between ___&___ °F.
141°F – 200°F
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is flammable or combustible. The Department of Transportation (DOT) define a flammable liquid of having a flash point of ____ °F or less.
100°F
There are two levels of first responders: first responder awareness and first responder operational. It is important to know understand the first responder’s role at each of these levels. Of the following choices, the responsibility which is not at the first responder level is:
A. Suspect or recognize the presence of a hazardous material.
B. Protect themselves.
C. Call for appropriate assistance.
D. Confining the release in a defensive fashion from a safe distance.
D. “Confining” the release in a defensive fashion from a safe distance.
(FALSE - “mitigate or control” a release in a defensive fashion from a safe distance.)
The flammable range is the percentage of the gas or vapor concentration in air that will burn if ignited. Above the flammable range:
A. There is too much fuel and too little oxygen.
B. There is too much oxygen and too little fuel.
C. There is too much fuel and too much oxygen.
D. There is too little fuel and too little oxygen.
A. There is too much fuel and too little oxygen.
Flammable, Explosive, or Combustible Range:
_____ - Lowest percentage of fuel/oxygen mixture required to support combustion. Any mixture with a lower percentage would be considered “too lean” to burn.
A. Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)
B. Upper Explosive Limit (UEL)
C. Combustible Range
D. Vapor Pressure
A. Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)
aka Lower Flammable Limit (LFL)
Flammable, Explosive, or Combustible Range:
_____ - Maximum concentration of vapor or gas and air that will allow combustion to occur. Concentrations above this are called “too rich” to burn.
A. Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)
B. Upper Explosive Limit (UEL)
C. Combustible Range
D. Vapor Pressure
B. Upper Explosive Limit (UEL)
aka Upper Flammable Limit (UFL)
Flammable, Explosive, or Combustible Range:
_____ - of a vapor or gas is the lowest concentration (or lowest percent of the substance and air) that will produce a flash of fire when an ignition source is present. At concentrations lower than this, the mixture is “too lean” to burn.
Lower explosive limit (LEL)
aka
Lower flammable limit (LFL)
Flammable, Explosive, or Combustible Range:
_____ - of a vapor or gas is the highest concentration (or highest percentage of the substance and air) that will produce a flash of fire when an ignition source is present. At higher concentrations, the mixture is “too rich” to burn.
Upper explosive limit (UEL)
aka
Upper flammable limit (UFL)
Vapor or gas concentration between the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL) and Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) will burn rapidly if ignited. These atmospheres are particularly dangerous.
A. Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)
B. Upper Explosive Limit (UEL)
C. Combustible Range
D. Vapor Pressure
C. Combustible Range (aka Flammable Range or Explosive Range)
Products with a very low LEL and products with a wide range between the LEL and UEL are:
A. Least dangerous.
B. Most dangerous.
C. Moderately dangerous.
D. Not dangerous.
B. Most dangerous.
The _____ is the temperature, usually only a few degrees below that which a fuel gives off enough vapors to support continuous burning.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
B. Flashpoint.
_____ - Same as the ignition temperature except that no external ignition source is required for ignition because the material itself has been heated to ignition temperature; temperature at which ignition occurs through the spontaneous ignition of the gases or vapors committed by a heated material.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
C. Autoignition temperature.
_____ - Minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near the surface of the liquid.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
B. Flashpoint.
_____ - is the minimum temperature at which a liquid or violent solid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface. At this temperature, the vapors will flash (in the presence of an ignition source) but will not continue to burn.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
B. Flashpoint.
_____ - is the temperature at which enough vapors are given off to support continuous burning. This temperature is usually only slightly higher than the flashpoint.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
A. Firepoint.
_____ - Temperature at which a liquid fuel produces sufficient vapors to support combustion once the fuel is ignited. This is usually a few degrees above the flashpoint.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
A. Firepoint.
The _____ of a substance is the minimum temperature to which the fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustained combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source. This temperature is the point at which a fuel spontaneously ignites.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
C. Autoignition temperature.
aka
Ignition Temperature or
Autoignition point
_____ - is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid is equal to or greater than atmospheric pressure. In other words, it is the temperature at which a liquid changes to a gas at a given pressure. Flammable materials with low _____ generally present special fire hazards.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
D. Boiling point.
_____ - Temperature of a substance when the vapor pressure equals or exceeds atmospheric pressure. At this temperature, the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation. At this point, more liquid is turning into gas and gas is turning back into a liquid.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
D. Boiling point.
A _____ can occur when a liquid in a container is heated to its boiling point. The expanding vapor inside the tank can increase the pressure to such a degree that the tank will fail catastrophically. Any compressed liquefied gas can do this, so there may not be a fireball.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. BLEVE
D. BLEVE
aka “violent rupture”
Water-soluble flammable liquids are known as polar solvents. Of the following choices, the most correct statement is:
A. Diluting a water-soluble flammable liquid such as a polar solvent with water, decreases the flammable liquids flashpoint.
B. Diluting with water decreases the volume of run off.
C. Diluting a water-soluble flammable liquid such as a polar solvent with water, increases the flammable liquids flashpoint.
D. A polar solvent mixes with a hydrocarbon liquid.
C. Diluting a water-soluble flammable liquid such as a polar solvent with water, increases the flammable liquids flashpoint.
Examples of non-water-soluble liquids,such as hydrocarbons, include… the exception is:
A. Gasoline
B. Diesel fuel
C. Alcohol
D. Pentane
C. Alcohol (FALSE - polar solvent)
Examples of water-soluble liquids, such as polar solvents, include… the exception is:
A. Alcohol
B. Methanol
C. Pentane
D. Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK)
C. Pentane (FALSE - hydrocarbon)
Which of the following materials are water reactive:
A. Lithium, magnesium powder, but not calcium carbide.
B. Lithium, calcium carbide, but not magnesium powder.
C. Magnesium powder, calcium carbide, but not lithium.
D. All of the above, lithium, magnesium powder, and calcium carbide.
D. All of the above, lithium, magnesium powder, and calcium carbide.
The following materials are water reactive… the exception is:
A. Sodium. B. Magnesium. C. Lithium. D. Potassium. E. Sodium peroxide. F. Carbides. G. Anhydrides. H. Calcium Chlorate.
H. Calcium Chlorate. ( FALSE - Strong Oxidizing Agent)
Alkali metals are Strong Reducing Agents and Water-Reactive. Alkali metals include… the exception is:
A. Sodium. B. Magnesium. C. Lithium. D. Potassium. E. Zinc.
E. Zinc. (FALSE)
Which of the following indications is a chemical reaction but not a physical reaction?
A. Splattering or boiling of unheated materials.
B. Rainbow sheen on water services.
C. Operation of pressure-relief devices.
D. Pinging or popping of heat exposed vessels.
A. Splattering or boiling of unheated materials.
Physical actions/reactions are processes that do not change the elemental composition of the material involved. Several indications of a physical action/reaction are as follows… the exception is:
A. Rainbow sheen on water surfaces.
B. Wavy vapors over a volatile liquid.
C. Frost or ice buildup near a leak.
D. Containers deformed by the force of an accident.
E. Activated pressure release devices.
F. Pinging or popping of heat exposed vessels.
G. Distinctively colored vapor clouds.
G. Distinctively colored vapor clouds. (FALSE - Chemical Reaction)
Chemical reactions convert one substance to another. Visual and sensory evidence of chemical reactions include the following… exception is:
A. Exothermic heat; unusual or unexpected temperature drop (from endothermic reaction).
B. Extraordinary fire conditions.
C. Peeling or discoloration of a containers finish.
D. Splattering or boiling of unheated materials.
E. Distinctively colored vapor clouds.
F. Smoking or self-igniting materials.
G. Activated pressure-relief devices.
H. Unexpected deterioration of equipment.
I. Particular smells.
J. Unexplained changes in ordinary materials.
K. Symptoms of chemical exposure.
G. Activated pressure-relief devices.
FALSE - Physical Reaction
You have a truck carrying hazardous materials which is involved in an accident. In the event a shipping paper is unavailable or the telephone number does not appear on the shipping paper, who should you contact?
A. DOT.
B. EPA.
C. CHEMTREC/CANUTEC.
D. CERCLA
C. CHEMTREC/CANUTEC.
In the US, several emergency response centers, such as the _____, are not government operated. _____ , for example, was established by the chemical industry as a public service hotline for firefighters, law-enforcement responders, and other emergency service responders to obtain information and assistance for emergency incidents involving chemicals and hazardous materials. These centers are staffed with experts who can provide 24-hour assistance to emergency responders dealing with hazmat emergencies.
A. CANUTEC.
B. CENACOM.
C. SETIQ.
D. CHEMTREC.
A. CANUTEC. (Canada)
B. CENACOM. (Mexico - civil)
C. SETIQ. (Mexico - transportation)
_____ is part of the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Directorate of Canada. It is a national, bilingual (English and French) advisory center; it has a scientific data bank on chemicals manufactured, stored, and transported in Canada and is staffed by professional scientists who specialize in emergency response and are experienced in interpreting technical information and providing advice.
A. CANUTEC.
B. CENACOM.
C. SETIQ.
D. CHEMTREC.
A. CANUTEC. (Canadian Transport Emergency Centre)
When calling CHEMTREC/CANUTEC, the first responder should provide the following information… the exception is:
A. Name of the caller and the call-back number.
B. Name of the person caused the accident.
C. Location of the incident.
D. Type of container or vehicle.
B. Name of the person caused the accident. (FALSE)
When calling CHEMTREC/CANUTEC, the emergency response center will do the following… the exception is:
A. Confirm that a chemical emergency exists.
B. Record details electronically and in written form.
C. Provide immediate technical assistance to the caller.
D. Contact the shipper of the material or other experts.
E. Provide the shipper/manufacture with the caller’s name and call-back number so that the shipper/manufacture can deal directly with the party involved.
F. Dispatch appropriate emergency responders.
F. Dispatch appropriate emergency responders. (FALSE)
Which of the following gases will NOT cause a “cold exposure”?
A. LNG. B. Hydrogen. C. Acetylene. D. Nitrogen. E. Liquid oxygen (LOX). F. Helium. G. Argon. H. Anhydrous ammonia.
C. Acetylene.
Some cryogens have other hazardous properties in addition to the cold hazard. An example of this would be _____ , which is also a corrosive material, and oxidizer, and a poison.
A. Fluorine.
B. Anhydrous Ammonia.
C. LPG
D. Ammonium nitrate.
A. Fluorine.
_____ is another source of cold exposure which is sometimes used as a refrigerant in cold storage facilities. This material can cause cold injuries and it’s vapors are toxic and may ignite.
A. Fluorine.
B. Anhydrous Ammonia.
C. LPG
D. Ammonium nitrate.
B. Anhydrous Ammonia.
Radiological Hazards:
Different types of radiation exist, and some are more energetic than others. The least energetic form of radiation is _____ radiation such as visible light and radio waves.
A. Nonionizing.
B. Ionizing.
C. Gamma.
D. Alpha.
A. Nonionizing.
Radiological Hazards:
Different types of radiation exist, and some are more energetic than others. The most energetic (and hazardous) form of radiation is _____ radiation, and it is this type of radiation that is of greatest concern first responders.
A. Nonionizing.
B. Ionizing.
C. Gamma.
D. Alpha.
B. Ionizing.
Types of Ionizing Radiation:
_____ particles lose energy rapidly when traveling through matter and do not penetrate very deeply; however, they can cause damage over their short path through human tissue. They are usually completely blocked by the outer, dead layer of the human skin, so these radioisotopes are not a hazard outside the body. However, they can be very harmful if the material is ingested for inhaled.
-These particles can be stopped completely by a sheet of paper.
A. Alpha.
B. Beta.
C. Gamma.
D. Neutron.
A. Alpha.
Types of Ionizing Radiation:
_____ are fast-moving, positively or negatively charged electrons emitted from the nucleus during radioactive decay.
- These particles are capable of penetrating the skin and causing radiation damage; however, these emitters are generally more hazardous when they are inhaled or ingested.
- These particles travel appreciable distances (up to 20 feet) in the air but can be reduced or stopped by a layer of clothing or by less than 2 or 3 mm of a substance such as aluminum.
A. Alpha.
B. Beta.
C. Gamma.
D. Neutron.
B. Beta.
Types of Ionizing Radiation:
_____ High-energy photons (weightless packets of energy like visible light and x-rays); are very penetrating.
- This radiation can easily pass completely through the human body or be absorbed buy tissue, thus constituting a radiation hazard for the entire body.
- Around 2 feet of concrete, several feet of earth, or around 2 inches of lead may be required to stop this more energetic type of radiation. Standard firefighting protective clothing provides no protection against this radiation.
A. Alpha.
B. Beta.
C. Gamma.
D. Neutron.
C. Gamma.
Types of Ionizing Radiation:
_____ - Ultrahigh energy particles that are highly penetrated. Produced by fission reactions.
- Soil moisture density gauges, often used at construction sites, are a common source of this radiation. Also may be encountered in research laboratories or operating nuclear power plants.
- Health hazard arises because they cause the release of secondary radiation when they interact with the human body.
A. Alpha.
B. Beta.
C. Gamma.
D. Neutron.
D. Neutron.
Which of the following statements is most correct regarding protection from radiation injury?
A. Firefighters treating a victim exposed to radiation, but no evidence of dust is present, would also be exposed to radiation.
B. Firefighters exposed to low-energy alpha radiation being used for x-rays is exposed to radiation injury.
C. Firefighters wearing personal protective equipment including SCBA is required to protect against gamma radiation.
D. Firefighters wearing personal protective equipment including SCBA is required to protect against beta radiation.
D. Firefighters wearing personal protective equipment including SCBA is required to protect against beta radiation.
Threshold Limit Value/Time-Weighted Average (TLV-TWA) are based upon current available data and are adjusted on an annual basis. Of the following statements, the most correct statement is:
A. TLV’s are used for exposure in Haz mat emergencies.
B. TLV’s are not used for exposure in the workplace.
C. TLV’s are useful during pre-incident planning.
D. The higher the TLV the more toxic the substance.
A. TLV’s are used for exposure in Haz mat emergencies. (FALSE - are not)
B. TLV’s are “not” used for exposure in the workplace. (FALSE - are used)
D. The “higher” the TLV the more toxic the substance. (FALSE- lower)
It is important to know that flammable liquids themselves do not burn but that the vapors they produce can ignite. The most correct statement is:
A. The flashpoint is usually a few degrees lower than the firepoint.
B. The firepoint is usually a few degrees lower than the flashpoint.
C. The autoignition temperature is usually a few degrees lower than the flashpoint.
D. The flammable range is usually a few degrees higher than the flashpoint.
A. The flashpoint is usually a few degrees lower than the fire point.
_____ is the temperature point at which a fuel spontaneously ignites. All flammable materials have _____(s), and these are considered higher than flash and fire points.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
C. Autoignition temperature.
The following terms are often used synonymously with autoignition temperature… the exception is:
A. Ignition temperature.
B. Autoignition point.
C. Flame point.
C. Flame point. (FALSE)
Vapor density is similar to specific gravity except that it compares the density of gas to the density of air. If the vapor density is greater than 1.0, the substance will:
A. Rise to the upper levels of a confined area.
B. Rapidly dissipate if outdoors.
C. Hang close to the ground and possibly contact an ignition source.
D. Hang close to the ground and pool.
A. Rise to the upper levels of a confined area. (VD less than 1.0 - lighter than air)
B. Rapidly dissipate if outdoors. (VD less than 1.0 - lighter than air)
D. Hang close to the ground and “pool”. (“Pool” is used to define liquids not gasses)
_____ - Weight of a given volume of pure gas/vapor compared to the weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure. A _____ less than one indicates lighter than air; greater than one indicates heavier than air.
A. Vapor Density. B. Specific Gravity. C. Vapor Pressure. D. Boiling Point. E. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE).
A. Vapor Density.
_____ - Weight of a substance compared to the weight of an equal volume of water at a given temperature. A _____ less than one indicates a substance lighter than water; greater than one indicates a substance heavier than water.
A. Vapor Density. B. Specific Gravity. C. Vapor Pressure. D. Boiling Point. E. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE).
B. Specific Gravity.
_____ - Measure of the tendency of a substance to evaporate.
A. Vapor Density. B. Specific Gravity. C. Vapor Pressure. D. Boiling Point. E. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE).
C. Vapor Pressure.
_____ - The pressure at which a vapor is in equilibrium with its liquid phase for a given temperature. Liquids that have a greater tendency to evaporator have higher _____(s) for a given temperature.
A. Vapor Density. B. Specific Gravity. C. Vapor Pressure. D. Boiling Point. E. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE).
C. Vapor Pressure.
_____ - Temperature of a substance when the vapor pressure equals or exceeds atmospheric pressure. At this temperature, the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation. At this point, more liquid is turning into gas than gas is turning back into liquid.
A. Vapor Density. B. Specific Gravity. C. Vapor Pressure. D. Boiling Point. E. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE).
D. Boiling Point.
_____ - Rapid vaporization of a liquid stored under pressure upon release to the atmosphere following major failure of it’s containing vessel; failure is the result of over pressurization caused by an external heat source, which causes the vessel to explode into two or more pieces when the temperature of the liquid is well above its boiling point at normal atmospheric pressure.
A. Vapor Density. B. Specific Gravity. C. Vapor Pressure. D. Boiling Point. E. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE).
E. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE).
The majority of gases have a vapor density greater than one. Examples of materials with a vapor density greater than one include… the exception is:
A. Propane. B. Hydrogen sulfide. C. Ethane. D. Butane. E. Methane. F. Chlorine. G. Sulfur dioxide.
E. Methane. (FALSE, less than 1 / lighter than air)
Examples of materials with a vapor density less than one include… the exception is:
A. Helium. B. Neon. C. Butane. D. Acetylene. E. Hydrogen.
C. Butane. (FALSE , greater than 1 / heavier than air)
The 13 chemicals that have a vapor density lighter than air are normally presented using the acronym:
A. 4H MEDIC ANNA. B. BLEVE. C. SLUDGEM. D. NFPA 704. E. CHEMTREC.
A. 4H MEDIC ANNA. -----------------------------------------Hydrogen. Hydrogen cyanide. Helium. Hydrogen fluoride.
Methane. Ethylene. Diborane. Illuminating gases. Carbon monoxide.
Acetylene.
Neon.
Nitrogen.
Ammonia.
Hydrogen, Hydrogen cyanide, Helium, Hydrogen fluoride, Methane, Ethylene, Diborane, Illuminating gases, Carbon monoxide, Acetylene, Neon, Nitrogen, Ammonia: The acronym _____ is used to identify these 13 chemicals that have a vapor density less than 1.0 (lighter than air).
A. 4H MEDIC ANNA. B. BLEVE. C. SLUDGEM. D. NFPA 704. E. CHEMTREC.
A. 4H MEDIC ANNA.
Hypergolic materials are those that ignite when coming into contact with each other. These reactions involve the mixing of a fuel and:
A. An oxidizer.
B. Air.
C. Water.
D. A corrosive agent.
A. An oxidizer.
The Reactivity Triangle consists of three sides: _____ (such as Oxygen, Organic Peroxides, Alkyl Nitrates); Activation Energy (such as Heat, Shock, Radiation, Light); and a Reducing Agent (Fuel).
Oxidizing Agent
The Reactivity Triangle consists of three sides: Oxidizing Agent (such as Oxygen, Organic Peroxides, Alkyl Nitrates); _____ (such as Heat, Shock, Radiation, Light); and a Reducing Agent (Fuel).
Activation Energy
The Reactivity Triangle consists of three sides: Oxidizing Agent (such as Oxygen, Organic Peroxides, Alkyl Nitrates); Activation Energy (such as Heat, Shock, Radiation, Light); and a _____ (Fuel).
Reducing Agent
_____ -Material that encourages a strong reaction (by readily accepting electrons) from a reducing agent (fuel).
A. Polymerization.
B. Strong Oxidizer.
C. Inhibitor(s).
D. Activation Energy.
B. Strong Oxidizer.
_____ - Material that is added to products that easily polymerize in order to control or prevent an undesired reaction. Also called stabilizer.
A. Polymerization.
B. Strong Oxidizer.
C. Inhibitor(s).
D. Activation Energy.
C. Inhibitor(s).
_____ - Is a chemical reaction in which a catalyst causes simple molecules to combine to form long chain molecules. Examples of catalysts include light, heat, water, acids, or other chemicals. If this reaction is uncontrolled, it often results in a tremendous release of energy.
A. Polymerization.
B. Strong Oxidizer.
C. Inhibitor(s).
D. Activation Energy.
A. Polymerization.
Materials that may undergo violent _____ if subjected to heat or contamination are designated with a P in the blue and yellow sections of the ERG.
A. Polymerization.
B. Strong Oxidizer.
C. Inhibitor(s).
D. Activation Energy.
A. Polymerization.
_____ - Amount of energy that must be added to an atomic or molecular system to begin a reaction.
A. Polymerization.
B. Strong Oxidizer.
C. Inhibitor(s).
D. Activation Energy.
D. Activation Energy.
Gasoline, which has a specific gravity of less than one will (1)_____ on water, while methylene chloride (with a specific gravity greater than one will (2)_____).
In general, hydrocarbons (3)_____ on water, and chlorinated solvents (4)_____ .
- ) Float
- ) Sink
- ) Float
- ) Sink
When water comes in contact with calcium carbide, _____ gas is formed.
A. Chlorine.
B. Acetylene.
C. Hydrogen.
D. Nitrogen.
B. Acetylene.
Of the following choices, the one which is not a physical action is:
A. Rainbow sheen on water surfaces.
B. Wavy vapors over a volatile liquid.
C. Pinging or popping of heat-exposed vessels.
D. Peeling or discoloration of a containers finish.
D. Peeling or discoloration of a containers finish.
When callers contact CHEMTRAC or CANUTEC, they should be ready to record the information and suggestions offered. The following statements are TRUE… the exception is:
A. The system will make decisions for the incident commander relieving him of his duty.
B. These organizations are capable of accessing databases.
C. CHEMTREC facilities telephone conference calls between responders and the shipper.
D. These organizations serve as a communication link with other technical support.
E. Confirm that a chemical emergency exists.
F. Record details electronically and in written form.
G. Provide immediate technical assistance to the caller.
A. The system will make decisions for the incident commander relieving him of his duty. (FALSE)
The NFPA 704 System is a widely recognized method for indicating the presence of hazardous materials at commercial, manufacturing, institutional, and other fix storage facilities. Of the following examples, which example would not identify the specific chemical or chemicals that may be present?
A. NFPA 704 diamond.
B. Container markings.
C. Employee information.
D. The pre-incident plan.
A. NFPA 704 diamond.
A first responder at the _____ level is an individual who responds as part of his or her normal duties in a defensive manner to a release, or potential release, of hazardous materials. This responder is expected to protect individuals, the environment, and property from the effects of the release, plus confine the release in a defensive fashion from a safe distance.
A. Strategic.
B. Awareness.
C. Tactical.
D. Operational.
D. Operational.
_____ - Heat illness caused by heat exposure, resulting in failure of the body’s heat regulating mechanisms; symptoms include: High fever of 105 to 106°F; Dry, red, hot skin; Rapid, strong pulse; Deep breaths or convulsions. May result in, or possibly death.
A. Heat Stroke.
B. Heat Exhaustion.
C. Heat Cramps.
D. Heat Rash.
A. Heat Stroke. (aka Sunstroke)
_____ - Heat illness caused by exposure to excessive heat; symptoms include weakness, cold and clammy skin, heavy precipitation, rapid and shallow breathing, weak pulse, dizziness, and sometimes unconsciousness.
A. Heat Stroke.
B. Heat Exhaustion.
C. Heat Cramps.
D. Heat Rash.
B. Heat Exhaustion.
_____ - Heat illness resulting from prolonged exposure to high temperatures; characterized by excessive sweating, muscle cramps in the abdomen and legs, faintness, dizziness, and exhaustion.
A. Heat Stroke.
B. Heat Exhaustion.
C. Heat Cramps.
D. Heat Rash.
C. Heat Cramps.
_____ - Condition that develops from continuous exposure to heat and humid air; aggravated by clothing that rubs the skin; reduces the individuals tolerance to heat.
A. Heat Stroke.
B. Heat Exhaustion.
C. Heat Cramps.
D. Heat Rash.
D. Heat Rash.
Symptoms of heat stroke include the following… the exception is:
A. Rapid pulse.
B. Dry, red skin.
C. Mildly elevated temperature.
D. Mind not thinking clearly.
C. Mildly elevated temperature. (FALSE - High fever of 105-106)
Mechanical trauma refers to damage that occurs as a result of direct contact with an object. The two most common types are _____ and friction exposures.
A. Puncture.
B. Bruising.
C. Avulsions.
D. Striking.
D. Striking.
Mechanical trauma refers to damage that occurs as a result of direct contact with an object. The two most common types are striking and _____ .
A. Puncture.
B. Bruising.
C. Avulsions.
D. Friction exposures.
D. Friction exposures.
The following are examples of chemical reactions… the exception is:
A. Operation of pressure-release devices.
B. Unexplained changes in ordinary materials.
C. Extraordinary fire conditions.
D. Smoking or self-igniting materials.
A. Operation of pressure-release devices.
Incident commanders should use a systematic approach that is uncomplicated, easy to apply, and simple to remember. it must also lead to decisions on handling the incident that produces the safest possible outcome. One system can be tied to the acronym IFSTA. The most crucial step is:
A. Identified.
B. Formulate.
C. Select.
D. Analyze.
C. Select.
Individuals trained to the awareness level are expected to assume the following responsibilities when faced with an incident involving hazardous materials. The following actions are all responsibilities at the awareness level… the exception is:
A. Suspect or recognize the presence of a hazardous material.
B. Confining the release in a defensive fashion.
C. Protect themselves.
D. Secure the area.
B. Confining the release in a defensive fashion. (FALSE - Operational level)
When a cryogen comes in contact with the skin, it has the ability to _____ the human tissue.
A. Instantly freeze.
B. Instantly burn.
C. Gradually freeze.
D. Gradually burn.
A. Instantly freeze.
_____ - Chemical process that occurs when a substance combines with oxygen; a common example is the formation of rust on metal.
A. Oxidation. B. Polymerization. C. Cryogen. D. Corrosive material. E. Oxidizer. F. Poison.
A. Oxidation.
_____ - Reactions in which two or more molecules chemically combine to form larger molecules. This reaction can often be violent.
A. Oxidation. B. Polymerization. C. Cryogen. D. Corrosive material. E. Oxidizer. F. Poison.
B. Polymerization.
_____ - Gas that is cooled to a very low temperature, usually below -130°F, to change to a liquid.
A. Oxidation. B. Polymerization. C. Cryogen. D. Corrosive material. E. Oxidizer. F. Poison.
C. Cryogen. (aka refrigerated liquid and cryogenic liquid)
_____ - Gaseous, liquid, or solid material that can burn, irritate, or destroy human skin tissue and severely corroded steel.
A. Oxidation. B. Polymerization. C. Cryogen. D. Corrosive material. E. Oxidizer. F. Poison.
D. Corrosive material.
_____ - Any substance or material that yields oxygen readily and may stimulate the combustion of organic and inorganic material.
A. Oxidation. B. Polymerization. C. Cryogen. D. Corrosive material. E. Oxidizer. F. Poison.
E. Oxidizer.
_____ - Any material that when taken into the body is injurious to health.
A. Oxidation. B. Polymerization. C. Cryogen. D. Corrosive material. E. Oxidizer. F. Poison.
F. Poison.
Hydrochloric acid, nitric acid, and sulfuric acid are all common acids. The “most correct” statement regarding acids is:
A. An acid will cause permanent damage only.
B. An acid will cause a greasy or slick feeling of the skin only.
C. An acid will cause both permanent eye damage and a greasy or slick feeling of the skin.
D. An acid will cause neither permanent eye damage nor a greasy slick feeling to the skin.
A. An acid will cause permanent damage only.
** However, “bases” often cause more eye damage than acids**
The potential for radiation exposure exists when first responders respond to some facilities such as medical centers, industrial operations, power plants, and research facilities. The following statements are FALSE concerning radiation… the exception is:
A. A sheet of lead is needed to effectively block and external alpha particle.
B. Alpha radiation particles have more penetrating power than beta particles.
C. Standard firefighting clothing provides full protection against gamma rays.
D. The health hazard that neutrons present arises from the fact that they can cause the release of secondary radiation.
A. A sheet of lead is needed to effectively block and external “alpha” particle. (FALSE - gamma)
B. Alpha radiation particles have more penetrating power than beta particles. (FALSE - beta more than alpha)
C. Standard firefighting clothing provides full protection against “gamma” rays. (FALSE - beta)
And irritant gives off vapors that attack _____ of the body.
A. The cardiovascular system.
B. The nervous system.
C. The respiratory system.
D. The immune system.
C. The respiratory system.
Chemical Hazards:
_____ - Are substances that affect the oxygenation of the body and generally lead to suffocation.
A. Toxic Chemicals/Poisons. B. Corrosives. C. Irritants. D. Convulsants. E. Carcinogens. F. Sensitizers/Allergens. G. Asphyxiants.
G. Asphyxiants.
Asphyxiants can be divided into two classes: simple and chemical. _____ are gases that displace the oxygen necessary for breathing. These gases dilute or displace the oxygen concentration below the level required by the human body.
Simple asphyxiants
example - Carbon dioxide
Asphyxiants can be divided into two classes: simple and chemical. _____ are substances that prohibit the body from using oxygen and some of these chemicals may be used by terrorists for an attack. Even though oxygen is available, these substances starve the cells of the body for oxygen.
Chemical asphyxiants
example Carbon monoxide
Chemical Hazards:
_____ - Are chemicals that can irritate, destroy, or burn living tissues and corrode metals. Commonly divided into two broad categories: acids and bases.
A. Toxic Chemicals/Poisons. B. Corrosives. C. Irritants. D. Convulsants. E. Carcinogens. F. Sensitizers/Allergens. G. Asphyxiants.
B. Corrosives.
Chemical Hazards:
_____ - are toxins that cause temporary but sometimes severe inflammation to the eyes, skin, or respiratory system. Often attack the mucous membranes of the body such as the surface of the eyes, nose, mouth, throat, and lungs.
A. Toxic Chemicals/Poisons. B. Corrosives. C. Irritants. D. Convulsants. E. Carcinogens. F. Sensitizers/Allergens. G. Asphyxiants.
C. Irritants.
Chemical Hazards:
_____ - are toxic materials that can cause “involuntary muscle contractions”. Some chemicals considered to be these are strychnine, organophosphates, carbamates, and infrequently used drugs such as picrotoxin. Death can result from asphyxiation or exhaustion.
A. Toxic Chemicals/Poisons. B. Corrosives. C. Irritants. D. Convulsants. E. Carcinogens. F. Sensitizers/Allergens. G. Asphyxiants.
D. Convulsants.
Chemical Hazards:
_____ - are cancer-causing agents. Examples of known or suspected ones are polyvinyl chloride, benzene, asbestos, and some chlorinated hydrocarbons, arsenic, nickel, some pesticides, and many plastics. Exact data is not available on the level of duration or dose of exposure; however, exposures to only small amounts of some substances may have long-term consequences. Disease and complications can occur as long as 10 to 40 years after exposure.
A. Toxic Chemicals/Poisons. B. Corrosives. C. Irritants. D. Convulsants. E. Carcinogens. F. Sensitizers/Allergens. G. Asphyxiants.
E. Carcinogens.
Chemical Hazards:
_____ - Are substances that can cause an allergic reaction of the skin or respiratory system. Common examples include latex, bleach, and
urushiol (chemical in poison-ivy).
A. Toxic Chemicals/Poisons. B. Corrosives. C. Irritants. D. Convulsants. E. Carcinogens. F. Sensitizers/Allergens. G. Asphyxiants.
F. Sensitizers/Allergens.
The principle dangers of hazardous materials are the health risks they present to humans and their flammability and reactivity characteristics. Many hazardous materials exhibit characteristic signs when spilled or released. The following examples are TRUE considering hazardous material release… the exception is:
A. Hydrogen sulfide, narcotics, and analgesics deaden the olfactory nerves.
B. Nitric acid is one of the many chemicals that produce a color vapor cloud.
C. All vapor clouds that have a particular color in heavy concentrations are not deadly when diluted enough to be colorless.
D. Cyanides, cannot be detected by the senses because they are essentially odorless and colorless.
C. All vapor clouds that have a particular color in heavy concentrations are not deadly when diluted enough to be colorless. (FALSE)
In addition to health hazards, many materials are flammable. The flammability of a material depends on several properties. The most TRUE statement concerning fire point is:
A. The fire point is a few degrees below the flashpoint.
B. The fire point is a few degrees below the autoignition temperature.
C. The fire point is a few degrees above the flashpoint.
D. The fire point is a few degrees above the autoignition temperature.
C. The fire point is a few degrees above the flashpoint. (TRUE)
Specific gravity is the weight of a substance compared to the weight of an equal volume of water at a given temperature. Water is assigned specific gravity of:
A. 0.0. C. 0.5.
B. 0.1. D. 1.0
D. 1.0
The Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) was developed by the U.S. Department of Transportation for use by first responders. If the identification number is known, first responders can turn to the _____ boarded pages and locate the identification number, the appropriate guide page, and name of the material.
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. Green.
A. Yellow.
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
Identify the four-digit U.N. identification number on the placard or shipping papers and then look up the appropriate guide in the _____ boarded pages of the guidebook.
A. Yellow. B. Blue. C. Orange. D. White. E. Green.
A. Yellow.
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
Use the name of the material involved (if known) in the _____ boarded section of the guidebook. Many chemical names differ only by a few letters, so exact spelling is important when using this method.
A. Yellow. B. Blue. C. Orange. D. White. E. Green.
B. Blue.
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
Identify the transportation placard of the material and then use the three digit guide code associated with the placard in Table of Placards and Initial Response Guide to Use On-Scene located in the front of the ERG _____ pages.
A. Yellow. B. Blue. C. Orange. D. White. E. Green.
D. White.
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
As a last resort, if placards or four-digit ID numbers are not visible, first responders can use the container profiles provided in the _____ pages to identify the proper ERG guidebook page.
A. Yellow. B. Blue. C. Orange. D. White. E. Green.
D. White.
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
Use the container profiles provided in the white pages in the front of the book. First responders can identify container shapes, and then reference the guide number to the _____ boarded page provided in the nearest circle.
A. Yellow. B. Blue. C. Orange. D. White. E. Green.
C. Orange.
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
The _____ boarded pages of the ERG provide an index list of hazardous materials in numerical order of ID number. This index displays the four-digit UN/NA ID number of the material followed by its assigned emergency response guide and the materials name.
A. Yellow. B. Blue. C. Orange. D. White. E. Green.
A. Yellow.
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
The purpose of the _____ section in the ERG is to enable first responders to quickly identify the Guide (orange-boarded pages) to consult for the ID number of the substance involved.
A. Yellow. B. Blue. C. Orange. D. White. E. Green.
A. Yellow.
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
The _____ boarded pages of the ERG provide an index of dangerous goods in alphabetical order by material name so that the first responder can quickly identify the Guide to consult for the name of the material involved. This list displays the name of material followed by its assigned emergency response Guide and four-digit ID number.
A. Yellow. B. Blue. C. Orange. D. White. E. Green.
B. Blue.
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
The _____ boarded section of the book is the most important because it provides safety recommendations and general hazards information.
A. Yellow. B. Blue. C. Orange. D. White. E. Green.
C. Orange.
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
The _____ colored section of the ERG contains a table that lists (by ID number) THI materials - including certain chemical warfare agents and water reactive materials that produce toxic gases upon contact with water. The table provides two different types of recommended safe distance.
A. Yellow. B. Blue. C. Orange. D. White. E. Green.
E. Green.
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
If a material in the yellow or blue index is highlighted, this means that it releases gases that are toxic inhalation hazard (TIH) materials. These materials require the application of additional emergency response distances found in the _____ pages.
A. Yellow. B. Blue. C. Orange. D. White. E. Green.
E. Green.
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
The _____ boarded section comprises a total of 62 individual guides presented in a two-page format. The left-hand page provides safety related information, whereas the right-hand page provides emergency response guidance and activities for fire situations, spill or leak incidents, and first aid.
A. Yellow. B. Blue. C. Orange. D. White. E. Green.
C. Orange.
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
In the _____ boarded section of the ERG, each Guide is divided into three main sections: Potential Hazards; Public Safety; Emergency Response.
A. Yellow. B. Blue. C. Orange. D. White. E. Green.
C. Orange.
There are three basic types of high-temperature clothing; approach suits, proximity suits, and fire entry suits. A _____ is for firefighting operations that involves high levels of radiant heat.
A. Approach suit.
B. Proximity suit.
C. Fire entry suit.
D. Chemical splash suit.
A. Approach suit.
Which of the following statements is a standard procedure that the first responder will perform at the awareness level.
A. Gathering and sharing the material information with all involved parties.
B. Identify defensive tactical options to meet the goals.
C. Activating the incident management system.
D. Secure the area of the emergency and prevent anyone from entering.
D. Secure the area of the emergency and prevent anyone from entering.
Most models used for determining the level of a hazmat incident define three levels of response. The levels graduate from Level I to Level III. An example of a Level II incident is:
A. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter.
B. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat.
C. Those incidents that require an evacuation exceeding across jurisdictional boundaries.
D. Incidents that activate, in part or in whole, the federal response system.
A. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter. (Level I)
C. Those incidents that require an evacuation exceeding across jurisdictional boundaries. (Level III)
D. Incidents that activate, in part or in whole, the federal response system. (Level III)
Decontamination is the removal of contaminants from workers’ personal protective equipment and tools. The first priority in the selection of a decontamination site is its:
A. Accessibility.
B. Surface material.
C. Lighting.
D. Water.
A. Accessibility.
According to (IFSTA) hazardous materials for first responders: A hazmat incident is one that involves a substance that has been released or is on fire. Because of this, the material poses an unreasonable risk to people, the environment, and property. The first responder must determine as soon as possible upon arrival at the emergency scene;
A. The life safety hazard.
B. Whether the incident fits the definition of a hazmat incident.
C. The environmental hazard.
D. The fire hazard.
B. Whether the incident fits the definition of a hazmat incident. (According to Haz Mat)
Most types of personal protective equipment inhibit the bodie’s ability to disperse heat. _____ is a serious medical emergency, and if action is not taken, _____ can become a life-threatening situation.
A. Heat stroke.
B. Heat rash.
C. Heat cramps.
D. Heat exhaustion.
A. Heat stroke.
Responders wearing protective clothing need to be monitored for effects of heat exposure. The following statements are correct… the exception is:
A. Plenty of water should be available.
B. Commercial body-fluid-replenishment drink mixes maybe used to prevent dehydration.
C. He/she should be encouraged to drink generous amounts of fluid both before and during operations.
D. Plenty of carbonated beverages should be available.
D. Plenty of carbonated beverages should be available. (FALSE)
Exposures to poisons cause damage to organs or other parts of the body and may even cause death. Some poisons such as _____ affect the kidneys.
A. Benzene.
B. Napthalene.
C. Halogenated hydrocarbons.
D. Parathion.
A. Benzene. (Hemotoxin)
B. Napthalene. (Hemotoxin)
C. Halogenated hydrocarbons. (Nephrotoxin)
D. Parathion. (?)
Nephrotoxins are toxic chemicals or poisons that target/effect the kidneys. Some nephrotoxins include… the exception is:
A. Mercury.
B. Halogenated hydrocarbons.
C. Benzene.
D. Carbon Tetrachloride.
C. Benzene. (FALSE)
Benzene is a hemotoxin that effects the blood.
Chemical exposures that destroy or burn living tissues and have destructive effects on other materials are called corrosives. _____ breaks down fatty skin tissue and can penetrate deeply into the body.
A. Caustic soda.
B. Hydrochloric acid.
C. Nitric acid.
D. Sulfuric acid.
A. Caustic soda.
Chemical exposures that destroy or burn living tissues and have destructive effects on other materials are called corrosives. Examples of common acids include… the exception is:
A. Potassium hydroxide.
B. Hydrochloric acid.
C. Nitric acid.
D. Sulfuric acid.
A. Potassium hydroxide. (Base)
Chemical exposures that destroy or burn living tissues and have destructive effects on other materials are called corrosives. Examples of common bases include… the exception is:
A. Potassium hydroxide.
B. Caustic soda.
C. Drain cleaners.
D. Nitric acid.
D. Nitric acid. (Acid)
_____ radiation is the least dangerous as a threat to external portions of the body but is very dangerous when ingested, inhaled or otherwise allowed to enter the body.
A. Alpha.
B. Beta.
C. Gamma.
D. Neutron.
A. Alpha.
Once they are in the system, hazardous materials have varying effects on the body. _____ affect the body both internally and externally.
A. Asbestos.
B. Mercury.
C. Chlorine.
D. Silica.
C. Chlorine.
Page 24 list “Hydrogen fluoride”
Matter is found in three states: gas, liquid, and solid. In general _____ post the greatest danger to first responders.
A. Solids.
B. Liquids.
C. Gases.
D. Solids, liquids, gases are equally hazardous.
C. Gases.
Flammable liquids, such as _____ have flashpoints well below 100°F.
A. Naphthalene.
B. Gasoline.
C. Fuel oil.
D. Lubricating oil.
B. Gasoline.
—————————————–
_____ liquids such as gasoline and acetone have flashpoints well below 100°F. In general, the lower the flashpoint, the greater the fire hazard.
A. Flammable.
B. Combustible.
C. Nonflammable.
D. Noncombustible.
A. Flammable.
_____ liquids such as fuel oils and lubricating oils have flashpoints above 100°F. In general, the lower the flashpoint, the greater the fire hazard.
A. Flammable.
B. Combustible.
C. Nonflammable.
D. Noncombustible.
B. Combustible.
The fire point is the temperature at which enough vapors are given off to support continuous burning. This temperature is usually:
A. Slightly below the autoignition temperature.
B. Slightly above the autoignition temperature.
C. Slightly below the flashpoint.
D. Slightly above the flashpoint.
D. Slightly above the flashpoint.
First responders can reduce the number of on-site decisions by the following… the exception is:
A. Preparing preincident plans.
B. Donning personal protective equipment (PPE) after size-up.
C. Establishing procedures.
D. Tentatively pre-assigning actions before the incident occurs.
B. Donning personal protective equipment (PPE) after size-up.
Based on the hazard assessment, the incident commander develops a plan of action. Overall, the plan must focus on three strategic goals. These goals are… the exception is:
A. Life safety.
B. Environmental protection.
C. Incident stabilization.
D. Property conservation.
C. Incident stabilization.
When considering hazardous materials in fixed facilities, first responders tend to draw immediate concern to:
A. Service stations.
B. Hardware stores.
C. School laboratories.
D. Large manufacturing and storage facilities.
D. Large manufacturing and storage facilities.
Water-reactive materials such as _____ burn with such intensity that they decompose water and two separate hydrogen and oxygen molecules. The hydrogen then burns while the oxygen supports the combustion. Adding water to these chemical reactions intensifies the fire rather than suppresses it.
A. Nickel.
B. Arsenic.
C. Many plastics.
D. Lithium.
Other Water-Reactive materials: Alkali metals (sodium, magnesium, lithium, potassium), Sodium peroxide, anhydrides, carbides.
Heat cramps can occur after heavy exertion and exposure to high temperatures. Cramps develop in the body’s extremities as a result of dehydration and excessive salt loss. All of the following are symptoms of heat cramps… the exception is:
A. Heavy precipitation. B. Hot, dry, red skin. C. Physical weakness. D. Moist skin. E. Muscle cramps in the abdomen and legs. F. Faintness, Dizziness. G. Exhaustion.
B. Hot, dry, red skin. (FALSE - symptom of Heat Stroke)
Exposures to poisons can cause damage to organs and other parts of the body may even cause death. An example of a hepatotoxic agent which affects the liver is.
A. Benzene.
B. Arsine.
C. Napthalene.
D. Phenols.
A. Benzene. (Hemotoxin, Immunotoxin, Endocrine toxin)
B. Arsine. (Hemotoxin)
C. Napthalene. (Hemotoxin)
Exposures to poisons can cause damage to organs and other parts of the body may even cause death. An examples of hemotoxins (target blood) are… the exception is:
A. Carbon monoxide. B. Cyanides. C. Benzene. D. Nitrates. E. Arsine. F. Phenols. G. Naphthalene. H. Cocaine.
F. Phenols. (Hepatoxin - liver)
Asphyxiants affect the oxygenation of the body and generally lead to suffocation. Asphyxiants can be divided into two classes: simple and chemical. Example of a simple asphyxiant is:
A. Methane.
B. Benzene.
C. Toluene.
D. Aniline.
A. Methane.
Tangible evidence of hazardous materials, such as a spreading vapor cloud, a pair of gloves melting, fish dying, container deterioration, etc., are signs that physical and/or chemical actions and reactions are taking place. All of the following are indications of physical action… the exception is:
A. Rainbow sheen on water surfaces.
B. Pinging or popping of heat exposed vessels.
C. Splattering or boiling of unheated materials.
D. Operation of pressure relief devices.
C. Splattering or boiling of unheated materials. (Chemical action)
This index _____ lists the UN/NA four-digit identification number in numerical order with its proper material shipping name and the guide number assigned to it. Therefore, if the ID number is known, first responders can turn to this index and locate the following information: Identification number; Appropriate guide page that outlines the initial action to be taken; Name of the material to which the number is a sign:
A. Yellow-boarded pages.
B. Orange-boarded pages.
C. Blue-boarded pages.
D. Green-bordered pages.
A. Yellow-boarded pages.
Most models used for determining the level of a hazmat incident defines three levels of response. An example of a level one incident is:
A. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter.
B. Those that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries.
C. Spill or leak requiring large-scale evacuation.
D. Rupture of an underground pipeline.
B. Those that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries. (Level III)
C. Spill or leak requiring large-scale evacuation. (Level III)
D. Rupture of an underground pipeline. (Level II)
Several factors are considered when choosing the decontamination site. The decontamination site should ideally:
A. Be located on porous material to promote training.
B. Slope toward the hot zone. Anything that may accidentally get released in the decon corridor would drain toward and into the contaminated hot zone.
C. Be located near a sewer drain.
D. Be located near a pond or creek.
B. Slope toward the hot zone. Anything that may accidentally get released in the decon corridor would drain toward and into the contaminated hot zone.
There are three basic types of high-temperature clothing. _____ permit close approach to fires for the purpose of performing rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation activities.
A. Structural firefighting clothing.
B. Proximity suits.
C. Approach suits.
D. Fire entry suits.
B. Proximity suits.
_____ protection allows for the use of respiratory protection equipment other than SCBA. This protection includes any of the various types of air purifying respirators. Emergency response personnel would not use this level of protection unless specific material is known and can be measured.
A. Level D.
B. Level C.
C. Level B.
D. Level A.
B. Level C.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
The _____ ensemble provides the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles for the respiratory tract, eyes, and skin. Operations Level responders are generally not allowed to operate in situations requiring this level of protection; However, they must be appropriately trained to wear _____ PEE if they are required to wear it.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
A. Level A.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Components: Level ___ ensemble requirements:
-Positive-pressure, full facepiece, SCBA, or positive-pressure airline respirator with escape SCBA, approved by NIOSH.
-Vapor-protective suits: TECP suits constructed of protective clothing materials that meet the following criteria:
• Cover the wearer’s torso, head, arms, and legs
• Include boots and gloves that may either be an integral part of the suit or separate and tightly attached.
• Enclosed the wearer completely by itself or in combination with the wearer’s respiratory equipment, gloves, and boots
• Provide equivalent chemical-resistance protection for all components of a TECP suit
• Meet the requirements in NFPA 1991
-Coveralls (optional)
-Long underwear (optional)
-Chemical-resistant outer gloves
-Chemical-resistant inner gloves
-Chemical-resistant boots with steel toe and shank
-Hardhat (under suit) (optional)
-Disposable protective suit, gloves, and boots (can be worn over total encapsulating suits, depending on suit construction)
-Two-way radios (worn inside encapsulating suit)
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
A. Level A.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Protection Provided: Level ___ is the highest available level of respiratory, skin, and eye protection from solid, liquid, and gaseous chemicals.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
A. Level A.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Use: Level ___ ensembles are used in the following situations:
- Chemical hazards are unknown or unidentified.
- Chemical(s) have been identified and have high level of hazards to respiratory system, skin and eyes.
- Site operations and work functions involve a high potential for splash, immersion, or exposure to unexpected vapors, gases, or particulates of material that are harmful to skin or capable of being absorbed through the intact skin.
- Substances are present with a known or suspected skin toxicity or carcinogenicity.
- Operations that are conducted in confined or poorly ventilated areas.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
A. Level A.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Level ___ protection requires a garment that includes an SCBA or a supplied-air respirator and provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical. This ensemble is worn when the highest level of respiratory protection is necessary but a lesser level of skin protection is needed. This level ensemble provides liquid-splash protection, but little or no protection against chemical vapors or gases to the skin. May be encapsulating or nonencapsulating.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
B. Level B.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Components: Level ___ ensemble requirements:
- Positive-pressure, full facepiece, SCBA, or positive-pressure airline respirator with escape SCBA approved by NIOSH
- Hooded chemical-resistant clothing that meets the requirements of NFPA 1992
- Coveralls (optional)
- Chemical-resistant outer gloves
- Chemical-resistant inner gloves
- Chemical-resistant boots with steel toe and shank
- Disposable, chemical-resistant outer boot covers (optional)
- Hardhat (outside or on top of nonencapsulating suits or under encapsulating suits)
- Two-way radios (worn inside encapsulating suit or outside nonencapsulating suit)
- Faceshield (optional)
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
B. Level B.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Protection Provided: Level ___ ensembles provide the same level of respiratory protection as Level A but have less skin protection. Ensembles provide liquid-splash protection, but no protection against chemical vapors or gases.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
B. Level B.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Use: Level ___ ensembles are used in the following situations:
- Type and atmospheric concentration of substances have been identified and require a high-level of respiratory protection but less skin protection.
- Atmosphere contains less than 19.5% oxygen or more than 23.5% oxygen.
- Presence of incompletely identified vapors or gases is indicated by a direct-reading organic vapor detector instrument, but the vapors and gases are known not to contain high levels of chemicals harmful to skin or capable of being absorbed through intact skin.
- Presence of liquids or particulates is indicated, but they are known not to contain high levels of chemicals harmful to skin or capable of being absorbed through intact skin.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
B. Level B.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Level ___ protection includes any of the various types of APRs. Emergency response personnel would not use this level of protection unless the specific material is known, it has been measured, and this protection level is appropriate by the IC after all qualifying conditions for APRs and PAPRs have been met (that is, the product is known, and appropriate filter is available, the atmospheric oxygen concentration is between 19.5 to 23.5%, and the atmosphere is not IDLH). Periodic air monitoring is required when using this level of PPE.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
C. Level C.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Level ___ protection differs from Level B in the area of equipment needed for respiratory protection. Level ___ is composed of a splash-protecting garment and an air-purifying device (APR or PAPR).
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
C. Level C.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Components: Level ___ ensemble requirements:
- Full-face or half-mask APRs, NIOSH approved
- Hooded chemical-resistant clothing (overalls, two-piece chemical-splash suits, and disposable chemical-resistant overalls)
- Coveralls (optional)
- Chemical-resistant outer gloves
- Chemical-resistant inner gloves
- Chemical-resistant boots with steel toe and shank
- Disposable, chemical resistant outer boot covers (optional)
- Hardhat
- Escape mask (optional)
- Two-way radios (worn under outside protective clothing)
- Face shield (optional)
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
C. Level C.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Protection Provided: Level ___ ensembles provide the same level of skin protection as Level B but have a lower level of respiratory protection. Ensembles provide liquid-splash protection but no protection from chemical vapors or gases on the skin.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
C. Level C.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Use: Level ___ ensembles are used in the following situations:
- Atmosphere contaminants, liquid splashes, or other direct contact will not adversely affect exposed skin or be absorbed through any exposed skin.
- Types of air contaminants have been identified, concentrations have been measured, and an APR is available that can remove the contaminants.
- All criteria for the use of APRs are met.
- Atmospheric concentration of chemicals do not exceed IDLH levels. The atmosphere must contain between 19.5 and 23.5% oxygen.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
C. Level C.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Level ___ ensembles consist of typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls. Firefighter structural protective clothing is also considered this level because, currently per the EPA definition, it is not considered chemical protective clothing. Level ___ protection can be worn only when no atmospheric hazards exist.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
D. Level D.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Components: Level ___ ensemble requirements are as follows:
- Coveralls
- Gloves (optional)
- Chemical-resistant boots/shoes with steel toe and shank
- Disposable, chemical-resistant outer boot covers (optional)
- Safety glasses or chemical-splash goggles
- Hardhat
- Escape device in case of accidental release and the need to immediately escape the area (optional)
- Faceshield (optional)
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
D. Level D.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Protection Provided: Level ___ ensembles provide no respiratory protection and minimal skin protection.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
D. Level D.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Use: Level ___ ensembles may not be worn in the hot zone and are not acceptable for hazmat emergency response above the Awareness Level.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
D. Level D.
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Level ___ ensembles are used when both of the following conditions exist:
- Atmosphere contains no hazard.
- Work functions preclude splashes, immersion, or the potential for unexpected inhalation of or contact with hazardous levels of any chemicals.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
D. Level D.
Radioactive material packages are the strongest containers used to transport hazardous materials. Type A packaging is designed to carry:
A. High-grade raw materials.
B. Nuclear fuels (both new and spent).
C. Cylinders for compressed radiological gases such as xenon.
D. Highly radioactive materials.
C. Cylinders for compressed radiological gases such as xenon.
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ packaging used for transportation of materials that have very limited radioactivity such as articles manufactured from natural or depleted uranium or natural thorium. These packagings are only used to transport materials with extremely low levels of radioactivity that present no risk to the public or environment. _____ packaging is not marked or labeled as such.
A. Excepted. B. Industrial. C. Type A. D. Type B. E. Type C.
A. Excepted.
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ containers retains and protects the contents during normal transportation activities. Materials that present limited hazard to the public and the environment are shipped in these packages. _____ packages are not identified as such on the packages or shipping papers.
A. Excepted. B. Industrial. C. Type A. D. Type B. E. Type C.
B. Industrial.
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ material examples include:
- Slightly contaminated clothing
- Laboratory samples
- Smoke detectors
A. Excepted. B. Industrial. C. Type A. D. Type B. E. Type C.
B. Industrial.
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ are packages that must demonstrate their ability to withstand a series of tests without releasing their contents. The package and shipping papers will have the words _____ on them. Regulations require that the package protect its contents and maintain sufficient shielding under conditions normally encountered during transportation. Radioactive materials with relatively high specific activity levels are shipped in these types of packages.
A. Excepted. B. Industrial. C. Type A. D. Type B. E. Type C.
C. Type A.
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ material examples are:
- Radiopharmaceuticals (radioactive materials for medical use)
- Certain regulatory qualified industrial products such as density gauges
- Cylinders for compressed radiological gases such as xenon
A. Excepted. B. Industrial. C. Type A. D. Type B. E. Type C.
C. Type A.
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ packages must not only demonstrate their ability to withstand tests simulating normal shipping conditions, but they must also withstand severe accident conditions without releasing their contents. _____ packages are identified as such on the package itself as well as on shipping papers. The size of these packages can range from small containers to those weighing over 100 tons. These large, heavy packages provide shielding against radiation.
A. Excepted. B. Industrial. C. Type A. D. Type B. E. Type C.
D. Type B.
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ material examples:
- Materials that would present a radiation hazard to the public or the environment if there were a major release
- Materials with high levels of radioactivity such as spent fuel from nuclear power plants
A. Excepted. B. Industrial. C. Type A. D. Type B. E. Type C.
D. Type B.
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ are very rare packages used for high activity materials (including plutonium) transported by aircraft. They are designed to withstand severe accident conditions associated with air transport without loss of containment or significant increase in external radiation levels.
A. Excepted. B. Industrial. C. Type A. D. Type B. E. Type C.
E. Type C.
Some hazmat incidents may evolve out of non-emergency situations. The fact that these materials are being transported, stored, and disposed of more safely than ever will not eliminate these incidents. Which of the following issues relating to hazardous materials to government regulations cover?
A. Human error.
B. Labeling.
C. Truck accidents, train derailment.
D. Package failure.
B. Labeling.
U.S. Regulations/Definitions:
The _____ issues transportation regulations in Title 49 CFR. These legally binding regulations are enforced at the federal, state, and local levels. The regulations specifically governing the transportation of hazardous materials found in Title 49 CFR are sometimes referred to as the Hazardous Materials Regulations or HMR. They address the transportation of hazardous materials in all modes: air, highway, pipeline, rail, and water.
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
U.S. Regulations/Definitions:
The purpose of the Hazardous Materials Regulations (HMR) is to provide adequate protection against the risks to life, property, and the environment inherent in transporting hazardous materials in commerce by improving the regulatory and enforcement authority of the Secretary of Transportation. The _____ Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) agency carries out these duties through a program of regulation, enforcement, emergency response education and training, and data collection and analysis.
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
U.S. Regulations/Definitions:
The _____ is responsible for researching and setting national standards for a variety of environmental programs. It delegates the responsibility for issuing permits, monitoring, and enforcing compliance to states and tribes. It also works closely with other federal agencies, state and local governments, and Indian tribes to develop and enforce regulations under existing environmental laws. The _____ also works with industries and all levels of government in a wide variety of voluntary pollution prevention programs and energy conservation efforts.
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
U.S. Regulations/Definitions:
The _____ also has mechanisms in place to track the thousands of new chemicals that industry develops each year with either unknown or dangerous characteristics. The _____ then can control these chemicals as necessary to protect human health and the environment. TSCA supplements other federal statutes, including the. Clean Air Act and the Toxic Release Inventory under EPCRA. The _____ issues legislation to protect the environment in Title 40 CFR.
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
U.S. Regulations/Definitions:
The _____ is responsible for overseeing US labor laws. The US Congress passed the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSH) in 1970. One year later a new department, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) was created to oversee compliance with the Act under the jurisdiction of the _____ .
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
U.S. Regulations/Definitions:
The _____ regulates US commercial nuclear power plants and the civilian use of nuclear materials as well as the possession, use, storage, and transfer of radioactive materials through Title 10 (Energy) CRF 20.
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
U.S. Regulations/Definitions:
In the US, the four main agencies involved in regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes at the federal level are as follows… the exception is:
A. Department of Transportation (DOT) B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) C. Department of Labor (DOL) D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) E. Department of Energy (DOE)
E. Department of Energy (DOE) - FALSE -
The DOE Is manages the national nuclear research and defense programs, including the storage of high-level nuclear waste.
Cold exposure is a concern when dealing with cryogenic and liquefied gases. A cryogen is a gas that turns into a liquid at or below -130°F. Some cryogens have hazardous properties in addition to the cold hazard. A cryogen which is also a corrosive, and oxidizer, and a poison is:
A. Nitrogen. B. Helium. C. Fluorine. D. Hydrogen. E. Argon. D. LNG. E. LOX.
C. Fluorine.
Emergency information centers, such as CHEMTREC, are principal providers of immediate technical assistance. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding CHEMTREC.
A. Emergency service contact with CHEMTREC fulfills the incident reporting requirements set forth in the federal regulations for transporters.
B. CHEMTREC is the best source of information on a specific hazardous material.
C. The tactical information provided is specific, the system makes decisions for the incident commander.
D. CHEMTREC is capable of assessing databases, coordinating information sources, and notifying shippers of the incident.
D. CHEMTREC is capable of assessing databases, coordinating information sources, and notifying shippers of the incident.
The General Emergency Behavior Model (GEBMO) was developed to help first responders limit the effects of a hazardous material, thereby preserving the environment and property. GEBMO leads first responders to develop a strategy by the evaluation of six specific conditions related to the incident. The condition “Engulf” is described as:
A. Identify the types of stress.
B. Predict the type of breach.
C. Predict the dispersion pattern.
D. Predict the hazard causing the harm.
C. Predict the dispersion pattern.
The US. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has established levels of protective equipment. Level _____ provides the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles. The totally encapsulating suit is not only envelops the wearer but also the SCBA. Level _____ protection is required when working directly with liquids, papers, or gases that pose a severe threat of injury from any contact.
A. “A”
B. “B”
C. “C”
D. “D”
A. “A”
Firefighting foam is 94 or 99.5% water. Depending on their purpose, foams are designed for low, medium, or high expansion. Low expansion foams are used:
A. Extinguish pesticide fires.
B. To suppress fuming acid vapors.
C. Primarily to extinguish fires in liquid fuels.
D. To extinguish fires in concealed spaces.
A. Extinguish pesticide fires.
B. To suppress fuming acid vapors.
D. To extinguish fires in concealed spaces. (HIGH)
Gases are found universally in storage cylinders, large tanks, and distribution systems. In addition to the fire and explosion hazards posed by released flammable gases, any gas under pressure presents dangers to the first responder. In which of the following emergencies involving gases would immediate concern be “to prevent ignition”.
A. Flammable gas leaks involving fire.
B. Flammable gas leaks not involving fire.
C. Nonflammable gas leaks not involving fire.
D. Poisonous gas leaks not involving fire.
B. Flammable gas leaks not involving fire.
When the immediate priority has been established, the IC will determine the mode of operation to be followed. The safety of the first responders is the upmost consideration in selecting a mode of operation. The three modes of operation are nonintervention, defensive, and offensive. The defensive mode is selected when which of the following circumstances exist?
A. The situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of the responders.
B. Explosions are imminent.
C. The responders have the training and equipment necessary to confine the incident to the area of origin.
D. Serious container damage threatens a massive release.
E. Aggressive and direct action on the material, container, or process equipment involved in the incident.
A. The situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of the responders. (Nonintervention)
B. Explosions are imminent. (Nonintervention)
D. Serious container damage threatens a massive release.(Nonintervention)
E. Aggressive and direct action on the material, container, or process equipment involved in the incident. (Offensive)
There are four basic methods of decontamination that the first responder may use. Absorption is the process of picking up a liquid contaminant with an absorbent. The following statement is FALSE regarding absorbents.
A. Most absorbent are inexpensive.
B. Examples of absorbents are soil, diatomaceous earth, and sand.
C. Absorbents work extremely well on turn-out gear.
D. Most absorbent’s are readily available.
C. Absorbents work extremely well on turn-out gear. (FALSE)
As the use, transportation, storage, and disposal of hazardous materials increase, there will be an inevitable increase in the number of haz mat incidents. The following issues related to hazardous materials are covered by government regulations… the exception is:
A. Packaging. B. Package failure. C. Training of personnel. D. Labeling. E. Use.
B. Package failure.
Asphyxiants affect the oxygenation of the body and generally lead to suffocation. Asphyxiants can be divided into two classes: simple and chemical. Which of the following chemicals is an example of a chemical asphyxiants?
A. Acetylene.
B. Hydrogen.
C. Aniline.
D. Nitrogen.
C. Aniline.
Once a hazardous material is in the system, it can have varying effects on the body. Some hazardous materials affect the body only internally. Some hazardous materials affect the body both internally and externally. Hazardous materials which affect the body both internally and externally are… the exception is:
A. Mercury.
B. Chlorine.
C. Isopropyl alcohol.
D. Anhydrous ammonia.
A. Mercury. (Internally only)
The reactivity of a substance is its ability to undergo a chemical reaction with another substance. An unstable substance is one capable of undergoing spontaneous change. A highly reactive substance may be hypergolic, pyrophoric, or water-reactive. Which of the following substances is a pyrophoric material?
A. Lithium.
B. Picric acid.
C. Organic peroxides.
D. White phosphorus.
D. White phosphorus. (pyrophoric) ----------------------------------------- A. Lithium. (Water-reactive) B. Picric acid. C. Organic peroxides.
The ERG was developed by the US Department of Transportation (DOT) for use by first responders. The material name index lists in alphabetical order the names of materials that should appear on shipping documents. This index is identified by its _____ bordered pages.
A. Orange.
B. Blue.
C. Yellow.
D. Green.
B. Blue.
NFPA 704 is an acceptable identification system that can be implemented in _____ . The NFPA 704 system is an important aid in determining the actions and safety procedures to be used in the initial phase of a hazmat incident.
A. Chronic exposures.
B. Transportation.
C. Fixed storage facilities.
D. General public use.
C. Fixed storage facilities.
Depending on their purpose, foams are designed for low, medium, or high expansion. Low expansion foam is used primarily to extinguish fires in:
A. Basement fires.
B. Pesticide fires.
C. Coal mine fires.
D. Liquid fires.
D. Liquid fires. (Low) ----------------------------------------- A. Basement fires. (High) B. Pesticide fires. (Medium) C. Coal mine fires. (High)
Several factors are considered when choosing the decontamination site. The FIRST priority in the selection of a decontamination site is its:
A. Surface material.
B. Lighting.
C. Accessibility.
D. Water.
C. Accessibility.
One method of determining specific avenues of attack at chemical emergencies is to determine the immediate concern and the primary objective. Which of the following statements is NOT a primary objective?
A. Extinguishing fires and stabilizing the scene.
B. Stopping leaks by plugging and/or patching.
C. Diking and damning large-volume spills.
D. Eliminating all ignition sources within an appropriate distance.
D. Eliminating all ignition sources within an appropriate distance. (Secondary objective?)
This special firefighter clothing that first responders may encounter is clothing design for situations where heat levels exceed the capabilities of standard firefighting full protective clothing. There are three basic types of high temperature clothing: approach suits, proximity suits, and entry suits. The type of suit which is used for firefighting operations that involve high levels of radiant heat is known as a(n):
A. Fire entry suit.
B. Proximity suits.
C. Approached suit.
D. Turnout suit.
C. Approached suit.
First responders must understand that hazmat incidents are different from other types of emergencies. Most models used for determining the level of a hazmat incident define three levels of response. Which of the following statements is an example of a Level III incident?
A. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat.
B. Those that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries.
C. Spill or leak of unfamiliar or unknown chemicals.
D. Rupture of an underground pipeline.
A. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat. (Level II)
C. Spill or leak of unfamiliar or unknown chemicals. (Level II)
D. Rupture of an underground pipeline. (Level II)
Radioactive material packages are the strongest containers used to transport hazardous materials. The two categories of packaging for shipment are Type A and Type B packaging. The following materials are transported in Type A packaging… the exception is:
A. High-grade raw materials.
B. Radiological gases.
C. Soil density meters.
D. Radiopharmaceuticals.
A. High-grade raw materials.
As the US transportation, storage, and disposal of hazardous materials increase, there will be an inevitable increase in the number of hazmat incidents. Which of the following issues related to hazardous materials are covered by government regulations?
A. Human error.
B. Package failure.
C. Use.
D. Vehicle accidents.
C. Use.
Mutagens are materials that cause changes in the genetic system of a cell in ways that can be transmitted during cell division. The individual who was exposed may not be hurt, but his or her offspring can be. Which of the following materials is known as a mutation?
A. Thalodimide.
B. Ethylene oxide.
C. Ethyl alcohol.
D. Methyl mercury.
B. Ethylene oxide.
Exposure Limits:
The TLV-STEL (Threshold limit value-short-term exposure limit) value is the maximum concentration for a continuous _____-minute exposure period. The maximum concentration for such periods per day, with at least 60 minutes between exposure periods, provided the daily TLV-TWA is not exceeded (set by OSHA).
A. 10 minutes.
B. 15 minutes.
C. 20 minutes.
D. 25 minutes.
B. 15 minutes. (TWA)
Exposure Limits:
The TLV-TWA (threshold limit value-time-weighted average) value is the allowable time-weighted average concentration. Exposure period set by ACGIH is believed to be:
A. 15 mins.
B. 30 mins.
C. 8-hours per week.
D. 8-hour day or 40-hour workweek.
D. 8-hour day or 40-hour workweek. (TWA)
Exposure Limits:
PEL (Permissible exposure limit) is a regulatory limit on the amount of concentration of a substance in the air. The PEL is the maximum concentration which the majority of healthy adults can be exposed over a 40-hour workweek without suffering adverse affects. Exposure period set by OSHA of _____-hours (TWA) unless otherwise noted.
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 24
B. 8-hours (TWA)
Exposure Limits:
PEL (C) is the PEL _____ limit. This is set by OSHA and is the maximum concentration to which an employee may be exposed at any time, even instantaneously.
A. Concentration.
B. Concern.
C. Ceiling.
D. Core.
C. Ceiling.
Exposure Limits:
IDLH (Immediately dangerous to life or health) is similarly defined by NIOSH and OSHA as “An atmosphere that poses an immediate threat to life, would cause irreversible adverse health effects, or would impair an individual’s ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere.”
However, NIOSH and OSHA define IDLH exposure period slightly differently, while OSHA’s exposure limit is simple defined as “immediate”; NIOSH’s is: Immediate (This limit represents the maximum concentration from which an unprotected person can expect to escape in a ___-minute period of time without suffering irreversible health effects.)
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
C. 30-minute
Exposure Limits:
LOC (Levels of concern) is defined as ___% of the IDLH.
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%
B. 10%
Exposure Limits:
TLV (Threshold limit value) is an occupational exposure value recommended by ACGIH to which it is believed nearly all workers can be exposed day after day for a working _____ without ill effect.
A. Shift.
B. Quarterly period.
C. Year.
D. Lifetime.
D. Lifetime.
_____ materials are those that ignite when coming into contact with each other. _____ reactions involve the mixing of two types of chemicals: a fuel and an oxidizer.
A. Hypergolic.
B. Pyrophoric.
C. Unstable.
D. Water-reactive.
A. Hypergolic.
_____ materials are those that ignite instantly upon exposure to oxygen or air at normal temperatures.
A. Hypergolic.
B. Pyrophoric.
C. Unstable.
D. Water-reactive.
B. Pyrophoric.
Example: White phosphorous
_____ materials are generally a flammable solid, that reacts in varying degrees when mixed with water or exposed to humid air.
A. Hypergolic.
B. Pyrophoric.
C. Unstable.
D. Water-reactive.
D. Water-reactive.
_____ - Material that is added to products that easily polymerize in order to control or prevent an undesired reaction. Also called “stabilizer”.
A. Polymerization.
B. Catalyst.
C. Strong oxidizer.
D. Inhibitor.
D. Inhibitor.
_____ - A substance that influences the rate of chemical reaction between or among other substances.
A. Polymerization.
B. Catalyst.
C. Strong oxidizer.
D. Inhibitor.
B. Catalyst.
_____ - Reactions in which two or more molecules chemically combine to form larger molecules; reaction can often be violent.
A. Polymerization.
B. Catalyst.
C. Strong oxidizer.
D. Inhibitor.
A. Polymerization.
Examples : acrylic acid, butadiene, ethylene, styrene, vinyl chloride, epoxies
_____ - Material that encourages a strong reaction (by readily accepting electrons) from a reducing agent (fuel).
A. Polymerization.
B. Catalyst.
C. Strong oxidizer.
D. Inhibitor.
C. Strong oxidizer.
Examples : Hydrogen peroxide, fluorine, bromine, calcium Chlorate, chromic acid, ammonium, perchlorate
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of 0 to 4. The rating numbers are arranged on a diamond-shaped marker or sign. Special hazards are located:
A. In the 12 o’clock position on a red background.
B. In the 9 o’clock position on a blue background.
C. In the 6 o’clock position and have no specified color, however, white is most commonly used.
D. In the 3 o’clock position on a yellow background.
A. In the 12 o’clock position on a red background. (Flammability)
B. In the 9 o’clock position on a blue background. (Health)
D. In the 3 o’clock position on a yellow background. (Instability)
Defenses control measures are those measures used to contain and/or confined material. Defensive control measures may be taken by first responders who are properly trained, who are outfitted with appropriate personal protective equipment, and who have the equipment to carry out these measures. All of the following are defense of control actions… the exception is:
A. Absorption. B. Vapor suppression. C. Dispersion. D. Containment. E. Adsorption. F. Blanketing/covering. G. Dam, dike, diversion, and retention. H. Ventilation. I. Dilution. J. Dissolution. K. Neutralization.
D. Containment. (Offensive)
- All other answers listed are considered Defensive spill control tactics*
_____ tactics are used to confine a hazardous material that has already been released from its container. These tactics reduce the amount of contact the product makes with people, property, and the environment thereby limiting the amount of potential harm. _____ actions are generally defensive in nature.
A. Leak-control tactics.
B. Spill-control tactics.
C. Fire-control tactics.
D. Hazardous-control tactics.
B. Spill-control tactics.
_____ tactics are used to contain the product in its original (or another container), thereby preventing it from escaping. Most _____ tactics are offensive, performed by hazardous material technicians and specialist.
A. Leak-control tactics.
B. Spill-control tactics.
C. Fire-control tactics.
D. Hazardous-control tactics.
A. Leak-control tactics.
_____ tactics are aimed at extinguishing fires and preventing ignition of flammable materials. These tactics may be offensive or defensive, depending on the situation.
A. Leak-control tactics.
B. Spill-control tactics.
C. Fire-control tactics.
D. Hazardous-control tactics.
C. Fire-control tactics.
The General Emergency Behavior Model (GEBMO) was developed to help first responders limit the effects of a hazardous material. This model leads first responders to develop a strategy by the evaluation of six specific conditions related to the incident. Contacts are associated with four general time frames. An example of a medium-term time frame is:
A. Gas or vapor cloud.
B. Deflagration.
C. Lingering pesticides.
D. Permanent radioactive source.
A. Gas or vapor cloud. (Short term)
B. Deflagration. (Immediate)
D. Permanent radioactive source. (Long term)
Closed circuit self-contained breathing apparatus is sometimes used for hazmat incidents. An advantaged of closed circuit SCBA over open circuit SCBA is:
A. Closed circuit SCBA is heavier than open circuit SCBA.
B. Closed circuit SCBA is available with durations of 30 minutes to 4 hours.
C. Closed circuit SCBA uses compressed air instead of pure oxygen.
D. The operation of closed circuit SCBA units is considerably less complicated than operation of open circuit SCBA.
B. Closed circuit SCBA is available with durations of 30 minutes to 4 hours.
What is the primary objective for an emergency involving a Class 4 material involving fire or flame impingement?
A. Let it burn until it is consumed.
B. Put the fire out.
C. Extinguish the fire with a dry chemical extinguisher.
D. Extinguish the fire with a Class D extinguisher.
A. Let it burn until it is consumed.
Being exposed to hazardous material does not necessarily mean the exposed person or object is contaminated - it depends on the magnitude of the exposure. For example, employees in the workplace are allowed to be exposed to _____ of hydrogen sulfide during the course of a normal workday. This is the threshold limit value, time-weighted average (TLV-TWA) set by the federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration for hydrogen sulfide.
A. 10 ppm.
B. 20 ppm.
C. 30 ppm.
D. 40 ppm.
A. 10 ppm.
A hazardous substance as defined by 42 USC 9601, Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA), section 101(14): is… the exception is:
A. Any substance designated via the Federal Water Pollution Control Act.
B. Any hazardous air pollutant listed under section 112 of the Clean Air Act.
C. Petroleum or any petroleum byproduct.
D. Any elements, compound, mixture, solution, or substance designated pursuant to CERCLA.
C. Petroleum or any petroleum byproduct. (FALSE)
Once they are in the system, hazardous materials have varying effects on the body. Many materials attack the body internally but have no external effect. Other hazardous materials affect the body both internally and externally. Which of the following hazardous materials attacked the body internally, but have no external effect?
A. Chlorine.
B. Mercury.
C. Isopropyl alcohol.
D. Anhydrous ammonia.
B. Mercury.
The fire point is the temperature at which:
A. Enough vapors are given off to support continuous burning.
B. A liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface.
C. The fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustaining combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source.
D. A substance most rapidly changes from a liquid to a gas or when the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation.
B. A liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface. (Flashpoint)
C. The fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustaining combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source. (Autoignition temperature)
D. A substance most rapidly changes from a liquid to a gas or when the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation. (Boiling point)
The flash point is the temperature at which:
A. Enough vapors are given off to support continuous burning.
B. A liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface.
C. The fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustaining combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source.
D. A substance most rapidly changes from a liquid to a gas or when the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation.
B. A liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface.
The autoignition temperature is the temperature at which:
A. Enough vapors are given off to support continuous burning.
B. A liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface.
C. The fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustaining combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source.
D. A substance most rapidly changes from a liquid to a gas or when the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation.
C. The fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustaining combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source.
The boiling point is the temperature at which:
A. Enough vapors are given off to support continuous burning.
B. A liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface.
C. The fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustaining combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source.
D. A substance most rapidly changes from a liquid to a gas or when the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation.
D. A substance most rapidly changes from a liquid to a gas or when the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation.
Water reactive materials are substances, generally flammable solids, that react in varying degrees when either mixed with water or exposed to humid air. The chemical reactions of a substance will vary. Acetylene gas is formed when water comes in contact with:
A. Polyethylene.
B. Lithium.
C. Magnesium.
D. Calcium carbide.
D. Calcium carbide.
The ERG contains several cross-referenced indexes. The index ( ____ boarded pages) list the UN/NA four-digit identification number in numerical order with its proper material shipping name and guide number assigned to it.
A. Blue.
B. Yellow.
C. Orange.
D. Green.
B. Yellow.
_____ is high-temperature PPE clothing that permits close approach to fires for the purpose of performing rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation activities.
A. Approach suits.
B. Fire entry suits.
C. Proximity suits.
D. Firefighter turnout suits.
C. Proximity suits.
Extinguishment of flammable and combustible liquid hazmat fires requires properly applied foams in adequate quantities. Hydrocarbon fuels are petroleum-based and float on water. Standard firefighting foam is effective as an extinguishing agent and vapor suppressant. The following are examples of hydrocarbon fuels… the exception is:
A. Gasoline.
B. Acetone.
C. Benzene.
D. Naphtha.
B. Acetone.
The decontamination corridor should be established before any work is performed in the hot zone. First responders are often involved with setting up and working in the decontamination corridor. A _____ hoseline is ideal for decontamination.
A. High volume, low pressure.
B. Low volume, high pressure.
C. Low volume, low-pressure.
D. High-volume, high-pressure.
A. High volume, low pressure.
Many incidents occur while hazardous materials are being transported and statistics indicate that the majority of hazmat transportation incidents occur while materials are being transported via:
A. Air.
B. Highway.
C. Rail.
D. Water.
B. Highway.
Because certain hazardous materials are more common than others, they are statistically more likely to be involved in incidents and accidents. Records have shown that the majority of hazmat incidents involve the following products… the exception is:
A. Flammable/combustible liquids (petroleum products, paint products, residents, adhesives, etc.).
B. Corrosives (sulfuric acid, hydrochloric acid, sodium hydroxide, etc.).
C. Anhydrous ammonia.
D. Chlorine.
E. Radioactive materials.
E. Radioactive materials. (FALSE)
Vapor density is the weight of a given volume of pure vapor or gas compared to the weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure. All of the following examples has a vapor density less than one… the exception is:
A. Acetylene.
B. Hydrogen.
C. Chlorine.
D. Methane.
C. Chlorine. (Greater than 1, sinks)
According to the US government, all shipments of radioactive materials whether from industry or government, must be packaged and transported according to strict regulations. The type of packaging used to transport radioactive materials is determined by the activity, type, and form of material to be shipped. An example of an article which would be shipped in “excepted” packaging is:
A. Smoke detectors.
B. Radiopharmaceuticals.
C. Slightly contaminated clothing.
D. Depleted uranium.
D. Depleted uranium. (Excepted) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ A. Smoke detectors. (Industrial) B. Radiopharmaceuticals. (Type A) C. Slightly contaminated clothing. (Industrial)
When dealing with hazardous materials there are both offensive and defensive tactics which may be needed to control the incident. Which of the following tactics is an offensive tactic?
A. Diking.
B. Plugging.
C. Using sand to divert the spill.
D. Damning.
B. Plugging.
Decontamination methods can be divided into four broad categories: wet or dry methods, and physical or chemical methods. _____ is an example of chemical decontamination.
A. Sanitation.
B. Adsorption.
C. Brushing.
D. Dilution.
A. Sanitation.
Decontamination methods can be divided into four broad categories: wet or dry methods, and physical or chemical methods. Examples of _____ methods include chemical degradation, sanitization, disinfection, sterilization, neutralization, and solidification.
A. Wet.
B. Dry.
C. Physical.
D. Chemical.
D. Chemical.
Decontamination methods can be divided into four broad categories: wet or dry methods, and physical or chemical methods. Examples of _____ methods include absorption, adsorption, brushing & scraping, dilution, evaporation, isolation & disposal, washing, and vacuuming.
A. Wet.
B. Dry.
C. Physical.
D. Chemical.
C. Physical.
Decontamination methods can be divided into four broad categories: wet or dry methods, and physical or chemical methods. Examples of _____ methods include scraping, brushing, and absorption.
A. Wet.
B. Dry.
C. Physical.
D. Chemical.
B. Dry.
Decontamination methods can be divided into four broad categories: wet or dry methods, and physical or chemical methods. Examples of _____ methods include washing, flushing, and dilution.
A. Wet.
B. Dry.
C. Physical.
D. Chemical.
A. Wet.
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Defensive spill-control tactics that “confine” hazardous materials include the following: Absorption; Adsorption; Blanketing/covering; Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention; & Vapor suppression.
_____ is a physical and/or chemical event occurring during contact between materials that have an attraction for each other. This event results in one material being retained within the other.
A. Absorption. B. Adsorption. C. Blanketing/covering. D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention. E. Vapor suppression.
A. Absorption.
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Defensive spill-control tactics that “confine” hazardous materials include the following: Absorption; Adsorption; Blanketing/covering; Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention; & Vapor suppression.
An example of _____ is soaking an axe head and water to make the handle swell.
A. Absorption. B. Adsorption. C. Blanketing/covering. D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention. E. Vapor suppression.
A. Absorption.
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Defensive spill-control tactics that “confine” hazardous materials include the following: Absorption; Adsorption; Blanketing/covering; Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention; & Vapor suppression.
Some of the materials typically used in _____ are sawdust, clays, charcoal, and polyolefin-type fibers. These materials are spread directly onto the hazardous material or any location where the material is expected to flow. After use, it must be treated and disposed of as hazardous materials themselves because they retain the property of the materials they absorb.
A. Absorption. B. Adsorption. C. Blanketing/covering. D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention. E. Vapor suppression.
A. Absorption.
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Defensive spill-control tactics that “confine” hazardous materials include the following: Absorption; Adsorption; Blanketing/covering; Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention; & Vapor suppression.
In _____ molecules of the hazardous material physically adhere to the material. _____ materials are often organic-based such as activated charcoal or carbon. They are primarily used to control shallow liquid spills. It is important to make sure that they are compatible with the spilled material in order to avoid potentially dangerous reactions.
A. Absorption. B. Adsorption. C. Blanketing/covering. D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention. E. Vapor suppression.
B. Adsorption.
The following statements are FALSE in regards to “adsorption”… the exception is:
A. “Adsorbents” tend to swell like “absorbents” do.
B. An example of “adsorption” is soaking an axe head in water to make the handle swell.
C. “Absorption” is different from “adsorption” in that the molecules of the hazardous material physically adhere to the “absorbent” material rather than being “adsorbed” into the interspaces of an “adsorbent” material.
D. “Adsorption” is different from “absorption” in that the molecules of the hazardous material physically adhere to the “adsorbent” material rather than being “absorbed” into the interspaces of an “absorbent” material.
D. “Adsorption” is different from “absorption” in that the molecules of the hazardous material physically adhere to the “adsorbent” material rather than being “absorbed” into the interspaces of an “absorbent” material. (TRUE)
________________________________
A. “Adsorbents” tend to swell like “absorbents” do. (FALSE - reversed)
B. An example of “adsorption” is soaking an axe head in water to make the handle swell. (FALSE - “absorption”)
C. “Absorption” is different from “adsorption” in that the molecules of the hazardous material physically adhere to the “absorbent” material rather than being “adsorbed” into the interspaces of an “adsorbent” material. (FALSE - reversed)
The following statements are TRUE in regards to “absorption”… the exception is:
A. “Absorption” is a physical and/or chemical event occurring during contact between materials that have an attraction for each other. This event results and one material being retained within the other.
B. And example of “absorption” is soaking in axe head in water to make the handle swell.
C. “Absorbents” are often organic-based materials such as activated charcoal or carbon.
D. “Absorbents” tend to swell, unlike “adsorbents” that do not.
C. “Absorbents” are often organic-based materials such as activated charcoal or carbon. (FALSE - “Adsorbents”)
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Defensive spill-control tactics that “confine” hazardous materials include the following: Absorption; Adsorption; Blanketing/covering; Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention; & Vapor suppression.
This spill-control measure involves _____ the surface of the spill to prevent distortion of material such as powders or dust. _____ of solids can be done with tarps, plastic sheeting, salvage covers, or other materials (including foam), but consideration must be given to the compatibility between the material being covered and the material covering it.
A. Absorption. B. Adsorption. C. Blanketing/covering. D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention. E. Vapor suppression.
C. Blanketing/covering.
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Defensive spill-control tactics that “confine” hazardous materials include the following: Absorption; Adsorption; Blanketing/covering; Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention; & Vapor suppression.
_____ are ways to confine a hazardous material. These actions are taken to control the flow of liquid hazardous materials away from the point of discharge. Responders can use available earthen materials or materials carried on their response vehicles to construct curbs that direct or divert the flow away from gutters, trains, storm sewers, flood-control channels, and out falls. In some cases, it may be desirable to direct the flow into certain locations in order to capture and retain the material for later pick up and disposal.
A. Absorption. B. Adsorption. C. Blanketing/covering. D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention. E. Vapor suppression.
D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention.
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Defensive spill-control tactics that “confine” hazardous materials include the following: Absorption; Adsorption; Blanketing/covering; Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention; & Vapor suppression.
_____ is the action taken to reduce emission of vapors at a hazardous material spills. Firefighting foams are effective on spills of flammable and combustible liquids if the foam concentrate is compatible with the materials.
A. Absorption. B. Adsorption. C. Blanketing/covering. D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention. E. Vapor suppression.
E. Vapor suppression.
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Some defensive spill control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm the material causes by diluting the concentration or changing its physical and/or chemical properties. These tactics include the following: Vapor dispersion; Ventilation; Dispersion; Dilution; Dissolution; & Neutralization.
_____ is the action taken to direct or influence the course of airborne hazardous materials. Pressurized streams of water from hoselines or unattended master streams maybe used to help in _____ . These streams create turbulence, which increases the rate of mixing with air introduces and reduces the concentration of the hazardous material.
A. Vapor dispersion. B. Ventilation. C. Dispersion. D. Dilution. E. Dissolution. F. Neutralization.
A. Vapor dispersion.
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Some defensive spill control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm the material causes by diluting the concentration or changing its physical and/or chemical properties. These tactics include the following: Vapor dispersion; Ventilation; Dispersion; Dilution; Dissolution; & Neutralization.
_____ involves controlling the movement of air by natural or mechanical means. It is used to remove and/or disperse harmful airborne particles, vapors, or gases when spills occur inside structures. The same _____ techniques used for smoke removal can be used for hazmat incidents.
A. Vapor dispersion. B. Ventilation. C. Dispersion. D. Dilution. E. Dissolution. F. Neutralization.
B. Ventilation.
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Some defensive spill control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm the material causes by diluting the concentration or changing its physical and/or chemical properties. These tactics include the following: Vapor dispersion; Ventilation; Dispersion; Dilution; Dissolution; & Neutralization.
_____ involves breaking up a hazardous material that has spilled on a solid or liquid surface. Both chemical and biological agents have been used for this purpose, usually on hydrocarbon spills such as oceanic crude oil. _____ often has the unfortunate effect of spreading the material over a wide area, and the process itself may cause additional problems. Because of these problems, approval from government authorities may be required.
A. Vapor dispersion. B. Ventilation. C. Dispersion. D. Dilution. E. Dissolution. F. Neutralization.
C. Dispersion.
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Some defensive spill control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm the material causes by diluting the concentration or changing its physical and/or chemical properties. These tactics include the following: Vapor dispersion; Ventilation; Dispersion; Dilution; Dissolution; & Neutralization.
_____ is the application of water to a water-soluble material to reduce the hazard. _____ of a liquid material rarely has practical applications at hazmat incidents in terms of spill control; it is often used during decontamination operations.
A. Vapor dispersion. B. Ventilation. C. Dispersion. D. Dilution. E. Dissolution. F. Neutralization.
D. Dilution.
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Some defensive spill control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm the material causes by diluting the concentration or changing its physical and/or chemical properties. These tactics include the following: Vapor dispersion; Ventilation; Dispersion; Dilution; Dissolution; & Neutralization.
The process of dissolving a gas in water is called _____ . This tactic can only be used on water-soluble gases such as anhydrous ammonia or chlorine and is generally conducted by applying a fog stream to a breach in a container or directly onto the spill. Ideally, the escaping gas and passes through the water and dissolves.
A. Vapor dispersion. B. Ventilation. C. Dispersion. D. Dilution. E. Dissolution. F. Neutralization.
E. Dissolution.
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Some defensive spill control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm the material causes by diluting the concentration or changing its physical and/or chemical properties. These tactics include the following: Vapor dispersion; Ventilation; Dispersion; Dilution; Dissolution; & Neutralization.
Usually, _____ involves raising or lowering the pH of corrosive materials to render them “___ “(pH 7). However, the term can be applied to any chemical reaction that reduces the hazard of the material. _____ is a difficult process; for example, adding too much can cause a pH shift in the opposite direction. It should only be conducted (with few exceptions) under the direction of a hazardous material technician, allied professional, or standard operating procedures.
A. Vapor dispersion. B. Ventilation. C. Dispersion. D. Dilution. E. Dissolution. F. Neutralization.
F. Neutralization.
Low explosives decompose rapidly but do not produce an explosive effect unless they are confined: rather, they deflagrate. An example of a low explosive is:
A. Nitroglycerin.
B. TNT.
C. Black powder.
D. Ammonium nitrate.
C. Black powder. (Low explosive) ----------------------------------------- A. Nitroglycerin. (High) B. TNT. (High) D. Ammonium nitrate. (High)
Asphyxiants are substances that affect the oxygenation of the body and generally lead to suffocation. Which of the following is an example of a chemical asphyxiant?
A. Aniline.
B. Acetylene.
C. Carbon dioxide.
D. Methane.
A. Aniline. (Chemical) ----------------------------------------- B. Acetylene. (Simple) C. Carbon dioxide. (Simple) D. Methane. (Simple)
Before discussing the foam-making process, it is important to understand certain terms. _____ is described as “liquid found in a foam storage container before the induction of water, typically found 1, 3, or 6% concentrates.”
A. Finished foam.
B. Foam concentrate.
C. Foam solution.
D. Foam proportioner.
B. Foam concentrate.
A noncapsulated suit commonly consists of a one-piece coverall, but sometimes is composed of individual pieces such as a jackets, hood, pants, or bib overalls. Which of the following is a limitation to a nonencapsulating suits?
A. Protects against gases and vapors but not against splashes and dust.
B. Traps body heat and contributes to heat stress.
C. Does provide full body coverage: parts of head and neck are not exposed.
D. Repairs workers mobility, vision, and communication.
B. Traps body heat and contributes to heat stress.
The SUBCOM report recommends That victims remove clothing at least down to their undergarments before showering. Victims unwilling to disrobe should shower clothed before leaving the decon area. It is also recommended that emergency responders use a high volume of water delivered at a minimum of _____ .
A. 20 PSI.
B. 40 PSI.
C. 60 PSI.
D. 80 PSI.
C. 60 PSI.
Vapor density is the weight of a given volume of pure vapor or gas compared to the weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure. Which of the following examples has a vapor density less than one?
A. Acetylene.
B. Propane.
C. Chlorine.
D. Ethane.
A. Acetylene. (Lighter than air)
Atmospheric storage tanks are designed to hold contents under little pressure. The maximum pressure under which an atmospheric tank is capable of holding its contents is 0.5 PSI. Which of the following answer choices is an example of an atmospheric tank?
A. Lifter roof tank.
B. Cryogenic tank.
C. Nodes spheroid tank.
D. Dome roof tank.
A. Lifter roof tank.
In general, aboveground storage tanks are divided into two major categories. _____ tanks are tanks that store product normally having a small amount of pressure inside (up to 0.5 psi).
A. Nonpressure tanks.
B. Pressure tanks.
C. Open tanks.
D. Closed tanks.
A. Nonpressure tanks. (aka Atmospheric tanks)
In general, aboveground storage tanks are divided into two major categories. _____ tanks are tanks that are divided into the following two categories: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15 PSI) and pressure vessels (above 15 PSI).
A. Nonpressure tanks.
B. Pressure tanks.
C. Open tanks.
D. Closed tanks.
B. Pressure tanks.
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
Nonpressure/atmospheric storage tanks are designed to hold contents under little pressure. The maximum pressure under which an atmospheric tank is capable of holding its contents is 0.5 PSI. Common types of atmosphere tanks are… the exception is:
A. Horizontal tanks. B. Ordinary cone roof tanks. C. Floating roof tanks. D. Lifter roof tanks. E. Vapor dome roof tanks. D. Dome roof tank.
D. Dome roof tank. (Low-pressure tank 0.5-15 PSI)
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ are cylindrical tanks sitting on legs, blocks, cement pads, or something similar; typically constructed of steel with flat ends. _____ tanks are commonly used for bulk storage in conjunction with fuel dispensing operations. Old tanks (pre-1950s) have bolted seams, whereas new tanks are generally welded. A _____ tank supported by unprotected steel supports or stilts (prohibited by most current fire codes) may fail quickly during fire conditions.
A. Horizontal tanks. B. Cone roof tanks. C. Open top floating roof tanks. D. Covered top floating roof tanks. E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome. F. Lifter roof tanks. G. Vapordome roof tanks. H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
A. Horizontal tanks.
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ have pointed/cone roofs with weak roof-to-shell seams that break when or if the container becomes over pressurized. When it is partially full, the remaining portion of the tank contains a potentially dangerous vapor space.
A. Horizontal tanks. B. Cone roof tanks. C. Open top floating roof tanks. D. Covered top floating roof tanks. E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome. F. Lifter roof tanks. G. Vapordome roof tanks. H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
B. Cone roof tanks.
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ are large capacity, aboveground holding tanks. They are usually much wider than they are tall. The roof actually floats on the surface of the liquid and move up and down depending on the liquids level.
A. Horizontal tanks. B. Cone roof tanks. C. Open top floating roof tanks. D. Covered top floating roof tanks. E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome. F. Lifter roof tanks. G. Vapordome roof tanks. H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
C. Open top floating roof tanks.
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ have fixed cone roofs with either a pan or deck-type float inside that rides directly on the product surface. This tank is a combination of the open top floating roof tank and ordinary cone roof tank.
A. Horizontal tanks. B. Cone roof tanks. C. Open top floating roof tanks. D. Covered top floating roof tanks. E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome. F. Lifter roof tanks. G. Vapordome roof tanks. H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
D. Covered top floating roof tanks.
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ are floating roof tanks covered by geodesic domes are used to store flammable liquids.
A. Horizontal tanks. B. Cone roof tanks. C. Open top floating roof tanks. D. Covered top floating roof tanks. E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome. F. Lifter roof tanks. G. Vapordome roof tanks. H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome.
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ have roofs that float within a series of vertical guides that allow only a few feet (meters) of travel. The roof is designed so that when the vapor pressure exceeds a designated limit, the roof lifts slightly and relieves the excess pressure.
A. Horizontal tanks. B. Cone roof tanks. C. Open top floating roof tanks. D. Covered top floating roof tanks. E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome. F. Lifter roof tanks. G. Vapordome roof tanks. H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
F. Lifter roof tanks.
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ are vertical storage tanks that have lightweight aluminum geodesic domes on their tops. Attached to the underside of the dome is a flexible diaphragm that moves in conjunction with changes in vapor pressure.
A. Horizontal tanks. B. Cone roof tanks. C. Open top floating roof tanks. D. Covered top floating roof tanks. E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome. F. Lifter roof tanks. G. Vapordome roof tanks. H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
G. Vapordome roof tanks.
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ have more than 10% of their surface areas underground. They can be buried under a building or driveway or adjacent to the occupancy. This tank has fill and vent connections located near the tank. Vents, fill points, and occupancy type (gas/service stations, private garages, and fleet maintenance stations) provide a visual clues. Many commercial and private tanks have been abandoned, some with product still in them. These tanks are presenting major problems to many communities.
A. Horizontal tanks. B. Cone roof tanks. C. Open top floating roof tanks. D. Covered top floating roof tanks. E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome. F. Lifter roof tanks. G. Vapordome roof tanks. H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
Low-pressure storage tanks include the following… the exception is:
A. Dome roof tanks.
B. Spheroid tanks.
C. Noded Spheroid tanks.
D. Horizontal pressure vessel.
D. Horizontal pressure vessel. (Pressure vessel)
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
Pressure vessel/storage tanks include the following… the exception is:
A. Horizontal pressure vessel.
B. Spherical pressure vessel.
C. Spheroid tank.
D. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
C. Spheroid tank. (Low-pressure storage tank)
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
_____ are generally classified as low-pressure tanks with operating pressures as high as 15 PSI. They have domes on their tops.
A. Dome roof tanks. B. Spheroid tanks. C. Noded Spheroid tanks. D. Horizontal pressure vessel. E. Spherical pressure vessel. F. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
A. Dome roof tanks.
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
_____ are low-pressure storage tanks. They can store 3,000,000 gallons or more of liquid.
A. Dome roof tanks. B. Spheroid tanks. C. Noded Spheroid tanks. D. Horizontal pressure vessel. E. Spherical pressure vessel. F. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
B. Spheroid tanks.
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
_____ are low-pressure storage tanks. They are similar in use to spheroid tanks, but they can be substantially larger and flatter shape. These tanks are held together by a series of internal ties and supports that reduced stresses on the external shells.
A. Dome roof tanks. B. Spheroid tanks. C. Noded Spheroid tanks. D. Horizontal pressure vessel. E. Spherical pressure vessel. F. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
C. Noded Spheroid tanks.
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
_____ have high pressures and capacities from 500 to over 40,000 gallons. They have rounded ends and are not usually insulated. They usually are painted white or some other highly reflective color.
A. Dome roof tanks. B. Spheroid tanks. C. Noded Spheroid tanks. D. Horizontal pressure vessel. E. Spherical pressure vessel. F. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
D. Horizontal pressure vessel.
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
_____ have high pressures and capacities up to 600,000 gallons. They are often supported off the ground by a series of concrete or steel legs. They usually are painted white or some other highly reflective color.
A. Dome roof tanks. B. Spheroid tanks. C. Noded Spheroid tanks. D. Horizontal pressure vessel. E. Spherical pressure vessel. F. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
E. Spherical pressure vessel.
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
_____ are insulated, vacuum jacketed tanks with safety relief valves and rupture disks. Capacities can range from 300 to 400,000 gallons. Pressures vary according to the material stored and their usage.
A. Dome roof tanks. B. Spheroid tanks. C. Noded Spheroid tanks. D. Horizontal pressure vessel. E. Spherical pressure vessel. F. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
F. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
To be considered bulk packaging, the following criteria must be met: Maximum capacity is greater than ____ gallons as a receptacle for a “liquid”.
A. 55 gallons.
B. 119 gallons.
C. 882 pounds.
D. 1,001 pounds.
B. 119 gallons.
To be considered bulk packaging, the following criteria must be met: Maximum net mass is greater than _____ pounds or maximum capacity is greater than 119 gallons as a receptacle for a “solid”.
A. 55 gallons.
B. 119 gallons.
C. 882 pounds.
D. 1,001 pounds.
C. 882 pounds.
To be considered bulk packaging, the following criteria must be met: Water capacity is _____ pounds or greater as a receptacle for a “gas”.
A. 55 gallons.
B. 119 gallons.
C. 882 pounds.
D. 1,001 pounds.
D. 1,001 pounds.
_____ - Packaging, other than a vessel or barge, including transport vehicle or freight container, in which hazardous materials are loaded with no intermediate form of containment and which has:
- A maximum capacity greater than 119 gallons as a receptacle for a liquid
- Maximum net mass greater than 882 pounds and a maximum capacity greater than 119 gallons as a receptacle for a solid
- Water capacity greater than 1000 pounds as a receptacle for a gas
A. Bulk packaging.
B. Nonbulk packaging.
C. Box packaging.
D. Consumer packaging.
A. Bulk packaging.
_____ - Package that has the following characteristics:
- Maximum capacity of 119 gallons or less as a receptacle for a liquid
- Maximum net mass of 882 pounds or less and a maximum capacity of 119 gallons or less as a receptacle for a solid
- Water capacity of 1000 pounds or less as a receptacle for a gas
A. Bulk packaging.
B. Nonbulk packaging.
C. Box packaging.
D. Consumer packaging.
B. Nonbulk packaging.
To be considered nonbulk packaging, the following criteria must be met: Maximum capacity of ____ gallons or less as a receptacle for a “liquid”.
A. 55 gallons.
B. 119 gallons.
C. 882 pounds.
D. 1,000 pounds.
B. 119 gallons.
