Haz Mat Flashcards
(1022 cards)
0
Q
Operations at hazardous material incidents have different levels of incidents. A Level 1 incident would be which the following:
A. A major motor vehicle accident involving a spill.
B. Break or rupture of domestic natural gas lines to a house.
C. Rupture of high-pressure domestic natural gas line.
D. A fire that is posing a serious BLEVE threat.
A
A. A major motor vehicle accident involving a spill. (Level 2)
C. Rupture of high-pressure domestic natural gas line. (Level 2?)
D. A fire that is posing a serious BLEVE threat. (Level 2)
1
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
Level ___ - This type of incident is within the capabilities of the fire or emergency services organization or other first responders having jurisdiction. It is the least serious and easiest to handle. It may pose a serious threat to life or property, although this situation is not usually the case. Evacuation (if required) is limited to the immediate area of the incident.
A
Level 1
2
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
Level ___ - This type of incident is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene and maybe beyond the capabilities of the first response agency/ organization having jurisdiction. These incidents may require the services of a formal hazmat response team.
A
Level 2
3
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
Level ___ - This type of incident requires resources from state agencies, federal agencies and/or private industry and also requires unified command. These incidents are the most serious of all hazardous material incidents. A large-scale evacuation may be required. Most likely, the incident will not be concluded by any one agency; rather, successful handling of the incident requires a collective effort from several resources/ procedures.
A
Level 3
4
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Small amount of gasoline or diesel fuel spilled from an automobile.
A
Level 1
5
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Leak from domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter.
A
Level 1
6
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Broken containers of consumer commodities such as paint, thinners, bleach, swimming pool chemicals, and fertilizer (owner or proprietor is responsible for cleanup and disposal).
A
Level 1
7
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Spill or leak requiring limited-scale evacuation.
A
Level 2
8
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Any major accident, spillage, or overflow of flammable liquids.
A
Level 2
9
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Spill or leak of unfamiliar or unknown chemicals.
A
Level 2
10
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Accident involving extremely hazardous substances.
A
Level 2
11
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Rupture of an underground pipeline.
A
Level 2
12
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Fire that is posing a BLEVE (boiling liquid expanding vapor explosion) threat in a storage tank.
A
Level 2
13
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Incidents that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries.
A
Level 3
14
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Incidents beyond the capabilities of the local hazardous material response team.
A
Level 3
15
Q
Incident Levels:
Most incident level models define three levels of response graduating from Level 1 to Level 3:
The following is an example of a Level ___ incident:
-Incidents that activate (in part or in whole) the federal response plan.
A
Level 3
16
Q
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Use chemical protective clothing.
A
Level 2
17
Q
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Dike and confine within the contaminated areas.
A
Level 2
18
Q
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Perform plunging, patching, and basically control activities.
A
Level 2
19
Q
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Sample and test unknown substances.
A
Level 2
20
Q
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Perform various levels of decontamination.
A
Level 2
21
Q
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Specialists from industry and governmental agencies.
A
Level 3
22
Q
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Sophisticated sampling and monitoring equipment.
A
Level 3
23
Q
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Specialized leak and spill control techniques.
A
Level 3
24
Incident Levels:
a properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following task in a Level ___ incident:
-Decontamination on a large scale.
Level 3
25
Incident Levels:
Level ___ incidents includes small fuel spills.
Level 1
26
Incident Levels:
A hazmat team might be needed to conduct offensive operations at a Level ___ incident.
Level 2
27
Incident Levels:
Level ___ incidents will likely involve unified command, multiple agencies, and a lengthy mitigation period.
Level 3
28
Incident Levels:
The following are examples of Level 1 incidents... the exception is:
A. Spill or leak requiring limited-scale evacuation.
B. Small amount of gasoline or diesel fuel spilled from an automobile.
C. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter.
D. Broken containers of consumer commodities such as paint, thinners, bleach, swimming pool chemicals, and fertilizers.
A. Spill or leak requiring limited-scale evacuation. (FALSE - Level 2)
29
Incident Levels:
The following are examples of Level 2 incidents... the exception is:
A. Spill or leak requiring limited-scale evacuation.
B. Any major accident, spillage, or overflow flammable liquids.
C. Spill or leak of unfamiliar or unknown chemicals.
D. Accident involving extremely hazardous substances.
E. Rupture of an underground pipeline.
F. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat in a storage tank.
G. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the customer side of the meter.
G. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the customer side of the meter. (FALSE - Level 1)
30
Incident Levels:
The following are examples of Level 3 incidents... the exception is:
A. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat in a storage tank.
B. Incidents that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries.
C. Incidents beyond the capabilities of the local hazardous materials response team.
D. Incidents that activate (in part or in whole) the federal response plan.
A. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat in a storage tank. (FALSE - Level 2)
31
Incident Levels:
Level 2 incidents may require the services of a formal hazmat response team. A properly trained and equipped response team could be expected to perform the following tasks... the exception is:
A. Use chemical protective clothing.
B. Dike and confine within the contaminated areas.
C. Perform plunging, patching, and basically control activities.
D. Sample and test unknown substances.
E. Specialized leak and spill control techniques.
F. Perform various levels of decontamination.
E. Specialized leak and spill control techniques. (FALSE - Level 3)
32
Incident Levels:
A Level 3 incident is the most serious of all hazardous material incidents. Successful handling of the incident requires a collective effort from several of the following resources/procedures... the exception is:
A. Specialists from industry and governmental agencies.
B. Sophisticated sampling and monitoring equipment.
C. Specialized leak and spill control techniques.
D. Decontamination on a large scale.
E. Sampling and testing of unknown substances.
E. Sampling and testing of unknown substances. (FALSE - Level 2)
33
Unfortunately, there are no clues as to when tank rupture will occur. However, there are some warning signs that indicate to first responders a worsening situation. A _____ sound occurs when metal has been softened by high heat and pressure is stretching the metal.
A. Whistling. C. Pinging.
B. Rumbling. D. Hissing.
C. Pinging.
34
Which of the following is least true in regards to a waybill.
A. Waybills are carried by the conductor.
B. There is a waybill for each car.
C. Waybills indicate the origin, destination, route and product.
D. The waybill lists the cars in the train in order.
D. The waybill lists the cars in the train in order. (FALSE)
35
Shipping Paper Identification:
If the Transportation Mode is by AIR:
1.) The _____ is the Shipping Paper Name.
2.) The _____ is the Location of Papers.
&
3.) The _____ would be the Party Responsible.
1. ) Air Bill
2. ) Cockpit
3. ) Pilot
36
Shipping Paper Identification:
If the Transportation Mode is by HIGHWAY:
1.) The _____ is the Shipping Paper Name.
2.) The _____ is the Location of Papers.
&
3.) The _____ would be the Party Responsible.
1. ) Bill of Landing
2. ) Vehicle Cab
3. ) Driver
37
Shipping Paper Identification:
If the Transportation Mode is by RAIL:
1.) The _____ is the Shipping Paper Name.
2.) The _____ is the Location of Papers.
&
3.) The _____ would be the Party Responsible.
1. ) Trainlist/Consist
2. ) Engine (or Caboose)
3. ) Conductor
38
Shipping Paper Identification:
If the Transportation Mode is by WATER:
1.) The _____ is the Shipping Paper Name.
2.) The _____ is the Location of Papers.
&
3.) The _____ would be the Party Responsible.
1. ) Dangerous Cargo Manifest
2. ) Bridge or Pilot House
3. ) Captain or Master
39
Shipping Papers:
_____ (aka _____) - Shipping paper used by the trucking industry (and others) indicating origin, destination, route, and product; placed in the cab of every truck tractor. This document establishes the terms of a contract between shippers and transportation companies; serves as a document of title, contract of carriage, and receipt for goods.
Bill of Landing (aka Waybill)
40
Which of the following is a Class A explosive:
A. Blasting caps.
B. Flash powder.
C. Special fireworks.
D. Small arms ammunition.
A. Blasting caps.
41
Classification of Explosives:
HIGH explosives decompose extremely rapidly (almost instantaneously), which is normally called detonation. In other words, high explosives detonate (explode). Simply put, high explosives have detonation velocities that are faster than the speed of sound. Examples of commercially available high explosives include... the exception is:
```
A. Plastic explosives.
B. Fireworks.
C. Nitroglycerin.
D. TNT/Dynamite.
E. Blasting caps.
F. Ammonium nitrate and fuel oil (ANFO) and other blasting agents.
```
B. Fireworks. (FALSE - Low explosive)
42
Classification of Explosives:
LOW Explosives decompose rapidly but do not produce an explosive effect unless they are confined; rather, they deflagrate (burn rapidly). Low explosives confined in small spaces or containers are commonly used as propellants. Unconfined low explosives may also be considered incendiary materials. The following are examples of low explosives the exception is:
```
A. Black powder.
B. Flash powder.
C. Bullets.
D. Fireworks.
E. Blasting caps.
G. Road flares.
```
E. Blasting caps. (FALSE - High explosive)
43
Color cannot be used for product identification with rail cars but a white cars with red stripes, one horizontally around the car and two vertically, three feet from each end always hydrogen cyanide or _____ .
A. Ethylene.
B. Chlorine.
C. Acrolien.
D. Hydrocyanic acid.
D. Hydrocyanic acid.
44
Color cannot be used for product identification with rail cars but a white cars with red stripes, one horizontally around the car and two vertically, three feet from each end always hydrocyanic acid or _____ .
A. Ethylene.
B. Chlorine.
C. Acrolien.
D. Hydrogen cyanide.
D. Hydrogen cyanide.
45
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds that are different colors. The diamond that is colored "yellow" indicates which of the following?
A. Health.
B. Special information.
C. Flammability.
D. Instability.
D. Instability.
46
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds that are different colors. The diamond that is colored "blue" indicates which of the following?
A. Health.
B. Special information.
C. Flammability.
D. Instability.
A. Health.
47
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds that are different colors. The diamond that is colored "red" indicates which of the following?
A. Health.
B. Special information.
C. Flammability.
D. Instability.
C. Flammability.
48
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds that are different colors. The diamond that is in the six o'clock position (has no specified background color but is usually "white")indicates which of the following?
A. Health.
B. Special information.
C. Flammability.
D. Instability.
B. Special information. (Special hazards)
49
The NFPA 704 System:
Special hazards are located in the 6 o'clock position and have no specified background color; however, white is most commonly used. Only two special hazard symbols are presently authorized for use in this position by the NFPA: The symbol that is a capital W with a horizontal line through it indicates an unusual:
reactivity to water.
50
The NFPA 704 System:
Special hazards are located in the 6 o'clock position and have no specified background color; however, white is most commonly used. Only two special hazard symbols are presently authorized for use in this position by the NFPA: the OX symbol indicates that the material is an _____ .
Oxidizer.
51
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Health (Blue) rating of 0 indicates:
```
A. Severe hazard
B. Serious hazard
C. Moderate hazard
D. Slight hazard
E. Minimal hazard
```
E. Minimal hazard
52
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Health (Blue) rating of 1 indicates:
```
A. Severe hazard
B. Serious hazard
C. Moderate hazard
D. Slight hazard
E. Minimal hazard
```
D. Slight hazard
53
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Health (Blue) rating of 2 indicates:
```
A. Severe hazard
B. Serious hazard
C. Moderate hazard
D. Slight hazard
E. Minimal hazard
```
C. Moderate hazard
54
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Health (Blue) rating of 3 indicates:
```
A. Severe hazard
B. Serious hazard
C. Moderate hazard
D. Slight hazard
E. Minimal hazard
```
B. Serious hazard
55
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Health (Blue) rating of 4 indicates:
```
A. Severe hazard
B. Serious hazard
C. Moderate hazard
D. Slight hazard
E. Minimal hazard
```
A. Severe hazard
56
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Flammability (red) rating of 0 indicates:
```
A. Flammable gases, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials
B. Ignites at ambient temperatures
C. Ignites when moderately heated
D. Must be preheated to burn
E. Will not burn
```
E. Will not burn
57
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Flammability (red) rating of 1 indicates:
```
A. Flammable gases, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials
B. Ignites at ambient temperatures
C. Ignites when moderately heated
D. Must be preheated to burn
E. Will not burn
```
D. Must be preheated to burn
58
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Flammability (red) rating of 2 indicates:
```
A. Flammable gases, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials
B. Ignites at ambient temperatures
C. Ignites when moderately heated
D. Must be preheated to burn
E. Will not burn
```
C. Ignites when moderately heated
59
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Flammability (red) rating of 3 indicates:
```
A. Flammable gases, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials
B. Ignites at ambient temperatures
C. Ignites when moderately heated
D. Must be preheated to burn
E. Will not burn
```
B. Ignites at ambient temperatures
60
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Flammability (red) rating of 4 indicates:
```
A. Flammable gases, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials
B. Ignites at ambient temperatures
C. Ignites when moderately heated
D. Must be preheated to burn
E. Will not burn
```
A. Flammable gases, volatile liquids, pyrophoric materials
61
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Instability (yellow) rating of 0 indicates:
A. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition at ambient conditions
B. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition with strong initiating source
C. Violent chemical change possible at elevated temperature and pressure
D. Normally stable, but becomes unstable if heated
E. Normally stable
E. Normally stable
62
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Instability (yellow) rating of 1 indicates:
A. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition at ambient conditions
B. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition with strong initiating source
C. Violent chemical change possible at elevated temperature and pressure
D. Normally stable, but becomes unstable if heated
E. Normally stable
D. Normally stable, but becomes unstable if heated
63
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Instability (yellow) rating of 2 indicates:
A. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition at ambient conditions
B. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition with strong initiating source
C. Violent chemical change possible at elevated temperature and pressure
D. Normally stable, but becomes unstable if heated
E. Normally stable
C. Violent chemical change possible at elevated temperature and pressure
64
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Instability (yellow) rating of 3 indicates:
A. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition at ambient conditions
B. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition with strong initiating source
C. Violent chemical change possible at elevated temperature and pressure
D. Normally stable, but becomes unstable if heated
E. Normally stable
B. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition with strong initiating source
65
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. A Instability (yellow) rating of 4 indicates:
A. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition at ambient conditions
B. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition with strong initiating source
C. Violent chemical change possible at elevated temperature and pressure
D. Normally stable, but becomes unstable if heated
E. Normally stable
A. Capable of detonation or explosive decomposition at ambient conditions
66
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds. The diamond that is located in the 9 o'clock position is what color:
A. Blue (Health)
B. Red (Flammability)
C. Yellow (Instability)
D. White (Special hazard)
A. Blue (Health)
67
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds. The diamond that is located in the 12 o'clock position is what color:
A. Blue (Health)
B. Red (Flammability)
C. Yellow (Instability)
D. White (Special hazard)
B. Red (Flammability)
68
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds. The diamond that is located in the 3 o'clock position is what color:
A. Blue (Health)
B. Red (Flammability)
C. Yellow (Instability)
D. White (Special hazard)
C. Yellow (Instability)
69
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds. The diamond that is located in the 6 o'clock position is what color:
A. Blue (Health)
B. Red (Flammability)
C. Yellow (Instability)
D. White (Special hazard)
D. White (Special hazard)
70
The NFPA 704 System:
The NFPA 704 System markings provide very useful information but the system does have its limitations. The following are TRUE regarding the NFPA 704 system limitations... the exception is:
A. Doesn't tell exactly what chemical or chemicals may be present.
B. Doesn't indicate specific quantities.
C. Tells exactly were hazardous materials may be located when the sign is used for a building, structure, or area (such as a storage yard).
D. Positive identification of the material needs to be made through other means such as container markings, employee information company records, and preincident surveys.
C. Tells exactly were hazardous materials may be located when the sign is used for a building, structure, or area (such as a storage yard). FALSE
-----------------------------------------
Doesn't tell exactly were hazardous materials may be located when the sign is used for a building, structure, or area (such as a storage yard) rather than an individual container.
p. 134
71
Personnel who are trained and certified to the Awareness Level are individuals who, in the course of their normal duties, may be the first to arrive at or witness a hazmat/WMD incident. Individuals trained to the Awareness Level are expected to assume the following responsibilities when faced with an incident involving hazardous materials... the exception is:
A. Recognize the presence or potential presence of a hazardous material.
B. Recognize the type of container at the site and identify the material in it if possible.
C. Transmit information to an appropriate authority and call for appropriate assistance.
D. Identify actions to protect themselves and others from hazards.
E. Develop a defensive plan of action to address the problems presented by the incident (plan a response).
F. Establish scene control by isolating the hazardous area and denying entry.
E. Develop a defensive plan of action to address the problems presented by the incident (plan a response). (FALSE - Operations Level)
72
Responders who are trained and certified to the _____ Level are individuals who respond to releases (or potential releases) of hazardous materials as part of their normal duties. This responder is expected to protect individuals, the environment, and property from the effects of the release in a defensive manner.
Operations Level
73
The Operations Level is responsible for all Awareness Level responsibilities in addition to confining a release in a defensive fashion from a safe distance. First responders at the Operational Level must be able to perform the following actions... the exception is:
A. Identify hazardous material(s) involved in an incident if possible.
B. Analyze an incident to determine the nature and extent of the problem.
C. Protect themselves and nearby persons but not the environment or property from the effects of a release.
D. Develop a defensive plan of action to address the problem presented by the incident (plan a response).
E. Implement the planned response to mitigate or control a release from a safe distance (initiate defensive actions to lessen the harmful incident) and keep it from spreading.
F. Evaluate the progress of the actions taken to ensure that response objectives are safely met.
C. Protect themselves and nearby persons but not the environment or property from the effects of a release. (FALSE)
The correct statement: Protect themselves, nearby persons, the environment, and property from the effects of a release.
74
Limited Offensive Operations are allowed to Operations Level responders who have appropriate training, appropriate protective clothing, and adequate/appropriate resources. These responders can perform offensive operations involving flammable liquid and gas fire control of the following materials... the exception is:
```
A. Gasoline.
B. Diesel fuel.
C. Ammonia.
D. Natural gas.
E. Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG).
```
C. Ammonia. (FALSE)
-----------------------------------------
Gasoline, Diesel fuel, Natural gas, & Liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) are the only 4 materials allowed for Operations Level responders to perform "Offensive" operations in flammable liquid and gas fire control.
75
Corrosives have different effects on the body depending on whether they are acidic or basic. A telltale sign of exposure to a bases is:
A. A sticky feeling of the skin.
B. A greasy or slick feeling of the skin.
C. Blurred or double vision.
D. Dizziness.
B. A greasy or slick feeling of the skin.
76
Corrosives are commonly divided into two broad categories - acids and bases. A telltale sign of exposure to an acid is... the exception is:
A. Immediate pain.
B. Chemical burns to flesh.
C. Burning sensation.
D. Greasy or slick feeling of the skin.
D. Greasy or slick feeling of the skin. (FALSE - Base)
77
Corrosives are commonly divided into two broad categories - acids and bases. Acids have pH values of 0 to 6.9. The following are examples of common acids... the exception is:
A. Hydrochloric acid.
B. Nitric acid.
C. Sulfuric acid.
D. Potassium hydroxide.
D. Potassium hydroxide. (FALSE - base)
78
Corrosives are commonly divided into two broad categories - acids and bases. Bases have pH values of 8-14. The following are examples of common bases... the exception is:
A. Caustic soda.
B. Potassium hydroxide.
C. Household drain cleaners.
D. Sulfuric acid.
D. Sulfuric acid. (FALSE- Acid)
79
Corrosives are commonly divided into two broad categories - acids and bases. _____ are any chemical that ionizes (breaks down) to yield hydrogen ions in water.
Acids
80
Corrosives are commonly divided into two broad categories - acids and bases. _____ are water-soluble compounds that break apart in water to form a negatively charged hydroxide ion.
Bases
81
Both acids and bases are called corrosives. However, some other terms often used interchangeably for the word "base" are... the exception is:
A. Caustic.
B. Alkali.
C. Alkaline.
D. Neutral.
D. Neutral. (FALSE)
-----------------------------------------
A pH of 7 on the pH Scale is considered neutral (distilled water).
82
Using on next or leather gloves to handle contaminated hoseline can cause exposure in minutes, particularly if:
A. The gloves have been used before.
B. The gloves are damaged.
C. The gloves are wet.
D. The gloves are new.
B. The gloves are damaged.
83
Hazardous materials are best identified before they are released from containers. Much of the first responders hazardous materials identification training can be accomplished through _____ .
A. Having local high school students from the chemistry class teach the men.
B. Researching the subject at the local library.
C. Tours of fixed facilities.
D. Local college courses.
C. Tours of fixed facilities.
84
Corrosives have different effects on the body depending on whether they are acidic or basic. Acids will generally cause:
A. Pain on contact.
B. A greasy slick feeling of the skin.
C. Pain and a greasy slick feeling.
D. Greasy but not slick feeling.
A. Pain on contact.
85
Pyrophoric liquids can be best described as liquids that ignite spontaneously in dry or moist air at or below:
A. 130°F. B. 140°F.
C. 150°F. D. 250°F.
A. 130°F.
86
Some materials pass easily through areas of the body where the skin is the thinnest allowing the least resistance to penetration. One of these areas is:
A. Scalp. B. Groin.
C. Chest. D. Feet.
B. Groin.
87
Some hazardous materials pass easily through the mucous membranes or areas of the body where the skin is the thinnest, allowing the least resistance to penetration. The following list these areas of concern... the exception is:
```
A. Eyes.
B. Ears.
C. Nose.
D. Mouth.
E. Neck.
F. Wrists.
G. Hands.
H. Groin.
I. Feet.
```
I. Feet. (FALSE)
A through H are TRUE p.33
88
Regardless of the magnitude, all hazardous material incidents can be viewed as learning experiences. When should incidents be examined and analyzed:
A. When there are fatalities.
B. When there are multiple injuries.
C. After every injury.
D. After every response.
D. After every response.
89
The dangers of hazardous materials are toxicity, flammability, reactivity, decomposition. The least of concern is:
A. Toxicity.
B. Flammability.
C. Reactivity.
D. Decomposition.
D. Decomposition.
90
Fire entry suits are useful for such an operation as:
A. Entry in total flame environments.
B. Valve shutdowns and fire streams.
C. Entry in a steam atmosphere.
D. Where there is need for good mobility.
A. Entry in total flame environments.
91
High-Temperature Protective Clothing:
2 types: Proximity suits; Fire-entry suits
_____ suits - Permit close approach to fires for rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation activities such as in aircraft rescue and firefighting or other firefighting operations involving flammable liquids.
-Such suits provide greater heat protection than standard structural firefighting protective clothing.
Proximity suits
92
High-Temperature Protective Clothing:
2 types: Proximity suits; Fire-entry suits
_____ suits - Allow a person to work in total flame environments for short periods of time.
- Provide short duration and close proximity protection at radiant heat temperatures as high as 2000°F.
- Each suit has a specific use and it's not interchangeable.
Fire-entry suits
93
The best solution for a working fire and a pesticide warehouse may be to:
A. Use only handle lines.
B. Use heavy stream appliances.
C. Use dry chemical.
D. Let it burn.
D. Let it burn.
94
The upper respiratory tract includes the nose, mouth, throat, layynx, pharynx, and trachea. Irritants that affect these areas are very soluble in water and easily removed. Of the following choices, the one that is not an upper respiratory tract irritant is:
A. Hydrochloric acid.
B. Hydrofluoric acid.
C. Ozone.
D. Sulfur dioxide.
C. Ozone. (Lower RT irritant)
95
No single type of Chemical-Protective Clothing (CPC) protects against all chemical hazards. _____ provide protection against acids, caustics, bases, and alcohol; they are NOT recommended for "ketones and most solvents".
A. Butyl rubber.
B. Neoprene (polychoroprene).
C. Urethane (polyurethane/PUR).
D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
96
No single type of Chemical-Protective Clothing (CPC) protects against all chemical hazards. _____ provide resistance to highly corrosive acids, ketones, and esters; Protect well against bases, alcohols, etc... NOT recommend for "halogen compounds and hydrocarbons".
A. Butyl rubber.
B. Neoprene (polychoroprene).
C. Urethane (polyurethane/PUR).
D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
A. Butyl rubber.
97
No single type of Chemical-Protective Clothing (CPC) protects against all chemical hazards. _____ provides the highest resistance to permeation of gases and water vapors.
A. Butyl rubber.
B. Neoprene (polychoroprene).
C. Urethane (polyurethane/PUR).
D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
A. Butyl rubber.
98
No single type of Chemical-Protective Clothing (CPC) protects against all chemical hazards. _____ provides protection against oils, acids, caustics, and solvents; but are the least cut resistant.
A. Butyl rubber.
B. Neoprene (polychoroprene).
C. Urethane (polyurethane/PUR).
D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
B. Neoprene (polychoroprene).
99
No single type of Chemical-Protective Clothing (CPC) protects against all chemical hazards. _____ resists bases, acids, alcohols, grease, and animal fats. NOT recommended for most types of "organic solvents". Provide excellent cut resistance.
A. Butyl rubber.
B. Neoprene (polychoroprene).
C. Urethane (polyurethane/PUR).
D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC).
C. Urethane (polyurethane/PUR).
100
Combustible liquids are liquids with flash points between 100°F and 200°F. Of the following choices, which one is a combustible liquid?
A. Gasoline.
B. Alcohol.
C. Pine oil.
D. Parathion.
C. Pine oil.
101
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is "Flammable" or "Combustible". Examples of Flammable liquids include... the exception is:
A. Gasoline.
B. Alcohol.
C. Acetone.
D. Plastic solvents.
D. Plastic solvents. (FALSE - Combustible Liquid)
102
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is "Flammable" or "Combustible". Examples of Combustible liquids include... the exception is:
```
A. Gasoline.
B. Fuel oil.
C. Pine oil.
D. Lubricating oils.
E. Plastic solvents.
```
A. Gasoline. (FALSE - Flammable Liquid)
103
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is flammable or combustible. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) define a flammable liquid of having a flash point of ____ °F or less and labels these liquids as "____ ____".
140°F
Ignitable Waste
104
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is flammable or combustible. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) define a flammable liquid of having a flashpoint less than ____°F.
100°F
105
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is flammable or combustible. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) define a combustible liquid of having a flashpoint of ____°F or greater.
100°F or greater.
106
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is flammable or combustible. The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) define a combustible liquid of having a flashpoint of ____°F or greater.
100°F or greater.
107
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is flammable or combustible. The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) define a flammable liquid of having a flashpoint of less than ____°F.
100°F
108
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is flammable or combustible. The Department of Transportation (DOT) define a combustible liquid of having a flashpoint between ___&___ °F.
141°F – 200°F
109
Flash points are used to determine whether a liquid is flammable or combustible. The Department of Transportation (DOT) define a flammable liquid of having a flash point of ____ °F or less.
100°F
112
There are two levels of first responders: first responder awareness and first responder operational. It is important to know understand the first responder's role at each of these levels. Of the following choices, the responsibility which is not at the first responder level is:
A. Suspect or recognize the presence of a hazardous material.
B. Protect themselves.
C. Call for appropriate assistance.
D. Confining the release in a defensive fashion from a safe distance.
D. "Confining" the release in a defensive fashion from a safe distance.
(FALSE - "mitigate or control" a release in a defensive fashion from a safe distance.)
113
The flammable range is the percentage of the gas or vapor concentration in air that will burn if ignited. Above the flammable range:
A. There is too much fuel and too little oxygen.
B. There is too much oxygen and too little fuel.
C. There is too much fuel and too much oxygen.
D. There is too little fuel and too little oxygen.
A. There is too much fuel and too little oxygen.
114
Flammable, Explosive, or Combustible Range:
_____ - Lowest percentage of fuel/oxygen mixture required to support combustion. Any mixture with a lower percentage would be considered "too lean" to burn.
A. Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)
B. Upper Explosive Limit (UEL)
C. Combustible Range
D. Vapor Pressure
A. Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)
aka Lower Flammable Limit (LFL)
115
Flammable, Explosive, or Combustible Range:
_____ - Maximum concentration of vapor or gas and air that will allow combustion to occur. Concentrations above this are called "too rich" to burn.
A. Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)
B. Upper Explosive Limit (UEL)
C. Combustible Range
D. Vapor Pressure
B. Upper Explosive Limit (UEL)
aka Upper Flammable Limit (UFL)
116
Flammable, Explosive, or Combustible Range:
_____ - of a vapor or gas is the lowest concentration (or lowest percent of the substance and air) that will produce a flash of fire when an ignition source is present. At concentrations lower than this, the mixture is "too lean" to burn.
Lower explosive limit (LEL)
aka
Lower flammable limit (LFL)
117
Flammable, Explosive, or Combustible Range:
_____ - of a vapor or gas is the highest concentration (or highest percentage of the substance and air) that will produce a flash of fire when an ignition source is present. At higher concentrations, the mixture is "too rich" to burn.
Upper explosive limit (UEL)
aka
Upper flammable limit (UFL)
118
Vapor or gas concentration between the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL) and Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) will burn rapidly if ignited. These atmospheres are particularly dangerous.
A. Lower Explosive Limit (LEL)
B. Upper Explosive Limit (UEL)
C. Combustible Range
D. Vapor Pressure
C. Combustible Range (aka Flammable Range or Explosive Range)
119
Products with a very low LEL and products with a wide range between the LEL and UEL are:
A. Least dangerous.
B. Most dangerous.
C. Moderately dangerous.
D. Not dangerous.
B. Most dangerous.
120
The _____ is the temperature, usually only a few degrees below that which a fuel gives off enough vapors to support continuous burning.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
B. Flashpoint.
121
_____ - Same as the ignition temperature except that no external ignition source is required for ignition because the material itself has been heated to ignition temperature; temperature at which ignition occurs through the spontaneous ignition of the gases or vapors committed by a heated material.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
C. Autoignition temperature.
122
_____ - Minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near the surface of the liquid.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
B. Flashpoint.
123
_____ - is the minimum temperature at which a liquid or violent solid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface. At this temperature, the vapors will flash (in the presence of an ignition source) but will not continue to burn.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
B. Flashpoint.
124
_____ - is the temperature at which enough vapors are given off to support continuous burning. This temperature is usually only slightly higher than the flashpoint.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
A. Firepoint.
125
_____ - Temperature at which a liquid fuel produces sufficient vapors to support combustion once the fuel is ignited. This is usually a few degrees above the flashpoint.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
A. Firepoint.
126
The _____ of a substance is the minimum temperature to which the fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustained combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source. This temperature is the point at which a fuel spontaneously ignites.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
C. Autoignition temperature.
aka
Ignition Temperature or
Autoignition point
127
_____ - is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid is equal to or greater than atmospheric pressure. In other words, it is the temperature at which a liquid changes to a gas at a given pressure. Flammable materials with low _____ generally present special fire hazards.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
D. Boiling point.
128
_____ - Temperature of a substance when the vapor pressure equals or exceeds atmospheric pressure. At this temperature, the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation. At this point, more liquid is turning into gas and gas is turning back into a liquid.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
D. Boiling point.
129
A _____ can occur when a liquid in a container is heated to its boiling point. The expanding vapor inside the tank can increase the pressure to such a degree that the tank will fail catastrophically. Any compressed liquefied gas can do this, so there may not be a fireball.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. BLEVE
D. BLEVE
aka "violent rupture"
130
Water-soluble flammable liquids are known as polar solvents. Of the following choices, the most correct statement is:
A. Diluting a water-soluble flammable liquid such as a polar solvent with water, decreases the flammable liquids flashpoint.
B. Diluting with water decreases the volume of run off.
C. Diluting a water-soluble flammable liquid such as a polar solvent with water, increases the flammable liquids flashpoint.
D. A polar solvent mixes with a hydrocarbon liquid.
C. Diluting a water-soluble flammable liquid such as a polar solvent with water, increases the flammable liquids flashpoint.
131
Examples of non-water-soluble liquids,such as hydrocarbons, include... the exception is:
A. Gasoline
B. Diesel fuel
C. Alcohol
D. Pentane
C. Alcohol (FALSE - polar solvent)
132
Examples of water-soluble liquids, such as polar solvents, include... the exception is:
A. Alcohol
B. Methanol
C. Pentane
D. Methyl ethyl ketone (MEK)
C. Pentane (FALSE - hydrocarbon)
133
Which of the following materials are water reactive:
A. Lithium, magnesium powder, but not calcium carbide.
B. Lithium, calcium carbide, but not magnesium powder.
C. Magnesium powder, calcium carbide, but not lithium.
D. All of the above, lithium, magnesium powder, and calcium carbide.
D. All of the above, lithium, magnesium powder, and calcium carbide.
134
The following materials are water reactive... the exception is:
```
A. Sodium.
B. Magnesium.
C. Lithium.
D. Potassium.
E. Sodium peroxide.
F. Carbides.
G. Anhydrides.
H. Calcium Chlorate.
```
H. Calcium Chlorate. ( FALSE - Strong Oxidizing Agent)
135
Alkali metals are Strong Reducing Agents and Water-Reactive. Alkali metals include... the exception is:
```
A. Sodium.
B. Magnesium.
C. Lithium.
D. Potassium.
E. Zinc.
```
E. Zinc. (FALSE)
136
Which of the following indications is a chemical reaction but not a physical reaction?
A. Splattering or boiling of unheated materials.
B. Rainbow sheen on water services.
C. Operation of pressure-relief devices.
D. Pinging or popping of heat exposed vessels.
A. Splattering or boiling of unheated materials.
137
Physical actions/reactions are processes that do not change the elemental composition of the material involved. Several indications of a physical action/reaction are as follows... the exception is:
A. Rainbow sheen on water surfaces.
B. Wavy vapors over a volatile liquid.
C. Frost or ice buildup near a leak.
D. Containers deformed by the force of an accident.
E. Activated pressure release devices.
F. Pinging or popping of heat exposed vessels.
G. Distinctively colored vapor clouds.
G. Distinctively colored vapor clouds. (FALSE - Chemical Reaction)
138
Chemical reactions convert one substance to another. Visual and sensory evidence of chemical reactions include the following... exception is:
A. Exothermic heat; unusual or unexpected temperature drop (from endothermic reaction).
B. Extraordinary fire conditions.
C. Peeling or discoloration of a containers finish.
D. Splattering or boiling of unheated materials.
E. Distinctively colored vapor clouds.
F. Smoking or self-igniting materials.
G. Activated pressure-relief devices.
H. Unexpected deterioration of equipment.
I. Particular smells.
J. Unexplained changes in ordinary materials.
K. Symptoms of chemical exposure.
G. Activated pressure-relief devices.
| FALSE - Physical Reaction
139
You have a truck carrying hazardous materials which is involved in an accident. In the event a shipping paper is unavailable or the telephone number does not appear on the shipping paper, who should you contact?
A. DOT.
B. EPA.
C. CHEMTREC/CANUTEC.
D. CERCLA
C. CHEMTREC/CANUTEC.
140
In the US, several emergency response centers, such as the _____, are not government operated. _____ , for example, was established by the chemical industry as a public service hotline for firefighters, law-enforcement responders, and other emergency service responders to obtain information and assistance for emergency incidents involving chemicals and hazardous materials. These centers are staffed with experts who can provide 24-hour assistance to emergency responders dealing with hazmat emergencies.
A. CANUTEC.
B. CENACOM.
C. SETIQ.
D. CHEMTREC.
D. CHEMTREC. (Chemical Transportation Emergency Center)
-----------------------------------------
A. CANUTEC. (Canada)
B. CENACOM. (Mexico - civil)
C. SETIQ. (Mexico - transportation)
141
_____ is part of the Transportation of Dangerous Goods Directorate of Canada. It is a national, bilingual (English and French) advisory center; it has a scientific data bank on chemicals manufactured, stored, and transported in Canada and is staffed by professional scientists who specialize in emergency response and are experienced in interpreting technical information and providing advice.
A. CANUTEC.
B. CENACOM.
C. SETIQ.
D. CHEMTREC.
A. CANUTEC. (Canadian Transport Emergency Centre)
142
When calling CHEMTREC/CANUTEC, the first responder should provide the following information... the exception is:
A. Name of the caller and the call-back number.
B. Name of the person caused the accident.
C. Location of the incident.
D. Type of container or vehicle.
B. Name of the person caused the accident. (FALSE)
143
When calling CHEMTREC/CANUTEC, the emergency response center will do the following... the exception is:
A. Confirm that a chemical emergency exists.
B. Record details electronically and in written form.
C. Provide immediate technical assistance to the caller.
D. Contact the shipper of the material or other experts.
E. Provide the shipper/manufacture with the caller's name and call-back number so that the shipper/manufacture can deal directly with the party involved.
F. Dispatch appropriate emergency responders.
F. Dispatch appropriate emergency responders. (FALSE)
144
Which of the following gases will NOT cause a "cold exposure"?
```
A. LNG.
B. Hydrogen.
C. Acetylene.
D. Nitrogen.
E. Liquid oxygen (LOX).
F. Helium.
G. Argon.
H. Anhydrous ammonia.
```
C. Acetylene.
145
Some cryogens have other hazardous properties in addition to the cold hazard. An example of this would be _____ , which is also a corrosive material, and oxidizer, and a poison.
A. Fluorine.
B. Anhydrous Ammonia.
C. LPG
D. Ammonium nitrate.
A. Fluorine.
146
_____ is another source of cold exposure which is sometimes used as a refrigerant in cold storage facilities. This material can cause cold injuries and it's vapors are toxic and may ignite.
A. Fluorine.
B. Anhydrous Ammonia.
C. LPG
D. Ammonium nitrate.
B. Anhydrous Ammonia.
147
Radiological Hazards:
Different types of radiation exist, and some are more energetic than others. The least energetic form of radiation is _____ radiation such as visible light and radio waves.
A. Nonionizing.
B. Ionizing.
C. Gamma.
D. Alpha.
A. Nonionizing.
148
Radiological Hazards:
Different types of radiation exist, and some are more energetic than others. The most energetic (and hazardous) form of radiation is _____ radiation, and it is this type of radiation that is of greatest concern first responders.
A. Nonionizing.
B. Ionizing.
C. Gamma.
D. Alpha.
B. Ionizing.
149
Types of Ionizing Radiation:
_____ particles lose energy rapidly when traveling through matter and do not penetrate very deeply; however, they can cause damage over their short path through human tissue. They are usually completely blocked by the outer, dead layer of the human skin, so these radioisotopes are not a hazard outside the body. However, they can be very harmful if the material is ingested for inhaled.
-These particles can be stopped completely by a sheet of paper.
A. Alpha.
B. Beta.
C. Gamma.
D. Neutron.
A. Alpha.
150
Types of Ionizing Radiation:
_____ are fast-moving, positively or negatively charged electrons emitted from the nucleus during radioactive decay.
- These particles are capable of penetrating the skin and causing radiation damage; however, these emitters are generally more hazardous when they are inhaled or ingested.
- These particles travel appreciable distances (up to 20 feet) in the air but can be reduced or stopped by a layer of clothing or by less than 2 or 3 mm of a substance such as aluminum.
A. Alpha.
B. Beta.
C. Gamma.
D. Neutron.
B. Beta.
151
Types of Ionizing Radiation:
_____ High-energy photons (weightless packets of energy like visible light and x-rays); are very penetrating.
- This radiation can easily pass completely through the human body or be absorbed buy tissue, thus constituting a radiation hazard for the entire body.
- Around 2 feet of concrete, several feet of earth, or around 2 inches of lead may be required to stop this more energetic type of radiation. Standard firefighting protective clothing provides no protection against this radiation.
A. Alpha.
B. Beta.
C. Gamma.
D. Neutron.
C. Gamma.
152
Types of Ionizing Radiation:
_____ - Ultrahigh energy particles that are highly penetrated. Produced by fission reactions.
- Soil moisture density gauges, often used at construction sites, are a common source of this radiation. Also may be encountered in research laboratories or operating nuclear power plants.
- Health hazard arises because they cause the release of secondary radiation when they interact with the human body.
A. Alpha.
B. Beta.
C. Gamma.
D. Neutron.
D. Neutron.
153
Which of the following statements is most correct regarding protection from radiation injury?
A. Firefighters treating a victim exposed to radiation, but no evidence of dust is present, would also be exposed to radiation.
B. Firefighters exposed to low-energy alpha radiation being used for x-rays is exposed to radiation injury.
C. Firefighters wearing personal protective equipment including SCBA is required to protect against gamma radiation.
D. Firefighters wearing personal protective equipment including SCBA is required to protect against beta radiation.
D. Firefighters wearing personal protective equipment including SCBA is required to protect against beta radiation.
154
Threshold Limit Value/Time-Weighted Average (TLV-TWA) are based upon current available data and are adjusted on an annual basis. Of the following statements, the most correct statement is:
A. TLV's are used for exposure in Haz mat emergencies.
B. TLV's are not used for exposure in the workplace.
C. TLV's are useful during pre-incident planning.
D. The higher the TLV the more toxic the substance.
C. TLV's are useful during pre-incident planning. (TRUE)
-----------------------------------------
A. TLV's are used for exposure in Haz mat emergencies. (FALSE - are not)
B. TLV's are "not" used for exposure in the workplace. (FALSE - are used)
D. The "higher" the TLV the more toxic the substance. (FALSE- lower)
155
It is important to know that flammable liquids themselves do not burn but that the vapors they produce can ignite. The most correct statement is:
A. The flashpoint is usually a few degrees lower than the firepoint.
B. The firepoint is usually a few degrees lower than the flashpoint.
C. The autoignition temperature is usually a few degrees lower than the flashpoint.
D. The flammable range is usually a few degrees higher than the flashpoint.
A. The flashpoint is usually a few degrees lower than the fire point.
156
_____ is the temperature point at which a fuel spontaneously ignites. All flammable materials have _____(s), and these are considered higher than flash and fire points.
A. Firepoint.
B. Flashpoint.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
C. Autoignition temperature.
157
The following terms are often used synonymously with autoignition temperature... the exception is:
A. Ignition temperature.
B. Autoignition point.
C. Flame point.
C. Flame point. (FALSE)
158
Vapor density is similar to specific gravity except that it compares the density of gas to the density of air. If the vapor density is greater than 1.0, the substance will:
A. Rise to the upper levels of a confined area.
B. Rapidly dissipate if outdoors.
C. Hang close to the ground and possibly contact an ignition source.
D. Hang close to the ground and pool.
C. Hang close to the ground and possibly contact an ignition source. (TRUE)
-----------------------------------------
A. Rise to the upper levels of a confined area. (VD less than 1.0 - lighter than air)
B. Rapidly dissipate if outdoors. (VD less than 1.0 - lighter than air)
D. Hang close to the ground and "pool". ("Pool" is used to define liquids not gasses)
159
_____ - Weight of a given volume of pure gas/vapor compared to the weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure. A _____ less than one indicates lighter than air; greater than one indicates heavier than air.
```
A. Vapor Density.
B. Specific Gravity.
C. Vapor Pressure.
D. Boiling Point.
E. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE).
```
A. Vapor Density.
160
_____ - Weight of a substance compared to the weight of an equal volume of water at a given temperature. A _____ less than one indicates a substance lighter than water; greater than one indicates a substance heavier than water.
```
A. Vapor Density.
B. Specific Gravity.
C. Vapor Pressure.
D. Boiling Point.
E. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE).
```
B. Specific Gravity.
161
_____ - Measure of the tendency of a substance to evaporate.
```
A. Vapor Density.
B. Specific Gravity.
C. Vapor Pressure.
D. Boiling Point.
E. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE).
```
C. Vapor Pressure.
162
_____ - The pressure at which a vapor is in equilibrium with its liquid phase for a given temperature. Liquids that have a greater tendency to evaporator have higher _____(s) for a given temperature.
```
A. Vapor Density.
B. Specific Gravity.
C. Vapor Pressure.
D. Boiling Point.
E. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE).
```
C. Vapor Pressure.
163
_____ - Temperature of a substance when the vapor pressure equals or exceeds atmospheric pressure. At this temperature, the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation. At this point, more liquid is turning into gas than gas is turning back into liquid.
```
A. Vapor Density.
B. Specific Gravity.
C. Vapor Pressure.
D. Boiling Point.
E. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE).
```
D. Boiling Point.
164
_____ - Rapid vaporization of a liquid stored under pressure upon release to the atmosphere following major failure of it's containing vessel; failure is the result of over pressurization caused by an external heat source, which causes the vessel to explode into two or more pieces when the temperature of the liquid is well above its boiling point at normal atmospheric pressure.
```
A. Vapor Density.
B. Specific Gravity.
C. Vapor Pressure.
D. Boiling Point.
E. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE).
```
E. Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion (BLEVE).
165
The majority of gases have a vapor density greater than one. Examples of materials with a vapor density greater than one include... the exception is:
```
A. Propane.
B. Hydrogen sulfide.
C. Ethane.
D. Butane.
E. Methane.
F. Chlorine.
G. Sulfur dioxide.
```
E. Methane. (FALSE, less than 1 / lighter than air)
166
Examples of materials with a vapor density less than one include... the exception is:
```
A. Helium.
B. Neon.
C. Butane.
D. Acetylene.
E. Hydrogen.
```
C. Butane. (FALSE , greater than 1 / heavier than air)
167
The 13 chemicals that have a vapor density lighter than air are normally presented using the acronym:
```
A. 4H MEDIC ANNA.
B. BLEVE.
C. SLUDGEM.
D. NFPA 704.
E. CHEMTREC.
```
```
A. 4H MEDIC ANNA.
-----------------------------------------Hydrogen.
Hydrogen cyanide.
Helium.
Hydrogen fluoride.
```
```
Methane.
Ethylene.
Diborane.
Illuminating gases.
Carbon monoxide.
```
Acetylene.
Neon.
Nitrogen.
Ammonia.
168
Hydrogen, Hydrogen cyanide, Helium, Hydrogen fluoride, Methane, Ethylene, Diborane, Illuminating gases, Carbon monoxide, Acetylene, Neon, Nitrogen, Ammonia: The acronym _____ is used to identify these 13 chemicals that have a vapor density less than 1.0 (lighter than air).
```
A. 4H MEDIC ANNA.
B. BLEVE.
C. SLUDGEM.
D. NFPA 704.
E. CHEMTREC.
```
A. 4H MEDIC ANNA.
169
Hypergolic materials are those that ignite when coming into contact with each other. These reactions involve the mixing of a fuel and:
A. An oxidizer.
B. Air.
C. Water.
D. A corrosive agent.
A. An oxidizer.
170
The Reactivity Triangle consists of three sides: _____ (such as Oxygen, Organic Peroxides, Alkyl Nitrates); Activation Energy (such as Heat, Shock, Radiation, Light); and a Reducing Agent (Fuel).
Oxidizing Agent
171
The Reactivity Triangle consists of three sides: Oxidizing Agent (such as Oxygen, Organic Peroxides, Alkyl Nitrates); _____ (such as Heat, Shock, Radiation, Light); and a Reducing Agent (Fuel).
Activation Energy
172
The Reactivity Triangle consists of three sides: Oxidizing Agent (such as Oxygen, Organic Peroxides, Alkyl Nitrates); Activation Energy (such as Heat, Shock, Radiation, Light); and a _____ (Fuel).
Reducing Agent
173
_____ -Material that encourages a strong reaction (by readily accepting electrons) from a reducing agent (fuel).
A. Polymerization.
B. Strong Oxidizer.
C. Inhibitor(s).
D. Activation Energy.
B. Strong Oxidizer.
174
_____ - Material that is added to products that easily polymerize in order to control or prevent an undesired reaction. Also called stabilizer.
A. Polymerization.
B. Strong Oxidizer.
C. Inhibitor(s).
D. Activation Energy.
C. Inhibitor(s).
175
_____ - Is a chemical reaction in which a catalyst causes simple molecules to combine to form long chain molecules. Examples of catalysts include light, heat, water, acids, or other chemicals. If this reaction is uncontrolled, it often results in a tremendous release of energy.
A. Polymerization.
B. Strong Oxidizer.
C. Inhibitor(s).
D. Activation Energy.
A. Polymerization.
176
Materials that may undergo violent _____ if subjected to heat or contamination are designated with a P in the blue and yellow sections of the ERG.
A. Polymerization.
B. Strong Oxidizer.
C. Inhibitor(s).
D. Activation Energy.
A. Polymerization.
177
_____ - Amount of energy that must be added to an atomic or molecular system to begin a reaction.
A. Polymerization.
B. Strong Oxidizer.
C. Inhibitor(s).
D. Activation Energy.
D. Activation Energy.
178
Gasoline, which has a specific gravity of less than one will (1)_____ on water, while methylene chloride (with a specific gravity greater than one will (2)_____).
In general, hydrocarbons (3)_____ on water, and chlorinated solvents (4)_____ .
1. ) Float
2. ) Sink
3. ) Float
4. ) Sink
179
When water comes in contact with calcium carbide, _____ gas is formed.
A. Chlorine.
B. Acetylene.
C. Hydrogen.
D. Nitrogen.
B. Acetylene.
180
Of the following choices, the one which is not a physical action is:
A. Rainbow sheen on water surfaces.
B. Wavy vapors over a volatile liquid.
C. Pinging or popping of heat-exposed vessels.
D. Peeling or discoloration of a containers finish.
D. Peeling or discoloration of a containers finish.
181
When callers contact CHEMTRAC or CANUTEC, they should be ready to record the information and suggestions offered. The following statements are TRUE... the exception is:
A. The system will make decisions for the incident commander relieving him of his duty.
B. These organizations are capable of accessing databases.
C. CHEMTREC facilities telephone conference calls between responders and the shipper.
D. These organizations serve as a communication link with other technical support.
E. Confirm that a chemical emergency exists.
F. Record details electronically and in written form.
G. Provide immediate technical assistance to the caller.
A. The system will make decisions for the incident commander relieving him of his duty. (FALSE)
182
The NFPA 704 System is a widely recognized method for indicating the presence of hazardous materials at commercial, manufacturing, institutional, and other fix storage facilities. Of the following examples, which example would not identify the specific chemical or chemicals that may be present?
A. NFPA 704 diamond.
B. Container markings.
C. Employee information.
D. The pre-incident plan.
A. NFPA 704 diamond.
183
A first responder at the _____ level is an individual who responds as part of his or her normal duties in a defensive manner to a release, or potential release, of hazardous materials. This responder is expected to protect individuals, the environment, and property from the effects of the release, plus confine the release in a defensive fashion from a safe distance.
A. Strategic.
B. Awareness.
C. Tactical.
D. Operational.
D. Operational.
184
_____ - Heat illness caused by heat exposure, resulting in failure of the body's heat regulating mechanisms; symptoms include: High fever of 105 to 106°F; Dry, red, hot skin; Rapid, strong pulse; Deep breaths or convulsions. May result in, or possibly death.
A. Heat Stroke.
B. Heat Exhaustion.
C. Heat Cramps.
D. Heat Rash.
A. Heat Stroke. (aka Sunstroke)
185
_____ - Heat illness caused by exposure to excessive heat; symptoms include weakness, cold and clammy skin, heavy precipitation, rapid and shallow breathing, weak pulse, dizziness, and sometimes unconsciousness.
A. Heat Stroke.
B. Heat Exhaustion.
C. Heat Cramps.
D. Heat Rash.
B. Heat Exhaustion.
186
_____ - Heat illness resulting from prolonged exposure to high temperatures; characterized by excessive sweating, muscle cramps in the abdomen and legs, faintness, dizziness, and exhaustion.
A. Heat Stroke.
B. Heat Exhaustion.
C. Heat Cramps.
D. Heat Rash.
C. Heat Cramps.
187
_____ - Condition that develops from continuous exposure to heat and humid air; aggravated by clothing that rubs the skin; reduces the individuals tolerance to heat.
A. Heat Stroke.
B. Heat Exhaustion.
C. Heat Cramps.
D. Heat Rash.
D. Heat Rash.
188
Symptoms of heat stroke include the following... the exception is:
A. Rapid pulse.
B. Dry, red skin.
C. Mildly elevated temperature.
D. Mind not thinking clearly.
C. Mildly elevated temperature. (FALSE - High fever of 105-106)
189
Mechanical trauma refers to damage that occurs as a result of direct contact with an object. The two most common types are _____ and friction exposures.
A. Puncture.
B. Bruising.
C. Avulsions.
D. Striking.
D. Striking.
190
Mechanical trauma refers to damage that occurs as a result of direct contact with an object. The two most common types are striking and _____ .
A. Puncture.
B. Bruising.
C. Avulsions.
D. Friction exposures.
D. Friction exposures.
191
The following are examples of chemical reactions... the exception is:
A. Operation of pressure-release devices.
B. Unexplained changes in ordinary materials.
C. Extraordinary fire conditions.
D. Smoking or self-igniting materials.
A. Operation of pressure-release devices.
192
Incident commanders should use a systematic approach that is uncomplicated, easy to apply, and simple to remember. it must also lead to decisions on handling the incident that produces the safest possible outcome. One system can be tied to the acronym IFSTA. The most crucial step is:
A. Identified.
B. Formulate.
C. Select.
D. Analyze.
C. Select.
193
Individuals trained to the awareness level are expected to assume the following responsibilities when faced with an incident involving hazardous materials. The following actions are all responsibilities at the awareness level... the exception is:
A. Suspect or recognize the presence of a hazardous material.
B. Confining the release in a defensive fashion.
C. Protect themselves.
D. Secure the area.
B. Confining the release in a defensive fashion. (FALSE - Operational level)
194
When a cryogen comes in contact with the skin, it has the ability to _____ the human tissue.
A. Instantly freeze.
B. Instantly burn.
C. Gradually freeze.
D. Gradually burn.
A. Instantly freeze.
195
_____ - Chemical process that occurs when a substance combines with oxygen; a common example is the formation of rust on metal.
```
A. Oxidation.
B. Polymerization.
C. Cryogen.
D. Corrosive material.
E. Oxidizer.
F. Poison.
```
A. Oxidation.
196
_____ - Reactions in which two or more molecules chemically combine to form larger molecules. This reaction can often be violent.
```
A. Oxidation.
B. Polymerization.
C. Cryogen.
D. Corrosive material.
E. Oxidizer.
F. Poison.
```
B. Polymerization.
197
_____ - Gas that is cooled to a very low temperature, usually below -130°F, to change to a liquid.
```
A. Oxidation.
B. Polymerization.
C. Cryogen.
D. Corrosive material.
E. Oxidizer.
F. Poison.
```
C. Cryogen. (aka refrigerated liquid and cryogenic liquid)
198
_____ - Gaseous, liquid, or solid material that can burn, irritate, or destroy human skin tissue and severely corroded steel.
```
A. Oxidation.
B. Polymerization.
C. Cryogen.
D. Corrosive material.
E. Oxidizer.
F. Poison.
```
D. Corrosive material.
199
_____ - Any substance or material that yields oxygen readily and may stimulate the combustion of organic and inorganic material.
```
A. Oxidation.
B. Polymerization.
C. Cryogen.
D. Corrosive material.
E. Oxidizer.
F. Poison.
```
E. Oxidizer.
200
_____ - Any material that when taken into the body is injurious to health.
```
A. Oxidation.
B. Polymerization.
C. Cryogen.
D. Corrosive material.
E. Oxidizer.
F. Poison.
```
F. Poison.
201
Hydrochloric acid, nitric acid, and sulfuric acid are all common acids. The "most correct" statement regarding acids is:
A. An acid will cause permanent damage only.
B. An acid will cause a greasy or slick feeling of the skin only.
C. An acid will cause both permanent eye damage and a greasy or slick feeling of the skin.
D. An acid will cause neither permanent eye damage nor a greasy slick feeling to the skin.
A. An acid will cause permanent damage only.
| ** However, "bases" often cause more eye damage than acids**
202
The potential for radiation exposure exists when first responders respond to some facilities such as medical centers, industrial operations, power plants, and research facilities. The following statements are FALSE concerning radiation... the exception is:
A. A sheet of lead is needed to effectively block and external alpha particle.
B. Alpha radiation particles have more penetrating power than beta particles.
C. Standard firefighting clothing provides full protection against gamma rays.
D. The health hazard that neutrons present arises from the fact that they can cause the release of secondary radiation.
D. The health hazard that neutrons present arises from the fact that they can cause the release of secondary radiation. (TRUE)
-----------------------------------------
A. A sheet of lead is needed to effectively block and external "alpha" particle. (FALSE - gamma)
B. Alpha radiation particles have more penetrating power than beta particles. (FALSE - beta more than alpha)
C. Standard firefighting clothing provides full protection against "gamma" rays. (FALSE - beta)
203
And irritant gives off vapors that attack _____ of the body.
A. The cardiovascular system.
B. The nervous system.
C. The respiratory system.
D. The immune system.
C. The respiratory system.
204
Chemical Hazards:
_____ - Are substances that affect the oxygenation of the body and generally lead to suffocation.
```
A. Toxic Chemicals/Poisons.
B. Corrosives.
C. Irritants.
D. Convulsants.
E. Carcinogens.
F. Sensitizers/Allergens.
G. Asphyxiants.
```
G. Asphyxiants.
205
Asphyxiants can be divided into two classes: simple and chemical. _____ are gases that displace the oxygen necessary for breathing. These gases dilute or displace the oxygen concentration below the level required by the human body.
Simple asphyxiants
example - Carbon dioxide
206
Asphyxiants can be divided into two classes: simple and chemical. _____ are substances that prohibit the body from using oxygen and some of these chemicals may be used by terrorists for an attack. Even though oxygen is available, these substances starve the cells of the body for oxygen.
Chemical asphyxiants
example Carbon monoxide
207
Chemical Hazards:
_____ - Are chemicals that can irritate, destroy, or burn living tissues and corrode metals. Commonly divided into two broad categories: acids and bases.
```
A. Toxic Chemicals/Poisons.
B. Corrosives.
C. Irritants.
D. Convulsants.
E. Carcinogens.
F. Sensitizers/Allergens.
G. Asphyxiants.
```
B. Corrosives.
208
Chemical Hazards:
_____ - are toxins that cause temporary but sometimes severe inflammation to the eyes, skin, or respiratory system. Often attack the mucous membranes of the body such as the surface of the eyes, nose, mouth, throat, and lungs.
```
A. Toxic Chemicals/Poisons.
B. Corrosives.
C. Irritants.
D. Convulsants.
E. Carcinogens.
F. Sensitizers/Allergens.
G. Asphyxiants.
```
C. Irritants.
209
Chemical Hazards:
_____ - are toxic materials that can cause "involuntary muscle contractions". Some chemicals considered to be these are strychnine, organophosphates, carbamates, and infrequently used drugs such as picrotoxin. Death can result from asphyxiation or exhaustion.
```
A. Toxic Chemicals/Poisons.
B. Corrosives.
C. Irritants.
D. Convulsants.
E. Carcinogens.
F. Sensitizers/Allergens.
G. Asphyxiants.
```
D. Convulsants.
210
Chemical Hazards:
_____ - are cancer-causing agents. Examples of known or suspected ones are polyvinyl chloride, benzene, asbestos, and some chlorinated hydrocarbons, arsenic, nickel, some pesticides, and many plastics. Exact data is not available on the level of duration or dose of exposure; however, exposures to only small amounts of some substances may have long-term consequences. Disease and complications can occur as long as 10 to 40 years after exposure.
```
A. Toxic Chemicals/Poisons.
B. Corrosives.
C. Irritants.
D. Convulsants.
E. Carcinogens.
F. Sensitizers/Allergens.
G. Asphyxiants.
```
E. Carcinogens.
211
Chemical Hazards:
_____ - Are substances that can cause an allergic reaction of the skin or respiratory system. Common examples include latex, bleach, and
urushiol (chemical in poison-ivy).
```
A. Toxic Chemicals/Poisons.
B. Corrosives.
C. Irritants.
D. Convulsants.
E. Carcinogens.
F. Sensitizers/Allergens.
G. Asphyxiants.
```
F. Sensitizers/Allergens.
212
The principle dangers of hazardous materials are the health risks they present to humans and their flammability and reactivity characteristics. Many hazardous materials exhibit characteristic signs when spilled or released. The following examples are TRUE considering hazardous material release... the exception is:
A. Hydrogen sulfide, narcotics, and analgesics deaden the olfactory nerves.
B. Nitric acid is one of the many chemicals that produce a color vapor cloud.
C. All vapor clouds that have a particular color in heavy concentrations are not deadly when diluted enough to be colorless.
D. Cyanides, cannot be detected by the senses because they are essentially odorless and colorless.
C. All vapor clouds that have a particular color in heavy concentrations are not deadly when diluted enough to be colorless. (FALSE)
213
In addition to health hazards, many materials are flammable. The flammability of a material depends on several properties. The most TRUE statement concerning fire point is:
A. The fire point is a few degrees below the flashpoint.
B. The fire point is a few degrees below the autoignition temperature.
C. The fire point is a few degrees above the flashpoint.
D. The fire point is a few degrees above the autoignition temperature.
C. The fire point is a few degrees above the flashpoint. (TRUE)
214
Specific gravity is the weight of a substance compared to the weight of an equal volume of water at a given temperature. Water is assigned specific gravity of:
A. 0.0. C. 0.5.
B. 0.1. D. 1.0
D. 1.0
215
The Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) was developed by the U.S. Department of Transportation for use by first responders. If the identification number is known, first responders can turn to the _____ boarded pages and locate the identification number, the appropriate guide page, and name of the material.
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. Green.
A. Yellow.
216
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
Identify the four-digit U.N. identification number on the placard or shipping papers and then look up the appropriate guide in the _____ boarded pages of the guidebook.
```
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
E. Green.
```
A. Yellow.
217
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
Use the name of the material involved (if known) in the _____ boarded section of the guidebook. Many chemical names differ only by a few letters, so exact spelling is important when using this method.
```
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
E. Green.
```
B. Blue.
218
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
Identify the transportation placard of the material and then use the three digit guide code associated with the placard in Table of Placards and Initial Response Guide to Use On-Scene located in the front of the ERG _____ pages.
```
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
E. Green.
```
D. White.
219
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
As a last resort, if placards or four-digit ID numbers are not visible, first responders can use the container profiles provided in the _____ pages to identify the proper ERG guidebook page.
```
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
E. Green.
```
D. White.
220
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
Use the container profiles provided in the white pages in the front of the book. First responders can identify container shapes, and then reference the guide number to the _____ boarded page provided in the nearest circle.
```
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
E. Green.
```
C. Orange.
221
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
The _____ boarded pages of the ERG provide an index list of hazardous materials in numerical order of ID number. This index displays the four-digit UN/NA ID number of the material followed by its assigned emergency response guide and the materials name.
```
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
E. Green.
```
A. Yellow.
222
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
The purpose of the _____ section in the ERG is to enable first responders to quickly identify the Guide (orange-boarded pages) to consult for the ID number of the substance involved.
```
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
E. Green.
```
A. Yellow.
223
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
The _____ boarded pages of the ERG provide an index of dangerous goods in alphabetical order by material name so that the first responder can quickly identify the Guide to consult for the name of the material involved. This list displays the name of material followed by its assigned emergency response Guide and four-digit ID number.
```
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
E. Green.
```
B. Blue.
224
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
The _____ boarded section of the book is the most important because it provides safety recommendations and general hazards information.
```
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
E. Green.
```
C. Orange.
225
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
The _____ colored section of the ERG contains a table that lists (by ID number) THI materials - including certain chemical warfare agents and water reactive materials that produce toxic gases upon contact with water. The table provides two different types of recommended safe distance.
```
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
E. Green.
```
E. Green.
226
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
If a material in the yellow or blue index is highlighted, this means that it releases gases that are toxic inhalation hazard (TIH) materials. These materials require the application of additional emergency response distances found in the _____ pages.
```
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
E. Green.
```
E. Green.
227
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
The _____ boarded section comprises a total of 62 individual guides presented in a two-page format. The left-hand page provides safety related information, whereas the right-hand page provides emergency response guidance and activities for fire situations, spill or leak incidents, and first aid.
```
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
E. Green.
```
C. Orange.
228
Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG):
In the _____ boarded section of the ERG, each Guide is divided into three main sections: Potential Hazards; Public Safety; Emergency Response.
```
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
E. Green.
```
C. Orange.
229
There are three basic types of high-temperature clothing; approach suits, proximity suits, and fire entry suits. A _____ is for firefighting operations that involves high levels of radiant heat.
A. Approach suit.
B. Proximity suit.
C. Fire entry suit.
D. Chemical splash suit.
A. Approach suit.
230
Which of the following statements is a standard procedure that the first responder will perform at the awareness level.
A. Gathering and sharing the material information with all involved parties.
B. Identify defensive tactical options to meet the goals.
C. Activating the incident management system.
D. Secure the area of the emergency and prevent anyone from entering.
D. Secure the area of the emergency and prevent anyone from entering.
231
Most models used for determining the level of a hazmat incident define three levels of response. The levels graduate from Level I to Level III. An example of a Level II incident is:
A. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter.
B. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat.
C. Those incidents that require an evacuation exceeding across jurisdictional boundaries.
D. Incidents that activate, in part or in whole, the federal response system.
B. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat. (Level II)
-----------------------------------------
A. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter. (Level I)
C. Those incidents that require an evacuation exceeding across jurisdictional boundaries. (Level III)
D. Incidents that activate, in part or in whole, the federal response system. (Level III)
232
Decontamination is the removal of contaminants from workers' personal protective equipment and tools. The first priority in the selection of a decontamination site is its:
A. Accessibility.
B. Surface material.
C. Lighting.
D. Water.
A. Accessibility.
233
According to (IFSTA) hazardous materials for first responders: A hazmat incident is one that involves a substance that has been released or is on fire. Because of this, the material poses an unreasonable risk to people, the environment, and property. The first responder must determine as soon as possible upon arrival at the emergency scene;
A. The life safety hazard.
B. Whether the incident fits the definition of a hazmat incident.
C. The environmental hazard.
D. The fire hazard.
B. Whether the incident fits the definition of a hazmat incident. (According to Haz Mat)
234
Most types of personal protective equipment inhibit the bodie's ability to disperse heat. _____ is a serious medical emergency, and if action is not taken, _____ can become a life-threatening situation.
A. Heat stroke.
B. Heat rash.
C. Heat cramps.
D. Heat exhaustion.
A. Heat stroke.
235
Responders wearing protective clothing need to be monitored for effects of heat exposure. The following statements are correct... the exception is:
A. Plenty of water should be available.
B. Commercial body-fluid-replenishment drink mixes maybe used to prevent dehydration.
C. He/she should be encouraged to drink generous amounts of fluid both before and during operations.
D. Plenty of carbonated beverages should be available.
D. Plenty of carbonated beverages should be available. (FALSE)
236
Exposures to poisons cause damage to organs or other parts of the body and may even cause death. Some poisons such as _____ affect the kidneys.
A. Benzene.
B. Napthalene.
C. Halogenated hydrocarbons.
D. Parathion.
C. Halogenated hydrocarbons.
-----------------------------------------
A. Benzene. (Hemotoxin)
B. Napthalene. (Hemotoxin)
C. Halogenated hydrocarbons. (Nephrotoxin)
D. Parathion. (?)
237
Nephrotoxins are toxic chemicals or poisons that target/effect the kidneys. Some nephrotoxins include... the exception is:
A. Mercury.
B. Halogenated hydrocarbons.
C. Benzene.
D. Carbon Tetrachloride.
C. Benzene. (FALSE)
Benzene is a hemotoxin that effects the blood.
238
Chemical exposures that destroy or burn living tissues and have destructive effects on other materials are called corrosives. _____ breaks down fatty skin tissue and can penetrate deeply into the body.
A. Caustic soda.
B. Hydrochloric acid.
C. Nitric acid.
D. Sulfuric acid.
A. Caustic soda.
239
Chemical exposures that destroy or burn living tissues and have destructive effects on other materials are called corrosives. Examples of common acids include... the exception is:
A. Potassium hydroxide.
B. Hydrochloric acid.
C. Nitric acid.
D. Sulfuric acid.
A. Potassium hydroxide. (Base)
240
Chemical exposures that destroy or burn living tissues and have destructive effects on other materials are called corrosives. Examples of common bases include... the exception is:
A. Potassium hydroxide.
B. Caustic soda.
C. Drain cleaners.
D. Nitric acid.
D. Nitric acid. (Acid)
241
_____ radiation is the least dangerous as a threat to external portions of the body but is very dangerous when ingested, inhaled or otherwise allowed to enter the body.
A. Alpha.
B. Beta.
C. Gamma.
D. Neutron.
A. Alpha.
242
Once they are in the system, hazardous materials have varying effects on the body. _____ affect the body both internally and externally.
A. Asbestos.
B. Mercury.
C. Chlorine.
D. Silica.
C. Chlorine.
Page 24 list "Hydrogen fluoride"
243
Matter is found in three states: gas, liquid, and solid. In general _____ post the greatest danger to first responders.
A. Solids.
B. Liquids.
C. Gases.
D. Solids, liquids, gases are equally hazardous.
C. Gases.
244
Flammable liquids, such as _____ have flashpoints well below 100°F.
A. Naphthalene.
B. Gasoline.
C. Fuel oil.
D. Lubricating oil.
B. Gasoline.
| -----------------------------------------
245
_____ liquids such as gasoline and acetone have flashpoints well below 100°F. In general, the lower the flashpoint, the greater the fire hazard.
A. Flammable.
B. Combustible.
C. Nonflammable.
D. Noncombustible.
A. Flammable.
246
_____ liquids such as fuel oils and lubricating oils have flashpoints above 100°F. In general, the lower the flashpoint, the greater the fire hazard.
A. Flammable.
B. Combustible.
C. Nonflammable.
D. Noncombustible.
B. Combustible.
247
The fire point is the temperature at which enough vapors are given off to support continuous burning. This temperature is usually:
A. Slightly below the autoignition temperature.
B. Slightly above the autoignition temperature.
C. Slightly below the flashpoint.
D. Slightly above the flashpoint.
D. Slightly above the flashpoint.
248
First responders can reduce the number of on-site decisions by the following... the exception is:
A. Preparing preincident plans.
B. Donning personal protective equipment (PPE) after size-up.
C. Establishing procedures.
D. Tentatively pre-assigning actions before the incident occurs.
B. Donning personal protective equipment (PPE) after size-up.
249
Based on the hazard assessment, the incident commander develops a plan of action. Overall, the plan must focus on three strategic goals. These goals are... the exception is:
A. Life safety.
B. Environmental protection.
C. Incident stabilization.
D. Property conservation.
C. Incident stabilization.
250
When considering hazardous materials in fixed facilities, first responders tend to draw immediate concern to:
A. Service stations.
B. Hardware stores.
C. School laboratories.
D. Large manufacturing and storage facilities.
D. Large manufacturing and storage facilities.
251
Water-reactive materials such as _____ burn with such intensity that they decompose water and two separate hydrogen and oxygen molecules. The hydrogen then burns while the oxygen supports the combustion. Adding water to these chemical reactions intensifies the fire rather than suppresses it.
A. Nickel.
B. Arsenic.
C. Many plastics.
D. Lithium.
D. Lithium.
-----------------------------------------
Other Water-Reactive materials: Alkali metals (sodium, magnesium, lithium, potassium), Sodium peroxide, anhydrides, carbides.
252
Heat cramps can occur after heavy exertion and exposure to high temperatures. Cramps develop in the body's extremities as a result of dehydration and excessive salt loss. All of the following are symptoms of heat cramps... the exception is:
```
A. Heavy precipitation.
B. Hot, dry, red skin.
C. Physical weakness.
D. Moist skin.
E. Muscle cramps in the abdomen and legs.
F. Faintness, Dizziness.
G. Exhaustion.
```
B. Hot, dry, red skin. (FALSE - symptom of Heat Stroke)
253
Exposures to poisons can cause damage to organs and other parts of the body may even cause death. An example of a hepatotoxic agent which affects the liver is.
A. Benzene.
B. Arsine.
C. Napthalene.
D. Phenols.
D. Phenols. (Hepatoxin)
-----------------------------------------
A. Benzene. (Hemotoxin, Immunotoxin, Endocrine toxin)
B. Arsine. (Hemotoxin)
C. Napthalene. (Hemotoxin)
254
Exposures to poisons can cause damage to organs and other parts of the body may even cause death. An examples of hemotoxins (target blood) are... the exception is:
```
A. Carbon monoxide.
B. Cyanides.
C. Benzene.
D. Nitrates.
E. Arsine.
F. Phenols.
G. Naphthalene.
H. Cocaine.
```
F. Phenols. (Hepatoxin - liver)
255
Asphyxiants affect the oxygenation of the body and generally lead to suffocation. Asphyxiants can be divided into two classes: simple and chemical. Example of a simple asphyxiant is:
A. Methane.
B. Benzene.
C. Toluene.
D. Aniline.
A. Methane.
256
Tangible evidence of hazardous materials, such as a spreading vapor cloud, a pair of gloves melting, fish dying, container deterioration, etc., are signs that physical and/or chemical actions and reactions are taking place. All of the following are indications of physical action... the exception is:
A. Rainbow sheen on water surfaces.
B. Pinging or popping of heat exposed vessels.
C. Splattering or boiling of unheated materials.
D. Operation of pressure relief devices.
C. Splattering or boiling of unheated materials. (Chemical action)
257
This index _____ lists the UN/NA four-digit identification number in numerical order with its proper material shipping name and the guide number assigned to it. Therefore, if the ID number is known, first responders can turn to this index and locate the following information: Identification number; Appropriate guide page that outlines the initial action to be taken; Name of the material to which the number is a sign:
A. Yellow-boarded pages.
B. Orange-boarded pages.
C. Blue-boarded pages.
D. Green-bordered pages.
A. Yellow-boarded pages.
258
Most models used for determining the level of a hazmat incident defines three levels of response. An example of a level one incident is:
A. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter.
B. Those that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries.
C. Spill or leak requiring large-scale evacuation.
D. Rupture of an underground pipeline.
A. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter. (Level I)
-----------------------------------------
B. Those that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries. (Level III)
C. Spill or leak requiring large-scale evacuation. (Level III)
D. Rupture of an underground pipeline. (Level II)
259
Several factors are considered when choosing the decontamination site. The decontamination site should ideally:
A. Be located on porous material to promote training.
B. Slope toward the hot zone. Anything that may accidentally get released in the decon corridor would drain toward and into the contaminated hot zone.
C. Be located near a sewer drain.
D. Be located near a pond or creek.
B. Slope toward the hot zone. Anything that may accidentally get released in the decon corridor would drain toward and into the contaminated hot zone.
260
There are three basic types of high-temperature clothing. _____ permit close approach to fires for the purpose of performing rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation activities.
A. Structural firefighting clothing.
B. Proximity suits.
C. Approach suits.
D. Fire entry suits.
B. Proximity suits.
261
_____ protection allows for the use of respiratory protection equipment other than SCBA. This protection includes any of the various types of air purifying respirators. Emergency response personnel would not use this level of protection unless specific material is known and can be measured.
A. Level D.
B. Level C.
C. Level B.
D. Level A.
B. Level C.
262
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
The _____ ensemble provides the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles for the respiratory tract, eyes, and skin. Operations Level responders are generally not allowed to operate in situations requiring this level of protection; However, they must be appropriately trained to wear _____ PEE if they are required to wear it.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
A. Level A.
263
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Components: Level ___ ensemble requirements:
-Positive-pressure, full facepiece, SCBA, or positive-pressure airline respirator with escape SCBA, approved by NIOSH.
-Vapor-protective suits: TECP suits constructed of protective clothing materials that meet the following criteria:
• Cover the wearer's torso, head, arms, and legs
• Include boots and gloves that may either be an integral part of the suit or separate and tightly attached.
• Enclosed the wearer completely by itself or in combination with the wearer's respiratory equipment, gloves, and boots
• Provide equivalent chemical-resistance protection for all components of a TECP suit
• Meet the requirements in NFPA 1991
-Coveralls (optional)
-Long underwear (optional)
-Chemical-resistant outer gloves
-Chemical-resistant inner gloves
-Chemical-resistant boots with steel toe and shank
-Hardhat (under suit) (optional)
-Disposable protective suit, gloves, and boots (can be worn over total encapsulating suits, depending on suit construction)
-Two-way radios (worn inside encapsulating suit)
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
A. Level A.
264
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Protection Provided: Level ___ is the highest available level of respiratory, skin, and eye protection from solid, liquid, and gaseous chemicals.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
A. Level A.
265
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Use: Level ___ ensembles are used in the following situations:
- Chemical hazards are unknown or unidentified.
- Chemical(s) have been identified and have high level of hazards to respiratory system, skin and eyes.
- Site operations and work functions involve a high potential for splash, immersion, or exposure to unexpected vapors, gases, or particulates of material that are harmful to skin or capable of being absorbed through the intact skin.
- Substances are present with a known or suspected skin toxicity or carcinogenicity.
- Operations that are conducted in confined or poorly ventilated areas.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
A. Level A.
266
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Level ___ protection requires a garment that includes an SCBA or a supplied-air respirator and provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical. This ensemble is worn when the highest level of respiratory protection is necessary but a lesser level of skin protection is needed. This level ensemble provides liquid-splash protection, but little or no protection against chemical vapors or gases to the skin. May be encapsulating or nonencapsulating.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
B. Level B.
267
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Components: Level ___ ensemble requirements:
- Positive-pressure, full facepiece, SCBA, or positive-pressure airline respirator with escape SCBA approved by NIOSH
- Hooded chemical-resistant clothing that meets the requirements of NFPA 1992
- Coveralls (optional)
- Chemical-resistant outer gloves
- Chemical-resistant inner gloves
- Chemical-resistant boots with steel toe and shank
- Disposable, chemical-resistant outer boot covers (optional)
- Hardhat (outside or on top of nonencapsulating suits or under encapsulating suits)
- Two-way radios (worn inside encapsulating suit or outside nonencapsulating suit)
- Faceshield (optional)
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
B. Level B.
268
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Protection Provided: Level ___ ensembles provide the same level of respiratory protection as Level A but have less skin protection. Ensembles provide liquid-splash protection, but no protection against chemical vapors or gases.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
B. Level B.
269
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Use: Level ___ ensembles are used in the following situations:
- Type and atmospheric concentration of substances have been identified and require a high-level of respiratory protection but less skin protection.
- Atmosphere contains less than 19.5% oxygen or more than 23.5% oxygen.
- Presence of incompletely identified vapors or gases is indicated by a direct-reading organic vapor detector instrument, but the vapors and gases are known not to contain high levels of chemicals harmful to skin or capable of being absorbed through intact skin.
- Presence of liquids or particulates is indicated, but they are known not to contain high levels of chemicals harmful to skin or capable of being absorbed through intact skin.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
B. Level B.
270
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Level ___ protection includes any of the various types of APRs. Emergency response personnel would not use this level of protection unless the specific material is known, it has been measured, and this protection level is appropriate by the IC after all qualifying conditions for APRs and PAPRs have been met (that is, the product is known, and appropriate filter is available, the atmospheric oxygen concentration is between 19.5 to 23.5%, and the atmosphere is not IDLH). Periodic air monitoring is required when using this level of PPE.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
C. Level C.
271
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Level ___ protection differs from Level B in the area of equipment needed for respiratory protection. Level ___ is composed of a splash-protecting garment and an air-purifying device (APR or PAPR).
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
C. Level C.
272
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Components: Level ___ ensemble requirements:
- Full-face or half-mask APRs, NIOSH approved
- Hooded chemical-resistant clothing (overalls, two-piece chemical-splash suits, and disposable chemical-resistant overalls)
- Coveralls (optional)
- Chemical-resistant outer gloves
- Chemical-resistant inner gloves
- Chemical-resistant boots with steel toe and shank
- Disposable, chemical resistant outer boot covers (optional)
- Hardhat
- Escape mask (optional)
- Two-way radios (worn under outside protective clothing)
- Face shield (optional)
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
C. Level C.
273
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Protection Provided: Level ___ ensembles provide the same level of skin protection as Level B but have a lower level of respiratory protection. Ensembles provide liquid-splash protection but no protection from chemical vapors or gases on the skin.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
C. Level C.
274
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Use: Level ___ ensembles are used in the following situations:
- Atmosphere contaminants, liquid splashes, or other direct contact will not adversely affect exposed skin or be absorbed through any exposed skin.
- Types of air contaminants have been identified, concentrations have been measured, and an APR is available that can remove the contaminants.
- All criteria for the use of APRs are met.
- Atmospheric concentration of chemicals do not exceed IDLH levels. The atmosphere must contain between 19.5 and 23.5% oxygen.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
C. Level C.
275
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Level ___ ensembles consist of typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls. Firefighter structural protective clothing is also considered this level because, currently per the EPA definition, it is not considered chemical protective clothing. Level ___ protection can be worn only when no atmospheric hazards exist.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
D. Level D.
276
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Components: Level ___ ensemble requirements are as follows:
- Coveralls
- Gloves (optional)
- Chemical-resistant boots/shoes with steel toe and shank
- Disposable, chemical-resistant outer boot covers (optional)
- Safety glasses or chemical-splash goggles
- Hardhat
- Escape device in case of accidental release and the need to immediately escape the area (optional)
- Faceshield (optional)
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
D. Level D.
277
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Protection Provided: Level ___ ensembles provide no respiratory protection and minimal skin protection.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
D. Level D.
278
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Use: Level ___ ensembles may not be worn in the hot zone and are not acceptable for hazmat emergency response above the Awareness Level.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
D. Level D.
279
U.S. EPA Levels of Protection:
Level ___ ensembles are used when both of the following conditions exist:
- Atmosphere contains no hazard.
- Work functions preclude splashes, immersion, or the potential for unexpected inhalation of or contact with hazardous levels of any chemicals.
A. Level A.
B. Level B.
C. Level C.
D. Level D.
D. Level D.
280
Radioactive material packages are the strongest containers used to transport hazardous materials. Type A packaging is designed to carry:
A. High-grade raw materials.
B. Nuclear fuels (both new and spent).
C. Cylinders for compressed radiological gases such as xenon.
D. Highly radioactive materials.
C. Cylinders for compressed radiological gases such as xenon.
281
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ packaging used for transportation of materials that have very limited radioactivity such as articles manufactured from natural or depleted uranium or natural thorium. These packagings are only used to transport materials with extremely low levels of radioactivity that present no risk to the public or environment. _____ packaging is not marked or labeled as such.
```
A. Excepted.
B. Industrial.
C. Type A.
D. Type B.
E. Type C.
```
A. Excepted.
282
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ containers retains and protects the contents during normal transportation activities. Materials that present limited hazard to the public and the environment are shipped in these packages. _____ packages are not identified as such on the packages or shipping papers.
```
A. Excepted.
B. Industrial.
C. Type A.
D. Type B.
E. Type C.
```
B. Industrial.
283
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ material examples include:
- Slightly contaminated clothing
- Laboratory samples
- Smoke detectors
```
A. Excepted.
B. Industrial.
C. Type A.
D. Type B.
E. Type C.
```
B. Industrial.
284
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ are packages that must demonstrate their ability to withstand a series of tests without releasing their contents. The package and shipping papers will have the words _____ on them. Regulations require that the package protect its contents and maintain sufficient shielding under conditions normally encountered during transportation. Radioactive materials with relatively high specific activity levels are shipped in these types of packages.
```
A. Excepted.
B. Industrial.
C. Type A.
D. Type B.
E. Type C.
```
C. Type A.
285
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ material examples are:
- Radiopharmaceuticals (radioactive materials for medical use)
- Certain regulatory qualified industrial products such as density gauges
- Cylinders for compressed radiological gases such as xenon
```
A. Excepted.
B. Industrial.
C. Type A.
D. Type B.
E. Type C.
```
C. Type A.
286
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ packages must not only demonstrate their ability to withstand tests simulating normal shipping conditions, but they must also withstand severe accident conditions without releasing their contents. _____ packages are identified as such on the package itself as well as on shipping papers. The size of these packages can range from small containers to those weighing over 100 tons. These large, heavy packages provide shielding against radiation.
```
A. Excepted.
B. Industrial.
C. Type A.
D. Type B.
E. Type C.
```
D. Type B.
287
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ material examples:
- Materials that would present a radiation hazard to the public or the environment if there were a major release
- Materials with high levels of radioactivity such as spent fuel from nuclear power plants
```
A. Excepted.
B. Industrial.
C. Type A.
D. Type B.
E. Type C.
```
D. Type B.
288
Radioactive material is shipped in one of five basic types. _____ are very rare packages used for high activity materials (including plutonium) transported by aircraft. They are designed to withstand severe accident conditions associated with air transport without loss of containment or significant increase in external radiation levels.
```
A. Excepted.
B. Industrial.
C. Type A.
D. Type B.
E. Type C.
```
E. Type C.
289
Some hazmat incidents may evolve out of non-emergency situations. The fact that these materials are being transported, stored, and disposed of more safely than ever will not eliminate these incidents. Which of the following issues relating to hazardous materials to government regulations cover?
A. Human error.
B. Labeling.
C. Truck accidents, train derailment.
D. Package failure.
B. Labeling.
290
U.S. Regulations/Definitions:
The _____ issues transportation regulations in Title 49 CFR. These legally binding regulations are enforced at the federal, state, and local levels. The regulations specifically governing the transportation of hazardous materials found in Title 49 CFR are sometimes referred to as the Hazardous Materials Regulations or HMR. They address the transportation of hazardous materials in all modes: air, highway, pipeline, rail, and water.
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
291
U.S. Regulations/Definitions:
The purpose of the Hazardous Materials Regulations (HMR) is to provide adequate protection against the risks to life, property, and the environment inherent in transporting hazardous materials in commerce by improving the regulatory and enforcement authority of the Secretary of Transportation. The _____ Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) agency carries out these duties through a program of regulation, enforcement, emergency response education and training, and data collection and analysis.
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
292
U.S. Regulations/Definitions:
The _____ is responsible for researching and setting national standards for a variety of environmental programs. It delegates the responsibility for issuing permits, monitoring, and enforcing compliance to states and tribes. It also works closely with other federal agencies, state and local governments, and Indian tribes to develop and enforce regulations under existing environmental laws. The _____ also works with industries and all levels of government in a wide variety of voluntary pollution prevention programs and energy conservation efforts.
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
293
U.S. Regulations/Definitions:
The _____ also has mechanisms in place to track the thousands of new chemicals that industry develops each year with either unknown or dangerous characteristics. The _____ then can control these chemicals as necessary to protect human health and the environment. TSCA supplements other federal statutes, including the. Clean Air Act and the Toxic Release Inventory under EPCRA. The _____ issues legislation to protect the environment in Title 40 CFR.
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
294
U.S. Regulations/Definitions:
The _____ is responsible for overseeing US labor laws. The US Congress passed the Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSH) in 1970. One year later a new department, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) was created to oversee compliance with the Act under the jurisdiction of the _____ .
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
295
U.S. Regulations/Definitions:
The _____ regulates US commercial nuclear power plants and the civilian use of nuclear materials as well as the possession, use, storage, and transfer of radioactive materials through Title 10 (Energy) CRF 20.
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
296
U.S. Regulations/Definitions:
In the US, the four main agencies involved in regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes at the federal level are as follows... the exception is:
```
A. Department of Transportation (DOT)
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
C. Department of Labor (DOL)
D. Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC)
E. Department of Energy (DOE)
```
E. Department of Energy (DOE) - FALSE -
The DOE Is manages the national nuclear research and defense programs, including the storage of high-level nuclear waste.
297
Cold exposure is a concern when dealing with cryogenic and liquefied gases. A cryogen is a gas that turns into a liquid at or below -130°F. Some cryogens have hazardous properties in addition to the cold hazard. A cryogen which is also a corrosive, and oxidizer, and a poison is:
```
A. Nitrogen.
B. Helium.
C. Fluorine.
D. Hydrogen.
E. Argon.
D. LNG.
E. LOX.
```
C. Fluorine.
298
Emergency information centers, such as CHEMTREC, are principal providers of immediate technical assistance. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding CHEMTREC.
A. Emergency service contact with CHEMTREC fulfills the incident reporting requirements set forth in the federal regulations for transporters.
B. CHEMTREC is the best source of information on a specific hazardous material.
C. The tactical information provided is specific, the system makes decisions for the incident commander.
D. CHEMTREC is capable of assessing databases, coordinating information sources, and notifying shippers of the incident.
D. CHEMTREC is capable of assessing databases, coordinating information sources, and notifying shippers of the incident.
299
The General Emergency Behavior Model (GEBMO) was developed to help first responders limit the effects of a hazardous material, thereby preserving the environment and property. GEBMO leads first responders to develop a strategy by the evaluation of six specific conditions related to the incident. The condition "Engulf" is described as:
A. Identify the types of stress.
B. Predict the type of breach.
C. Predict the dispersion pattern.
D. Predict the hazard causing the harm.
C. Predict the dispersion pattern.
300
The US. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has established levels of protective equipment. Level _____ provides the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles. The totally encapsulating suit is not only envelops the wearer but also the SCBA. Level _____ protection is required when working directly with liquids, papers, or gases that pose a severe threat of injury from any contact.
A. "A"
B. "B"
C. "C"
D. "D"
A. "A"
301
Firefighting foam is 94 or 99.5% water. Depending on their purpose, foams are designed for low, medium, or high expansion. Low expansion foams are used:
A. Extinguish pesticide fires.
B. To suppress fuming acid vapors.
C. Primarily to extinguish fires in liquid fuels.
D. To extinguish fires in concealed spaces.
C. Primarily to extinguish fires in liquid fuels. (LOW)
-----------------------------------------
A. Extinguish pesticide fires.
B. To suppress fuming acid vapors.
D. To extinguish fires in concealed spaces. (HIGH)
302
Gases are found universally in storage cylinders, large tanks, and distribution systems. In addition to the fire and explosion hazards posed by released flammable gases, any gas under pressure presents dangers to the first responder. In which of the following emergencies involving gases would immediate concern be "to prevent ignition".
A. Flammable gas leaks involving fire.
B. Flammable gas leaks not involving fire.
C. Nonflammable gas leaks not involving fire.
D. Poisonous gas leaks not involving fire.
B. Flammable gas leaks not involving fire.
303
When the immediate priority has been established, the IC will determine the mode of operation to be followed. The safety of the first responders is the upmost consideration in selecting a mode of operation. The three modes of operation are nonintervention, defensive, and offensive. The defensive mode is selected when which of the following circumstances exist?
A. The situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of the responders.
B. Explosions are imminent.
C. The responders have the training and equipment necessary to confine the incident to the area of origin.
D. Serious container damage threatens a massive release.
E. Aggressive and direct action on the material, container, or process equipment involved in the incident.
C. The responders have the training and equipment necessary to confine the incident to the area of origin. (Defensive)
-----------------------------------------
A. The situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of the responders. (Nonintervention)
B. Explosions are imminent. (Nonintervention)
D. Serious container damage threatens a massive release.(Nonintervention)
E. Aggressive and direct action on the material, container, or process equipment involved in the incident. (Offensive)
304
There are four basic methods of decontamination that the first responder may use. Absorption is the process of picking up a liquid contaminant with an absorbent. The following statement is FALSE regarding absorbents.
A. Most absorbent are inexpensive.
B. Examples of absorbents are soil, diatomaceous earth, and sand.
C. Absorbents work extremely well on turn-out gear.
D. Most absorbent's are readily available.
C. Absorbents work extremely well on turn-out gear. (FALSE)
305
As the use, transportation, storage, and disposal of hazardous materials increase, there will be an inevitable increase in the number of haz mat incidents. The following issues related to hazardous materials are covered by government regulations... the exception is:
```
A. Packaging.
B. Package failure.
C. Training of personnel.
D. Labeling.
E. Use.
```
B. Package failure.
306
Asphyxiants affect the oxygenation of the body and generally lead to suffocation. Asphyxiants can be divided into two classes: simple and chemical. Which of the following chemicals is an example of a chemical asphyxiants?
A. Acetylene.
B. Hydrogen.
C. Aniline.
D. Nitrogen.
C. Aniline.
307
Once a hazardous material is in the system, it can have varying effects on the body. Some hazardous materials affect the body only internally. Some hazardous materials affect the body both internally and externally. Hazardous materials which affect the body both internally and externally are... the exception is:
A. Mercury.
B. Chlorine.
C. Isopropyl alcohol.
D. Anhydrous ammonia.
A. Mercury. (Internally only)
308
The reactivity of a substance is its ability to undergo a chemical reaction with another substance. An unstable substance is one capable of undergoing spontaneous change. A highly reactive substance may be hypergolic, pyrophoric, or water-reactive. Which of the following substances is a pyrophoric material?
A. Lithium.
B. Picric acid.
C. Organic peroxides.
D. White phosphorus.
```
D. White phosphorus. (pyrophoric)
-----------------------------------------
A. Lithium. (Water-reactive)
B. Picric acid.
C. Organic peroxides.
```
309
The ERG was developed by the US Department of Transportation (DOT) for use by first responders. The material name index lists in alphabetical order the names of materials that should appear on shipping documents. This index is identified by its _____ bordered pages.
A. Orange.
B. Blue.
C. Yellow.
D. Green.
B. Blue.
310
NFPA 704 is an acceptable identification system that can be implemented in _____ . The NFPA 704 system is an important aid in determining the actions and safety procedures to be used in the initial phase of a hazmat incident.
A. Chronic exposures.
B. Transportation.
C. Fixed storage facilities.
D. General public use.
C. Fixed storage facilities.
311
Depending on their purpose, foams are designed for low, medium, or high expansion. Low expansion foam is used primarily to extinguish fires in:
A. Basement fires.
B. Pesticide fires.
C. Coal mine fires.
D. Liquid fires.
```
D. Liquid fires. (Low)
-----------------------------------------
A. Basement fires. (High)
B. Pesticide fires. (Medium)
C. Coal mine fires. (High)
```
312
Several factors are considered when choosing the decontamination site. The FIRST priority in the selection of a decontamination site is its:
A. Surface material.
B. Lighting.
C. Accessibility.
D. Water.
C. Accessibility.
313
One method of determining specific avenues of attack at chemical emergencies is to determine the immediate concern and the primary objective. Which of the following statements is NOT a primary objective?
A. Extinguishing fires and stabilizing the scene.
B. Stopping leaks by plugging and/or patching.
C. Diking and damning large-volume spills.
D. Eliminating all ignition sources within an appropriate distance.
D. Eliminating all ignition sources within an appropriate distance. (Secondary objective?)
314
This special firefighter clothing that first responders may encounter is clothing design for situations where heat levels exceed the capabilities of standard firefighting full protective clothing. There are three basic types of high temperature clothing: approach suits, proximity suits, and entry suits. The type of suit which is used for firefighting operations that involve high levels of radiant heat is known as a(n):
A. Fire entry suit.
B. Proximity suits.
C. Approached suit.
D. Turnout suit.
C. Approached suit.
315
First responders must understand that hazmat incidents are different from other types of emergencies. Most models used for determining the level of a hazmat incident define three levels of response. Which of the following statements is an example of a Level III incident?
A. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat.
B. Those that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries.
C. Spill or leak of unfamiliar or unknown chemicals.
D. Rupture of an underground pipeline.
B. Those that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries. (Level III)
-----------------------------------------
A. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat. (Level II)
C. Spill or leak of unfamiliar or unknown chemicals. (Level II)
D. Rupture of an underground pipeline. (Level II)
316
Radioactive material packages are the strongest containers used to transport hazardous materials. The two categories of packaging for shipment are Type A and Type B packaging. The following materials are transported in Type A packaging... the exception is:
A. High-grade raw materials.
B. Radiological gases.
C. Soil density meters.
D. Radiopharmaceuticals.
A. High-grade raw materials.
317
As the US transportation, storage, and disposal of hazardous materials increase, there will be an inevitable increase in the number of hazmat incidents. Which of the following issues related to hazardous materials are covered by government regulations?
A. Human error.
B. Package failure.
C. Use.
D. Vehicle accidents.
C. Use.
318
Mutagens are materials that cause changes in the genetic system of a cell in ways that can be transmitted during cell division. The individual who was exposed may not be hurt, but his or her offspring can be. Which of the following materials is known as a mutation?
A. Thalodimide.
B. Ethylene oxide.
C. Ethyl alcohol.
D. Methyl mercury.
B. Ethylene oxide.
319
Exposure Limits:
The TLV-STEL (Threshold limit value-short-term exposure limit) value is the maximum concentration for a continuous _____-minute exposure period. The maximum concentration for such periods per day, with at least 60 minutes between exposure periods, provided the daily TLV-TWA is not exceeded (set by OSHA).
A. 10 minutes.
B. 15 minutes.
C. 20 minutes.
D. 25 minutes.
B. 15 minutes. (TWA)
320
Exposure Limits:
The TLV-TWA (threshold limit value-time-weighted average) value is the allowable time-weighted average concentration. Exposure period set by ACGIH is believed to be:
A. 15 mins.
B. 30 mins.
C. 8-hours per week.
D. 8-hour day or 40-hour workweek.
D. 8-hour day or 40-hour workweek. (TWA)
321
Exposure Limits:
PEL (Permissible exposure limit) is a regulatory limit on the amount of concentration of a substance in the air. The PEL is the maximum concentration which the majority of healthy adults can be exposed over a 40-hour workweek without suffering adverse affects. Exposure period set by OSHA of _____-hours (TWA) unless otherwise noted.
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 24
B. 8-hours (TWA)
322
Exposure Limits:
PEL (C) is the PEL _____ limit. This is set by OSHA and is the maximum concentration to which an employee may be exposed at any time, even instantaneously.
A. Concentration.
B. Concern.
C. Ceiling.
D. Core.
C. Ceiling.
323
Exposure Limits:
IDLH (Immediately dangerous to life or health) is similarly defined by NIOSH and OSHA as "An atmosphere that poses an immediate threat to life, would cause irreversible adverse health effects, or would impair an individual's ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere."
However, NIOSH and OSHA define IDLH exposure period slightly differently, while OSHA's exposure limit is simple defined as "immediate"; NIOSH's is: Immediate (This limit represents the maximum concentration from which an unprotected person can expect to escape in a ___-minute period of time without suffering irreversible health effects.)
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45
C. 30-minute
324
Exposure Limits:
LOC (Levels of concern) is defined as ___% of the IDLH.
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 25%
D. 50%
B. 10%
325
Exposure Limits:
TLV (Threshold limit value) is an occupational exposure value recommended by ACGIH to which it is believed nearly all workers can be exposed day after day for a working _____ without ill effect.
A. Shift.
B. Quarterly period.
C. Year.
D. Lifetime.
D. Lifetime.
326
_____ materials are those that ignite when coming into contact with each other. _____ reactions involve the mixing of two types of chemicals: a fuel and an oxidizer.
A. Hypergolic.
B. Pyrophoric.
C. Unstable.
D. Water-reactive.
A. Hypergolic.
327
_____ materials are those that ignite instantly upon exposure to oxygen or air at normal temperatures.
A. Hypergolic.
B. Pyrophoric.
C. Unstable.
D. Water-reactive.
B. Pyrophoric.
Example: White phosphorous
328
_____ materials are generally a flammable solid, that reacts in varying degrees when mixed with water or exposed to humid air.
A. Hypergolic.
B. Pyrophoric.
C. Unstable.
D. Water-reactive.
D. Water-reactive.
329
_____ - Material that is added to products that easily polymerize in order to control or prevent an undesired reaction. Also called "stabilizer".
A. Polymerization.
B. Catalyst.
C. Strong oxidizer.
D. Inhibitor.
D. Inhibitor.
330
_____ - A substance that influences the rate of chemical reaction between or among other substances.
A. Polymerization.
B. Catalyst.
C. Strong oxidizer.
D. Inhibitor.
B. Catalyst.
331
_____ - Reactions in which two or more molecules chemically combine to form larger molecules; reaction can often be violent.
A. Polymerization.
B. Catalyst.
C. Strong oxidizer.
D. Inhibitor.
A. Polymerization.
Examples : acrylic acid, butadiene, ethylene, styrene, vinyl chloride, epoxies
332
_____ - Material that encourages a strong reaction (by readily accepting electrons) from a reducing agent (fuel).
A. Polymerization.
B. Catalyst.
C. Strong oxidizer.
D. Inhibitor.
C. Strong oxidizer.
Examples : Hydrogen peroxide, fluorine, bromine, calcium Chlorate, chromic acid, ammonium, perchlorate
333
The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of 0 to 4. The rating numbers are arranged on a diamond-shaped marker or sign. Special hazards are located:
A. In the 12 o'clock position on a red background.
B. In the 9 o'clock position on a blue background.
C. In the 6 o'clock position and have no specified color, however, white is most commonly used.
D. In the 3 o'clock position on a yellow background.
C. In the 6 o'clock position and have no specified color, however, white is most commonly used. (Special hazards)
-----------------------------------------
A. In the 12 o'clock position on a red background. (Flammability)
B. In the 9 o'clock position on a blue background. (Health)
D. In the 3 o'clock position on a yellow background. (Instability)
334
Defenses control measures are those measures used to contain and/or confined material. Defensive control measures may be taken by first responders who are properly trained, who are outfitted with appropriate personal protective equipment, and who have the equipment to carry out these measures. All of the following are defense of control actions... the exception is:
```
A. Absorption.
B. Vapor suppression.
C. Dispersion.
D. Containment.
E. Adsorption.
F. Blanketing/covering.
G. Dam, dike, diversion, and retention.
H. Ventilation.
I. Dilution.
J. Dissolution.
K. Neutralization.
```
D. Containment. (Offensive)
- ----------------------------------------
* **All other answers listed are considered Defensive spill control tactics***
335
_____ tactics are used to confine a hazardous material that has already been released from its container. These tactics reduce the amount of contact the product makes with people, property, and the environment thereby limiting the amount of potential harm. _____ actions are generally defensive in nature.
A. Leak-control tactics.
B. Spill-control tactics.
C. Fire-control tactics.
D. Hazardous-control tactics.
B. Spill-control tactics.
336
_____ tactics are used to contain the product in its original (or another container), thereby preventing it from escaping. Most _____ tactics are offensive, performed by hazardous material technicians and specialist.
A. Leak-control tactics.
B. Spill-control tactics.
C. Fire-control tactics.
D. Hazardous-control tactics.
A. Leak-control tactics.
337
_____ tactics are aimed at extinguishing fires and preventing ignition of flammable materials. These tactics may be offensive or defensive, depending on the situation.
A. Leak-control tactics.
B. Spill-control tactics.
C. Fire-control tactics.
D. Hazardous-control tactics.
C. Fire-control tactics.
338
The General Emergency Behavior Model (GEBMO) was developed to help first responders limit the effects of a hazardous material. This model leads first responders to develop a strategy by the evaluation of six specific conditions related to the incident. Contacts are associated with four general time frames. An example of a medium-term time frame is:
A. Gas or vapor cloud.
B. Deflagration.
C. Lingering pesticides.
D. Permanent radioactive source.
C. Lingering pesticides. (Medium term)
-----------------------------------------
A. Gas or vapor cloud. (Short term)
B. Deflagration. (Immediate)
D. Permanent radioactive source. (Long term)
339
Closed circuit self-contained breathing apparatus is sometimes used for hazmat incidents. An advantaged of closed circuit SCBA over open circuit SCBA is:
A. Closed circuit SCBA is heavier than open circuit SCBA.
B. Closed circuit SCBA is available with durations of 30 minutes to 4 hours.
C. Closed circuit SCBA uses compressed air instead of pure oxygen.
D. The operation of closed circuit SCBA units is considerably less complicated than operation of open circuit SCBA.
B. Closed circuit SCBA is available with durations of 30 minutes to 4 hours.
340
What is the primary objective for an emergency involving a Class 4 material involving fire or flame impingement?
A. Let it burn until it is consumed.
B. Put the fire out.
C. Extinguish the fire with a dry chemical extinguisher.
D. Extinguish the fire with a Class D extinguisher.
A. Let it burn until it is consumed.
341
Being exposed to hazardous material does not necessarily mean the exposed person or object is contaminated - it depends on the magnitude of the exposure. For example, employees in the workplace are allowed to be exposed to _____ of hydrogen sulfide during the course of a normal workday. This is the threshold limit value, time-weighted average (TLV-TWA) set by the federal Occupational Safety and Health Administration for hydrogen sulfide.
A. 10 ppm.
B. 20 ppm.
C. 30 ppm.
D. 40 ppm.
A. 10 ppm.
342
A hazardous substance as defined by 42 USC 9601, Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA), section 101(14): is... the exception is:
A. Any substance designated via the Federal Water Pollution Control Act.
B. Any hazardous air pollutant listed under section 112 of the Clean Air Act.
C. Petroleum or any petroleum byproduct.
D. Any elements, compound, mixture, solution, or substance designated pursuant to CERCLA.
C. Petroleum or any petroleum byproduct. (FALSE)
343
Once they are in the system, hazardous materials have varying effects on the body. Many materials attack the body internally but have no external effect. Other hazardous materials affect the body both internally and externally. Which of the following hazardous materials attacked the body internally, but have no external effect?
A. Chlorine.
B. Mercury.
C. Isopropyl alcohol.
D. Anhydrous ammonia.
B. Mercury.
344
The fire point is the temperature at which:
A. Enough vapors are given off to support continuous burning.
B. A liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface.
C. The fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustaining combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source.
D. A substance most rapidly changes from a liquid to a gas or when the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation.
A. Enough vapors are given off to support continuous burning. (Fire point)
-----------------------------------------
B. A liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface. (Flashpoint)
C. The fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustaining combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source. (Autoignition temperature)
D. A substance most rapidly changes from a liquid to a gas or when the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation. (Boiling point)
345
The flash point is the temperature at which:
A. Enough vapors are given off to support continuous burning.
B. A liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface.
C. The fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustaining combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source.
D. A substance most rapidly changes from a liquid to a gas or when the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation.
B. A liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface.
346
The autoignition temperature is the temperature at which:
A. Enough vapors are given off to support continuous burning.
B. A liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface.
C. The fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustaining combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source.
D. A substance most rapidly changes from a liquid to a gas or when the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation.
C. The fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustaining combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source.
347
The boiling point is the temperature at which:
A. Enough vapors are given off to support continuous burning.
B. A liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with air near its surface.
C. The fuel in air must be heated to initiate self-sustaining combustion without initiation from an independent ignition source.
D. A substance most rapidly changes from a liquid to a gas or when the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation.
D. A substance most rapidly changes from a liquid to a gas or when the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of condensation.
348
Water reactive materials are substances, generally flammable solids, that react in varying degrees when either mixed with water or exposed to humid air. The chemical reactions of a substance will vary. Acetylene gas is formed when water comes in contact with:
A. Polyethylene.
B. Lithium.
C. Magnesium.
D. Calcium carbide.
D. Calcium carbide.
349
The ERG contains several cross-referenced indexes. The index ( ____ boarded pages) list the UN/NA four-digit identification number in numerical order with its proper material shipping name and guide number assigned to it.
A. Blue.
B. Yellow.
C. Orange.
D. Green.
B. Yellow.
350
_____ is high-temperature PPE clothing that permits close approach to fires for the purpose of performing rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation activities.
A. Approach suits.
B. Fire entry suits.
C. Proximity suits.
D. Firefighter turnout suits.
C. Proximity suits.
351
Extinguishment of flammable and combustible liquid hazmat fires requires properly applied foams in adequate quantities. Hydrocarbon fuels are petroleum-based and float on water. Standard firefighting foam is effective as an extinguishing agent and vapor suppressant. The following are examples of hydrocarbon fuels... the exception is:
A. Gasoline.
B. Acetone.
C. Benzene.
D. Naphtha.
B. Acetone.
352
The decontamination corridor should be established before any work is performed in the hot zone. First responders are often involved with setting up and working in the decontamination corridor. A _____ hoseline is ideal for decontamination.
A. High volume, low pressure.
B. Low volume, high pressure.
C. Low volume, low-pressure.
D. High-volume, high-pressure.
A. High volume, low pressure.
353
Many incidents occur while hazardous materials are being transported and statistics indicate that the majority of hazmat transportation incidents occur while materials are being transported via:
A. Air.
B. Highway.
C. Rail.
D. Water.
B. Highway.
354
Because certain hazardous materials are more common than others, they are statistically more likely to be involved in incidents and accidents. Records have shown that the majority of hazmat incidents involve the following products... the exception is:
A. Flammable/combustible liquids (petroleum products, paint products, residents, adhesives, etc.).
B. Corrosives (sulfuric acid, hydrochloric acid, sodium hydroxide, etc.).
C. Anhydrous ammonia.
D. Chlorine.
E. Radioactive materials.
E. Radioactive materials. (FALSE)
355
Vapor density is the weight of a given volume of pure vapor or gas compared to the weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure. All of the following examples has a vapor density less than one... the exception is:
A. Acetylene.
B. Hydrogen.
C. Chlorine.
D. Methane.
C. Chlorine. (Greater than 1, sinks)
356
According to the US government, all shipments of radioactive materials whether from industry or government, must be packaged and transported according to strict regulations. The type of packaging used to transport radioactive materials is determined by the activity, type, and form of material to be shipped. An example of an article which would be shipped in "excepted" packaging is:
A. Smoke detectors.
B. Radiopharmaceuticals.
C. Slightly contaminated clothing.
D. Depleted uranium.
```
D. Depleted uranium. (Excepted)
________________________________
A. Smoke detectors. (Industrial)
B. Radiopharmaceuticals. (Type A)
C. Slightly contaminated clothing. (Industrial)
```
357
When dealing with hazardous materials there are both offensive and defensive tactics which may be needed to control the incident. Which of the following tactics is an offensive tactic?
A. Diking.
B. Plugging.
C. Using sand to divert the spill.
D. Damning.
B. Plugging.
358
Decontamination methods can be divided into four broad categories: wet or dry methods, and physical or chemical methods. _____ is an example of chemical decontamination.
A. Sanitation.
B. Adsorption.
C. Brushing.
D. Dilution.
A. Sanitation.
359
Decontamination methods can be divided into four broad categories: wet or dry methods, and physical or chemical methods. Examples of _____ methods include chemical degradation, sanitization, disinfection, sterilization, neutralization, and solidification.
A. Wet.
B. Dry.
C. Physical.
D. Chemical.
D. Chemical.
360
Decontamination methods can be divided into four broad categories: wet or dry methods, and physical or chemical methods. Examples of _____ methods include absorption, adsorption, brushing & scraping, dilution, evaporation, isolation & disposal, washing, and vacuuming.
A. Wet.
B. Dry.
C. Physical.
D. Chemical.
C. Physical.
361
Decontamination methods can be divided into four broad categories: wet or dry methods, and physical or chemical methods. Examples of _____ methods include scraping, brushing, and absorption.
A. Wet.
B. Dry.
C. Physical.
D. Chemical.
B. Dry.
362
Decontamination methods can be divided into four broad categories: wet or dry methods, and physical or chemical methods. Examples of _____ methods include washing, flushing, and dilution.
A. Wet.
B. Dry.
C. Physical.
D. Chemical.
A. Wet.
363
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Defensive spill-control tactics that "confine" hazardous materials include the following: Absorption; Adsorption; Blanketing/covering; Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention; & Vapor suppression.
_____ is a physical and/or chemical event occurring during contact between materials that have an attraction for each other. This event results in one material being retained within the other.
```
A. Absorption.
B. Adsorption.
C. Blanketing/covering.
D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention.
E. Vapor suppression.
```
A. Absorption.
364
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Defensive spill-control tactics that "confine" hazardous materials include the following: Absorption; Adsorption; Blanketing/covering; Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention; & Vapor suppression.
An example of _____ is soaking an axe head and water to make the handle swell.
```
A. Absorption.
B. Adsorption.
C. Blanketing/covering.
D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention.
E. Vapor suppression.
```
A. Absorption.
365
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Defensive spill-control tactics that "confine" hazardous materials include the following: Absorption; Adsorption; Blanketing/covering; Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention; & Vapor suppression.
Some of the materials typically used in _____ are sawdust, clays, charcoal, and polyolefin-type fibers. These materials are spread directly onto the hazardous material or any location where the material is expected to flow. After use, it must be treated and disposed of as hazardous materials themselves because they retain the property of the materials they absorb.
```
A. Absorption.
B. Adsorption.
C. Blanketing/covering.
D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention.
E. Vapor suppression.
```
A. Absorption.
366
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Defensive spill-control tactics that "confine" hazardous materials include the following: Absorption; Adsorption; Blanketing/covering; Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention; & Vapor suppression.
In _____ molecules of the hazardous material physically adhere to the material. _____ materials are often organic-based such as activated charcoal or carbon. They are primarily used to control shallow liquid spills. It is important to make sure that they are compatible with the spilled material in order to avoid potentially dangerous reactions.
```
A. Absorption.
B. Adsorption.
C. Blanketing/covering.
D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention.
E. Vapor suppression.
```
B. Adsorption.
367
The following statements are FALSE in regards to "adsorption"... the exception is:
A. "Adsorbents" tend to swell like "absorbents" do.
B. An example of "adsorption" is soaking an axe head in water to make the handle swell.
C. "Absorption" is different from "adsorption" in that the molecules of the hazardous material physically adhere to the "absorbent" material rather than being "adsorbed" into the interspaces of an "adsorbent" material.
D. "Adsorption" is different from "absorption" in that the molecules of the hazardous material physically adhere to the "adsorbent" material rather than being "absorbed" into the interspaces of an "absorbent" material.
D. "Adsorption" is different from "absorption" in that the molecules of the hazardous material physically adhere to the "adsorbent" material rather than being "absorbed" into the interspaces of an "absorbent" material. (TRUE)
________________________________
A. "Adsorbents" tend to swell like "absorbents" do. (FALSE - reversed)
B. An example of "adsorption" is soaking an axe head in water to make the handle swell. (FALSE - "absorption")
C. "Absorption" is different from "adsorption" in that the molecules of the hazardous material physically adhere to the "absorbent" material rather than being "adsorbed" into the interspaces of an "adsorbent" material. (FALSE - reversed)
368
The following statements are TRUE in regards to "absorption"... the exception is:
A. "Absorption" is a physical and/or chemical event occurring during contact between materials that have an attraction for each other. This event results and one material being retained within the other.
B. And example of "absorption" is soaking in axe head in water to make the handle swell.
C. "Absorbents" are often organic-based materials such as activated charcoal or carbon.
D. "Absorbents" tend to swell, unlike "adsorbents" that do not.
C. "Absorbents" are often organic-based materials such as activated charcoal or carbon. (FALSE - "Adsorbents")
369
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Defensive spill-control tactics that "confine" hazardous materials include the following: Absorption; Adsorption; Blanketing/covering; Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention; & Vapor suppression.
This spill-control measure involves _____ the surface of the spill to prevent distortion of material such as powders or dust. _____ of solids can be done with tarps, plastic sheeting, salvage covers, or other materials (including foam), but consideration must be given to the compatibility between the material being covered and the material covering it.
```
A. Absorption.
B. Adsorption.
C. Blanketing/covering.
D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention.
E. Vapor suppression.
```
C. Blanketing/covering.
370
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Defensive spill-control tactics that "confine" hazardous materials include the following: Absorption; Adsorption; Blanketing/covering; Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention; & Vapor suppression.
_____ are ways to confine a hazardous material. These actions are taken to control the flow of liquid hazardous materials away from the point of discharge. Responders can use available earthen materials or materials carried on their response vehicles to construct curbs that direct or divert the flow away from gutters, trains, storm sewers, flood-control channels, and out falls. In some cases, it may be desirable to direct the flow into certain locations in order to capture and retain the material for later pick up and disposal.
```
A. Absorption.
B. Adsorption.
C. Blanketing/covering.
D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention.
E. Vapor suppression.
```
D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention.
371
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Defensive spill-control tactics that "confine" hazardous materials include the following: Absorption; Adsorption; Blanketing/covering; Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention; & Vapor suppression.
_____ is the action taken to reduce emission of vapors at a hazardous material spills. Firefighting foams are effective on spills of flammable and combustible liquids if the foam concentrate is compatible with the materials.
```
A. Absorption.
B. Adsorption.
C. Blanketing/covering.
D. Dam, dike, diversion, and rentention.
E. Vapor suppression.
```
E. Vapor suppression.
372
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Some defensive spill control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm the material causes by diluting the concentration or changing its physical and/or chemical properties. These tactics include the following: Vapor dispersion; Ventilation; Dispersion; Dilution; Dissolution; & Neutralization.
_____ is the action taken to direct or influence the course of airborne hazardous materials. Pressurized streams of water from hoselines or unattended master streams maybe used to help in _____ . These streams create turbulence, which increases the rate of mixing with air introduces and reduces the concentration of the hazardous material.
```
A. Vapor dispersion.
B. Ventilation.
C. Dispersion.
D. Dilution.
E. Dissolution.
F. Neutralization.
```
A. Vapor dispersion.
373
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Some defensive spill control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm the material causes by diluting the concentration or changing its physical and/or chemical properties. These tactics include the following: Vapor dispersion; Ventilation; Dispersion; Dilution; Dissolution; & Neutralization.
_____ involves controlling the movement of air by natural or mechanical means. It is used to remove and/or disperse harmful airborne particles, vapors, or gases when spills occur inside structures. The same _____ techniques used for smoke removal can be used for hazmat incidents.
```
A. Vapor dispersion.
B. Ventilation.
C. Dispersion.
D. Dilution.
E. Dissolution.
F. Neutralization.
```
B. Ventilation.
374
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Some defensive spill control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm the material causes by diluting the concentration or changing its physical and/or chemical properties. These tactics include the following: Vapor dispersion; Ventilation; Dispersion; Dilution; Dissolution; & Neutralization.
_____ involves breaking up a hazardous material that has spilled on a solid or liquid surface. Both chemical and biological agents have been used for this purpose, usually on hydrocarbon spills such as oceanic crude oil. _____ often has the unfortunate effect of spreading the material over a wide area, and the process itself may cause additional problems. Because of these problems, approval from government authorities may be required.
```
A. Vapor dispersion.
B. Ventilation.
C. Dispersion.
D. Dilution.
E. Dissolution.
F. Neutralization.
```
C. Dispersion.
375
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Some defensive spill control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm the material causes by diluting the concentration or changing its physical and/or chemical properties. These tactics include the following: Vapor dispersion; Ventilation; Dispersion; Dilution; Dissolution; & Neutralization.
_____ is the application of water to a water-soluble material to reduce the hazard. _____ of a liquid material rarely has practical applications at hazmat incidents in terms of spill control; it is often used during decontamination operations.
```
A. Vapor dispersion.
B. Ventilation.
C. Dispersion.
D. Dilution.
E. Dissolution.
F. Neutralization.
```
D. Dilution.
376
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Some defensive spill control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm the material causes by diluting the concentration or changing its physical and/or chemical properties. These tactics include the following: Vapor dispersion; Ventilation; Dispersion; Dilution; Dissolution; & Neutralization.
The process of dissolving a gas in water is called _____ . This tactic can only be used on water-soluble gases such as anhydrous ammonia or chlorine and is generally conducted by applying a fog stream to a breach in a container or directly onto the spill. Ideally, the escaping gas and passes through the water and dissolves.
```
A. Vapor dispersion.
B. Ventilation.
C. Dispersion.
D. Dilution.
E. Dissolution.
F. Neutralization.
```
E. Dissolution.
377
Defensive Spill Control Tactics:
Some defensive spill control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm the material causes by diluting the concentration or changing its physical and/or chemical properties. These tactics include the following: Vapor dispersion; Ventilation; Dispersion; Dilution; Dissolution; & Neutralization.
Usually, _____ involves raising or lowering the pH of corrosive materials to render them "___ "(pH 7). However, the term can be applied to any chemical reaction that reduces the hazard of the material. _____ is a difficult process; for example, adding too much can cause a pH shift in the opposite direction. It should only be conducted (with few exceptions) under the direction of a hazardous material technician, allied professional, or standard operating procedures.
```
A. Vapor dispersion.
B. Ventilation.
C. Dispersion.
D. Dilution.
E. Dissolution.
F. Neutralization.
```
F. Neutralization.
378
Low explosives decompose rapidly but do not produce an explosive effect unless they are confined: rather, they deflagrate. An example of a low explosive is:
A. Nitroglycerin.
B. TNT.
C. Black powder.
D. Ammonium nitrate.
```
C. Black powder. (Low explosive)
-----------------------------------------
A. Nitroglycerin. (High)
B. TNT. (High)
D. Ammonium nitrate. (High)
```
379
Asphyxiants are substances that affect the oxygenation of the body and generally lead to suffocation. Which of the following is an example of a chemical asphyxiant?
A. Aniline.
B. Acetylene.
C. Carbon dioxide.
D. Methane.
```
A. Aniline. (Chemical)
-----------------------------------------
B. Acetylene. (Simple)
C. Carbon dioxide. (Simple)
D. Methane. (Simple)
```
380
Before discussing the foam-making process, it is important to understand certain terms. _____ is described as "liquid found in a foam storage container before the induction of water, typically found 1, 3, or 6% concentrates."
A. Finished foam.
B. Foam concentrate.
C. Foam solution.
D. Foam proportioner.
B. Foam concentrate.
381
A noncapsulated suit commonly consists of a one-piece coverall, but sometimes is composed of individual pieces such as a jackets, hood, pants, or bib overalls. Which of the following is a limitation to a nonencapsulating suits?
A. Protects against gases and vapors but not against splashes and dust.
B. Traps body heat and contributes to heat stress.
C. Does provide full body coverage: parts of head and neck are not exposed.
D. Repairs workers mobility, vision, and communication.
B. Traps body heat and contributes to heat stress.
382
The SUBCOM report recommends That victims remove clothing at least down to their undergarments before showering. Victims unwilling to disrobe should shower clothed before leaving the decon area. It is also recommended that emergency responders use a high volume of water delivered at a minimum of _____ .
A. 20 PSI.
B. 40 PSI.
C. 60 PSI.
D. 80 PSI.
C. 60 PSI.
383
Vapor density is the weight of a given volume of pure vapor or gas compared to the weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure. Which of the following examples has a vapor density less than one?
A. Acetylene.
B. Propane.
C. Chlorine.
D. Ethane.
A. Acetylene. (Lighter than air)
384
Atmospheric storage tanks are designed to hold contents under little pressure. The maximum pressure under which an atmospheric tank is capable of holding its contents is 0.5 PSI. Which of the following answer choices is an example of an atmospheric tank?
A. Lifter roof tank.
B. Cryogenic tank.
C. Nodes spheroid tank.
D. Dome roof tank.
A. Lifter roof tank.
385
In general, aboveground storage tanks are divided into two major categories. _____ tanks are tanks that store product normally having a small amount of pressure inside (up to 0.5 psi).
A. Nonpressure tanks.
B. Pressure tanks.
C. Open tanks.
D. Closed tanks.
A. Nonpressure tanks. (aka Atmospheric tanks)
386
In general, aboveground storage tanks are divided into two major categories. _____ tanks are tanks that are divided into the following two categories: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15 PSI) and pressure vessels (above 15 PSI).
A. Nonpressure tanks.
B. Pressure tanks.
C. Open tanks.
D. Closed tanks.
B. Pressure tanks.
387
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
Nonpressure/atmospheric storage tanks are designed to hold contents under little pressure. The maximum pressure under which an atmospheric tank is capable of holding its contents is 0.5 PSI. Common types of atmosphere tanks are... the exception is:
```
A. Horizontal tanks.
B. Ordinary cone roof tanks.
C. Floating roof tanks.
D. Lifter roof tanks.
E. Vapor dome roof tanks.
D. Dome roof tank.
```
D. Dome roof tank. (Low-pressure tank 0.5-15 PSI)
388
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ are cylindrical tanks sitting on legs, blocks, cement pads, or something similar; typically constructed of steel with flat ends. _____ tanks are commonly used for bulk storage in conjunction with fuel dispensing operations. Old tanks (pre-1950s) have bolted seams, whereas new tanks are generally welded. A _____ tank supported by unprotected steel supports or stilts (prohibited by most current fire codes) may fail quickly during fire conditions.
```
A. Horizontal tanks.
B. Cone roof tanks.
C. Open top floating roof tanks.
D. Covered top floating roof tanks.
E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome.
F. Lifter roof tanks.
G. Vapordome roof tanks.
H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
```
A. Horizontal tanks.
389
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ have pointed/cone roofs with weak roof-to-shell seams that break when or if the container becomes over pressurized. When it is partially full, the remaining portion of the tank contains a potentially dangerous vapor space.
```
A. Horizontal tanks.
B. Cone roof tanks.
C. Open top floating roof tanks.
D. Covered top floating roof tanks.
E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome.
F. Lifter roof tanks.
G. Vapordome roof tanks.
H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
```
B. Cone roof tanks.
390
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ are large capacity, aboveground holding tanks. They are usually much wider than they are tall. The roof actually floats on the surface of the liquid and move up and down depending on the liquids level.
```
A. Horizontal tanks.
B. Cone roof tanks.
C. Open top floating roof tanks.
D. Covered top floating roof tanks.
E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome.
F. Lifter roof tanks.
G. Vapordome roof tanks.
H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
```
C. Open top floating roof tanks.
391
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ have fixed cone roofs with either a pan or deck-type float inside that rides directly on the product surface. This tank is a combination of the open top floating roof tank and ordinary cone roof tank.
```
A. Horizontal tanks.
B. Cone roof tanks.
C. Open top floating roof tanks.
D. Covered top floating roof tanks.
E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome.
F. Lifter roof tanks.
G. Vapordome roof tanks.
H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
```
D. Covered top floating roof tanks.
392
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ are floating roof tanks covered by geodesic domes are used to store flammable liquids.
```
A. Horizontal tanks.
B. Cone roof tanks.
C. Open top floating roof tanks.
D. Covered top floating roof tanks.
E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome.
F. Lifter roof tanks.
G. Vapordome roof tanks.
H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
```
E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome.
393
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ have roofs that float within a series of vertical guides that allow only a few feet (meters) of travel. The roof is designed so that when the vapor pressure exceeds a designated limit, the roof lifts slightly and relieves the excess pressure.
```
A. Horizontal tanks.
B. Cone roof tanks.
C. Open top floating roof tanks.
D. Covered top floating roof tanks.
E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome.
F. Lifter roof tanks.
G. Vapordome roof tanks.
H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
```
F. Lifter roof tanks.
394
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ are vertical storage tanks that have lightweight aluminum geodesic domes on their tops. Attached to the underside of the dome is a flexible diaphragm that moves in conjunction with changes in vapor pressure.
```
A. Horizontal tanks.
B. Cone roof tanks.
C. Open top floating roof tanks.
D. Covered top floating roof tanks.
E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome.
F. Lifter roof tanks.
G. Vapordome roof tanks.
H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
```
G. Vapordome roof tanks.
395
Nonpressure/Atmospheric Storage Tanks:
_____ have more than 10% of their surface areas underground. They can be buried under a building or driveway or adjacent to the occupancy. This tank has fill and vent connections located near the tank. Vents, fill points, and occupancy type (gas/service stations, private garages, and fleet maintenance stations) provide a visual clues. Many commercial and private tanks have been abandoned, some with product still in them. These tanks are presenting major problems to many communities.
```
A. Horizontal tanks.
B. Cone roof tanks.
C. Open top floating roof tanks.
D. Covered top floating roof tanks.
E. Covered top floating roof tanks with geodesic dome.
F. Lifter roof tanks.
G. Vapordome roof tanks.
H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
```
H. Atmospheric underground storage tanks.
396
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
Low-pressure storage tanks include the following... the exception is:
A. Dome roof tanks.
B. Spheroid tanks.
C. Noded Spheroid tanks.
D. Horizontal pressure vessel.
D. Horizontal pressure vessel. (Pressure vessel)
397
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
Pressure vessel/storage tanks include the following... the exception is:
A. Horizontal pressure vessel.
B. Spherical pressure vessel.
C. Spheroid tank.
D. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
C. Spheroid tank. (Low-pressure storage tank)
398
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
_____ are generally classified as low-pressure tanks with operating pressures as high as 15 PSI. They have domes on their tops.
```
A. Dome roof tanks.
B. Spheroid tanks.
C. Noded Spheroid tanks.
D. Horizontal pressure vessel.
E. Spherical pressure vessel.
F. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
```
A. Dome roof tanks.
399
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
_____ are low-pressure storage tanks. They can store 3,000,000 gallons or more of liquid.
```
A. Dome roof tanks.
B. Spheroid tanks.
C. Noded Spheroid tanks.
D. Horizontal pressure vessel.
E. Spherical pressure vessel.
F. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
```
B. Spheroid tanks.
400
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
_____ are low-pressure storage tanks. They are similar in use to spheroid tanks, but they can be substantially larger and flatter shape. These tanks are held together by a series of internal ties and supports that reduced stresses on the external shells.
```
A. Dome roof tanks.
B. Spheroid tanks.
C. Noded Spheroid tanks.
D. Horizontal pressure vessel.
E. Spherical pressure vessel.
F. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
```
C. Noded Spheroid tanks.
401
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
_____ have high pressures and capacities from 500 to over 40,000 gallons. They have rounded ends and are not usually insulated. They usually are painted white or some other highly reflective color.
```
A. Dome roof tanks.
B. Spheroid tanks.
C. Noded Spheroid tanks.
D. Horizontal pressure vessel.
E. Spherical pressure vessel.
F. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
```
D. Horizontal pressure vessel.
402
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
_____ have high pressures and capacities up to 600,000 gallons. They are often supported off the ground by a series of concrete or steel legs. They usually are painted white or some other highly reflective color.
```
A. Dome roof tanks.
B. Spheroid tanks.
C. Noded Spheroid tanks.
D. Horizontal pressure vessel.
E. Spherical pressure vessel.
F. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
```
E. Spherical pressure vessel.
403
Pressure Storage Tanks:
There are two types of pressure storage tanks: low-pressure storage tanks (0.5-15PSI) and pressure vessels (+15PSI).
_____ are insulated, vacuum jacketed tanks with safety relief valves and rupture disks. Capacities can range from 300 to 400,000 gallons. Pressures vary according to the material stored and their usage.
```
A. Dome roof tanks.
B. Spheroid tanks.
C. Noded Spheroid tanks.
D. Horizontal pressure vessel.
E. Spherical pressure vessel.
F. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
```
F. Cryogenic-liquid storage tank.
404
To be considered bulk packaging, the following criteria must be met: Maximum capacity is greater than ____ gallons as a receptacle for a "liquid".
A. 55 gallons.
B. 119 gallons.
C. 882 pounds.
D. 1,001 pounds.
B. 119 gallons.
405
To be considered bulk packaging, the following criteria must be met: Maximum net mass is greater than _____ pounds or maximum capacity is greater than 119 gallons as a receptacle for a "solid".
A. 55 gallons.
B. 119 gallons.
C. 882 pounds.
D. 1,001 pounds.
C. 882 pounds.
406
To be considered bulk packaging, the following criteria must be met: Water capacity is _____ pounds or greater as a receptacle for a "gas".
A. 55 gallons.
B. 119 gallons.
C. 882 pounds.
D. 1,001 pounds.
D. 1,001 pounds.
407
_____ - Packaging, other than a vessel or barge, including transport vehicle or freight container, in which hazardous materials are loaded with no intermediate form of containment and which has:
- A maximum capacity greater than 119 gallons as a receptacle for a liquid
- Maximum net mass greater than 882 pounds and a maximum capacity greater than 119 gallons as a receptacle for a solid
- Water capacity greater than 1000 pounds as a receptacle for a gas
A. Bulk packaging.
B. Nonbulk packaging.
C. Box packaging.
D. Consumer packaging.
A. Bulk packaging.
408
_____ - Package that has the following characteristics:
- Maximum capacity of 119 gallons or less as a receptacle for a liquid
- Maximum net mass of 882 pounds or less and a maximum capacity of 119 gallons or less as a receptacle for a solid
- Water capacity of 1000 pounds or less as a receptacle for a gas
A. Bulk packaging.
B. Nonbulk packaging.
C. Box packaging.
D. Consumer packaging.
B. Nonbulk packaging.
409
To be considered nonbulk packaging, the following criteria must be met: Maximum capacity of ____ gallons or less as a receptacle for a "liquid".
A. 55 gallons.
B. 119 gallons.
C. 882 pounds.
D. 1,000 pounds.
B. 119 gallons.
410
To be considered nonbulk packaging, the following criteria must be met: Maximum net mass of _____ pounds or less and maximum capacity of 119 gallons or less as a receptacle for a "solid".
A. 55 gallons.
B. 119 gallons.
C. 882 pounds.
D. 1,000 pounds.
C. 882 pounds.
411
To be considered nonbulk packaging, the following criteria must be met: Water capacity of _____ pounds or less as a receptacle for a "gas".
A. 55 gallons.
B. 119 gallons.
C. 882 pounds.
D. 1,000 pounds.
D. 1,000 pounds.
412
Drums, boxes, carboys, and bags are examples of _____. Also, "composite packages" (packages with an outer packaging and inner receptacle) and "combination packages" (multiple packages group together in a single outer container such as bottles of acid packed inside a cardboard box) may also be classified as _____ .
A. Bulk packaging.
B. Nonbulk packaging.
C. Box packaging.
D. Consumer packaging.
B. Nonbulk packaging.
413
_____ packaging includes a transport vehicle or freight container such as a cargo tank, railcar, or portable tank. IBC's and IM (intermodal) containers are also examples.
A. Bulk packaging.
B. Nonbulk packaging.
C. Box packaging.
D. Consumer packaging.
A. Bulk packaging.
414
In GEBMO, dispersion of material is sometimes referred to as engulfment. Dispersion of the product, energy, and container components depends on the type of release as well as physical and chemical laws. Contacts (impingements) are associated with the following general time frames: Immediate, short-term, medium-term, and long-term. A contact with a short-term timeframe in minutes and hours is:
A. A deflagration.
B. Lingering pesticide.
C. Gas or vapor cloud.
D. Permanent radioactive source.
C. Gas or vapor cloud. (Short-term)
-----------------------------------------
A. A deflagration. (Immediate)
B. Lingering pesticide. (Medium-term)
D. Permanent radioactive source. (Long-term)
415
Rather than attempting to confine the dispersion, some defensive spill control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm caused by the material by diluting the concentration or changing its physical and or chemical properties. An example of this tactic is:
A. Absorption.
B. Ventilation.
C. Retention.
D. Divergent.
B. Ventilation.
416
This tactic can only be used on water-soluble gases such as anhydrous ammonia or chlorine and is generally conducted by applying a fog stream to a breach in the container or directly onto the spill. The process of dissolving a gas in water is called _____ .
A. Dilution.
B. Dissolution.
C. Vapor dispersion.
D. Vapor suppression.
B. Dissolution.
417
Adsorption is the process in which a hazardous liquid interacts with or is bound to the surface of an adsorbent material. Which of the following materials is an example of an adsorbent?
A. Sodium hypochlorite.
B. Hydrated lime.
C. Activated carbon.
D. Sodium hydroxide.
C. Activated carbon.
418
High explosives decompose extremely rapidly, which is normally called detonation. In other words, high explosives detonate. A primary explosive is easily initiated and highly sensitive to heat. An example of a primary explosive is:
A. Nitroglycerin.
B. Dynamite.
C. Trinitrotoluene.
D. Mercury fulminate.
```
D. Mercury fulminate. (Primary explosive)
________________________________
A. Nitroglycerin. (High explosive)
B. Dynamite. (High explosive)
C. Trinitrotoluene. ?
```
419
Classification of Explosives:
_____ - Decompose extremely rapidly (almost instantaneously), which is normally called detonation. In other words, _____ detonate (explode).
```
A. High explosives.
B. Low explosives.
C. Primary explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives (blasting agents).
```
A. High explosives.
420
Classification of Explosives:
_____ - Decompose rapidly but do not produce an explosive effect unless they are confined; rather, they deflagrate (burn rapidly).
```
A. High explosives.
B. Low explosives.
C. Primary explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives (blasting agents).
```
B. Low explosives.
421
Classification of Explosives:
_____ - Easily initiated and highly sensitive to heat; usually used as detonators. Small amounts such as single grain or crystal can detonate.
```
A. High explosives.
B. Low explosives.
C. Primary explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives (blasting agents).
```
C. Primary explosives.
422
Classification of Explosives:
_____ - Designed to detonate only under specific circumstances; usually by activation energy from a primary explosive. These are less sensitive to initiating stimuli such as heat or flame.
```
A. High explosives.
B. Low explosives.
C. Primary explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives (blasting agents).
```
D. Secondary explosives.
423
Classification of Explosives:
_____ - Very insensitive materials based on ammonium nitrate (AN), usually requiring initiation from a secondary explosive. Not all experts recognize this category and would consider AN and other blasting agents to be secondary explosives.
```
A. High explosives.
B. Low explosives.
C. Primary explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives (blasting agents).
```
E. Tertiary explosives (blasting agents).
424
Classification of Explosives:
Plastic explosives, nitroglycerin, blasting caps, and dynamite are examples of:
```
A. High explosives.
B. Low explosives.
C. Primary explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives (blasting agents).
```
A. High explosives.
425
Classification of Explosives:
Black powder, road flares, bullets, and fireworks are examples of:
```
A. High explosives.
B. Low explosives.
C. Primary explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives (blasting agents).
```
B. Low explosives.
426
Classification of Explosives:
Lead azide, mercury fulminate, and lead styphnate are examples of:
```
A. High explosives.
B. Low explosives.
C. Primary explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives (blasting agents)
```
C. Primary explosives.
427
Classification of Explosives:
TNT is an example of:
```
A. High explosives.
B. Low explosives.
C. Primary explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives (blasting agents)
```
D. Secondary explosives.
428
Classification of Explosives:
Ammonium nitrate (AN) is an example of:
```
A. High explosives.
B. Low explosives.
C. Primary explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives (blasting agents)
```
E. Tertiary explosives (blasting agents)
429
Over five years, $1.6 billion was collected, and the tax went to a trust fund for cleaning up abandoned or uncontrolled hazardous waste sites. CERCLA was responsible for the following action:
A. Acquired Superfund actions to consider the standards and requirements found in other states and federal environmental laws and regulations.
B. Provided new enforcement authorities and settlement tools.
C. Established prohibitions and requirements concerning closed and abandoned hazardous waste sites.
D. Increased state involvement in every phase of the Superfund program.
C. Established prohibitions and requirements concerning closed and abandoned hazardous waste sites.
430
Cold exposure is a concern when dealing with cryogenic and liquefied gases. These substances are commonly stored and transported in their liquid states. At these extremely low temperatures, cryogens have the ability to instantly freeze materials on contact. Some cryogen's have other hazardous properties in addition to the cold hazard. An example of this type would be _____ which is also a corrosive, and oxidizer, and a poison.
A. Argon.
B. Hydrogen.
C. Fluorine.
D. Helium.
C. Fluorine.
431
The goal of emergency decontamination is to remove the threatening contaminant from the victim as quickly as possible - there is no regard for the environment or property. Decontamination procedures may differ depending on the circumstances and hazards present at the scene. List a basic set of emergency decontamination procedures in the correct order:
1. Ensure that ambulance and hospital personnel are told about the contaminant involved.
2. Remove the victim from the contaminated area.
3. Transfer the victim to treatment personnel for assessment, first aid, and medical treatment.
4. Wash immediately any exposed to body parts with flooding quantities of water.
5. Perform a quick cycle of head-to-toe rinse, wash, and rinse.
6. Remove the victims clothing and/or PPE rapidly - if possible, cutting from the top down in a manner that minimizes the spread of the contaminants.
A. 1,3,6,2,4,5
B. 2,4,6,5,3,1
C. 2,1,4,6,5
D. 6,5,2,1,4,3
B. 2,4,6,5,3,1
432
The CDC divides potential biological agents into three categories: A, B, and C. Category C agents include emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass decontamination in the future because they pose a risk in a number of ways. An example of a Category C agent is:
A. Smallpox.
B. Anthrax.
C. Glanders.
D. Hantaviruses.
D. Hantaviruses.
433
Scientists have determined that the effects of ionizing radiation occur at the cellular level. Time, distance, and shielding are three ways to provide protection from external radiation during an emergency. emergency. The farther the distance from the source, the less the exposure is. Generally, doubling the distance reduces the exposure by a factor of:
A. One.
B. Two.
C. Three.
D. Four.
D. Four.
434
Mutagens are substances or agents that are capable of altering the genetic material in a living cell; in other words, they affect DNA. Mutagens cause changes (mutations) in the genetic system of a cell in ways that can be transmitted during cell division. In simple terms, individuals who are exposed to a mutagen may not be hurt, but their offspring can be. Which of the following substances is listed as a mutagen?
A. Aluminum chloride.
B. Toluene diisocyanate.
C. Sodium chloride.
D. Ethyl alcohol.
A. Aluminum chloride.
435
The information in NFPA 704 gives a widely recognized method for indicating the presence of hazardous materials at commercial, manufacturing, institutional, and other fixed storage facilities. The NFPA 704 system uses a rating system of numbers from 0 to 4. Special hazards are located:
A. In the 3 o'clock position on a yellow background.
B. In the 6 o'clock position on a white background.
C. In the 9 o'clock position on a blue background.
D. In the 12 o'clock position on a red background.
B. In the 6 o'clock position on a white background.
436
First responders must be aware of visual/physical chemical indicators that provide tangible evidence of the presence of hazardous materials. Which of the following indicators of a physical action which is a process that does not change the elemental composition of the materials, involved.
A. Peeling or discoloration of a containers finish.
B. Smoking or self-igniting materials.
C. Splattering or boiling of unheated materials.
D. Pinging or popping of heat exposed vessels.
D. Pinging or popping of heat exposed vessels.
437
In the GEBMO, the dispersion of material is sometimes referred to as engulfment. Dispersion of the product, energy, and container components depends on the type of release as well as physical and chemical laws. The dispersion pattern described as "irregularly shaped pattern of an airborne hazardous material where wind and topography influence the downrange course from the point of release" is known as:
A. Cloud.
B. Cone.
C. Plume.
D. Hemispheric.
C. Plume.
438
In the GEBMO, the dispersion of material is sometimes referred to as engulfment. Dispersion of the product, energy, and container components depends on the type of release as well as physical and chemical laws. The dispersion pattern described as "Semicircular or dome-shaped pattern of airborne hazardous material that is still partially in contact with the ground or water" is known as:
A. Cloud.
B. Cone.
C. Plume.
D. Hemispheric.
D. Hemispheric.
439
In the GEBMO, the dispersion of material is sometimes referred to as engulfment. Dispersion of the product, energy, and container components depends on the type of release as well as physical and chemical laws. The dispersion pattern described as "Ball-shaped pattern of airborne hazardous material where the material has collectively risen above the ground or water" is known as:
A. Cloud.
B. Cone.
C. Plume.
D. Hemispheric.
A. Cloud.
440
In the GEBMO, the dispersion of material is sometimes referred to as engulfment. Dispersion of the product, energy, and container components depends on the type of release as well as physical and chemical laws. The dispersion pattern described as "Triangular-shaped pattern of a hazardous material with a point source at the breach and a wide base downrange" is known as:
A. Cloud.
B. Cone.
C. Plume.
D. Hemispheric.
B. Cone.
441
Nerve agents attack the nervous system by affecting the transmission of impulses and are the most toxic of the known chemical warfare agents. They are chemically similar to organophosphate pesticides. _____ is described as "Usually low-volatility persistent chemical agent that is absorbed through skin contact or inhaled as a gas or aerosol."
A. Sarin.
B. Tabun.
C. Mustard.
D. Phosgene.
B. Tabun.
-----------------------------------------
A. Sarin. (Nerve agent - volatile/inhaled)
C. Mustard. (Blister agent)
D. Phosgene. (Choking agent)
442
Asphyxiants are substances that affect the oxygenation of the body and generally lead to suffocation. Asphyxiants can be divided into two classes: simple and chemical. Which of the following is an example of a simple asphyxiant?
A. Carbon dioxide.
B. Hydrogen cyanide.
C. Carbon monoxide.
D. Hydrogen sulfide.
A. Carbon dioxide.
443
There are several different types of hopper cars in use. Which of the following materials is transported in a covered hopper car?
A. Coal.
B. Grain.
C. Sand.
D. Gravel.
B. Grain.
444
There are several different types of hopper cars in use. Which one is used to carry calcium carbide, cement, and grain?
A. Covered hopper car.
B. Open top hopper.
C. Miscellaneous: gondola.
D. Pneumatically unloaded hopper car.
A. Covered hopper car.
445
There are several different types of hopper cars in use. Which one is used to carry coal, rocks, gravel, and sand?
A. Covered hopper car.
B. Open top hopper.
C. Miscellaneous: gondola.
D. Pneumatically unloaded hopper car.
B. Open top hopper.
446
There are several different types of hopper cars in use. Which one is used to carry rolled steal and other materials that do not require protection from weather?
A. Covered hopper car.
B. Open top hopper.
C. Miscellaneous: gondola
D. Pneumatically unloaded hopper car.
C. Miscellaneous: gondola.
447
There are several different types of hopper cars in use. Which one is used to carry dry caustic soda, ammonium nitrate, fertilizer, other fine-powdered materials, plastic pellets, and flour?
A. Covered hopper car.
B. Open top hopper.
C. Miscellaneous: gondola.
D. Pneumatically unloaded hopper car.
D. Pneumatically unloaded hopper car.
448
A _____ is a tank that carries gases that have been liquefied by increasing the pressure and compressing them into a liquid state.
A. Corrosive liquid tank.
B. Cryogenic liquid tank.
C. High-pressure tank.
D. Low-pressure tank.
C. High-pressure tank.
449
The single factor that most effects all areas of hazmat incident response is the hazardous material itself. Considering the material listed, an incident involving which material would be the appropriate "immediate concern" be cool exposures?
A. Flammable solids involving fire or flame impingement.
B. Spontaneously combustible material spill involving fire or flame impingement.
C. Poisonous material spill involving fire.
D. Infectious substance spill involving fire.
A. Flammable solids involving fire or flame impingement.
450
Exposures to poisons can cause damage to organs or other parts of the body and may even cause death. _____ are agents that affect the kidneys.
A. Hematotoxic agents.
B. Nephrotoxic agents.
C. Hepatotoxic agents.
D. Neurotoxic agents.
```
B. Nephrotoxic agents. (Kidneys)
-----------------------------------------
A. Hematotoxic agents. (Blood)
C. Hepatotoxic agents. (Liver)
D. Neurotoxic agents. (Nervous system)
```
451
Pressure tank cars are cylindrical, noncompartmentalized metal tanks with rounded ends. They typically transport hazardous materials including flammable, nonflammable, and poison gases at pressures greater than 25 PSI. Pressure tank car capacities range from 4000 to _____ gallons.
A. 25,000.
B. 35,000.
C. 45,000.
D. 55,000.
C. 45,000.
452
Railroad Cars:
Tank cars are divided into the following three main categories listed below... the exception is:
A. Low-pressure or general service tank cars (sometimes called nonpressure tank cars).
B. Pressure tank cars.
C. Cryogenic liquid tank cars.
D. Boxcars.
D. Boxcars. (Not a "tank" car but may also carry hazardous material)
453
Railroad Cars:
_____ -transport hazardous and non-hazardous materials with vapor pressures below 25 PSI. Tanker test pressures for _____ tank cars are 60 and 100 psi. Capacities range from 4,000 to 4,500 gallons.
A. Low-pressure or general service tank cars (sometimes called nonpressure tank cars).
B. Pressure tank cars.
C. Cryogenic liquid tank cars.
D. Boxcars.
A. Low-pressure or general service tank cars (sometimes called nonpressure tank cars).
454
Railroad Cars:
_____ - are cylindrical with rounded ends (heads). They have at least one manway for access to the tank's interior. Fittings for loading/unloading, pressure and/or vacuum relief, gauging, and other purposes are visible at the top and/or bottom of the car. May be compartmentalized with up to six compartments.
A. Low-pressure or general service tank cars (sometimes called nonpressure tank cars).
B. Pressure tank cars.
C. Cryogenic liquid tank cars.
D. Boxcars.
A. Low-pressure or general service tank cars (sometimes called nonpressure tank cars).
455
Railroad Cars:
_____ - typically transport flammable, nonflammable, and poisonous gases at pressures greater than 25PSI at 68°F. They also transport flammable liquids and liquefied compressed gases. Tank test pressures from these tank cars range from 100 to 600 psi. Their capacities range from 4,000 to 45,000 gallons.
A. Low-pressure or general service tank cars (sometimes called nonpressure tank cars).
B. Pressure tank cars.
C. Cryogenic liquid tank cars.
D. Boxcars.
B. Pressure tank cars.
456
Railroad Cars:
_____ - Are cylindrical, noncompartmentalized metal (steel or aluminum) tanks with rounded ends (heads). They typically are top-loading cars with their fittings (loading/unloading, pressure relief, and gauging) located inside the protective housings mounted on the manway cover plates in the top center of the tanks. _____ typically have all fittings out of sight under the single protective housing on top of the tanks.
A. Low-pressure or general service tank cars (sometimes called nonpressure tank cars).
B. Pressure tank cars.
C. Cryogenic liquid tank cars.
D. Boxcars.
B. Pressure tank cars.
457
Railroad Cars:
_____ - may be insulated and/or thermally protected. Those without insulation and without jacketed thermal protection may have at least the top two-thirds of the tanks painted white.
A. Low-pressure or general service tank cars (sometimes called nonpressure tank cars).
B. Pressure tank cars.
C. Cryogenic liquid tank cars.
D. Boxcars.
B. Pressure tank cars.
458
Railroad Cars:
_____ - carry low-pressure (usually below 25PSI) refrigerated liquids (-130°F and below). Materials found in these tanks include argon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen. Liquefied natural gas (LNG) and ethylene maybe found at somewhat higher pressures.
A. Low-pressure or general service tank cars (sometimes called nonpressure tank cars).
B. Pressure tank cars.
C. Cryogenic liquid tank cars.
D. Boxcars.
C. Cryogenic liquid tank cars.
459
Railroad Cars:
_____ - can be identified by ground-level cabinets (for fittings for loading/unloading, pressure relief, and venting) on the sides or end of the car.
A. Low-pressure or general service tank cars (sometimes called nonpressure tank cars).
B. Pressure tank cars.
C. Cryogenic liquid tank cars.
D. Boxcars.
C. Cryogenic liquid tank cars.
460
Railroad Cars:
_____ - is in the "tank-within-a-tank" category with a stainless steel inner tank supported within a strong outer tank. The space between the inner tank and outer tank is filled with insulation. This space is also kept under a vacuum. The combination of insulation and vacuum protects the contents from ambient temperatures for only 30 days. The shipper tracks these time-sensitive shipments.
A. Low-pressure or general service tank cars (sometimes called nonpressure tank cars).
B. Pressure tank cars.
C. Cryogenic liquid tank cars.
D. Boxcars.
C. Cryogenic liquid tank cars.
461
Other Railroad Cars:
_____ - often used to transport dry bulk materials such as grain, calcium carbide, ammonium nitrate, and cement.
A. Covered hopper cars.
B. Uncovered (or open top) hopper cars.
C. Pneumatically unloaded hopper cars.
D. Miscellaneous cars.
A. Covered hopper cars.
462
Other Railroad Cars:
_____ - may carry coal, sand, gravel, or rocks.
A. Covered hopper cars.
B. Uncovered (or open top) hopper cars.
C. Pneumatically unloaded hopper cars.
D. Miscellaneous cars.
B. Uncovered (or open top) hopper cars.
463
Other Railroad Cars:
_____ - unloaded by air pressure and use to transport dry bulk loads such as ammonium nitrate fertilizer, dry caustic soda, plastic pellets, and cement. Pressure ratings during unloading range from 20 to 80 psi.
A. Covered hopper cars.
B. Uncovered (or open top) hopper cars.
C. Pneumatically unloaded hopper cars.
D. Miscellaneous cars.
C. Pneumatically unloaded hopper cars.
464
Other Railroad Cars:
_____ - boxcars and gondolas are often used to carry other containers of hazardous materials. These cars can include mixed cargoes of a variety of products in different types of packaging.
A. Covered hopper cars.
B. Uncovered (or open top) hopper cars.
C. Pneumatically unloaded hopper cars.
D. Miscellaneous cars.
D. Miscellaneous cars.
465
Containers that are used to transport smaller quantities of hazardous materials than bulk or intermediate bulk containers are called nonbulk packaging. Specifically, nonbulk packaging means a packaging that has:
A. Maximum net mass of 882 pounds.
B. Maximum net mass of 119 pounds.
C. Maximum net mass of 1,000 pounds.
D. Maximum net mass of 2,000 pounds.
A. Maximum net mass of 882 pounds. (or less)
466
According to the US government, all shipments of radioactive materials whether from industry or government, must be packaged and transported according to strict regulations. An example of material shipped and Type A packaging is:
A. Natural uranium.
B. Rubble from decommissioned nuclear reactors.
C. Radiopharmaceuticals.
D. Materials with high levels of radioactivity such as spent fuel from nuclear power plants.
C. Radiopharmaceuticals. (Type A)
-----------------------------------------
A. Natural uranium. (Excepted)
B. Rubble from decommissioned nuclear reactors.
D. Materials with high levels of radioactivity such as spent fuel from nuclear power plants. (Type B)
467
Technical decontamination uses chemical or physical methods to thoroughly remove contaminants from responders and their equipment. The technical decontamination technique of _____ may utilize activated carbon.
A. Dilution.
B. Absorption.
C. Neutralization.
D. Brushing and scraping.
B. Absorption.
468
While it is unlikely that most emergency first responders will ever face a terrorist incident involving nuclear or radiological materials, the threat is growing. The most likely radiological weapon to be used by terrorists is _____ because of the availability of the material to make one.
A. A dirty bomb.
B. A suitcase bomb.
C. An improvised nuclear device.
D. A car bomb.
A. A dirty bomb.
469
Which of the following is an indication of possible criminal or terrorist activity involving chemical agents? Multiple individuals exhibiting unexplained health problems such as:
A. Hot dry skin.
B. Paralysis of the face muscles.
C. Dry eyes.
D. Pinpoint pupils.
D. Pinpoint pupils.
470
In the course of decontaminating victims, first responders may inadvertently become contaminated. _____ decon showers are recommended primarily for wet decon or emergency responders in Level A suits after a hazmat incident.
A. Low-pressure, low-volume.
B. High-pressure, low-volume.
C. Low-pressure, high-volume.
D. High-pressure, high-volume.
C. Low-pressure, high-volume.
471
A consist includes all of the following except one:
A. A rail shipping paper containing a list by order of cars in the train.
B. The cars with hazardous materials are identified.
C. Indicates the origin, destination route and product.
D. Some railroads include information on emergency operations for hazardous materials on board.
C. Indicates the origin, destination route and product. (FALSE - Bill of Lading used by trucking)
472
Cryogenic and liquefied gases vaporize rapidly when released from their containers. Any clothing saturated with cryogenic material:
A. Must be destroyed.
B. Treated with chemicals.
C. Must be removed immediately.
D. Must be splashed with water.
C. Must be removed immediately.
473
Chemicals absorbed into the equipment can subject the wearer to repeated exposure or a later reaction with another chemical. One part of the structural firefighting clothing which can become permeated by chemicals and render them unsafe for use is... the exception is:
A. Helmet.
B. Boots.
C. SCBA masks.
D. Neoprene gloves.
A. Helmet.
474
A Level 2 incident is one that is beyond the capabilities of first responders on the scene and may be beyond the capabilities of the first response agency having jurisdiction. An example of a Level 2 incident would be which of the following:
A. Those that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries.
B. Any major accident, spillage, or overflow of flammable liquids.
C. Incidents beyond the capabilities of the local hazmat response team.
D. Incidents that activate, in part or in whole, the federal response system.
B. Any major accident, spillage, or overflow of flammable liquids. (Level 2)
-----------------------------------------
A. Those that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries. (Level 3)
C. Incidents beyond the capabilities of the local hazmat response team. (Level 3)
D. Incidents that activate, in part or in whole, the federal response system. (Level 3)
475
This tank carries flammable liquids (such as gasoline and alcohol), combustible liquids (such as fuel oil), Division 6.1 poisons, and liquid food products. All of these materials are maintained at a vapor pressure under 3 PSI. This tank is a:
A. Low-pressure carrier.
B. High-pressure carrier.
C. Non pressure carrier.
D. Corrosive liquid carrier.
C. Non pressure carrier.
476
Cargo Tank Trucks:
Which cargo tank truck has the following descriptions:
* Pressure less than four PSI.
* Typical maximum capacity of 9,000 gallons.
* New tanks are made of aluminum, older tanks are made of steel.
* Oval-shaped, Multiple compartments, Recessed manways, rollover protection.
* Valve assembly and unloading control box under tank.
* Vapor-recovery system on right side and rear, if present.
* Manway assemblies, and a vapor recovery valves on top for each compartment.
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
D. High-pressure tank.
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
477
Cargo Tank Trucks:
Which cargo tank truck typically carries the following:
Gasoline, fuel oil, alcohol, other flammable/combustible liquids, other liquids, and liquid fuel products.
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
D. High-pressure tank.
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
478
Cargo Tank Trucks:
Which cargo tank truck has the following descriptions:
* Pressure under 40 psi.
* Typical maximum capacity of 7,000 gallons.
* Typically double shell.
* Stiffening rings may be visible or covered.
* Circumferential rollover protection at each end.
* Single or multiple compartments.
* Single- or double-top manway assembly protected by a flash box that also provides rollover protection.
* Single outlet discharge piping at mid ship or rear.
* Fusible plugs, frangible disks, or vents outside the flash box on top of the tank.
* Drain hose from the flash box down the side of the tank.
* Rounded or horse-shaped end.
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
D. High-pressure tank.
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
```
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
479
Cargo Tank Trucks:
Which cargo tank truck typically carries the following:
Flammable liquids, combustible liquids, acids, caustics, and poisons
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
D. High-pressure tank.
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
```
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
480
Cargo Tank Trucks:
Which cargo tank truck has the following descriptions:
* Pressure less than 75 PSI.
* Typical maximum capacity of 7,000 gallons.
* Typically single compartment.
* Small diameter round shape.
* Exterior stiffening rings may be visible on uninsulated tanks.
* Rear or middle top-loading/unloading station with exterior piping extending to the bottom of the tank.
* Splashguard serving as a rollover protection around valve assembly.
* Additional circumferential rollover protection at front of tank.
* Flange-type rupture disk vent either inside or outside the splashguard.
* May have discoloration around the loading/unloading area or area painted or coated with corrosive resistant material.
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
D. High-pressure tank.
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
```
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
481
Cargo Tank Trucks:
Which cargo tank truck typically carries the following:
Corrosive liquids (usually acids).
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
D. High-pressure tank.
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
```
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
482
Cargo Tank Trucks:
Which cargo tank truck has the following descriptions:
* Pressure above 100 psi.
* Typical maximum capacity of 11,500 gallons.
* Single steel compartment.
* Noninsulated.
* Bolted manway at front or rear.
* Internal and rear outlet valves.
* Typically painted white or other reflective color.
* Large hemispherical heads on both ends.
* Guard cage around the bottom loading/unloading piping.
* Uninsulated tanks, single-shell vessels.
* Permanent markings such as FLAMMABLE GAS, COMPRESSED GAS, or identifiable manufacturer or distributor names.
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
D. High-pressure tank.
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
```
D. High-pressure tank.
483
Cargo Tank Trucks:
Which cargo tank truck typically carries the following:
Pressurized gases and liquids, anhydrous ammonia, propane, butane, and other gases that have been liquefied under pressure.
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
D. High-pressure tank.
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
```
D. High-pressure tank.
484
Cargo Tank Trucks:
Which cargo tank truck has the following descriptions:
* Pressure less than 22 PSI.
* Well-insulated steel tank.
* Possibly discharging vapor from release valves.
* Round tank with flat ends.
* Large and bulky double shelling and heavy insulation.
* Loading/unloading station attached either at the end or in the front of the rear duel wheels, typically called the doghouse in the field.
* Permanent markings such as REFRIGERATED LIQUID or an identifiable manufacturer name.
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
D. High-pressure tank.
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
```
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
485
Cargo Tank Trucks:
Which cargo tank truck typically carries the following:
Liquid oxygen, liquid nitrogen, liquid carbon dioxide, liquid hydrogen, and other gases that have been liquefied by lowering their temperatures.
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
D. High-pressure tank.
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
```
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
486
Cargo Tank Trucks:
Which cargo tank truck has the following descriptions:
* Pressure at 3,000 to 5,000 PSI (gas only)
* Individual steel cylinders stacked and banded together.
* Typically has over-pressure device for each cylinder.
* Bolted manway at the front or rear.
* Valves at rear (protected).
* Manifold enclosed at the rear.
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
D. High-pressure tank.
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
```
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
487
Cargo Tank Trucks:
Which cargo tank truck typically carries the following:
Helium, hydrogen, methane, oxygen, and other gases.
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
D. High-pressure tank.
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
```
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
488
Cargo Tank Trucks:
Which cargo tank truck has the following descriptions:
* Pressure less than 22 PSI.
* Typically not under pressure.
* Bottom valves.
* Shapes vary, but has V-shaped bottom-unloading compartments.
* Rear-mounted, auxiliary-engine-powered compressor or tractor mounted power-take-off air compressor.
* Air-assisted, exterior loading and bottom unloading pipes.
* Top manway assemblies.
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
D. High-pressure tank.
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
```
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
489
Cargo Tank Trucks:
Which cargo tank truck typically carries the following:
Calcium carbide, oxidizers, corrosive solids, cement, plastic pellets, and fertilizers.
```
A. Nonpressure liquid tank.
B. Low-pressure chemical tank.
C. Corrosive liquid tank.
D. High-pressure tank.
E. Cryogenic liquid tank.
F. Compressed-gas/tube trailer.
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
```
G. Dry bulk cargo trailer.
490
An example of EPA Level B protective equipment is:
A. The total encapsulating suit not only envelops the wearer but also the SCBA.
B. A garment, including SCBA, that provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical.
C. The same garment used for Level B which allows the use of respiratory protection other than SCBA.
D. Ordinary work clothes or uniforms with no rest for protection.
B. A garment, including SCBA, that provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical. (Level B)
-----------------------------------------
A. The total encapsulating suit not only envelops the wearer but also the SCBA. (Level A)
C. The same garment used for Level B which allows the use of respiratory protection other than SCBA. (Level C)
D. Ordinary work clothes or uniforms with no rest for protection. (Level D)
491
When applying foams on a hazardous material, the most true statement is:
A. It is safe to use foam on water reactive materials.
B. Foams should be plunged into the fuel during application.
C. Liquid being covered by the foam must be below its boiling point.
D. Foam can extinguish three dimensional fires.
C. Liquid being covered by the foam must be below its boiling point.
492
Which of the following would be effective on both hydrocarbon and polar solvent fuels?
A. High expansion foam.
B. Fluroprotien foam.
C. AFFF.
D. Alcohol Resistant AFFF.
D. Alcohol Resistant AFFF.
493
As a chief, one of your firefighters get splashed with LNG at a tunnel fire. What would be your best course of action?
A. Dry him off and return him to duty.
B. Do nothing.
C. Use foam on him.
D. His clothing must be removed.
D. His clothing must be removed.
494
Most water-soluble flammable liquids are known as:
A. Hypergolic solvents.
B. Polar solvents.
C. Cryogenic solvents.
D. Radiation solvents.
B. Polar solvents.
495
A tank that can be identified by the large hemispherical heads on both ends, and has a bolted manhole at the rear, and a guard cage around the bottom loading/unloading typing would be carrying:
A. Liquefied gases.
B. Flammable gases.
C. Pressure gases.
D. Corrosives.
A. Liquefied gases. (High-pressure tank / cargo tank truck)
496
When possible, _____ should be the last equipment removed by personnel exposed to hazardous materials.
A. Gloves.
B. Boots.
C. Fire coat.
D. Breathing apparatus.
D. Breathing apparatus.
497
As in any emergency situation, several operations may have to be performed simultaneously at a hazmat incident. First responders may be involved concurrently with things such as... the exception is:
A. Rescue.
B. Exposure protection.
C. Clean-up.
D. Containment.
C. Clean-up.
498
The ERG was developed for use by first responders. If the first responders have the name of the material involved, they my go directly to the _____ colored pages.
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
B. Blue.
499
NFPA 704 is an acceptable identification system that can be implemented in an area where materials are regularly stored and used. Of the following answer choices the FALSE statement is:
A. It provides the appropriate signal or alert to first responders that hazardous materials are present.
B. It identifies the general hazards and the degree of severity for health, flammability, and reactivity.
C. It provides immediate information necessary to protect the lives of both the public and emergency response personnel who have to fight the fire.
D. It's identifies the specific chemical or chemicals that may be present.
D. It's identifies the specific chemical or chemicals that may be present. (FALSE)
500
The NFPA 704 diamond rating numbers are arranged on a diamond-shaped marker or sign. The color rating located at the nine o'clock position is:
A. Blue.
B. Yellow.
C. White.
D. Red.
A. Blue.
501
A _____ is readily identified by it's rounded ends that are signify a pressure vessel. Its capacities may range from 500 to over 40,000 gallons. These tanks are normally found at facilities that dispense fuel gases to the public.
A. Spheroid tank.
B. Horizontal Pressure vessel.
C. Sphere tank.
D. Cryogenic-liquid tank.
B. Horizontal Pressure vessel.
502
Both the United States and Canada have adopted the United Nations (UN) system for classifying and identifying hazardous materials. Under this system, the Class 3 would identify:
A. Explosives.
B. Gases.
C. Flammable liquids.
D. Flammable solids.
C. Flammable liquids.
503
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system Class 1 would identify:
A. Explosives.
B. Gases.
C. Flammable liquids.
D. Flammable solids, substances liable to spontaneous combustion, substances that emit flammable gases on contact with water.
E. Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides.
F. Toxic and infectious substances.
G. Radioactive materials.
H. Corrosive substances.
I. Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles.
A. Explosives.
504
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system Class 2 would identify:
A. Explosives.
B. Gases.
C. Flammable liquids.
D. Flammable solids, substances liable to spontaneous combustion, substances that emit flammable gases on contact with water.
E. Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides.
F. Toxic and infectious substances.
G. Radioactive materials.
H. Corrosive substances.
I. Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles.
B. Gases.
505
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system Class 3 would identify:
A. Explosives.
B. Gases.
C. Flammable liquids.
D. Flammable solids, substances liable to spontaneous combustion, substances that emit flammable gases on contact with water.
E. Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides.
F. Toxic and infectious substances.
G. Radioactive materials.
H. Corrosive substances.
I. Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles.
C. Flammable liquids.
506
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system Class 4 would identify:
A. Explosives.
B. Gases.
C. Flammable liquids.
D. Flammable solids, substances liable to spontaneous combustion, substances that emit flammable gases on contact with water.
E. Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides.
F. Toxic and infectious substances.
G. Radioactive materials.
H. Corrosive substances.
I. Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles.
D. Flammable solids, substances liable to spontaneous combustion, substances that emit flammable gases on contact with water.
507
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system Class 5 would identify:
A. Explosives.
B. Gases.
C. Flammable liquids.
D. Flammable solids, substances liable to spontaneous combustion, substances that emit flammable gases on contact with water.
E. Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides.
F. Toxic and infectious substances.
G. Radioactive materials.
H. Corrosive substances.
I. Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles.
E. Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides.
508
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system Class 6 would identify:
A. Explosives.
B. Gases.
C. Flammable liquids.
D. Flammable solids, substances liable to spontaneous combustion, substances that emit flammable gases on contact with water.
E. Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides.
F. Toxic and infectious substances.
G. Radioactive materials.
H. Corrosive substances.
I. Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles.
F. Toxic and infectious substances.
509
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system Class 7 would identify:
A. Explosives.
B. Gases.
C. Flammable liquids.
D. Flammable solids, substances liable to spontaneous combustion, substances that emit flammable gases on contact with water.
E. Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides.
F. Toxic and infectious substances.
G. Radioactive materials.
H. Corrosive substances.
I. Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles.
G. Radioactive materials.
510
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system Class 8 would identify:
A. Explosives.
B. Gases.
C. Flammable liquids.
D. Flammable solids, substances liable to spontaneous combustion, substances that emit flammable gases on contact with water.
E. Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides.
F. Toxic and infectious substances.
G. Radioactive materials.
H. Corrosive substances.
I. Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles.
H. Corrosive substances.
511
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system Class 9 would identify:
A. Explosives.
B. Gases.
C. Flammable liquids.
D. Flammable solids, substances liable to spontaneous combustion, substances that emit flammable gases on contact with water.
E. Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides.
F. Toxic and infectious substances.
G. Radioactive materials.
H. Corrosive substances.
I. Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles.
I. Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles.
512
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system, which Class # would identify "Explosives":
```
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.
E. Class 5.
F. Class 6.
G. Class 7.
H. Class 8.
I. Class 9.
```
A. Class 1.
513
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system, which Class # would identify "Gases":
```
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.
E. Class 5.
F. Class 6.
G. Class 7.
H. Class 8.
I. Class 9.
```
B. Class 2.
514
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system, which Class # would identify "Flammable liquids":
```
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.
E. Class 5.
F. Class 6.
G. Class 7.
H. Class 8.
I. Class 9.
```
C. Class 3.
515
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system, which Class # would identify "Flammable solids, substances liable to spontaneous combustion, substances that emit flammable gases on contact with water":
```
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.
E. Class 5.
F. Class 6.
G. Class 7.
H. Class 8.
I. Class 9.
```
D. Class 4.
516
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system, which Class # would identify "Oxidizing substances and organic peroxide":
```
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.
E. Class 5.
F. Class 6.
G. Class 7.
H. Class 8.
I. Class 9.
```
E. Class 5.
517
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system, which Class # would identify "Toxic and infectious substances":
```
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.
E. Class 5.
F. Class 6.
G. Class 7.
H. Class 8.
I. Class 9.
```
F. Class 6.
518
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system, which Class # would identify "Radioactive materials":
```
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.
E. Class 5.
F. Class 6.
G. Class 7.
H. Class 8.
I. Class 9.
```
G. Class 7.
519
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system, which Class # would identify "Corrosive substances":
```
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.
E. Class 5.
F. Class 6.
G. Class 7.
H. Class 8.
I. Class 9.
```
H. Class 8.
520
UN Hazard Classes:
Under the UN system, nine hazard classes are used to category rise hazardous materials. Under this system, which Class # would identify "Miscellaneous dangerous substances and articles":
```
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.
E. Class 5.
F. Class 6.
G. Class 7.
H. Class 8.
I. Class 9.
```
I. Class 9.
521
A combustible liquid that has a flashpoint below 100°F is:
A. Fuel oil.
B. Acetone.
C. Lubricating oil.
D. Kerosene.
B. Acetone.
522
You enter a structure and encounter a gas with a vapor density greater than one. Of the following statements, which is the most correct statement?
A. The gas will rise rapidly into the air.
B. If there is a ceiling vent the gas will dissipate.
C. The gas will dissipate if outdoors.
D. The gas will hang close to the ground.
D. The gas will hang close to the ground.
523
Substances commonly found in horizontal tanks include the following, the exception is:
A. Crude oil.
B. Butane.
C. Sulfur dioxide.
D. Chlorine.
A. Crude oil. (p. 75)
524
Both the United States, Canada, and Mexico have adopted the United Nations (UN) system for classifying and identifying hazardous materials transported:
A. Internationally.
B. Domestically.
C. Both internationally and domestically.
D. Neither internationally nor domestically.
C. Both internationally and domestically.
525
Level C protective equipment would:
A. Include SCBA, that provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical.
B. Include no respiratory protection and provide minimal skin protection.
C. Include the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles. It not only envelops the wearer but also the SCBA.
D. Not to be used by emergency response personnel unless the specific material is known and can be measured.
D. Not to be used by emergency response personnel unless the specific material is known and can be measured. (Level C)
-----------------------------------------
A. Include SCBA, that provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical. (Level B)
B. Include no respiratory protection and provide minimal skin protection. (Level D)
C. Include the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles. It not only envelops the wearer but also the SCBA. (Level A)
526
_____ would perform work inside the hot zone.
A. First responder level but not operational level.
B. Operational level but not first responder level.
C. Both first responder level and operational level.
D. Neither first responder level and operational level.
D. Neither first responder level and operational level. (Technician level)
527
You are the incident commander (IC) at a hazardous material incident. A firefighter operating at the incident comes to you and reports a burning of the eyes, dizziness, lightheadedness, and a burning sensation of the skin, according to "IFSTA Hazardous Materials for the First Responder", your best course of action would be to:
A. Consider this an isolated incident and send this firefighter to EMS personnel for treatment and continue operations.
B. Contact CHEMTREC for proper directions.
C. Immediately withdrawal everyone from working in the same area, in comparable protective equipment to a safe area.
D. Consult the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) for proper directions.
C. Immediately withdrawal everyone from working in the same area, in comparable protective equipment to a safe area.
528
The best source of information on a specific hazardous material is the manufacturer's data sheet known as a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS). According to HAZ, you will find the chemical name of the material in section:
A. II.
B. VI.
C. VII.
D. VIII.
A. II. (??? p. 148)
529
The NFPA 704 rating system displays the special hazard category with a white background in the _____ position.
A. 12 o'clock.
B. 3 o'clock.
C. 6 o'clock.
D. 9 o'clock.
C. 6 o'clock.
530
The NFPA rating system displays the _____ background category in the 9 o'clock position.
A. Red.
B. Blue.
C. Yellow.
D. White.
B. Blue.
531
A pressure vessel stores compressed or liquefied gases. According to HAZ, it is designated to have an operating pressure above:
A. 0.5 psi.
B. 5.0 psi.
C. 10 psi.
D. 15 psi.
D. 15 psi.
532
A placard identifies the hazards posed by a hazardous material at a transportation site. Consider the following statements, according to HAZ the FALSE statement is:
A. The word gasoline maybe used instead of the word flammable on a placard displayed on a cargo tank or on a portable tank used to transport gasoline by highway.
B. A placard is required for shipment of infectious substances (Class 6.2) in a quantity greater than 1,000 pounds.
C. The word fuel oil maybe used in place of the word combustible on a placard displayed on a cargo tank or on a portable tank used for highway transportation.
D. A placard is required for shipment of organic peroxide (Class 5.2) in a quantity greater than 1,000 pounds.
B. A placard is required for shipment of infectious substances (Class 6.2) in a quantity greater than 1,000 pounds. (FALSE - )
533
A DOT placard must have four sides being _____ inches in length.
A. 10 inches.
B. 10.8 inches.
C. 12 inches.
D. 12.8 inches.
B. 10.8 inches.
534
DOT Placard Colors:
Placards that identify "Explosive" materials are colored:
```
A. Orange.
B. Yellow.
C. Red.
D. White.
E. Blue.
F. Green.
```
A. Orange.
535
DOT Placard Colors:
Placards that identify "Oxidizer/Reactive" materials are colored:
```
A. Orange.
B. Yellow.
C. Red.
D. White.
E. Blue.
F. Green.
```
B. Yellow.
536
DOT Placard Colors:
Placards that identify "Flammable" materials are colored:
```
A. Orange.
B. Yellow.
C. Red.
D. White.
E. Blue.
F. Green.
```
C. Red.
537
DOT Placard Colors:
Placards that identify "Health Hazard (Poison, Corrosive)" materials are colored:
```
A. Orange.
B. Yellow.
C. Red.
D. White.
E. Blue.
F. Green.
```
D. White.
538
DOT Placard Colors:
Placards that identify "Water Reactive" materials are colored:
```
A. Orange.
B. Yellow.
C. Red.
D. White.
E. Blue.
F. Green.
```
E. Blue.
539
DOT Placard Colors:
Placards that identify "Nonflammable Gas" materials are colored:
```
A. Orange.
B. Yellow.
C. Red.
D. White.
E. Blue.
F. Green.
```
F. Green.
540
A pressure tank railcar carries flammable and nonflammable liquid gases, poisons, and other hazardous liquids. This type of car is easy to recognize because of the protective housing around the manhole. According to HAZ, the relief valve will be located:
A. On the top of the car.
B. At the rear end of the car.
C. On the bottom of the car.
D. On the side of the car.
A. On the top of the car.
541
All foams in use today are of the mechanical type; that is, they must be proportionate (mixed with water) and aerated (mixed with air) before they can be used. According to HAZ, which of the following types of foams cannot be pre-mixed:
A. Alcohol-resistant (AFFF).
B. Fluoroprotein foam.
C. Film Forming Pluoroprotein Foam (FFFP).
D. Protein Foam.
A. Alcohol-resistant (AFFF).
542
A consist includes all of the following except one:
A. A rail shipping paper containing a list by order of cars in the train.
B. The cars with hazardous materials are indicated.
C. Indicates the origin, destination route, and product.
D. Some railroads include information on emergency operations for hazardous materials on board.
C. Indicates the origin, destination route, and product. (FALSE)
543
Cryogenic and liquefied gases vaporize rapidly when released from their containers. Any clothing saturated with cryogenic material:
A. Must be destroyed.
B. Treated with chemicals.
C. Must be removed immediately.
D. Must be splashed with water.
C. Must be removed immediately.
544
Chemicals absorbed into the equipment can subject the wearer to repeated exposure or a later reaction with another chemical. One part of the structural firefighting clothing which can become permeated by chemicals and render them unsafe for use is... the exception is:
A. Helmet.
B. Boots.
C. SCBA masks.
D. Neoprene gloves.
A. Helmet.
545
A Level 2 incident is one that is beyond the capabilities of the first responders on the scene and maybe beyond the capabilities of the first response agency having jurisdiction. And example of a Level 2 incident would be which of the following:
A. Those that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries.
B. Any major accident, spillage, or overflow of flammable liquids.
C. Incidences beyond the capabilities of the local hazmat response team.
D. Incidents that activates, in part or whole, the federal response team.
B. Any major accident, spillage, or overflow of flammable liquids. (Level 2)
-----------------------------------------
A. Those that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries. (Level 3)
C. Incidences beyond the capabilities of the local hazmat response team. (Level 3)
D. Incidents that activates, in part or whole, the federal response team. (Level 3)
546
This tank carries flammable liquids (such as gasoline and alcohol), combustible liquids (such as fuel oil), Division 6.1 poisons, and liquefied food products. All of these materials are maintained at a vapor pressure under 3 PSI. This tank is a:
A. Low-pressure carrier.
B. High-pressure carrier.
C. Non-pressure carrier.
D. Corrosive liquid carrier.
C. Non-pressure carrier. (Less than 4 PSI)
-----------------------------------------
A. Low-pressure carrier. (Less than 40 PSI)
B. High-pressure carrier. (Above 100 PSI)
D. Corrosive liquid carrier. (Less than 75 PSI)
547
An example of Level B EPA protective equipment is:
A. The totally encapsulating suit not only envelops the wearer but also the SCBA.
B. A garment, including SCBA, that provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical.
C. The same garment used for Level B which allows the use of respiratory protection other than SCBA.
D. Ordinary work clothes or uniforms with no respiratory protection.
B. A garment, including SCBA, that provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical. (Level B)
-----------------------------------------
A. The totally encapsulating suit not only envelops the wearer but also the SCBA. (Level A)
C. The same garment used for Level B which allows the use of respiratory protection other than SCBA. (Level C)
D. Ordinary work clothes or uniforms with no respiratory protection. (Level D)
548
When applying foams on a hazardous material, the most true statement is:
A. It is safe to use foam on water reactive materials.
B. Foams should be plunged into the fuel during application.
C. Liquid being covered by the foam must be below its boiling point.
D. Foam can extinguish three-dimensional fires.
C. Liquid being covered by the foam must be below its boiling point.
549
Which of the following would be effective on both hydrocarbon and polar solvent fuels?
A. High expansion foam.
B. Fluroprotien foam.
C. AFFF.
D. Alcohol Resistant AFFF.
D. Alcohol Resistant AFFF.
550
Most water soluble flammable liquids are known as:
A. Hypergolic solvents.
B. Polar solvents.
C. Cryogenic solvents.
D. Radiation solvents.
B. Polar solvents.
551
A tank that can be identified by the large hemispherical heads on both ends, and has a bolted manhole at the rear, and a guard cage around the bottom landings/unloading piping would be carrying:
A. Liquefied gases.
B. Flammable gases.
C. Pressure gases.
D. Corrosives.
A. Liquefied gases.
552
When possible, _____ should be the last equipment removed by personnel exposed to hazardous materials.
A. Helmet.
B. Gloves.
C. Boots.
D. SCBA.
D. SCBA.
553
As in any emergency situation, several operations may have to be performed simultaneously at a hazmat incident. First responders may be involved concurrently with things such as... the exception is:
A. Rescue.
B. Exposure protection.
C. Cleanup.
D. Containment.
C. Cleanup. (FALSE)
554
This form of radiation is the least dangerous as a threat to external portions of the body, but is very dangerous when ingested, inhaled, or otherwise allowed to enter the body. The above statement best describes:
A. Alpha radiation.
B. Beta radiation.
C. Gamma radiation.
D. X-ray radiation.
A. Alpha radiation.
555
The Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) was developed for use by first responders. If the first responders have the name of the material involved, they may go directly to the _____ colored pages.
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
B. Blue.
556
A ____ is readily identified by it's rounded ends that signify a pressure vessel. It's capacity may range from 500 to over 40,000 gallons. These tanks are normally found that facilities that dispense fuel gases to the public.
A. Spheroid tank.
B. Horizontal pressure tank.
C. Sphere tank.
D. Cryogenic-liquid tank.
B. Horizontal pressure tank (vessel).
557
Both the United States and Canada have adopted the United Nations system for classifying and identifying hazardous materials. Under this system the Class 3 would identify:
A. Explosives.
B. Gases.
C. Flammable liquids.
D. Flammable solids.
C. Flammable liquids.
558
Level C protective equipment would:
A. Include SCBA, that provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical.
B. Include no respiratory protection and provides minimal skin protection.
C. Include the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles. It's not only envelops the wearer but also the SCBA.
D. Not be used by emergency response personnel unless the specific material is known and can be measured.
D. Not be used by emergency response personnel unless the specific material is known and can be measured. (Level C)
-----------------------------------------
A. Include SCBA, that provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical. (Level B)
B. Include no respiratory protection and provides minimal skin protection. (Level D)
C. Include the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles. It's not only envelops the wearer but also the SCBA. (Level A)
559
The best source of information on a specific hazardous material in the manufacturer's data sheet known as a material safety data sheet (MSDS). According to HAZ you'll find the chemical name of the material and section:
A. II.
B. VI.
C. VII.
D. VIII.
A. II.
560
A pressure vessel stores compressed or liquefied gases. According to HAZ, it is designed to have an operating pressure above:
A. 0.5 PSI.
B. 5.0 PSI.
C. 10 PSI.
D. 15 PSI.
D. 15 PSI.
561
One method of determining specific avenues of attack at chemical emergencies is to determine the immediate concern and the primary objective. According to HAZ; which of the following choices is an example of a primary objective.
A. Controlling flammable and/or toxic gas clouds.
B. Denying access to the area.
C. Influence the incident favorably with available resources.
D. Eliminating all ignition sources within an appropriate distance.
A. Controlling flammable and/or toxic gas clouds.
562
Polar solvent fuels, such as _____ are flammable liquids that are miscible and water. Firefighting foam can be effective on these fuels but only in special alcohol-resistant (polymeric) formulations.
A. Acetone.
B. Gasoline.
C. Benzene.
D. Naphtha.
A. Acetone.
563
The standard fixed-flow fog nozzle is used with foam solution to produce a low-expansion, short-lasting foam. This nozzle breaks the foam solution into tiny droplets and uses the agitation of water droplets moving through air to achieve its foaming action. According to HAZ, it's best application is when used with _____ .
A. Protein foam.
B. Fluoroprotein foam.
C AFFF.
D. Alcohol-resistant AFFF.
C AFFF.
564
Accidents involving Class 4 flammable solids are relatively rare. When an accident does occur, these materials can prove to be difficult to handle. According to HAZ; the more serious of the following incidents is:
A. Spilled flammable solids not involving fire.
B. Spilled flammable solids involving fire or flame impingement.
C. Spilled spontaneously combustible materials not involving fire.
D. Spilled spontaneously combustible materials involving fire or flame impingement.
D. Spilled spontaneously combustible materials involving fire or flame impingement.
565
Which of the following products would be shipped in Type A packaging?
A. Fissionable materials.
B. Radiopharmaceuticals.
C. Nuclear fuels (both new and spent).
D. Highly radioactive metals.
B. Radiopharmaceuticals.
566
Support function protective garments are used for certain operations outside the hot zone. They may be fully encapsulating and worn with protective breathing equipment. According to HAZ; these suits maybe used for:
A. Radiological material spill.
B. Immersion in liquids.
C. Chemical vapor atmosphere.
D. Sulfuric acid spill.
D. Sulfuric acid spill.
567
The first responder at the operational level must perform the awareness level tasks. In addition, he or she must be able to define the problem, design a defense, and direct execution of the incident action plan. According to HAZ; all of the following are examples of the operational level... the exception is:
A. Gathering and sharing material information with all involved parties.
B. Ensure the appropriateness of the training and personal protective equipment of on-scene personnel for the actions to be taken.
C. Secure the area of the emergency and prevent anyone from entering.
D. Establishing a decontamination plan and operation.
C. Secure the area of the emergency and prevent anyone from entering. (FALSE - Awareness level)
568
All incident management systems have a myriad of roles to be performed. Two very important roles in any system are those of the incident commander and the safety officer. According to HAZ; all of the following are functions of the incident commander... the exception is:
A. Identifying the materials or conditions involved in the incident.
B. Identify hazardous situations at the incident.
C. Ensuring that appropriate personal protective equipment is worn.
D. Establishing a decontamination plan and operation.
B. Identify hazardous situations at the incident. (FALSE - Safety Officer)
569
Hazardous materials are found in every community. There are a number of transportation modes that are used to move hazardous materials. These include roadways, railways, waterways, airways, and pipelines. According to (IFSTA) Hazardous Materials for the First Responder (HAZ), most jurisdictions will have at least _____ of these transportation modes to deal with.
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
B. 2.
570
There are two levels of first responders: first responder awareness and first responder operational. Individuals trained to the awareness level are expected to assume the following responsibilities when faced with an incident involving hazardous materials... the exception is:
A. Suspect or recognize the presence of a hazardous material.
B. Call for appropriate assistance.
C. Confining the release in a defensive fashion from a safe distance.
D. Secure the area.
C. Confining the release in a defensive fashion from a safe distance.
571
Cold exposure is a concern when dealing with cryogenic and liquefied gases. _____ gas is one that at the charging pressure is partially liquid at 70°F.
A. Hydrogen.
B. Helium.
C. Nitrogen.
D. Propane.
D. Propane.
572
_____ materials are those that ignite when coming in contact with each other. _____ reactions involve the mixing of two types of chemicals; a fuel and an oxidizer.
A. Pyrophoric.
B. Hypogolic.
C. Water reactive.
D. Miscible.
B. Hypogolic.
573
The primary objective of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) is to direct first responders to the appropriate guide page _____ as quickly as possible upon their arrival at the scene of a hazmat incident.
A. Yellow-bordered pages.
B. Orange-bordered pages.
C. Blue-bordered pages.
D. Green-bordered pages.
B. Orange-bordered pages.
574
Placards are required when certain materials are transported. According to HAZ, which of the following materials would NOT require a placard when shipped in quantities in excess of 1,000 pounds?
A. Flammable solid class (4.1).
B. Infectious substances class (6.2).
C. Organic peroxide class (5.2).
D. Nonflammable gas class (2.2).
B. Infectious substances class (6.2).
575
One system can be tied to the acronym IFSTA. According to HAZ, implementing the tactical plan requires communication and coordination with all agencies and organizations involved in the response. Orders have to be clear and concise so that assigned tasks are understood would be identified as what step?
A. Identity.
B. Formulate.
C. Select.
D. Take.
D. Take.
________________________________
C. Select. (Most important step)
576
Medium- and high-expansion foams are special-purpose foams and have a detergent base. According to HAZ, the following statements regarding the characteristics of medium- and high-expansion foam concentrates are true that exception is:
A. Can be stored at temperatures from 27°F to 100°F.
B. Are not affected by freezing and thawing.
C. Have poor heat resistance because the air-to-water ratio is very low.
D. Cannot have prolonged contact with galvanize steel or raw steel as the concentrate may attack these surfaces.
C. Have poor heat resistance because the air-to-water ratio is very "low". (FALSE - air-to-water ratio is very HIGH)
577
Accidents involving flammable solids, spontaneously combustible materials, and materials that are dangerous when wet are relatively rare. When an accident does occur, these materials can prove to be difficult to handle. According to HAZ, in which of the following situations would the primary objective be to let the material burn until it is consumed?
A. Spilled flammable solids not involving fire.
B. Spilled spontaneously combustible materials not involving fire.
C. Spilled spontaneously combustible materials involving fire or flame impingement.
D. Spilled dangerous-when-wet materials not involving fire.
C. Spilled spontaneously combustible materials involving fire or flame impingement.
578
Chemical degradation is the process of using another material to change the chemical structure of the hazardous material. According to HAZ, one example of a material commonly used to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material is:
A. Sodium hypochlorite.
B. Diatomaceous earth.
C. Water.
D. Potassium bicarbonate.
A. Sodium hypochlorite.
579
Another type of special protective clothing that first responders may counter is high-temperature clothing. An approach suit is used:
A. For firefighting operations that involve high levels of radiant heat.
B. To permit close approach to fires for the purpose of performing rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation activities.
C. As a highly specialized garment that allows a person to work in total flame environments for short periods of time.
D. To protect responders against exposure to specific chemicals in vapor and liquid splash environments.
A. For firefighting operations that involve high levels of radiant heat.
580
The first responder at the operational level must perform the awareness level tasks. In addition, he or she must be able to define the problem, design a defense, and direct execution of the incident action plan. Which of the following functions would define the problem?
A. Gathering and sharing material information with all involved parties.
B. Identify defensive tactical operations to meet the goals.
C. Establish protection zones.
D. Activating the incident management system.
A. Gathering and sharing material information with all involved parties.
581
Most models use for determining the level of a hazmat incident define three levels of response. An example a Level I incident is:
A. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat.
B. Spill or leak requiring large-scale evacuation.
C. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter.
D. Incidents beyond the capabilities of the local hazmat response team.
C. Leak from domestic natural gas line on the consumer side of the meter. (Level 1)
-----------------------------------------
A. Fire that is posing a BLEVE threat. (Level 2)
B. Spill or leak requiring large-scale evacuation. (Level 3)
D. Incidents beyond the capabilities of the local hazmat response team. (Level 3)
582
Extinguishment of flammable and combustible liquid hazmat fires requires properly applied foam in adequate quantities. Hydrocarbon fuels are petroleum-based and float on water. Which of the following fuels is a hydrocarbon fuel?
A. Benzene.
B. Ethyl alcohol.
C. Lacquer thinner.
D. Alcohol.
A. Benzene.
583
Emergencies of utmost concern to first responders are those in which the explosives are either exposed to fire or explosives are on fire. When the explosives has detonated, and is on fire, it is of primary importance for first responders to perform the following procedures... the exception is:
A. Gain control of the scene.
B. Control fires that threaten remaining exposures.
C. Initiate rescue, perform triage, and/or treat survivors.
D. Review the shipping papers of the vehicle, and confirm this information with the driver/operator.
D. Review the shipping papers of the vehicle, and confirm this information with the driver/operator.
584
Threshold Limit Value/Ceiling Level (TLV-C) is a maximum concentration that should never be extended. When working in conditions where the hazardous material concentration is equal to or greater than the TLV-C, appropriate personal protection must always be used. Hydrogen cyanide has a TLV-C of:
A. 10 ppm.
B. 15 ppm.
C. 20 ppm.
D. 25 ppm.
C. 20 ppm.
585
_____ as defined by the EPA in 40 CFR 355.20 is any chemical that must be reported to the appropriate authorities if released above the threshold for reporting quantity. These hazardous substances are listed and identified in Title III of Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA) of 1986.
A. Dangerous good.
B. Extremely hazardous substance.
C. Hazardous waste.
D. Hazardous substance.
B. Extremely hazardous substance.
586
The autoignition temperature is _____ than the flash and fire points.
A. Considerably higher.
B. Considerably lower.
C. Slightly higher.
D. Slightly lower.
A. Considerably higher.
587
Atmospheric storage tanks are designed to hold contents under little or no pressure. The maximum pressure under which any atmospheric tank is capable of holding its contents is _____ .
A. 0.5 PSI.
B. 1.0 PSI.
C. 1.5 PSI.
D. 2.0 PSI.
A. 0.5 PSI.
588
You have responded to a spilled corrosive material on fire. All of the following choices are primary objectives... the exception is:
A. Shut-off the flow.
B. Isolate the area.
C. Deny entry.
D. Extinguish the fire.
D. Extinguish the fire.
589
Absorption is the process of picking up a liquid contaminant with an absorbent. Absorbents are inert materials; that is, they have no active properties. A disadvantage of absorbents is:
A. They are inexpensive.
B. They are not readily available.
C. They have limited use on protective clothing.
D. They work extremely well on flat surfaces.
C. They have limited use on protective clothing.
590
Heatstroke is a serious medical emergency. If action is not taken, heatstroke can become a life-threatening situation. Which of the following symptoms is a symptom of heatstroke?
A. Mildly elevated temperature.
B. Profuse sweating.
C. Deep breaths or convulsions.
D. Cool, moist, pale skin.
C. Deep breaths or convulsions. (Heat stroke)
-----------------------------------------
A. Mildly elevated temperature. (Heat exhaustion)
B. Profuse sweating. (Heat cramps)
C. Shallow breathing. (Heat exhaustion)
D. Cool, moist, pale skin. (Heat exhaustion)
591
Asphyxiants affect the oxygenation of the body and generally leads to suffocation. Asphyxiants can be divided into two classes: simple and chemical. An example of a chemical asphyxiant is:
A. Nitrogen.
B. Acetylene.
C. Hydrogen sulfide.
D. Carbon dioxide.
```
C. Hydrogen sulfide. (Chemical)
-----------------------------------------
A. Nitrogen. (Simple)
B. Acetylene. (Simple)
D. Carbon dioxide. (Simple)
```
592
Asphyxiants affect the oxygenation of the body and generally leads to suffocation. Asphyxiants can be divided into two classes: simple and chemical. An example of a simple asphyxiant is:
A. Carbon monoxide.
B. Aniline.
C. Methane.
D. Hydrogen cyanide.
```
C. Methane. (Simple)
-----------------------------------------
A. Carbon monoxide. (Chemical)
B. Aniline. (Chemical)
D. Hydrogen cyanide. (Chemical)
```
593
This tank carries gases that have been liquefied by increasing the pressure and compressing them into a liquid state. The tank can be identified by large hemispherical heads on both ends, bolted manhole at the rear, guard cage around the bottom loading/unloading piping, and uninsulated tanks, single-shell vessels usually painted white.
A. Cryogenic carrier.
B. Low-pressure carrier.
C. Corrosive liquid carrier.
D. High-pressure carrier.
D. High-pressure carrier.
594
One method of determining specific avenues of attack at chemical emergencies is to determine the immediate concern in the primary objective. Which of the following is NOT a primary objective?
A. Eliminating all ignition sources within an appropriate distance.
B. Extinguishing fires and stabilizing the scene.
C. Controlling flammable and/or toxic gas clouds.
D. Stopping leaks by plugging and/or patching.
A. Eliminating all ignition sources within an appropriate distance.
595
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding proximity suits?
A. These suits are designed to protect aware against chemical hazards.
B. These suits permits close approach to fires for the purpose of performing rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation activities.
C. These suits reduce heat stress by allowing the body to give off excessive heat.
D. First responders do not require frequent and extensive training in the use of high-temperature clothing for efficient and safe use.
B. These suits permits close approach to fires for the purpose of performing rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation activities.
596
Fire situations involving flammable gases are extremely serious. Ideally, the objective is to direct large quantities of water onto all sides of the tank as quickly as possible. According to HAZ; water is used at a pressurized container fire for:
A. Cooling the tank and reducing the internal vapor pressure only.
B. Cooling the tank and for fire extinguishment only.
C. Reducing the internal vapor pressure and for fire extinguishment only.
D. Cooling the tank, reducing the internal vapor pressure, and for fire extinguishment.
A. Cooling the tank and reducing the internal vapor pressure only.
597
The principle dangers of hazardous materials are the health risks they present to humans and their flammability and reactivity characteristics. Many hazardous materials exhibit characteristic signs when spilled or released. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding these health risks:
A. Some chemicals such as narcotics and anesthetics, deaden the old factory nerves, thus affecting the first responders ability to sense them.
B. Many vapor clouds that have a particular color in heavy concentrations are no longer deadly at lower concentrations where their color disappears.
C. Nitric acid is only one of many chemicals that produce a colored vapor cloud.
D. Cyanides cannot be detected by the senses because they are essentially odorless and colorless.
B. Many vapor clouds that have a particular color in heavy concentrations are no longer deadly at lower concentrations where their color disappears. (FALSE)
598
There is a distinct relationship between flashpoint and firepoint. Which of the following statements correctly describes that relationship.
A. The flashpoint is slightly lower than the firepoint.
B. The flashpoint is considerably lower than the firepoint.
C. The flashpoint is considerably higher than the firepoint.
D. The flashpoint is slightly higher than the firepoint.
A. The flashpoint is slightly lower than the firepoint. (TRUE)
599
An unstable substance is one capable of undergoing spontaneous change. Unstable materials can violently decompose with little or no outside stimulus. A highly reactive substance may be:
A. Hypergolic material and pyrophoric material only.
B. Pyrophoric material and water-reactive material only.
C. Hypergolic and water-reactive material only.
D. Hypergolic material, pyrophoric material, and water-reactive material.
D. Hypergolic material, pyrophoric material, and water-reactive material.
600
Tangible evidence of hazardous materials, such as a spreading vapor cloud, a pair of gloves melting, etc. are signs that physical and/or chemical actions and reactions are taking place. An example of a physical action is:
A. Extraordinary fire conditions.
B. Rainbow sheen on water services.
C. Distinctively colored vapor clouds.
D. Smoking or self-igniting materials.
B. Rainbow sheen on water services.
601
A low-pressure tank is designed to have an operating pressure that ranges from 0.5 to 15 psi. A _____ tank is designed to store liquid or gaseous commodities such as LPG. Certain flammable liquids, such as gasoline and crude oil, are stored in these tanks. A pressure relief valve is located on top of the tank.
A. Spheroid tank.
B. Floating roof tank.
C. Vapor dome roof tank.
D. Lifter roof tank.
A. Spheroid tank.
602
In general, there are two categories of aboveground storage tanks: Atmospheric/Nonpressure storage tanks, and Pressure tanks that include - Low-pressure storage tanks and Pressure vessels. Of all the types of tanks only two are most commonly found to hold crude oil, they are:
```
A. Horizontal tank.
B. Cone Roof tank.
C. Open top floating roof tank.
D. Covered top floating roof tank.
E. Covered top floating roof tank with geodesic dome.
F. Lifter roof tank.
G. Vapordome roof tank.
H. Atmospheric underground storage tank.
I. Dome roof tank.
J. Spheroid tank.
K. Noded spheroid tank.
L. Horizontal pressure vessel.
M. Spherical pressure vessel.
N. Cryogenic liquid storage tank.
```
J. Spheroid tank.
| K. Noded spheroid tank.
603
Pesticide Labels:
The EPA regulates the manufacture and labeling of pesticides. Each EPA label must contain the manufacturer's name for the pesticide and one of the following signal words - Which signal word is used for "highly toxic materials"?
A. DANGER/POISON.
B. WARNING.
C. CAUTION.
D. EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE.
A. DANGER/POISON.
604
Pesticide Labels:
The EPA regulates the manufacture and labeling of pesticides. Each EPA label must contain the manufacturer's name for the pesticide and one of the following signal words - Which signal word is used for "moderate toxicity"?
A. DANGER/POISON.
B. WARNING.
C. CAUTION.
D. EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE.
B. WARNING.
605
Pesticide Labels:
The EPA regulates the manufacture and labeling of pesticides. Each EPA label must contain the manufacturer's name for the pesticide and one of the following signal words - Which signal word is used for "chemicals with relatively low toxicity"?
A. DANGER/POISON.
B. WARNING.
C. CAUTION.
D. EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE.
C. CAUTION.
606
Pesticide Labels:
The EPA regulates the manufacture and labeling of pesticides. Each EPA label must contain the manufacturer's name for the pesticide and one of the following signal words - Which signal word is used for "contents with a flashpoint below 80°F"?
A. DANGER/POISON.
B. WARNING.
C. CAUTION.
D. EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE.
D. EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE.
607
The EPA regulates the manufacturing and labeling of pesticides. Each EPA label must contain one of the following signal words: DANGER/POISON, WARNING, or CAUTION. The words EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE Are also displayed on the label if the contents have a flashpoint below _____ .
A. 80°F.
B. 90°F.
C. 100°F.
D. 120°F.
A. 80°F.
608
When the immediate priority has been established, the IC will determine the mode of operation to be followed. The three modes of operation are nonintervention, defensive, and offensive. Which of the following statements is an example of a defensive operation.
A. The situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of the responders.
B. Explosions are imminent.
C. The responders have the training and equipment necessary to confine the incident to the area of origin.
D. The responders take an aggressive, direct action on the material, container, or process equipment involved in the incident.
C. The responders have the training and equipment necessary to confine the incident to the area of origin. (Defensive)
-----------------------------------------
A. The situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of the responders. (Nonintervention)
B. Explosions are imminent. (?)
D. The responders take an aggressive, direct action on the material, container, or process equipment involved in the incident. (Offensive)
609
Which of the following chemicals is an example of a mutagen?
A. Nickel.
B. Methyl mercury.
C. Thalidomide.
D. Ethylene oxide.
D. Ethylene oxide. (Mutagen)
610
Both United States and Canada have adopted the United Nations (UN) system for classifying and identifying hazardous materials transported both internationally and domestically. Under this system, nine hazard classes are used to categorize hazardous materials. The 3rd class is:
A. Explosives.
B. Gases.
C. Radioactive substances.
D. Flammable liquids.
```
D. Flammable liquids. (Class 3)
---------------------------------------
A. Explosives. (Class 1)
B. Gases. (Class 2)
C. Radioactive substances. (Class 7)
```
611
The United States military has established its own marking system for hazardous materials and chemicals. The symbol which is octagonal shaped and has a number one in the center is used to represent a:
A. Mass detonation hazard.
B. Explosive with fragment hazard.
C. Moderate fire hazard.
D. Mass fire hazard.
A. Mass detonation hazard. (or Mass explosion)
612
The United States military has established its own marking system for hazardous materials and chemicals. The symbol which is X-shaped and has a number two in the center is used to represent a:
A. Mass detonation hazard.
B. Explosive with fragment hazard.
C. Moderate fire hazard.
D. Mass fire hazard.
B. Explosive with fragment hazard.
613
The United States military has established its own marking system for hazardous materials and chemicals. The symbol which is inverted pyramid shaped and has a number three in the center is used to represent a:
A. Mass detonation hazard.
B. Explosive with fragment hazard.
C. Moderate fire hazard.
D. Mass fire hazard.
D. Mass fire hazard.
614
The United States military has established its own marking system for hazardous materials and chemicals. The symbol which is diamond shaped and has a number four in the center is used to represent a:
A. Mass detonation hazard.
B. Explosive with fragment hazard.
C. Moderate fire hazard.
D. Mass fire hazard.
C. Moderate fire hazard. (no blast)
615
A breach is defined as a container that is stressed beyond its limits of recovery and thus opens up or breaches. Different containers will breach in different ways. There are five types of breaches. Which type of breach is associated with drums or tank cars?
```
A. Disintegration.
B. Runaway cracking.
C. Attachments (closures) open up.
D. Split or tear.
E. Puncture.
```
B. Runaway cracking.
616
A breach is defined as a container that is stressed beyond its limits of recovery and thus opens up or breaches. Different containers will breach in different ways. There are five types of breaches. _____ is when the container suffers a general loss of integrity such as a glass bottle shattering or a grenade exploding. This type of breach occurs in containers that are made of brittle material (or that have been made more brittle by some form of stress).
```
A. Disintegration.
B. Runaway cracking.
C. Attachments (closures) open up.
D. Split or tear.
E. Puncture.
```
A. Disintegration.
617
A breach is defined as a container that is stressed beyond its limits of recovery and thus opens up or breaches. Different containers will breach in different ways. There are five types of breaches. _____ is when a crack develops in a container as a result of some type of damage, which continues to grow rapidly, breaking the container into two or more relatively large pieces. This type of breach is associated with closed containers such as drums, tankcars, or cylinders; is commonly associated with BLEVE's.
```
A. Disintegration.
B. Runaway cracking.
C. Attachments (closures) open up.
D. Split or tear.
E. Puncture.
```
B. Runaway cracking.
618
A breach is defined as a container that is stressed beyond its limits of recovery and thus opens up or breaches. Different containers will breach in different ways. There are five types of breaches. _____ is when attachments (such as pressure release devices, discharge valves, or other related equipment) fail, open, or break off when subjected to stress, leading to a total failure of the container.
```
A. Disintegration.
B. Runaway cracking.
C. Attachments (closures) open up.
D. Split or tear.
E. Puncture.
```
C. Attachments (closures) open up.
619
A breach is defined as a container that is stressed beyond its limits of recovery and thus opens up or breaches. Different containers will breach in different ways. There are five types of breaches. _____ is when mechanical stress coming into contact with a container causes a _____ . Examples: forklifts _____ drums and couplers _____ a rail tank car.
```
A. Disintegration.
B. Runaway cracking.
C. Attachments (closures) open up.
D. Split or tear.
E. Puncture.
```
E. Puncture.
620
A breach is defined as a container that is stressed beyond its limits of recovery and thus opens up or breaches. Different containers will breach in different ways. There are five types of breaches. _____ is when a welded seam on a tank or drum fails or a seam on a bag of fertilizer rips. Mechanical or thermal stressors may cause this.
```
A. Disintegration.
B. Runaway cracking.
C. Attachments (closures) open up.
D. Split or tear.
E. Puncture.
```
D. Split or tear.
621
The process for establishing the initial isolation distance is covered in the ERG. The ERG contains a Protective Action Distances section in the back part of the book. The smallest isolation distance given for any chemical is _____ .
A. 250 feet.
B. 350 feet.
C. 500 feet.
D. 750 feet.
C. 500 feet.
622
Flammable and combustible liquids can be found in a multitude of containers. The most common containers used for flammable and combustible liquids are:
A. Pails.
B. Tanks.
C. Pipelines.
D. Metal cans.
D. Metal cans.
623
Which of the following actions is not a primary objective for first responders dealing with a Class 4 material?
A. Extinguishment.
B. Control the fire by extinguishment.
C. Let the material burn until it is consumed.
D. Isolate and confine the material until it is consumed.
A. Extinguishment.
624
Corrosives are materials that corrode, degrade, or destroy human skin, aluminum, or steel. Corrosives are either acids or bases. The following pH number would be an example of a corrosive base.
A. 3.
B. 5.
C. 7.
D. 9.
```
D. 9. (Base)
-----------------------------------------
A. 3. (Acid)
B. 5. (Acid)
C. 7. (Neutral)
```
625
Several factors are considered when choosing the decontamination site. The following statement is TRUE regarding the decontamination site.
A. The decontamination site should slope away from the hot zone.
B. The decontamination site should be downwind of the hot zone.
C. The site should have a hard, nonporous surface.
D. It is preferable for the site to have portable lighting, rather than permanent lighting.
C. The site should have a hard, nonporous surface.
626
Chemical degradation is the process of using another material to change the chemical structure of the hazardous material. One example of a material commonly used to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material is:
A. Sodium hypochlorite.
B. Diatomaceous earth.
C. Water.
D. Potassium bicarbonate.
```
A. Sodium hypochlorite. (Adsorption)
-----------------------------------------
B. Diatomaceous earth. (Absorption)
C. Water. (Dilution)
D. Potassium bicarbonate. (Absorption)
```
627
Another type of special protective clothing that first responders may encounter is high-temperature clothing. An approach suit is used:
A. For firefighting operations that involve high levels of radiant heat.
B. To permit close approach to fires for the purpose of performing rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation activities.
C. As a highly specialized garment that allows a person to work in total flame environments for short periods of time.
D. To protect responders against exposure to specific chemicals and vapor and liquid splash environments.
A. For firefighting operations that involve high levels of radiant heat. (Approach suit)
-----------------------------------------
B. To permit close approach to fires for the purpose of performing rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation activities. (Proximity suit)
C. As a highly specialized garment that allows a person to work in total flame environments for short periods of time. (Fire-entry suit)
D. To protect responders against exposure to specific chemicals and vapor and liquid splash environments. (Vapor-protective clothing)
628
Hydrocarbon fuels are petroleum-based and float on water. Which of the following fuels is a hydrocarbon fuel?
A. Benzene.
B. Ethyl alcohol.
C. Lacquer thinner.
D. Alcohol.
```
A. Benzene. (Hydrocarbon)
-----------------------------------------
B. Ethyl alcohol. (Polar solvent)
C. Lacquer thinner. (Polar solvent)
D. Alcohol. (Polar solvent)
```
629
Threshold Limit Value/Ceiling Level (TLV-C) is a maximum concentration that should never be exceeded. When working in conditions where the hazardous material concentration is equal to or greater than the TLV-C, appropriate personnel protection must always be used. According to HAZ, hydrogen cyanide has a TLV-C of:
A. 10 ppm.
B. 15 ppm.
C. 20 ppm.
D. 25 ppm.
C. 20 ppm.
630
You have responded to a spilled corrosive material on fire. According to HAZ; all of the following choices are primary objectives... the exception:
A. Shut-off the flow.
B. Isolate the area.
C. Deny entry.
D. Extinguished the fire.
D. Extinguished the fire.
631
The Comprehensive Environmental Response Compensation and Liability Act (CERCLA), commonly known as the Superfund Act was amended by the Superfund Amendments and Re-authorization Act (SARA). SARA reflected the EPA's experience in administrating the complex Superfund program during it's first six years, and made several important changes and additions to the program. SARA was responsible for the following action:
A. Provided for liability of persons responsible for releases of hazardous-waste at these sites.
B. Stressed the importance of permanent remedies and innovated treatment technologies in cleaning up hazardous waste sites.
C. Established a trust fund to provide for cleanup when no responsible party could be identified.
D. Provided for liability of persons responsible for releases of hazardous waste at the site.
B. Stressed the importance of permanent remedies and innovated treatment technologies in cleaning up hazardous waste sites. (SARA)
_______________________________
A. Provided for liability of persons responsible for releases of hazardous-waste at these sites. (CERCLA)
C. Established a trust fund to provide for cleanup when no responsible party could be identified. (CERCLA)
D. Provided for liability of persons responsible for releases of hazardous waste at the site. (CERCLA)
632
Many poisons (toxins) have fast acting, acute toxic effects while others may have chronic effects that are manifested for many years. Which of the following is an example of a "hemotoxin" agent?
A. Alcohol.
B. Sarin.
C. Parathion.
D. Benzene.
```
D. Benzene. (Hemotoxin)
-----------------------------------------
A. Alcohol. (Hepatoxin)
B. Sarin. (Neurotoxin)
C. Parathion. (?)
```
633
Cargo tank trucks are commonly used to transport hazardous materials via roadways. _____ carries materials at a vapor pressure less than 3 PSI. It has elliptical aluminum tank construction, longitudinal rollover protection, valve assembly and unloading control box under the tank, and vapor-recovery on the right side and rear, manway assemblies, and vapor-recovery valves on top of each compartment.
A. Low-pressure chemical tank.
B. Corrosive liquid tank.
C. Non-pressure liquid tank.
D. Cryogenic liquid tank.
C. Non-pressure liquid tank.
634
Level B protection requires a garment that includes an SCBA or supplied air respirator and provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical. An optional assembly requirement is:
A. Chemical-resistant outer gloves.
B. Chemical-resistant inner gloves.
C. Hardhat (outside or on top of nonencapsulating suits or under encapsulating suits).
D. Disposable chemical resistant outer boot covers.
D. Disposable chemical resistant outer boot covers. (Optional)
635
Chemical methods are used to make the contaminate less harmful by changing it through some kind of chemical process. An example of chemical decontamination method is:
A. Neutralization.
B. Adsorption.
C. Absorption.
D. Dilution.
A. Neutralization.
636
In the US, there are four main agencies involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes at the federal level (DOT, EPA, DOL, & NRC). However, there are several other agencies that are involved with hazardous materials as well. The agency described as: "manages the national nuclear research and defense programs, including the storage of high-level nuclear waste" is known as:
A. Department of justice (DOJ).
B. Department of energy (DOE).
C. Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
D. Department of defense (DOD).
B. Department of energy (DOE).
637
Solubility in water is a term expressing the percentage of a material (by weight) that will dissolve in water at ambient temperature. When a non-water-soluble liquid hydrocarbon, such as _____ combines with water, the two liquids remain separate.
A. Methyl Ethel Keytone (MEK).
B. Alcohol.
C. Pentane.
D. Methanol.
C. Pentane.
638
Covered hopper cars are often used to transport dry bulk material such as:
A. Coal.
B. Sand.
C. Gravel.
D. Cement.
D. Cement. (Covered hopper car: also carries calcium carbide & grain)
-----------------------------------------
A. Coal. (Open top hopper)
B. Sand. (Open top hopper)
C. Gravel. (Open top hopper)
639
Cargo tank truck types are MC 312 and DOT/TC 412. These tanks carry corrosive liquids, usually acids. Pressures may range up to _____ .
A. 75 PSI.
B. 40 PSI.
C. 4 PSI.
D. 22 PSI.
A. 75 PSI. (Corrosive liquid tank)
-----------------------------------------
B. 40 PSI. (Low-pressure chemical tank)
C. 4 PSI. (Non-pressure liquid tank)
D. 22 PSI. (Cryogenic liquid tank or Dry bulk cargo trailer)
640
Primarily liquid splash protective clothing is designed to protect users from chemical liquid splashes but not against chemical vapors or gases. This clothing can be encapsulating or non-encapsulating. Which of the following statements is correct regarding non-encapsulating suits?
A. Allows the body to release heat and avoid heat stress.
B. Provides full body coverage including the head and neck.
C. Protect against liquids and dusts but not against gases and vapors.
D. Impairs work mobility, vision, and communication.
C. Protect against liquids and dusts but not against gases and vapors. (Level B - nonencapsulating suits)
-----------------------------------------
A. Allows the body to release heat and avoid heat stress. (Level C?D?)
B. Provides full body coverage including the head and neck. (Level A - encapsulating)
D. Impairs work mobility, vision, and communication. (Level A - encapsulating)
641
Mass decontamination is the process of conducting gross decontamination of multiple people at one time in emergency situations. Mass decon needs to be established quickly to reduce the harm being done to victims by contaminants. The most effective method of mass decon is:
A. Remove the victims clothing and wash with a 0.5% concentration of bleach and water.
B. Do not remove the victims clothing and wash with a 1.0% concentration of absorbent and water.
C. Remove the victims clothing and wash with water.
D. Do not remove the victims clothing and wash with soap and water.
C. Remove the victims clothing and wash with water. (High-volume, low-pressure)
642
Establish a decontamination quarter before performing any work in the hot zone. First responders are often involved with setting up and working in decontamination quarter. Which of the following statements is true regarding the decon corridor?
A. A medium-volume, medium-pressure hoseline is ideal for decontamination.
B. Firefighting gloves should be used in the decontamination procedures.
C. Pump pressure at idling speed is adequate and minimizes splashing.
D. If the entry team is dressed in an EPA Level A assemble then the decon team is dressed in a Level C assemble.
C. Pump pressure at idling speed is adequate and minimizes splashing. (TRUE - or a minimum of 60 PSI)
643
Explosives are packed in numerous configurations and quantities. _____ are packaged in multiwalled paper bags similar to cement stacks. The bags contain moisture-resistant plastic liners and usually have closures that are sewn together.
A. Black powder.
B. Imulsions.
C. Detonators.
D. Ammonium nitrate and fuel oil.
D. Ammonium nitrate and fuel oil.
644
Fire situations involving flammable gases are extremely serious. Ideally, the next objective is to direct large quantities of water onto all sides of the tank as quickly as possible. The flame impinging directly onto the tank shell of a large highway tank truck or rail tank car quickly weakens the metal. A minimum of _____ must be sprayed on each tank at the point of flame impingement.
A. 250 GPM.
B. 500 GPM.
C. 750 GPM.
D. 1000 GPM.
B. 500 GPM.
645
Nerve agents attack the nervous system by affecting the transmission of impulses and are the most toxic of the known chemical warfare agents. _____ nerve agent is described as: "Usually" low-volatility persistent chemical agent that is absorbed through skin contact or inhaled as a vapor.
```
A. Tabun (GA).
B. Sarin (GB).
C. Soman (GD).
D. Cyclohexyl sarin (GF).
E. V-agent (VX).
```
A. Tabun (GA). ("Usually" distinguishes from Cyclohexyl sarin)
646
Nerve agents attack the nervous system by affecting the transmission of impulses and are the most toxic of the known chemical warfare agents. _____ nerve agent is described as: Usually volatile, non-persistent chemical agent mainly inhaled.
```
A. Tabun (GA).
B. Sarin (GB).
C. Soman (GD).
D. Cyclohexyl sarin (GF).
E. V-agent (VX).
```
B. Sarin (GB).
647
Nerve agents attack the nervous system by affecting the transmission of impulses and are the most toxic of the known chemical warfare agents. _____ nerve agent is described as: Usually moderately volatile chemical agent that can be inhaled or absorbed through skin contact.
```
A. Tabun (GA).
B. Sarin (GB).
C. Soman (GD).
D. Cyclohexyl sarin (GF).
E. V-agent (VX).
```
C. Soman (GD).
648
Nerve agents attack the nervous system by affecting the transmission of impulses and are the most toxic of the known chemical warfare agents. _____ nerve agent is described as: Low-volatility persistent chemical agent that is absorbed through skin contact and inhaled as a vapor.
```
A. Tabun (GA).
B. Sarin (GB).
C. Soman (GD).
D. Cyclohexyl sarin (GF).
E. V-agent (VX).
```
D. Cyclohexyl sarin (GF).
649
Nerve agents attack the nervous system by affecting the transmission of impulses and are the most toxic of the known chemical warfare agents. _____ nerve agent is described as: Low-volatility persistent chemical agent that can remain on material, equipment, and terrain for long periods; main route of entry is through the skin but also through inhalation of the substance as a vapor. Primarily a contact exposure hazard.
```
A. Tabun (GA).
B. Sarin (GB).
C. Soman (GD).
D. Cyclohexyl sarin (GF).
E. V-agent (VX).
```
E. V-agent (VX).
650
In the United States OSHA and the EPA require that responders to hazardous materials incidents meet specific training standards. Which of the following training levels would be restricted to defensive tasks only?
A. Planning level.
B. Awareness level.
C. Technician level.
D. Specialist level.
B. Awareness level.
651
In the United States, CHEMTREC was established by the chemical industry as a public service hotline for firefighters to obtain information and assistance for emergency incidents involving chemicals and hazardous materials. Once contacted, the emergency response center (E.R.C.) will do the following... the exception is:
A. Confirm that a chemical emergency exists.
B. Complete the reporting requirements of the EPA.
C. Provide immediate technical assistance with a caller.
D. Contact other experts.
B. Complete the reporting requirements of the EPA. (FALSE)
652
Vapor pressure is the pressure produced by the vapors released by a liquid. The following statement is TRUE regarding vapor pressure.
A. The lower the temperature of a substance, the higher the vapor pressure will be.
B. The higher the boiling point of a substance, the higher the vapor pressure will be.
C. The lower the boiling point of a substance, the lower its vapor pressure will be.
D. The higher the temperature of a substance, the higher the vapor pressure.
D. The higher the temperature of a substance, the higher the vapor pressure. (TRUE)
653
The United States National Fire Academy uses a simple classification system for identifying the hazards faced at emergency incident. This classification is known by the acronym TRACEM. The letters in the acronym indicate... the exception is:
```
A. Thermal.
B. Radiological.
C. Asphyxiation.
D. Chemical.
E. Etiolgical.
F. Mechanical.
G. Physiological.
```
G. Physiological. (FALSE)
654
The Emergency Response Guidebook is primarily a guide to aid first responders in quickly identifying the specific hazards of a material involved in an emergency incident. The "P" in the blue and yellow sections of the ERG designate:
A. Persistent agent.
B. Physical hazard.
C. Polymerization.
D. PPE required.
C. Polymerization.
655
Heatstroke can become a life-threatening situation. Of the following examples, the one which is not a symptom of heatstroke is:
A. Lack of perspiration.
B. Dizziness.
C. Hot, dry, red skin.
D. Confusion.
B. Dizziness. (Heat Exhaustion)
656
There are several levels of cold exposure conditions. Which condition is described as local freezing and deep tissue damage due to prolonged exposure to extreme cold.
A. Frostnip.
B. Trench foot.
C. Frostbite.
D. Hypothermia.
C. Frostbite.
657
Hemotoxic (aka hematotoxic) agents effect the blood. Of the following which is NOT a hemototoxic agent:
```
A. Halogenated hydrocarbons.
B. Benzene.
C. Nitrates.
D. Arsine.
E. Carbon monoxide.
F. Cyanides.
G. Napthalene.
H. Cocaine.
```
A. Halogenated hydrocarbons. (Nephrotoxic - kidneys)
658
Corrosives have different effects on the body depending on whether they are acidic or basic. Acids will generally cause pain on contact while bases will not. A telltale sign of exposure to a base is a _____ of the skin caused by a breakdown of the fatty tissues into a soap.
A. Dry slick healing.
B. Redness and irritation.
C. Greasy or slick feeling.
D. A pearly white color.
C. Greasy or slick feeling.
659
_____ asphyxiants are generally inert gases that displace oxygen necessary for breathing. These inert gases dilute the oxygen concentration below the level required by the human body.
A. Simple.
B. Chemical.
C. Neurotoxic.
D. Narcotic.
A. Simple.
660
Chemical asphyxiants, also called blood poisons, are substances that prohibit the body from using oxygen. An example of a chemical asphyxiant is:
```
A. Carbon dioxide.
B. Acetylene.
C. Acetonitrile.
D. Methane.
E. Nitrogen.
```
C. Acetonitrile. (Chemical asphyxiants)
-----------------------------------------
The rest are Simple Asphyxiants
661
The ionizing radiation of primary concern are alpha and beta particles, gamma rays, and x-rays. All of the following are natural radiation sources... the exception is:
A. The sun.
B. Nuclear reactors.
C. Radon.
D. Cosmic rays from space.
B. Nuclear reactors.
662
There are five basic types of radiation. Of the following examples, the one which is not a basic type of radiation is:
```
A. Alpha.
B. Beta.
C. Gamma.
D. Neutron.
E. Xenon.
```
E. Xenon. (is a compressed radiological gas shipped in Type A packaging)
663
Radiation can have internal and external effects on the human body. The type of radiation which is usually completely blocked by the outer dead skin layer of human skin, but is very dangerous when ingested, inhaled, or otherwise allowed to enter the body is:
A. Alpha radiation.
B. Beta radiation.
C. Gamma radiation.
D. Neutron radiation.
A. Alpha radiation.
664
Hazardous materials produce a wide range of physical symptoms. Some general symptoms of exposure to hazardous materials include the following... the exception is:
A. Blurred vision.
B. Tingling or numbness of extremities.
C. Regular heartbeat.
D. Abnormal euphoria.
C. Regular heartbeat. (FALSE - irregular heartbeat)
665
According to HAZ, There are three ways to provide protection from external radiation during an emergency... the exception is:
A. Air Shield.
B. Water shield.
C. Limited exposure.
D. Increased distance.
A. Air Shield. (FALSE)
666
_____ primarily affect the respiratory system. They are toxins that cause temporary but sometimes severe inflammation to the eyes, skin, or respiratory tract. An _____ gives off vapors that attack the mucous membranes of the body such as the surfaces of the eyes, nose, mouth, throat, and lungs.
A. Irritants.
B. Convulsants.
C. Sensitizers.
D. Allergens
A. Irritants.
667
Many hazardous materials are carcinogenic (cancer causing). Examples of known or suspected carcinogenic hazardous materials are... the exception is:
```
A. Polyvinyl choloride.
B. Ethyl alcohol.
C. Asbestos.
D. Chlorinated hydrocarbons.
E. Tobacco smoke.
F. Benzene.
G. Arsenic.
H. Radon.
I. Vinyl chloride.
```
B. Ethyl alcohol.
668
In the United States, the four main agencies involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes at the federal level are as follows... the exception is:
A. Department of transportation (DOT).
B. Department of labor (DOL).
C. Occupational safety and health administration (OSHA).
D. Nuclear regulatory commission (NRC).
E. Environmental protection agency (EPA).
C. Occupational safety and health administration (OSHA).
-----------------------------------------
(FALSE - OSHA falls under the DOL umbrella)
669
Some substances will actually _____ or change directly from a solid into a gas without going into a liquid state in between. Dry ice and mothballs both _____ rather than melt.
A. Boil.
B. Freeze.
C. Sublime.
D. Persist.
C. Sublime. (or sublimation)
670
_____ is the weight of a substance compared to the weight of an equal volume of water at a given temperature.
A. Specific density.
B. Vapor density.
C. Specific gravity.
D. Vapor gravity.
C. Specific gravity.
671
A reactivity triangle can be used to explain the basic components of many (though not all) chemical reactions. The three sides of the reactivity triangle are... the exception is:
A. Oxidizing agent.
B. Chemical reaction.
C. Activation energy.
D. Reducing agent.
B. Chemical reaction. (FALSE)
672
The first responder should always be looking for clues or indicators that hazardous materials actually are involved in an incident. These clues can be grouped into seven categories. Which of the following is NOT one of the seven clues to the presence of a hazardous material?
```
A. Occupancy types.
B. Senses.
C. Transportation placards, labels and markings.
D. MSDS sheets.
E. Container shapes.
F. Other markings and colors.
G. Written resources.
H. Monitoring and detection devices.
```
D. MSDS sheets. (FALSE - falls under the Written resources category)
673
First responders should be aware that certain occupancies are always highly probable locations for finding significant quantities of hazardous materials. Which of the following locations is NOT likely to have hazardous materials present?
A. Fire stations.
B. Dry cleaners.
C. Lumberyards.
D. Warehouses.
A. Fire stations.
674
Atmospheric storage tanks are designed to hold contents under little or no pressure. There are five common types of atmospheric storage tanks... the exception is:
```
A. Popcorn tanks.
B. Horizontal tanks.
C. Ordinary cone roof tanks.
D. Floating roof tanks.
E. Lifter roof tanks.
F. Vapordome roof tanks.
```
A. Popcorn tanks. (FALSE)
675
Containers that are used to transport smaller quantities of hazardous materials than bulk or intermediate bulk containers are called nonbulk packaging. Specifically, nonbulk packaging means a packaging that has one of the following elements... the exception is:
A. Maximum capacity of 119 gallons or less as a receptacle for a liquid.
B. Maximum net mass of 182 pounds or less and a maximum capacity of 119 gallons or less as a receptacle for a solid.
C. Maximum net mass of 2,001 pounds or less as a receptacle for a gas.
D. Water capacity of 1000 pounds or less as a receptacle for a gas.
C. Maximum net mass of 2,001 pounds or less as a receptacle for a gas. (FALSE)
676
A drum is a flat-ended or convex ended cylindrical package made of the following materials... the exception is:
```
A. Fiberboard.
B. Metal.
C. Plywood or other suitable materials.
D. Wood barrels.
E. Plastic.
```
D. Wood barrels. (FALSE)
677
Radioactive materials is shipped in one of several types of containers... the exception is:
```
A. Excepted.
B. Industrial.
C. Secure.
D. Type A.
E. Type B.
F. Type C.
```
C. Secure. (FALSE - no such thing)
678
Both the United States and Canada have adopted the United Nations system for classifying and identifying hazardous materials transport both internationally and domestically. Class 5 pertains to which of the following:
A. Gases.
B. Explosives.
C. Oxidizers.
D. Corrosive.
C. Oxidizers.
-----------------------------------------
Class 5: Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides.
679
Placards maybe found on the following... the exception is:
```
A. Rail tank cars.
B. Fixed storage facilities.
C. Bulk packages.
D. Unit loading devices over 640 ft.³.
E. Cargo tank trucks.
F. Portable tanks.
```
B. Fixed storage facilities. (FALSE - NFPA 704 diamond would be used)
680
A variety of labeling systems are used to comply with the requirements of the OSHA hazard communication standard. There may be common differences between NFPA 704 and these labeling systems. The following statements are FALSE regarding these differences... the exception is:
A. Most of these labels are intended to communicate the hazards of a material under emergency conditions.
B. The hazard communication label ratings are usually communicated on a diamond shape.
C. The same colors always indicate the same things.
D. An asterisk or other symbol is sometimes used to indicate that the material has chronic health effects.
D. An asterisk or other symbol is sometimes used to indicate that the material has chronic health effects. (TRUE)
681
Under the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA), labels on products destined for consumer households must incorporate one of the following four "signal words"... the exception is:
```
A. CAUTION.
B. FLAMMABLE.
C. WARNING.
D. DANGER.
E. POISON.
```
B. FLAMMABLE. (FALSE)
682
Under the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA), labels on products destined for consumer households must incorporate one of the following four "signal words" - CAUTION; WARNING; DANGER; POISON.
_____ - Indicates the product may have minor health effects (such as eyes or skin irritation).
A. CAUTION.
B. WARNING.
C. DANGER.
D. POISON.
A. CAUTION.
683
Under the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA), labels on products destined for consumer households must incorporate one of the following four "signal words" - CAUTION; WARNING; DANGER; POISON.
_____ - Indicates the product has moderate hazards such as significant health effects or flammability.
A. CAUTION.
B. WARNING.
C. DANGER.
D. POISON.
B. WARNING.
684
Under the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA), labels on products destined for consumer households must incorporate one of the following four "signal words" - CAUTION; WARNING; DANGER; POISON.
_____ - Indicates the highest degree of hazard (used on products that have potentially severe or deadly effects); also used on products that explode when exposed to heat.
A. CAUTION.
B. WARNING.
C. DANGER.
D. POISON.
C. DANGER.
685
Under the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA), labels on products destined for consumer households must incorporate one of the following four "signal words" - CAUTION; WARNING; DANGER; POISON.
_____ - Required in addition to DANGER on the labels of highly toxic materials such as pesticides.
A. CAUTION.
B. WARNING.
C. DANGER.
D. POISON.
D. POISON.
686
Under the Federal Hazardous Substances Act (FHSA), labels on products destined for consumer households must incorporate one of the following four "signal words" - CAUTION; WARNING; DANGER; POISON.
"WARNING" - indicates the product has _____ hazards such as significant health effects or flammability.
A. Minor.
B. Highest.
C. Moderate.
D. Average.
C. Moderate.
687
The US military has their own marking system for hazardous materials and chemicals in addition to DOT transportation markings. However, some cargoes may be unmarked. The following statements are TRUE regarding military cargo... the exception is:
A. Drivers may be under orders not to identify what they are carrying.
B. There may be an armed escort accompanying the cargo to protect it.
C. If a military driver rapidly abandons a vehicle, you should withdraw immediately.
D. You may need the police to order the military driver to identify his/her cargo.
D. You may need the police to order the military driver to identify his/her cargo. (FALSE)
688
Pipeline companies maintain markers over each buried pipeline. These markers must be located at... the exception is:
A. Each railroad crossings.
B. Each public roads crossing.
C. Each stream crossing.
D. In sufficient numbers along the rest of the pipeline.
C. Each stream crossing. (FALSE - Each "waterway" crossing)
689
The EPA regulates the manufacture of the labeling of pesticides. Each EPA label must contain the manufacturer's name for the pesticide and one of the following signal words: DANGER/POISON, WARNING, or CAUTION (and sometime EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE in addition to one of the other signal words). The signal word DANGER/POISON is used for:
A. Highly toxic materials.
B. Moderate toxicity.
C. Relatively low toxicity.
D. Contents have a flashpoint below 80°F.
A. Highly toxic materials. (DANGER/POISON)
-----------------------------------------
B. Moderate toxicity. (WARNING)
C. Relatively low toxicity. (CAUTION)
D. Contents have a flashpoint below 80°F. (EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE)
690
Dedicated railcars are set aside by the material manufacturer to transport a single material. The name of the material is painted on the car, in the manufacturer's name may also be on the car. A car that is white with a horizontal red stripe around it and two vertical red stripes 3 feet from each end always halls:
A. Liquefied petroleum gas.
B. Hydrogen cyanide or hydrocyanic acid.
C. Sulfuric acid.
D. Ethylene glycol.
B. Hydrogen cyanide or hydrocyanic acid.
691
Shipments of hazardous materials must be accompanied by shipping papers that describe them. On trains, the following documents may be placed in the engine, caboose, or both... the exception is:
```
A. Waybills.
B. Dangerous cargo manifest.
C. Wheel reports.
D. Consists.
E. Trainlist.
```
B. Dangerous cargo manifest. (FALSE - Water/Boat)
692
According to HAZ; the best source of information on a specific hazardous material is the:
A. CHEMTREC.
B. CANUTEC.
C. Material Safety Data Sheet.
D. Shipping papers.
C. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS).
693
The _____ section of the ERG is considered the most important because it provides first responders with safety recommendations and general hazard information.
A. Yellow pages.
B. Blue pages.
C. Orange pages.
D. Green pages.
C. Orange pages.
694
The most TRUE statement regarding the relationship between various levels in the incident management system is:
A. Sectors fall below sections, but above groups.
B. Branches fall below sections, but above divisions.
C. Group fall below sections, but above branches.
D. Divisions fall below sectors, but above sections.
B. Branches fall below sections, but above divisions. (TRUE)
695
The Incident Commander (IC) is responsible for all of the following functions except:
A. Establishing the site safety plan.
B. Implementing appropriate emergency operations.
C. Identify hazardous situations at the incident scene.
D. Ensuring that appropriate personal protective equipment is worn.
C. Identify hazardous situations at the incident scene. (FALSE)
696
An important element of hazard and risk assessment is predicting how a hazardous material is likely to behave in any given situation. The General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model (GEBMO) is basically a _____ action that is concerned with potential hazmat emergencies involving containers.
A. Offensive mode.
B. Defensive mode.
C. Offensive/defensive mode.
D. Defensive/offensive mode.
B. Defensive mode.
697
If hazardous materials are on fire or have been leaking for longer than _____ , the ERG "table" does not apply. Seek more detailed information on the involved material on the appropriate orange-bordered page in the ERG.
A. 15 mins.
B. 30 mins.
C. 60 mins.
D. 90 mins.
B. 30 mins.
698
1) Absorption is a physical and/or chemical event occurring during contact between materials that have an attraction for each other. The bulk of the material being absorbed enters the cell structure of the absorbing medium.
2) Adsorption is the process of molecules of the hazardous material physically adhering to the adsorbent material rather than being sucked into the inner spaces.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
699
Rather than attempting to confine the dispersion, some defensive spill control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm caused by the material by diluting the concentration or changing its physical and/or chemical properties. All of the following our defensive spill control tactics... the exception is:
A. Neutralization.
B. Ventilation.
C. Dispersion.
D. Dissolution.
A. Neutralization. (Offensive)
700
Leak control and containment are generally considered offensive actions. Offensive actions are not attempted by personnel trained below the Technician Level with two exceptions: The first is turning off a remote valve. The second involves situations involving all of the following... the exception is:
A. Gasoline.
B. Diesel.
C. Hydrogen.
D. LPG.
C. Hydrogen.
701
_____ foams are designed to be used on hydrocarbon fires. This foam is based on hydrolyzed protein solids. _____ foams ate also fortified with _____ surfactants. These surfactants allow this concentration is (oleophobic) which enables the foam to shed, or separate from, hydrocarbon fuels. The ability to separate from the fuel makes them well suited for subsurface injection.
A. Aqueous film forming.
B. Detergent based.
C. Fluoroprotein.
D. Protein.
C. Fluoroprotein.
702
____ foams are chemically hydrolyzed _____ solids. The end product of this chemical digestion is ____ liquid concentrate. While _____ foam is not commonly found in use today, those people who do use it must understand its characteristics. It was designed for use only on hydrocarbon fires.
A. Protein.
B. Fluoroprotein.
C. AFFF.
D. Alcohol resistant AFFF.
A. Protein.
703
NFPA 472 recognizes two types of CPC, liquid splash protective clothing and vapor protective clothing. Liquid splash protective clothing must be tested for penetration resistance to the following chemicals... the exception is:
A. Acetonitrile.
B. Tetrahydrofuran.
C. Methanol.
D. Ethyl acetate.
C. Methanol. (FALSE - Vapor-protective suit)
704
To operate effectively, first responders must be aware of the limitations of protective breathing equipment. These include limitations of the wearer, equipment, and the air supply. Which of the following answer choices is a limitation of the air supply?
A. Physical condition of the wearer.
B. Mental soundness.
C. Increased weight.
D. Decreased mobility.
A. Physical condition of the wearer.(Air supply)
-----------------------------------------
B. Mental soundness. (Wearer)
C. Increased weight. (Equipment)
D. Decreased mobility. (Wearer)
705
NFPA 1994 establishes performance requirements for classes of PPE ensembles that are used in situations involving chemical or biological terrorism agents. Unlike EPA levels (A-D) that describe wildly different combinations of PPE, the NFPA 1994 classes apply very specifically to the different performance standards of chemical and biological protective clothing. _____ ensembles provide the highest degree of protection. They are designated to protect responders at chemical/biological terrorism incidents in the following situations: Whenever the identity or concentration of the vapor or liquid agent is undetermined or in question; When vapor protection is needed; Or anytime liquid contact is expected and no direct skin contact can be permitted because exposure may present a serious health threat such as death or incapacitation.
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.
A. Class 1.
706
The four primary environmental conditions that cause cold related stress are low temperature, wind chill (high/cool winds), dampness, and cold water. However, _____ (a combination of temperature and velocity) is a crucial factor to evaluate when working outside.
A. Low temperature.
B. Wind chill (high/cool winds).
C. Dampness.
D. Cold water.
B. Wind chill (high/cool winds).
707
Decontamination, commonly referred to as decon, is performed when a victim or responder leaves the hot zone. First responders should understand how _____ are contaminated.
A. People.
B. Equipment.
C. Environment.
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
708
If fire directly involves a cargo or storage area containing explosives, first responders must exercise extreme caution. Fire can cause the explosives to detonate. Such incidents call for immediate withdrawal from the area by all civilians and first responders. It is recommended that all civilians and first responders travel a distance of _____ in any direction away from the area.
A. 1000 feet.
B. 2000 feet.
C. 2500 feet.
D. 1 mile.
D. 1 mile.
709
For emergencies involving nonflammable gas leaks, the immediate concern would be:
A. To protect exposed tanks by cooling.
B. To protect life safety and exposures.
C. To shut off the flow of gas.
D. To extinguish the fire.
B. To protect life safety and exposures.
710
Flame impinging directly onto a tank shell quickly weakens the metal. Water must be directed:
A. Below the area being hit by the flame, especially if it is in the vapor space.
B. Onto the area being hit by the flame, especially if it is in the vapor space.
C. Below the area being hit by the flame, especially if it is in the liquid space.
D. Onto the area being hit by the flame, especially if it is in the liquid space.
B. Onto the area being hit by the flame, especially if it is in the vapor space.
711
If the first responder discovers a spilled flammable or combustible liquid not involving fire, the immediate concern is:
A. To cool all exposures, including the tank itself.
B. To prevent ignition of the fuel.
C. To isolate and confine the material until it can be removed.
D. To stop the flow of fuel.
B. To prevent ignition of the fuel.
712
As a fire officer you respond to an incident that is a flammable solid leak with fire. Of the following choices, the most correct answer choice is:
A. Your immediate concern is to prevent further ignition of the material.
B. Your primary objective is to isolate and confine the material until it can be removed.
C. Your immediate concern is to cool exposures.
D. Your immediate concern is to stop the flow of fuel.
C. Your immediate concern is to cool exposures.
713
In some cases, the best approach for fire involving certain poisonous materials is:
A. Cover the fire with foam.
B. Extinguish the fire with large volumes of water.
C. Do nothing.
D. Smother the fire with CO2.
C. Do nothing.
714
Most biological agents and toxins fall under the UN/DOT. Hazard Class 6.2. The CDC divides potential biological agents into several categories. _____ agents include pathogens that are foodborne or waterborne. _____ agents include those that pose risk in the following ways: Are moderately easy to disseminate; Cause moderate morbility and low mortality; and Require specific enhancements of CDC's diagnostic capacity and enhanced disease surveillance.
A. Category D.
B. Category C.
C. Category B.
D. Category A.
C. Category B.
715
Consider the following statements regarding chemical and biological incidents:
1) A chemical incident is characterized by a rapid onset of medical symptoms (minutes to hours) and can have observed features such as colored residue, dead foliage, pungent odor, and dead insect/animal life.
2) A biological incident is characterized by the onset of symptoms over days or weeks. Typically there are no characteristic features because biological agents are usually orderless and colorless. The area affected can be larger in biological incidents because of the movement of infected individuals between the time of infection and onset of symptoms.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
716
While it is unlikely that most emergency first responders will ever face a terrorist incident involving nuclear or radiological materials, the is growing. Some terrorism experts believe it is only a matter of time before the US is faced with its first nuclear/radiological attack. Experts consider three scenarios to be most likely. The least likely of these scenarios is:
A. Detonating a dirty bomb.
B. Detonating a nuclear explosion at a power plant.
C. Detonating a nuclear device.
D. Detonating a large quantity of explosives in the vicinity of a radiological cargo in transport.
C. Detonating a nuclear device. (Least likely)
717
Nerve agents attack the nervous system by affecting the transmission of impulses and are the most toxic of the known chemical warfare agents. Nerve agents are stable, easily dispersed, highly toxic, and have rapid effects when absorbed both through the skin and respiratory systems. The agent described as "Usually volatile, non-persistent chemical agent mainly inhaled" is known as:
A. V-agent (VX).
B. Soman (GD).
C. Tabun (GA).
D. Sarin (GB).
D. Sarin (GB).
718
In addition to tear gas, mace, pepper spray, and other irritants, the following agents are sometimes categorized as riot control agents (vomiting agents)... the exception is:
A. Anticholinergics.
B. Diphenylchorarsine.
C. Diphenylaminearsine chloride.
D. Diphenylcyanarsine.
A. Anticholinergics. (FALSE)
719
The NFPA 704 system uses a standard diamond symbol with colored backgrounds and numerical ratings. The diamond is divided into four smaller diamonds with the background color indicating the specific areas as follows: _____ health hazard, _____ fire hazard, _____ reactivity hazard, and _____ special hazard.
A. Blue, yellow, white, red.
B. Blue, red, yellow, white.
C. Red, blue, yellow, white.
D. Red, yellow, blue, white.
B. Blue, red, yellow, white.
720
Both the United States and Canada have adopted the United Nations system for classifying and identifying hazardous materials transported both internationally and domestically. Under this system there are _____ hazard classes.
A. 2
B. 4
C. 7
D. 9
D. 9
721
A "MOT" (Materials of Trade) is a hazardous material other than a hazardous waste that is carried on a motor vehicle. Placards are not required. Example of MOT's are... the exception is:
```
A. Hairspray.
B. Used motor oil.
C. Insect repellent.
D. Engine starting fluid.
E. Fire extinguishers.
F. SCBA.
G. Spare batteries.
H. Gasoline.
I. Lawn care.
J. Pest control.
K. Plumbing.
L. Welding.
M. Painting.
```
B. Used motor oil. (FALSE)
722
This tank carries gases that have been liquefied by temperature reduction. Typical materials that are carried include liquid oxygen (LOX), nitrogen, hydrogen, and carbon dioxide. The tank has a large and bulky double shelling and heavy insulation. This tank is called:
A. Elevated temperature materials carrier.
B. Dry bulk carrier.
C. Cryogenic liquid carrier.
D. Compressed gas trailer.
C. Cryogenic liquid carrier.
723
The warm zone is an area of putting the hot zone and extending to the cold zone. Another term for the warm zone is:
A. Exclusion zone.
B. Support zone.
C. Contamination reduction zone.
D. Restricted zone.
C. Contamination reduction zone. (Aka - Corridor)
(Aka - Limited access zone)
-----------------------------------------
A. Exclusion zone. (Hot zone)
B. Support zone. (Cold zone)
C. Contamination reduction zone. (Warm zone)
D. Restricted zone. (Not real)
724
The following terms are sometimes used to describe the warm zone... the exception is:
A. Support zone.
B. Contamination reduction zone.
C. Corridor.
D. Limited access zone.
A. Support zone. (FALSE - Cold zone)
725
The principal dangers of hazardous materials are:
A. Health risks they present to humans.
B. Flammability and reactivity characteristics.
C. Health risks they present to humans, and flammability and reactivity characteristics.
D. Neither health risks they present to humans, nor flammability and reactivity characteristics.
C. Health risks they present to humans, and flammability and reactivity characteristics.
726
The _____ is the maximum airborne concentration to which an average, healthy person may be exposed repeatedly for 8 hours each day, 40 hours per week without suffering adverse effects.
A. Threshold limit.
B. Lethal dosage.
C. Lethal concentration.
D. Emergency exposure limit.
A. Threshold limit.
727
It should be noted that the term inflammable means the same thing as flammable. The DOT uses a flashpoint of _____ to determine the flashpoint of a flammable liquid.
A. 141°F or less.
B. 140°F or less.
C. 100°F or less.
D. 80°F or less.
B. 140°F or less.
728
It should be noted that the term inflammable means the same thing as flammable. The DOT uses a flashpoint of _____ to determine the flashpoint of a combustible liquid.
A. Greater than 141°F and below 200°F.
B. 140°F or less.
C. 100°F or greater.
D. 100°F or less.
A. Greater than 141°F and below 200°F.
729
It should be noted that the term inflammable means the same thing as flammable. OSHA and NFPA uses a flashpoint of _____ to determine the flashpoint of a combustible liquid.
A. Greater than 141°F and below 200°F.
B. 140°F or less.
C. 100°F or greater.
D. 100°F or less.
C. 100°F or greater.
730
It should be noted that the term inflammable means the same thing as flammable. OSHA and NFPA uses a flashpoint of _____ to determine the flashpoint of a flammable liquid.
A. Greater than 141°F and below 200°F.
B. 140°F or less.
C. 100°F or greater.
D. 100°F or less.
D. 100°F or less.
731
_____ of a substance is the minimum concentration of an inhaled substance in the gaseous state that will be fatal to 50% of the test group.
A. Permissible exposure limit.
B. Threshold limit value/short term exposure limit.
C. Lethal dose.
D. Lethal concentration.
D. Lethal concentration.
736
As a chief officer you are at an incident that involves corrosive liquids that are leaking from a ruptured tank truck. What would be your first course of action.
A. Blanket with foam.
B. Get downstream of the liquids and effect diking and containment.
C. Wash into storm sewers.
D. None of the above.
B. Get downstream of the liquids and effect diking and containment.
(Corrosive liquid tanks do not normally have emergency shut off valves.)
744
The vapors from flammable liquids are often two or three times heavier than air.
1. ) The vapors will flow and sink like a liquid, yet are invisible.
2. ) After the contents has been determined, a blanketing layer of foam should always be applied.
A. #1 is correct.
B. #2 is correct.
C. #1 & #2 are correct.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
A. #1 is correct.
745
Which of the following is an example of a material with a vapor density less than one?
A. Propane.
B. Methane.
C. Ethane.
D. Butane.
B. Methane.
746
The reducing agent in the fire tetrahedron (Reactivity triangle) acts as the fuel source for the reaction, which basically means that it is combining with the oxygen in such a way that energy is being released. Some reducing agents are more volatile than others. An example of a reducing agent is:
A. MEK.
B. Heat sensitive product.
C. Heat sensitive product.
D. Hydrogen peroxide.
A. MEK. (Methyl Ethyl Ketone)
________________________________
MEK is a highly flammable liquid.
747
The _____ in the fire tetrahedron (Reactivity triangle) acts as the fuel source for the reaction, which basically means that it is combining with the oxygen in such a way that energy is being released. Some _____ are more volatile than others. Wood, for example, is not as prone to undergo rapid oxidation (that is, it will not burn as easily) as a highly flammable liquid like MEK.
A. Oxidizing agent.
B. Activation energy.
C. Reducing agent.
C. Reducing agent. (Fuel)
748
Reactions that have very low _____ happen very easily or need little help to begin the process. First responders may see terms like light sensitive, heat sensitive, or shock sensitive on MSDS and/or manufactures' labels, Is indicating that those products have an increased susceptibility to those particular sources of _____ .
A. Oxidizing agent.
B. Activation energy.
C. Reducing agent.
B. Activation energy.
749
The _____ in the reactivity triangle provides the oxygen necessary for the chemical reaction. Strong _____ are materials that encourage a strong reactions. For example, many hydrocarbons (such as petroleum products) ignite spontaneously when they come into contact with a strong _____ . If liquid oxygen (a cryogenic liquid) is spilled on an asphalt roadway and sufficient activation energy is supplied (from shock or friction such as someone stepping on it), the roadway could explode.
A. Oxidizing agent.
B. Activation energy.
C. Reducing agent.
A. Oxidizing agent.
750
The US Department of Transportation (DOT) defines an elevated temperature material as one that when offered for transportation or transported in a bulk packaging has the following property: "Solid phase" at a temperature at or above _____ .
A. 100°F.
B. 212°F.
C. 240°F.
D. 464°F.
D. 464°F.
751
The US Department of Transportation (DOT) defines an elevated temperature material as one that when offered for transportation or transported in a bulk packaging has the following property: "Liquid phase" at a temperature at or above _____ .
A. 100°F.
B. 212°F.
C. 240°F.
D. 464°F.
B. 212°F.
752
The US Department of Transportation (DOT) defines an elevated temperature material as one that when offered for transportation or transported in a bulk packaging has the following property: Liquid phase with a "flash point" at or above _____ that is intentionally heated and offered for transportation or transported at or above its flash point.
A. 100°F.
B. 212°F.
C. 240°F.
D. 464°F.
A. 100°F.
753
Low-pressure chemical tanks are designed to carry various chemicals with pressures not to exceed _____ at 70°F. They may carry flammables, corrosives, or poisons.
A. 25 psi.
B. 35 psi.
C. 40 psi.
D. 75 psi.
C. 40 psi.
754
A DOT placard is a diamond-shaped, color-coded sign provided by shippers to identify the materials in transportation containers. A placard is not required for shipments of:
A. Organic peroxides.
B. Infectious substances.
C. 1.3 explosive.
D. Poison gas.
B. Infectious substances.
________________________________
•A placard it is not required for shipments of infectious substances, ORM – D's, MOTs, limited quantities, small quantity packages, radioactive materials (white label I or yellow label II), or combustible liquids in nonbulk packaging.
•Some private agriculture and military vehicles may not have placards.
755
When a container fails, three things may release: the product, energy, and the container. Releases are classified based on how fast they occur. A _____ is described as "Immediate release of chemical or mechanical energy caused by runaway cracks. The results are ballistic behavior of the container and its contents and/or localized projection of container pieces/parts and hazardous material such as with a BLEVE. This release occurs within a timeframe of 1 second or less".
A. Detonation.
B. Rapid relief.
C. Spill/leak.
D. Violent rupture.
D. Violent rupture.
756
It is impossible to solve a problem without enough information to understand it. In the case of hazardous materials incidents, one of the key pieces of information needed to begin understanding the problem with identity of the hazardous material. The initial survey should include:
A. Available response personnel.
B. Equipment access.
C. How could the material react?
D. Product and container information.
C. How could the material react?
_______________________________
Note that "The initial survey should include" is basically 20 questions, all ending with a "?" .
757
Due to the defensive nature of Awareness and Operational level actions, rescue can be a difficult strategy to implement for first responders, particularly in the initial stages of a response. The Awareness-level responder can take the following action:
A. Conduct searches on the edge of the hot zone.
B. Direct people to an area of safe refuge or evacuation point located in a safe place that is upwind and uphill of the hazard area.
C. Direct victims to the decontamination area (for example, eyewash stations or showers).
D. Assist with the decontamination while not coming into contact with the hazardous material itself.
B. Direct people to an area of safe refuge or evacuation point located in a safe place that is upwind and uphill of the hazard area.
758
In the US, a number of federal agencies are involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes. _____ assigns primary responsibility for operational response to threats or acts of terrorism within US territory such as weapons of mass destruction.
A. Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
B. Department of Justice (DOJ).
C. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC).
D. Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB).
E. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF).
F. Department of Energy (DOE).
B. Department of Justice (DOJ).
759
In the US, a number of federal agencies are involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes. _____ manages the national nuclear research and defense programs, including the storage of high-level nuclear waste.
A. Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
B. Department of Justice (DOJ).
C. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC).
D. Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB).
E. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF).
F. Department of Energy (DOE).
F. Department of Energy (DOE).
760
In the US, a number of federal agencies are involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes. _____ has three primary missions: (1) Prevent terrorist attacks within the US, (2) Reduce America's vulnerability to terrorism, and (3) Minimize the damage from potential attacks and natural disasters. Was created in the aftermath of September 11, 2001.
A. Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
B. Department of Justice (DOJ).
C. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC).
D. Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB).
E. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF).
F. Department of Energy (DOE).
A. Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
761
In the US, a number of federal agencies are involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes. _____ overseas and enforces compliance with the federal hazardous substance act, which requires that certain hazardous household products carry cautionary labeling to alert consumers to the potential hazards. Also has the authority to ban a product.
A. Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
B. Department of Justice (DOJ).
C. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC).
D. Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB).
E. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF).
F. Department of Energy (DOE).
C. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC).
762
In the US, a number of federal agencies are involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes. _____ provides oversight of the development, manufacture, testing, maintenance, demilitarization, handling, transportation, and storage of explosives, including chemical agents on DOD facilities worldwide.
A. Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
B. Department of Justice (DOJ).
C. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC).
D. Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB).
E. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF).
F. Department of Energy (DOE).
D. Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB).
763
In the US, a number of federal agencies are involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes. _____ enforces the federal laws and regulations relating to alcohol, tobacco products, firearms, explosives, and arson.
A. Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
B. Department of Justice (DOJ).
C. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC).
D. Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB).
E. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF).
F. Department of Energy (DOE).
E. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF).
764
In the US, a number of federal agencies are involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes. _____ assigns primary responsibility for operational response to threats or acts of terrorism within US territory to the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI).
A. Department of Homeland Security (DHS).
B. Department of Justice (DOJ).
C. Consumer Product Safety Commission (CPSC).
D. Department of Defense Explosives Safety Board (DDESB).
E. Bureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms and Explosives (ATF).
F. Department of Energy (DOE).
B. Department of Justice (DOJ).
765
The reactivity of a substance is its relative ability to undergo a chemical reaction with another material. Substances referred to in the industrial world as reactive commonly react vigorously or violently. A reactivity triangle can be used to explain the basic components of many (although not all) chemical reactions: an oxidizing agent, a reducing agent, and an activation energy source. Often, the activation energy source is:
A. Oxygen.
B. Fuel.
C. Heat.
D. Shock.
```
C. Heat. (Activation energy that occurs most often)
________________________________
A. Oxygen. (Oxidizing agent)
B. Fuel. (Reducing agent)
C. Heat. (Activation energy)
D. Shock. (Activation energy)
```
766
Oxygen, organic peroxides, and alkyl nitrates would be considered _____ in the reactivity triangle.
A. Oxidizing agent.
B. Activation energy.
C. Reducing agent.
A. Oxidizing agent.
767
Heat, shock, radiation, and light would be considered _____ in the reactivity triangle.
A. Oxidizing agent.
B. Activation energy.
C. Reducing agent.
B. Activation energy.
768
Fuel would be considered _____ in the reactivity triangle.
A. Oxidizing agent.
B. Activation energy.
C. Reducing agent.
C. Reducing agent.
769
Chemicals that destroy or burn living tissues and have destructive effects by virtue of their corrosivity in industry. It is important to note that some corrosives such as _____ are neither acids nor bases.
A. Vinegar.
B. Hydrogen peroxide.
C. Lime.
D. Ammonia.
B. Hydrogen peroxide.
770
Atmospheric/nonpressure storage tanks are designed to hold contents under little or no pressure. The maximum pressure under which an atmospheric tank is capable of holding its contents is 0.5 psi. The following are examples of atmospheric storage tanks... the exception is:
A. Cone roof tank.
B. Lifter roof tank.
C. Spheroid tank.
D. Vapordome tank.
C. Spheroid tank.
771
Low-pressure chemical tanks are cargo tank truck types MC 307 and DOT/TC 407. These tanks are designed to carry various chemicals with pressures not to exceed:
A. 3 psi.
B. 40 psi.
C. 75 psi.
D. 100 psi.
B. 40 psi.
772
The nonpressure intermodal tank is the most common intermodal tank used in transportation. The maximum allowable working pressure in an IM 102 portable tank is:
A. 3 PSI.
B. 14.5 PSI.
C. 25.4 PSI.
D. 100 PSI.
```
C. 25.4 PSI.
________________________________
Nonpressure Intermodal Tanks:
IM-101 = 25.4 to 100 psi.
IM-102 = 14.5 to 25.4 psi.
```
Pressure Intermodal Tanks:
100 to 500 psi
773
The nonpressure intermodal tank is the most common intermodal tank used in transportation. The maximum allowable working pressure in an IM 101 portable tank is:
A. 3 PSI.
B. 14.5 PSI.
C. 25.4 PSI.
D. 100 PSI.
```
D. 100 PSI.
________________________________
Nonpressure Intermodal Tanks:
IM-101 = 25.4 to 100 psi.
IM-102 = 14.5 to 25.4 psi.
```
Pressure Intermodal Tanks:
100 to 500 psi
774
When considering strategies at a hazardous material incident, the IC determines the mode of operation. The safety of first responders is the utmost consideration in selecting a mode of operation. Which of the following is a nonintervention action for the awareness level first responder?
A. Responders have the training and equipment necessary to confine the incident to the area of origin.
B. Report scene conditions to dispatch.
C. Evaluate and report incident progress.
D. Establish and indicate zone boundaries.
B. Report scene conditions to dispatch.
775
The Operational first responder is able to engage in a number of defensive control tactics at a hazardous material spill. The following are all defensive control tactics that Operation first responders can take... the exception is:
A. Absorption.
B. Diking.
C. Crimping.
D. Damning.
C. Crimping.
776
Before allowing personnel to enter the hot zone, the IC or decon officer must determine the type and method of decon to use and then make appropriate preparations according to the decon plan. An example of a physical method of decontamination is:
A. Sanitization.
B. Absorption.
C. Sterilization.
D. Solidification.
B. Absorption.
777
How first responders are protected when working in the decontamination area depend on the hazards of the material. In some cases, CPC may be necessary. If the entry team is dressed in a Level A assembly, often those conducting decon are dressed in:
A. Level D.
B. Level C.
C. Level B.
D. Level A.
C. Level B.
778
Explosive devices can be anything from homemade pipe bombs to sophisticated military ordinance, but nonmilitary first responders are more likely to encounter improvised explosive devices (IEDs) and military weapons. An example of a low explosive is:
A. Black powder.
B. Lead azide.
C. TNT.
D. Mercury fulminate.
A. Black powder.
779
When considering strategies, the IC determines the mode of operation. The safety of first responders is the uppermost consideration in selecting a mode of operation. The mode of operation may change during the course of an incident. The strategy of establishing and indicating zone boundaries is considered to be a/an:
A. Offensive operation.
B. Offensive/defensive operation.
C. Defensive operation.
D. Defensive/offensive operation.
C. Defensive operation.
780
A leak involves the physical breach in a container through which product is escaping. The goal of leak control is to stop or limit the escape or contain the release either in its original container or by transferring it to a new one. Which of the following tactics is a leak control tactic?
A. Dike.
B. Plugging.
C. Dam.
D. Absorption.
B. Plugging.
781
Cold exposure is a concern when dealing with cryogenic and liquid gases. A cryogen is a gas that turns into a liquid at or below _____ .
A. 0°F.
B. -70°F.
C. 130°F.
D. -130°F.
D. -130°F.
782
Biological hazards are microorganisms that may cause severe, disabling disease or illness. _____ are the simplest type of microorganisms that can only replicate themselves in the living cells of their hosts. They do not respond to antibiotics.
A. Viruses.
B. Rickettsias.
C. Bacteria.
D. Biological toxins.
A. Viruses.
783
A shipment of radioactive material (sometimes called RAM) must be packaged and transported according to strict regulations. _____ are very rare packages used for high active materials including plutonium transported by aircraft.
A. Type A.
B. Type B.
C. Type C.
D. Excepted.
C. Type C.
784
The UN recommendations provides a uniform basis for development of harmonized regulations for all modes of transport in order to facilitate trade and safe, efficient transport of hazardous materials. Under the UN system the number "4" represents the hazard of:
A. Explosives.
B. Flammable solids.
C. Oxidizers.
D. Corrosives.
B. Flammable solids.
785
Irritant agents that are _____ usually caused early upper respiratory tract irritation, resulting in coughing and throat irritation.
A. Insoluble.
B. Water-soluble.
C. Partially water-soluble.
D. Unsoluble.
B. Water-soluble.
786
It is impossible to solve a problem without enough information to understand it. For example, first responders cannot fully mitigate a hazmat incident if they don't know what material is involved. The following statement is TRUE regarding analyzing a hazmat incident.
A. Hazmat size up must consider the four sides of the incident.
B. Hazard and risk assessment is conducted only on arrival at the scene.
C. Hazmat size must consider the seven sides of the incident.
D. Hazard and risk assessment is part of the size-up process, focusing particularly on the dangers, hazards, and risks presented by the incident.
D. Hazard and risk assessment is part of the size-up process, focusing particularly on the dangers, hazards, and risks presented by the incident.
________________________________
"6 sides"
787
Normally, the last strategic goals for the proper management of a hazardous materials emergency are the recovery and termination efforts. _____ involves those actions necessary to return the resource forces to a level of preincident readiness. These actions involve the release of units, resupply of materials and equipment, decontamination of equipment and PPE.
A. Operational recovery.
B. After action analysis.
C. Critiques.
D. On scene recovery.
A. Operational recovery.
788
The following statement is TRUE regarding a low explosive such as black powder:
A. Decompose extremely rapidly, which is called detonation.
B. Easily initiated and highly sensitive to heat.
C. Do not produce an explosive effect if unconfined.
D. Very insensitive materials, usually requiring initiation from a secondary explosive.
C. Do not produce an explosive effect if unconfined. (Low explosives)
________________________________
A. Decompose extremely rapidly, which is called detonation. (High explosives)
B. Easily initiated and highly sensitive to heat. (Primary explosives)
D. Very insensitive materials, usually requiring initiation from a secondary explosive. (Tertiary explosives (blasting agents))
789
Potassium chlorate is a white crystal or powder form explosive. The following statement is true regarding potassium chlorate:
A. It has approximately 33% of the power of TNT and is commonly used in agriculture.
B. It has approximately 53% of the power of TNT and is commonly used in fireworks.
C. It has approximately 73% of the power of TNT and is commonly used in agriculture.
D. It has approximately 83% of the power of TNT and is commonly used in fireworks.
D. It has approximately 83% of the power of TNT and is commonly used in fireworks.
790
IED's are typically categorized by their container in the way in which they are initiated. The following statement is TRUE regarding IEDs:
A. Vehicle bombs are easy to conceal, and the explosives are often located in the engine compartment.
B. Pipe bombs are usually made of steel or polyvinyl chloride pipe sections.
C. It is safe to approach a suspect or confirmed suicide bomber who is deceased.
D. Do not use two-way radios, cell phones, mobile data terminals within a minimum of 500 feet.
B. Pipe bombs are usually made of steel or polyvinyl chloride pipe sections. (TRUE)
________________________________
A. Vehicle bombs are easy to conceal, and the explosives are often located in the "engine compartment". FALSE - "trunk"
C. It is safe to approach a suspect or confirmed suicide bomber who is deceased. FALSE
D. Do not use two-way radios, cell phones, mobile data terminals within a minimum of "500 feet". FALSE - "300 feet"
791
_____ are usually persistent and may be employed in the form of collarless gases and liquids. However, the oily liquids range from colorless to pale yellow to dark brown, depending on purity.
A. Blood agents.
B. Blister agents.
C. Nerve agents.
D. Choking agents.
B. Blister agents.
792
The following statement is TRUE regarding chlorine:
A. Chlorine gas can be recognized by its pungent, irritating order, which is like the odor of green corn.
B. Decontamination is usually required due to its effects on the skin.
C. Chlorine itself is not flammable, but it can react explosively or form explosive compounds with other chemicals.
D. Chlorine was used as a chemical weapon for the first time in World War I, and is accounted for the majority of all chemical fatalities in that war.
C. Chlorine itself is not flammable, but it can react explosively or form explosive compounds with other chemicals. TRUE
________________________________
A. Chlorine gas can be recognized by its pungent, irritating order, which is like the odor of "green corn". (FALSE - "bleach")
B. Decontamination is usually required due to its effects on the skin. (FALSE - not required)
D. "Chlorine" was used as a chemical weapon for the first time in World War I, and is accounted for the majority of all chemical fatalities in that war. (FALSE - "Phosgene")
793
Respiratory protection is the primary concern for first responders because inhalation is arguably the most significant route of entry for hazardous materials. Respiratory protection is, therefore a vital part of any PPE ensemble used at hazmat/WMD incidents.
A. Responders to know that APR's protect against oxygen deficient atmospheres.
B. A single canister, filter, or cartridge protects against all chemical hazards.
C. Responder should know that APR's protect against oxygen enriched atmospheres.
D. Ensure that the oxygen level is between 19.5 and 23.5%.
D. Ensure that the oxygen level is between 19.5 and 23.5%.
794
Particulate filters protect the user from particulates in the air. The following statement is TRUE regarding APRs and PAPRs:
A. Dust masks provide protection against small particles such as asbestos fibers.
B. All APR's and PAPR's should only be used in situations where the atmospheric hazards are understood and at least 19.5% oxygen is present.
C. Half-face respirators will protect against CBR materials that can be absorbed through skin or eyes as long as goggles are utilized.
D. All manufacturers color-code their filters so that they are easily identified.
B. All APR's and PAPR's should only be used in situations where the atmospheric hazards are understood and at least 19.5% oxygen is present.
795
The following statement is TRUE regarding general guidelines for decon operations:
A. Ensure technical decon set up is operational before entry personnel enter the hot zone.
B. Slightly dampen clothing to keep the radiation from spreading.
C. Ensure technical decon setup has begun before entry personnel enter the hot zone.
D. Decon emergency responders together with victims in order to speed the decon process.
A. Ensure technical decon set up is operational before entry personnel enter the hot zone.
796
A defensive spill control tactic called _____ , is described as: Can only be used on water-soluble gases, and is generally conducted by applying a fog stream to a breach in a container or directly onto the spill.
A. Dilution.
B. Dispersion.
C. Dissolution.
D. Neutralization.
C. Dissolution.
797
A large percent of hazmat incidents involve corrosive materials. Corrosive gases and vapors can damage detection and monitoring equipment as well as PPE, so pH should always be one of the first hazards monitored unless hazards are known for certain. The following statement is TRUE regarding pH paper:
A. Most pH papers will not react accurately if wet.
B. There is not a standard color system established for pH paper.
C. PH paper provides more accurate readings than pH meters.
D. PH paper wetted with hydrocarbons will not affect the accuracy of the pH readings.
B. There is not a standard color system established for pH paper.
798
Most fire service responders are already familiar with devices such as combustible gas indicators (CGI's). The following statement is FALSE regarding CGI's:
A. One limitation of CGI's is sensitivity to oxygen levels.
B. Corrosive gasses may damage sensors.
C. Cell phones, magnetic fields, high-voltage lines, radios, and static electricity may interfere with the readings.
D. Meter response may be sluggish and extremely hot weather.
D. Meter response may be sluggish and extremely hot weather.
799
A _____ is described as: "Used for absorbed dose equivalence as pertaining to a human body".
A. Roentgen.
B. Curies.
C. Rem.
D. Radiation absorbed dose.
C. Rem.
800
_____ is a colorless, flammable, and toxic gas with an order of garlic or decaying fish.
A. Phosphine.
B. Ethyl ether.
C. Red phosphorus.
D. Anhydrous Ammonia.
A. Phosphine.
801
Detection and monitoring devices allow responders to detect, identify, and measure hazardous materials. The following statement is TRUE regarding detection and monitoring devices:
A. Detection and monitoring is conducted only at one level.
B. No instrument is any better than the knowledge, skill, and ability of the individual using it. They become team and must practice and work together.
C. Monitoring and sampling should be verified using more than one sampling method, using the same technology.
D. The results of detection and monitoring activities do not need to be recorded.
B. No instrument is any better than the knowledge, skill, and ability of the individual using it. They become team and must practice and work together.
802
The US Department of Transportation (DOT) defines an elevated temperature material as one that when offered for transportation or transported in bulk packaging has one of the following properties:
A. Liquid phase at a temperature at or above 100°F.
B. Liquid phase at a temperature at or above 130°F.
C. Liquid phase at a temperature at or above 212°F.
D. B. Liquid phase at a temperature at or above 464°F.
```
C. Liquid phase at a temperature at or above 212°F. (TRUE)
________________________________
Liquid phase = 212°F
Solid phase = 464F
Liquid phase with Flash point = 100F
```
803
Corrosives are commonly divided into two broad categories: acids and bases. The following statement is TRUE regarding corrosives.
A. Acids have a pH of 8 to 14.
B. In some cases, corrosives (particularly strong acids) can cause a fire or an explosion if they come in contact with combustibles because of their corrosive action.
C. Bases have a pH value of 0 to 6.9.
D. Some bases can react with metal to form hydrogen gas (which is explosive).
B. In some cases, corrosives (particularly strong acids) can cause a fire or an explosion if they come in contact with combustibles because of their corrosive action.
804
The information in _____ Standard for Identification of the Hazards of Materials for Emergency Response, gives a widely recognized method for indicating the presence of hazardous materials.
A. NFPA 101.
B. NFPA 704.
C. NFPA 1500.
D. NFPA 13.
B. NFPA 704.
805
At terrorist incidents in the U.S., the FBI establishes an evidence search perimeter _____ the distance of the farthest known piece of evidence.
A. 1 times.
B. 1.5 times.
C. 2 times.
D. 2.5 times.
B. 1.5 times.
806
The following statement is TRUE when water steams are used to contain gas being released under pressure:
A. The mass and velocity of the water streams must not exceed the mass and velocity of the escaping gas.
B. The mass and velocity of the water streams must exceed the mass and velocity of the escaping gas.
C. The mass of the water streams must exceed the mass of the escaping gas, and the velocity of the water stream must not exceed the velocity of the escaping gas.
D. The mass of the water streams must not exceed the mass of the escaping gas, and the velocity of the water stream must exceed the velocity of the escaping gas.
B. The mass and velocity of the water streams must exceed the mass and velocity of the escaping gas.
807
_____ are the simplest types of microorganisms that can only replicate themselves in the living cells of their hosts.
A. Biological toxins.
B. Viruses.
C. Bacteria
D. Rickettsias.
B. Viruses.
808
An explosion can cause a number of hazards. _____ is described as "Gases being released rapidly create a shock wave that travels outwards from the center. As the wave increases in distance, the strength decreases. It is the primary reason for injuries and damage from an explosion".
A. Blast-pressure wave.
B. Shrapnel fragmentation.
C. Seismic effect.
D. Incendiary thermal effect.
A. Blast-pressure wave.
809
When a container fails, three things may release: the product, energy, and the container (whole or in pieces). A "Violent rupture" is described as:
A. The results of this release include fragmentation, disintegration, or shattering of the container; extreme overpressure; and considerable heat release. The duration can be measured in hundredths of a second.
B. Release of a pressurized hazardous material through properly operating safety devices. This action may occur in a period of several seconds.
C. Release of a hazardous material under atmospheric or head pressure through holes, rips, tears, or unusual openings. This can occur in a period of several minutes.
D. Release of chemical or mechanical energy caused by runaway cracks. This can occur within a timeframe of one second or less.
D. Release of chemical or mechanical energy caused by runaway cracks. This can occur within a timeframe of one second or less. (Violent rupture)
________________________________
A. The results of this release include fragmentation, disintegration, or shattering of the container; extreme overpressure; and considerable heat release. The duration can be measured in hundredths of a second. (Detonation)
B. Release of a pressurized hazardous material through properly operating safety devices. This action may occur in a period of several seconds. (Rapid relief)
C. Release of a hazardous material under atmospheric or head pressure through holes, rips, tears, or unusual openings. This can occur in a period of several minutes. (Spill/leak)
810
When a container fails, three things may release: the product, energy, and the container (whole or in pieces). A "Spill/leak" is described as:
A. The results of this release include fragmentation, disintegration, or shattering of the container; extreme overpressure; and considerable heat release. The duration can be measured in hundredths of a second.
B. Release of a pressurized hazardous material through properly operating safety devices. This action may occur in a period of several seconds.
C. Slow release of a hazardous material under atmospheric or head pressure through holes, rips, tears, or unusual openings. This can occur in a period of several minutes or days.
D. Immediate release of chemical or mechanical energy caused by runaway cracks. The results are ballistic behavior of the container and its contents and/or localized projection of container pieces/parts and hazardous material such as with a BLEVE. This can occur within a timeframe of one second or less.
C. Slow release of a hazardous material under atmospheric or head pressure through holes, rips, tears, or unusual openings. This can occur in a period of several minutes or days. (Spill/leak)
________________________________
A. The results of this release include fragmentation, disintegration, or shattering of the container; extreme overpressure; and considerable heat release. The duration can be measured in hundredths of a second. (Detonation)
B. Release of a pressurized hazardous material through properly operating safety devices. This action may occur in a period of several seconds. (Rapid relief)
D. Immediate release of chemical or mechanical energy caused by runaway cracks. The results are ballistic behavior of the container and its contents and/or localized projection of container pieces/parts and hazardous material such as with a BLEVE. This can occur within a timeframe of one second or less. (Violent rupture)
811
When a container fails, three things may release: the product, energy, and the container (whole or in pieces). A "Detonation" is described as:
A. Instantaneous and explosive release of stored chemical energy of a hazardous material. The results of this release include fragmentation, disintegration, or shattering of the container; extreme overpressure; and considerable heat release. The duration can be measured in hundredths of a second.
B. Release of a pressurized hazardous material through properly operating safety devices. This action may occur in a period of several seconds.
C. Slow release of a hazardous material under atmospheric or head pressure through holes, rips, tears, or unusual openings. This can occur in a period of several minutes or days.
D. Immediate release of chemical or mechanical energy caused by runaway cracks. The results are ballistic behavior of the container and its contents and/or localized projection of container pieces/parts and hazardous material such as with a BLEVE. This can occur within a timeframe of one second or less.
A. Instantaneous and explosive release of stored chemical energy of a hazardous material. The results of this release include fragmentation, disintegration, or shattering of the container; extreme overpressure; and considerable heat release. The duration can be measured in hundredths of a second. (Detonation - example: a high explosive)
________________________________
B. Release of a pressurized hazardous material through properly operating safety devices. This action may occur in a period of several seconds. (Rapid relief)
C. Slow release of a hazardous material under atmospheric or head pressure through holes, rips, tears, or unusual openings. This can occur in a period of several minutes or days. (Spill/leak)
D. Immediate release of chemical or mechanical energy caused by runaway cracks. The results are ballistic behavior of the container and its contents and/or localized projection of container pieces/parts and hazardous material such as with a BLEVE. This can occur within a timeframe of one second or less. (Violent rupture)
812
When a container fails, three things may release: the product, energy, and the container (whole or in pieces). A "Rapid relief" is described as:
A. Instantaneous and explosive release of stored chemical energy of a hazardous material. The results of this release include fragmentation, disintegration, or shattering of the container; extreme overpressure; and considerable heat release. The duration can be measured in hundredths of a second.
B. Fast release of a pressurized hazardous material through properly operating safety devices caused by damaged valves, piping, or attachments or holes in the container. This action may occur in a period of several seconds or minutes.
C. Slow release of a hazardous material under atmospheric or head pressure through holes, rips, tears, or unusual openings. This can occur in a period of several minutes or days.
D. Immediate release of chemical or mechanical energy caused by runaway cracks. The results are ballistic behavior of the container and its contents and/or localized projection of container pieces/parts and hazardous material such as with a BLEVE. This can occur within a timeframe of one second or less.
B. Fast release of a pressurized hazardous material through properly operating safety devices caused by damaged valves, piping, or attachments or holes in the container. This action may occur in a period of several seconds or minutes. (Rapid relief)
________________________________
A. Instantaneous and explosive release of stored chemical energy of a hazardous material. The results of this release include fragmentation, disintegration, or shattering of the container; extreme overpressure; and considerable heat release. The duration can be measured in hundredths of a second. (Detonation)
C. Slow release of a hazardous material under atmospheric or head pressure through holes, rips, tears, or unusual openings. This can occur in a period of several minutes or days. (Spill/leak)
D. Immediate release of chemical or mechanical energy caused by runaway cracks. The results are ballistic behavior of the container and its contents and/or localized projection of container pieces/parts and hazardous material such as with a BLEVE. This can occur within a timeframe of one second or less. (Violent rupture)
813
An important part of the hazard assessment is determining which physical and health hazardous materials are present at the hazmat scene. The following statement is TRUE regarding risk:
A. As with a structure fire, you must consider all four sides of the hazmat incident.
B. Assessing risk is often more difficult than assessing the hazards of themselves.
C. Assessing the risks at a hazmat incident is a matter of determining the "whats" of a situation.
D. Assessing risk is the ongoing mental evaluation process performed by the operational officer in charge of an incident, that enables him or her to determine and evaluate all existing influencing factors that are used to develop objectives.
B. Assessing risk is often more difficult than assessing the hazards of themselves. (TRUE)
________________________________
A. As with a structure fire, you must consider all "four" sides of the hazmat incident. (FALSE - "six")
C. Assessing the risks at a hazmat incident is a matter of determining the "whats" of a situation. (FALSE - "ifs")
D. Assessing risk is the ongoing mental evaluation process performed by the operational officer in charge of an incident, that enables him or her to determine and evaluate all existing influencing factors that are used to develop objectives. (FALSE - size up)
814
______ deals more with probabilities - the probability of getting hurt or injured or suffering damage, harm, or loss because of the hazards present.
A. Hazard.
B. Risk.
C. Size-up.
D. Initial survey.
B. Risk.
815
Experts now fear that terrorists have the means to broaden their tactics to include the use of weapons of mass destruction. Most experts agree that _____ are the greatest WMD threat today.
A. Chemical attacks.
B. Biological attacks.
C. Radiological attacks.
D. Explosives attacks.
D. Explosives attacks.
816
Explosives are categorized by chemical reaction or rate of decomposition and sensitivity. _____ are easily initiated and highly sensitive to heat; usually used as detonators.
```
A. Primary explosives.
B. High explosives.
C. Low explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives.
```
A. Primary explosives.
817
Explosives are categorized by chemical reaction or rate of decomposition and sensitivity. _____ decompose extremely rapidly (almost instantaneously), which is normally called detonation or explosion. Simply put, they have detonation velocities that are faster than the speed of sound. Examples include: plastic explosives, nitroglycerin, TNT, blasting caps, dynamite, and ammonium nitrate and fuel oil (ANFO).
```
A. Primary explosives.
B. High explosives.
C. Low explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives.
```
B. High explosives.
818
Explosives are categorized by chemical reaction or rate of decomposition and sensitivity. _____ decompose rapidly but do not produce an explosive effects unless they are confined; rather, they deflagrate (burn rapidly). For example, black powder undergoes deflagration rather than detonation. Confined in small spaces or containers they are commonly used as propellants (bullets and fireworks). Other examples include fireworks and road flares.
```
A. Primary explosives.
B. High explosives.
C. Low explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives.
```
C. Low explosives.
819
Explosives are categorized by chemical reaction or rate of decomposition and sensitivity. _____ are easily initiated and highly sensitive to heat; usually used as detonators. Small amounts such as a single grain or crystal can detonate. Examples include lead azide, mercury fulminate, and a lead styphnate.
```
A. Primary explosives.
B. High explosives.
C. Low explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives.
```
A. Primary explosives.
820
Explosives are categorized by chemical reaction or rate of decomposition and sensitivity. _____ are designed to detonate only under specific circumstances; usually by activation energy from a primary explosive. They are less sensitive to initiating stimuli such as heat or flame. An example is TNT.
```
A. Primary explosives.
B. High explosives.
C. Low explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives.
```
D. Secondary explosives.
821
Explosives are categorized by chemical reaction or rate of decomposition and sensitivity. _____ are very insensitive materials based on ammonium nitrate (AN), usually requiring initiation from a secondary explosive. Not all experts recognize this category and would consider AN and other blasting agents to be secondary explosives.
```
A. Primary explosives.
B. High explosives.
C. Low explosives.
D. Secondary explosives.
E. Tertiary explosives.
```
E. Tertiary explosives.
822
A chemical attack is the deliberate release of a toxic gas, liquid, or solid that can poison people and the environment. The most toxic of the known chemical warfare agents is:
A. Blister agents.
B. Blood agents.
C. Nerve agents.
D. Choking agents.
C. Nerve agents.
823
First responders should be familiar with blood agents. The following statement is TRUE regarding "hydrogen cyanide (AC)":
A. Colorless liquid in it pure form; can appear amber to black in its impure form.
B. It is a colorless, non-irritating toxic gas that has a mild garlic order that can only be detected at at levels higher than those necessary to cause poisoning.
C. Colorless liquid highly soluble and stable in water. The vapor is less dense than air and has a faint odor of bitter almonds.
D. It is a colorless liquid that is only slightly soluble in water. Has a pungent, biting order.
C. Colorless liquid highly soluble and stable in water. The vapor is less dense than air and has a faint odor of bitter almonds. (hydrogen cyanide)
________________________________
A. Colorless liquid in it pure form; can appear amber to black in its impure form. ("Blister agent" - Lewisite)
B. It is a colorless, non-irritating toxic gas that has a mild garlic order that can only be detected at at levels higher than those necessary to cause poisoning. (Arsine)
D. It is a colorless liquid that is only slightly soluble in water. Has a pungent, biting order. (Cyanogen chloride)
824
First responders should be familiar with blood agents. The following statement is TRUE regarding "arsine (SA)" :
A. Colorless liquid in it pure form; can appear amber to black in its impure form.
B. It is a colorless, non-irritating toxic gas that has a mild garlic order that can only be detected at at levels higher than those necessary to cause poisoning.
C. Colorless liquid highly soluble and stable in water. The vapor is less dense than air and has a faint odor of bitter almonds.
D. It is a colorless liquid that is only slightly soluble in water. Has a pungent, biting order.
B. It is a colorless, non-irritating toxic gas that has a mild garlic order that can only be detected at at levels higher than those necessary to cause poisoning. (Arsine)
________________________________
A. Colorless liquid in it pure form; can appear amber to black in its impure form. ("Blister agent" - Lewisite)
C. Colorless liquid highly soluble and stable in water. The vapor is less dense than air and has a faint odor of bitter almonds. (hydrogen cyanide)
D. It is a colorless liquid that is only slightly soluble in water. Has a pungent, biting order. (Cyanogen chloride)
825
First responders should be familiar with blood agents. The following statement is TRUE regarding "cyanogen chloride (CK)":
A. Colorless liquid in it pure form; can appear amber to black in its impure form.
B. It is a colorless, non-irritating toxic gas that has a mild garlic order that can only be detected at at levels higher than those necessary to cause poisoning.
C. Colorless liquid highly soluble and stable in water. The vapor is less dense than air and has a faint odor of bitter almonds.
D. It is a colorless liquid that is only slightly soluble in water. Has a pungent, biting order.
D. It is a colorless liquid that is only slightly soluble in water. Has a pungent, biting order. (Cyanogen chloride)
________________________________
A. Colorless liquid in it pure form; can appear amber to black in its impure form. ("Blister agent" - Lewisite)
B. It is a colorless, non-irritating toxic gas that has a mild garlic order that can only be detected at at levels higher than those necessary to cause poisoning. (Arsine)
C. Colorless liquid highly soluble and stable in water. The vapor is less dense than air and has a faint odor of bitter almonds. (hydrogen cyanide)
826
When considering general guidelines for decon operations, the following statement is TRUE regarding decon:
A. Ensure technical decon setup is operational before entry personnel enter the cold zone.
B. Assess all victims believed to have been in the hot zone to determine the need for decontamination before moving them to the cold zone.
C. In order to save time, decon emergency responders at the same time as victims.
D. Establishing medical triage and treatment area within the warm zone.
B. Assess all victims believed to have been in the hot zone to determine the need for decontamination before moving them to the cold zone.
827
Which of the following is a defensive spill-control tactic that confines hazardous materials?
A. Dispersion.
B. Dilution.
C. Dissolution.
D. Diversion.
D. Diversion.
828
In some situations it may be safe and acceptable for a company officer to operate emergency remote shut off valves on cargo tank trucks.
A. MC-306 and DOR307s will have an emergency shutoff valve on the left front corner of the tank.
B. MC-331s of 3,500 gallon capacity or less should have two emergency shutoff valves located remotely from each other.
C. Corrosive liquid tanks MC/DOT 312 normally have two emergency shutoff valves located remotely from each other.
D. MC-306 and MC-307s will have an emergency shutoff valve on the right rear corner of the tank.
A. MC-306 and DOR307s will have an emergency shutoff valve on the left front corner of the tank.
829
Which of the following chemicals is typically found in meth labs?
A. Acetone.
B. Ethanol.
C. Red phosphorus.
D. Hydrogen peroxide.
C. Red phosphorus.
830
A consist includes all the following except one:
A. A rail shipping paper containing a list by order of cars in the train.
B. The cars with hazardous materials are indicated.
C. Indicates the origin, destination route and product.
D. Some railroads include information on emergency operations for hazardous materials on board.
C. Indicates the origin, destination route and product. (FALSE)
831
Cryogenic and liquefied gases vaporize rapidly when released from their containers. Any clothing saturated with cryogenic material:
A. Must be destroyed.
B. Treated with chemicals.
C. Must be removed immediately.
D. Must be splashed with water.
C. Must be removed immediately.
832
Chemicals absorbed into the equipment can subject the wearer to repeated exposure or a later reaction with another chemical. One part of structural firefighting clothing which can become permeated by chemicals and render them unsafe for use is... the exception is:
A. Helmet.
B. Boots.
C. SCBA masks.
D. Neoprene gloves.
A. Helmet.
833
A level 2 incident is one that is beyond the capabilities of first responders on the scene and may be beyond the capabilities of first response agencies having jurisdiction. An example of a level 2 incident would be which of the following:
A. Those that require an evacuation extending across jurisdictional boundaries.
B. Any major accident, spillage, or overflow of flammable liquids.
C. Incidents beyond the capabilities of the local hazmat response team.
D. Incidents that activate, in part or in whole, the federal response system.
B. Any major accident, spillage, or overflow of flammable liquids.
834
This Tank carries flammable liquids (such as gasoline and alcohol), combustible liquids (such as fuel oil), division 6.1 poisons, and liquid food products. All of these materials are maintained at a vapor pressure under 3 PSI.
A. Low-pressure carrier.
B. High-pressure carrier.
C. Non-pressure carrier.
D. Corrosive liquid carrier.
C. Non-pressure carrier.
835
An example of EPA Level B protective equipment is:
A. The totally encapsulating suit not only evelops the wearer but also the SCBA.
B. A garment, including SCBA, that provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical.
C. The same garment used for Level B which allows the use of respiratory protection other than SCBA.
D. Ordinary work clothes or uniforms with no respiratory protection.
B. A garment, including SCBA, that provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical.
836
When applying foams on a hazardous material, the most TRUE statement is:
A. It is safe to use foam on water reactive materials.
B. Foams should be plunged into the fluid during application.
C. Liquids being covered by the foam must be below its boiling point.
D. Foam can extinguish three-dimensional fires.
C. Liquids being covered by the foam must be below its boiling point.
837
Which of the following would be effective on both hydrocarbon and polar solvent fuels?
A. High expansion foam.
B. Fluroprotien Foam.
C. AFFF.
D. Alcohol resistant AFFF.
D. Alcohol resistant AFFF.
838
Most water-soluble flammable liquids are known as:
A. Hypergolic solvents.
B. Polar solvents.
C. Cryogenic solvents.
D. Radiation solvents.
B. Polar solvents.
839
A tank that can be identified by the large hemispherical heads on both ends, and has a bolted manhole at the rear, and a guard cage around the bottom loading/unloading piping would be carrying:
A. Liquefied gases.
B. Flammable gases.
C. Pressure gases.
D. Corrosives.
A. Liquefied gases.
840
As in any emergency situation, several operations may have to be performed simultaneously at a hazmat incident. First responders may be involved concurrently with things such as... the exception is:
A. Rescue.
B. Exposure protection.
C. Clean up.
D. Containment.
C. Clean up.
841
This form of radiation is the least dangerous as a threat to external portions of the body, but is very dangerous when ingested, inhaled, or otherwise allowed to enter the body.
A. Alpha radiation.
B. Beta radiation.
C. Gamma radiation.
D. X-ray radiation.
A. Alpha radiation.
842
The ERG was developed for use by first responders. If the first responders have the name of the material involved, they may go directly to the _____ colored pages.
A. Yellow.
B. Blue.
C. Orange.
D. White.
B. Blue.
843
A _____ is readily identified by its rounded ends that signify a pressure vessel. Its capacities may range from 500 to over 40,000 gallons. These tanks are normally found at facilities that dispense fuel gases to the public.
A. Spheroid tank.
B. Horizontal tank.
C. Sphere tank.
D. Cryogenic liquid tank.
B. Horizontal tank.
844
Both the United States and Canada have adopted the United Nations (UN) system for classifying and identifying hazardous materials. Under this system, the Class 3 would identify:
A. Explosives.
B. Gases.
C. Flammable liquids.
D. Flammable solids.
C. Flammable liquids.
845
A Class I combustible liquid that has a flashpoint below 100°F is:
A. Fuel oil.
B. Acetone.
C. Lubricating oil.
D. Kerosene.
B. Acetone.
846
You enter a structure and encounter a gas with a vapor density greater than one. Of the following statements, which is the most correct statement?
A. The gas will rise rapidly into the air.
B. If there is a ceiling vent the gas will dissipate.
C. The gas will dissipate if outdoors.
D. The gas will hang close to the ground.
D. The gas will hang close to the ground.
847
Substances commonly found in horizontal tanks include the following, the exception is:
A. Crude oil.
B. Butane.
C. Sulfur dioxide.
D. Chlorine.
A. Crude oil.
848
Level C protective equipment would:
A. Include SCBA, that provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical.
B. Include no respiratory protection and provides minimal skin protection.
C. Includes the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles. It not only envelops the wearer but also the SCBA.
D. Not be used by emergency response personnel unless the specific material is known and can be measured.
D. Not be used by emergency response personnel unless the specific material is known and can be measured.
849
_____ would perform work inside the hot zone.
A. First responder level but not operational level.
B. Operational level but not first responder level.
C. Both first responder level and operational level.
D. Neither first responder level nor operational level.
D. Neither first responder level nor operational level.
850
The best source of information on a specific hazardous material is the manufacturers data sheet known as the safety data sheet (MSDS). According to HAZ, you will find the chemical name of the material and section:
A. II
B. VI
C. VII
D. VIII
A. II
851
A pressure vessel stores compressed or liquefied gases. It is designed to have an operating pressure above:
A. 0.5 psi.
B. 5.0 psi.
C. 10 psi.
D. 15 psi.
D. 15 psi.
852
Placard identifies the hazards posed by a hazardous material at a transportation site. Consider the following statements, the FALSE statement is:
A. The word gasoline maybe used instead of the word flammable on a placard displayed on a cargo tank or on a portable tank used to transport gasoline by highway.
B. A placard is required for shipment of infectious substances (Class 6.2) in a quantity greater than 1000 pounds.
C. The word fuel oil maybe used in place of the word combustible on a placard displayed on a cargo tank or on a portable tank used for highway transportation.
D. The placard is required for shipment of organic peroxide (Class 5.2) in a quantity greater than 1000 pounds.
B. A placard is required for shipment of infectious substances (Class 6.2) in a quantity greater than 1000 pounds.
853
A pressure tank railcar carries flammable and nonflammable liquefied gases, poisons, and other hazardous liquids. This type of car is easy to recognize because of the protective housing around the manhole. The release valve will be located:
A. On the top of the car.
B. At the rear end of the car.
C. On the bottom of the car.
D. On the side of the car.
A. On the top of the car.
854
All foams in use today are of the mechanical type; that is, they must be proportioned (mixed with water) and aerated (mixed with air) before they can be used. Which of the following types of foams cannot be premixed:
A. Alcohol resistant (AFFF).
B. Fluroprotien foam.
C. Film forming fluroprotien foam (FFFP).
D. Protein foam.
A. Alcohol resistant (AFFF).
855
Tangible evidence of hazardous materials, such as the spreading of a vapor cloud, or container deterioration are signs of physical and/or chemical actions and reactions are taking place. Which of the following answers would be a visual or sensory example of a chemical reaction.
A. Rainbow sheen on water surfaces.
B. Peeling or discoloration of a container finish.
C. Frost near a leak.
D. Pinging or popping of heat exposed vessel.
B. Peeling or discoloration of a container finish.
856
The NFPA 704 diamond system is arranged on a diamond shaped marker or sign. The health rating is:
A. On a red background located in the 12 o'clock position.
B. On a blue background located in the 9 o'clock position.
C. On a white background located in the 6 o'clock position.
D. On a yellow background located in the 3 o'clock position.
B. On a blue background located in the 9 o'clock position.
857
One method of determining specific avenues of attack at chemical emergencies is determined the immediate concern and the primary objective. Which of the following choices this is an example of a primary objective.
A. Controlling flammable and/or toxic gas clouds.
B. Denying access to the area.
C. Influence the incident favorably with available resources.
D. Eliminating all ignition sources within an appropriate distance.
A. Controlling flammable and/or toxic gas clouds.
858
The acronym IFSTA can be used to remember the proper Citisia decision process to be used at a hazardous material incident. IFSTA stands for identity, formulate, select, take, and analyze. The step that is most important because it determines the plan of action is:
A. Identify.
B. Formulate.
C. Select.
D. Take.
C. Select.
859
In the GEBMO model, the dispersion of material is referred to as engulf. An irregularly shaped pattern of the airborne hazardous material where wind and/or topography influence the downrange course from the point of release would be known as:
A. Plume.
B. Cloud.
C. Cone.
D. Stream.
A. Plume.
860
All the following are examples of the operational level... the exception is:
A. Gathering and sharing material information with all involved parties.
B. Ensure the appropriateness of the training and personal protective equipment of on scene personnel for the actions to be taken.
C. Secure the area of the emergency and prevent anyone else from entering.
D. Establishing protective zones.
C. Secure the area of the emergency and prevent anyone else from entering.
861
All incident management systems have a myriad of roles to be performed. Two very important roles in any system are those of incident commander and the safety officer. All of the following are functions of the incident commander... the exception is:
A. Identify the materials or conditions involved in the incident.
B. Identify hazardous situations at the incident.
C. Ensuring that appropriate personal protective equipment is worn.
D. Establishing a decontamination plan and operation.
B. Identify hazardous situations at the incident.
862
Decontamination usually takes place within a corridor (decon corridor) located in the:
A. Hot zone.
B. Warm zone.
C. Support zone.
D. Cold zone.
B. Warm zone.
863
Polar solvent fuels, such as _____ are flammable liquids that are miscible in water. Firefighting foams can be effective on these fuels but only in a special alcohol resistant (polymeric) formulations.
A. Acetone.
B. Gasoline.
C. Benzene.
D. Naphtha.
A. Acetone.
864
The standard fixed-flow fog nozzle is used with foam solution to produce a low-expansion, short-lasting foam. This nozzle breaks the foam solution into tiny droplets and uses that agitation of water droplets moving through air to achieve its foaming action. It's best application is when used with _____ .
A. Protein foam.
B. Fluoroprotein foam.
C. AFFF.
D. Alcohol resistant AFFF.
C. AFFF.
865
Accidents involving Class 4 flammable solids are relatively rare. When an accident does occur, these materials can prove to be difficult to handle. The more serious of the following incidents is:
A. Spilled flammable solids not involving fire.
B. Spilled flammable solids involving fire or flame impingement.
C. Spilled spontaneously combustible materials not involving fire.
D. Spilled spontaneously combustible materials involving fire or flame impingement.
D. Spilled spontaneously combustible materials involving fire or flame impingement.
866
Radioactive material packages are the strongest containers used to transport hazardous materials. For this reason, radioactive incidents are rare. The two categories of packaging for shipments are Type A and Type B packaging. Which of the following products would be shipped in Type A packaging?
A. Fissionable materials.
B. Radiopharmaceuticals.
C. Nuclear fuels (both new and spent)
D. Highly radioactive metals.
B. Radiopharmaceuticals.
867
Cold exposure is a concern when dealing with cryogenic and liquefied gases. _____ gas is one that at the charging pressure is partially liquid at 70°F.
A. Hydrogen.
B. Helium.
C. Nitrogen.
D. Propane.
D. Propane.
868
Which of the following material would NOT require placard when shipped in quantities in excess of 1000 pounds?
A. Flammable solid class (4.1).
B. Infectious substances class (6.2).
C. Organic peroxide class (5.2).
D. Nonflammable gas class (2.2).
B. Infectious substances class (6.2).
869
Implementing the tactical plan requires communication incoordination with all agencies and organizations involved in the response. Orders have to be clear and concise so that assigned tasks are understood, which IFSTA step identifies this:
A. Identify.
B. Formulate.
C. Select.
D. Take.
D. Take.
870
Medium and high expansion foam are special-purpose foams that have a detergent-base. The following statements regarding the characteristics of medium and high expansion foam concentrates are TRUE... the exception is:
A. Can be stored at temperatures from 27°F to 100°F.
B. Are not affected by freezing or thawing.
C. Have poor heat resistance because the air-to-water ratio is very low.
D. Cannot have prolonged contact with galvanized steel or raw steel as the concentrate may attack the surfaces.
C. Have poor heat resistance because the air-to-water ratio is very "low". (FALSE - "high")
871
Accidents involving flammable solids, spontaneously combustible materials, and materials that are dangerous when wet are relatively rare. When an accident does occur, these materials can prove to be difficult to handle. In which of the following situations would the primary objective be to let the material burn until it is consumed?
A. Spilled flammable solids not involving fire.
B. Spilled spontaneously combustible material not involving fire.
C. Spilled spontaneously combustible materials involving fire or flame impingement.
D. Spilled dangerous-when-wet materials not involving fire.
C. Spilled spontaneously combustible materials involving fire or flame impingement.
872
Chemical degradation is the process of using another material to change the chemical structure of the hazardous material. One example of a material commonly used to change the chemical structure of a hazardous material is:
A. Sodium hypochlorite.
B. Diatomaceous earth.
C. Water.
D. Potassium bicarbonate.
A. Sodium hypochlorite.
873
The first responder at the operational level must perform the awareness level tasks. In addition, he or she must be able to define the problem, design a defense, and direct execution of the incident action plan. Which of the following functions would define the problem?
A. Gathering and sharing material information with all involved parties.
B. Identify defensive tactical options to meet the goals.
C. Establish protective zones.
D. Activating the incident management system.
A. Gathering and sharing material information with all involved parties.
874
Hydrocarbon fuels are petroleum based and float on water. Which of the following fuels is a hydrocarbon fuel?
A. Benzene.
B. Ethyl alcohol.
C. Lacquer thinner.
D. Alcohol.
A. Benzene.
875
Threshold Limit Value/Ceiling Level (TLV-C) is a maximum concentration that should never be exceeded. When working in conditions where the hazardous material concentration is equal to or greater than the TLV-C, appropriate personal protection must always be used. According to HAZ, hydrogen cyanide has a TLV-C of:
A. 10 ppm.
B. 15 ppm.
C. 20 ppm.
D. 25 ppm.
C. 20 ppm.
876
You have responded to a spilled corrosive material on fire. All of the following choices are primary objectives... the exception is:
A. Shut-off the flow.
B. Isolate the area.
C. Deny entry.
D. Extinguish the fire.
D. Extinguish the fire. (Immediate concern)
877
Heatstroke is a serious medical emergency. If action is not taken, heatstroke can become a life threatening situation. Which of the following symptoms is a symptom of heat stroke?
A. Mildly elevated temperature.
B. Perfuse sweating.
C. Shallow breathing.
D. Cool, moist, pale skin.
C. Shallow breathing.
878
Asphyxiants affect the oxygenation of the body and generally lead to suffocation. Asphyxiants can be divided into two classes: simple and chemical. An example of a chemical Asphyxiants is:
A. Nitrogen.
B. Acetylene.
C. Hydrogen sulfide.
D. Carbon dioxide.
C. Hydrogen sulfide.
879
This tank carries gases that have been liquefied by increasing the pressure and compromising them into the liquid state. The tank can be identified by large hemispherical heads on both ends, bolted manhole at the rear, guard cage around the bottom loading/unloading piping, and uninsulated tanks, single-shell vessels usually painted white. This best describes which of the following tanks?
A. Non-pressure carrier.
B. Low-pressure carrier.
C. Corrosive liquid carrier.
D. High pressure carrier.
D. High pressure carrier.
880
One method of determining specific avenues of attack a chemical emergencies is to determine the immediate concern and the primary objective. Which of the following is not a primary objective?
A. Eliminating all ignition sources within an appropriate distance.
B. Extinguishing fires and stabilizing the scene.
C. Controlling flammable and/or toxic gas clouds.
D. Stopping leaks by plugging and/or patching.
A. Eliminating all ignition sources within an appropriate distance. (Immediate concern)
881
Tangible evidence of hazardous materials, such as a spreading vapor cloud, a pair of gloves melting, etc. are signs that physical and/or chemical actions and reactions are taking place. An example of a physical action is:
A. Extraordinary fire conditions.
B. Rainbow sheen on water surface.
C. Distinctively colored vapor clouds.
D. Smoking or self-igniting materials.
B. Rainbow sheen on water surface.
882
A low-pressure tank is designed to have an operating pressure at ranges from 0.5 to 15 psi. A _____ tank is designed to store liquid or gaseous commodities such as LPG. Certain flammable liquids, such as gasoline and crude oil, are stored in these tanks. A pressure relief valve is located on the top of the tank.
A. Spheroid tank.
B. Floating roof tank.
C. Vapor dome roof tank.
D. Lifter roof tank.
A. Spheroid tank.
883
The EPA regulates the manufacturing and labeling of pesticides. Each EPA label must contain one of the following signal words: DANGER/POISON, WARNING, or CAUTION. The words EXTREMELY FLAMMABLE are also displayed on the label if the contents have a flashpoint below _____ .
A. 80°F.
B. 90°F.
C. 100°F.
D. 120°F.
A. 80°F.
884
When the immediate priority has been established, the IC will determine the mode operation to be followed. The three modes of operation are nonintervention, defensive, and offensive. The following statement is an example of a defensive operation.
A. The situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of the responders.
B. Explosions are imminent.
C. The responders have the training and equipment necessary to confine the incident to the area of origin.
D. The responders take aggressive, direct action on the material, container, or process equipment involved in the incident.
C. The responders have the training and equipment necessary to confine the incident to the area of origin.
885
Which of the following chemicals example of a mutagen?
A. Nickel.
B. Methyl mercury.
C. Thalidomide.
D. Ethylene oxide.
D. Ethylene oxide.
886
Both the United States and Canada have adopted the United Nations system for classifying and identifying hazardous materials transported both internationally and domestically. Under this system, nine hazard classes are used to categorize hazardous materials. The THIRD class is:
A. Explosives.
B. Gases.
C. Radioactive substances.
D. Flammable liquids.
D. Flammable liquids.
887
The United States military has established its own marking system for hazardous materials and chemicals. The symbol which is octagonal shaped and has the number one in the center is used to represent a:
A. Mass detonation hazard.
B. Explosive with fragment hazard.
C. Moderate fire hazard.
D. Mass fire hazard.
A. Mass detonation hazard.
888
A breach is defined as a container that is stressed beyond its limits of recovery and thus opens up or breaches. Different containers will breach different ways. There are five types of breaches. Which type of breach is associated with drums or tank cars?
A. Disintegration.
B. Runaway cracking.
C. Attachments (closures) open up.
D. Split or tear.
B. Runaway cracking.
889
The process for establishing the initial isolation distance is covered in the ERG. The ERG contains a "protective action distances" section in the back part of the book. The smallest isolation distance given for any chemical is _____ .
A. 250 feet.
B. 350 feet.
C. 500 feet.
D. 750 feet.
C. 500 feet.
890
The properties of the material, the extent of the release, the condition of the container dictate what control techniques are necessary. Which of the following actions is NOT a primary objective for the first responders dealing with a Class 4 material?
A. Extinguishment.
B. Control the fire by extinguishment.
C. Let the material burn until it is consumed.
D. Isolate and confine the material until it is consumed.
A. Extinguishment.
891
Corrosives can be either acids or bases. The following pH number would be an example of a corrosive base.
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
D. 9
892
The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA), commonly known as the Superfund Act was amended by the Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA). SARA reflected the EPA's experience in administrating the complex Superfund program during its first 6 years, and made several important changes and additions to the program. SARA was responsible for the following action:
A. Provided for liability of persons responsible for releases of hazardous waste at the sites.
B. Stressed the importance of permanent remedies and innovated treatment technologies in cleaning up hazardous waste sites.
C. Established a trust fund to provide for cleanup when no responsible party could be identified.
D. Provided for liability of persons responsible for releases of hazardous waste at these sites.
B. Stressed the importance of permanent remedies and innovated treatment technologies in cleaning up hazardous waste sites. (SARA)
-----------------------------------------
A. Provided for liability of persons responsible for releases of hazardous waste at the sites. (CERCLA)
C. Established a trust fund to provide for cleanup when no responsible party could be identified. (CERCLA)
D. Provided for liability of persons responsible for releases of hazardous waste at these sites. (CERCLA)
893
Many poisons (toxins) have fast acting, acute toxic effects while others may have chronic effects that aren't manifested for many years. Which of the following is example of a hematotoxic agent?
A. Alcohol.
B. Sarin.
C. Parathion.
D. Benzene.
D. Benzene.
894
Cargo tank trucks are commonly used to transport hazardous materials via roadways. One cargo tank truck type is a MC306 and DOT406. It carries materials at a vapor pressure less than 3 PSI. It has elliptical aluminum tank construction, longitudinal rollover protection, valve assembly and unloading control box under the tank, and vapor recovery on right side and rear, manway assemblies, and vapor recovery valves on top of each compartment. This tank truck type is:
A. Low-pressure chemical tank.
B. Corrosive liquid tank.
C. Non-pressure liquid tank.
D. Cryogenic liquid tank.
C. Non-pressure liquid tank.
895
When considering strategies, the IC determines the mode of operation: nonintervention, defensive, or offensive. An example of a defensive operation is:
A. The facility or LERP calls for it based on a preincident evaluation of the hazards present at the site.
B. Serious container damage threatens a massive release.
C. The situation is clearly beyond the capabilities of first responders.
D. Explosions are imminent.
A. The facility or LERP calls for it based on a preincident evaluation of the hazards present at the site.
896
Which of the following actions is a defensive confinement action?
A. Dissolution.
B. Adsorption.
C. Ventilation.
D. Dispersion.
B. Adsorption.
897
Level B protection requires a garment that includes an SCBA or a supplied air respirator and provides protection against splashes from a hazardous chemical. An optional ensemble requirement is:
A. Chemical resistant outer gloves.
B. Chemical resistant inner gloves.
C. Hardhat (outside or on top of non-encapsulating suits or underneath encapsulating units).
D. Disposable chemical resistant outer boot covers.
D. Disposable chemical resistant outer boot covers.
898
Chemical methods are used to make the containment less harmful by changing it through some kind of chemical process. An example of chemical decontamination methods is:
A. Solidification.
B. Adsorption.
C. Absorption.
D. Dilution.
A. Solidification.
899
There are several agencies that are involved with hazardous materials. The agency described as: "Manages the national nuclear research and defense programs, including the storage of high-level nuclear waste) is known as:
A. Department of justice.
B. Department of energy.
C. Department of Homeland Security.
D. Department of defense.
B. Department of energy.
900
Solubility in water is a term expressing the percentage of a material (by weight) that will dissolve in water at ambient temperature. When a non-water-soluble liquid hydrocarbon, such as _____ combines with water, the two liquids remain separate.
A. MEK.
B. Alcohol.
C. Pentane.
D. Methanol.
C. Pentane.
901
Covered hopper cars are often used to transport dry bulk materials such as:
A. Coal.
B. Sand.
C. Gravel.
D. Cement.
D. Cement.
902
Cargo tank truck types are MC 312 and DOT/TC 412. These tanks carry corrosive liquids, usually acids. Pressures may range up to _____ .
A. 75 PSI.
B. 40 PSI.
C. 25 PSI.
D. 22 PSI.
A. 75 PSI.
903
As a container is breached, it releases its materials on exposures: people, environment, and property. In evaluating the severity of exposures, consider the hazards presented, concentration of material and duration of exposure. Contacts are associated with general timeframes. The correct timeframe that would be categorized as "short-term" would be:
A. Milliseconds.
B. Seconds.
C. Hours.
D. Days.
C. Hours.
904
Which of the following statements is correct regarding non-encapsulating suits?
A. Allows the body to release heat and avoid heat stress.
B. Provides full body coverage including the head and neck.
C. Protects against liquids and dusts but not against gases and vapors.
D. Impairs work mobility, vision, and communication.
C. Protects against liquids and dusts but not against gases and vapors.
905
Explosives are packaged in numerous configurations and quantities. _____ are packaged in multi-walled paper bags similar to cement sacks. The bags contained moisture-resistant plastic liners and usually have closures that are sewn together.
A. Black powder.
B. Emulsions.
C. Detonators.
D. Ammonium nitrate and fuel oil.
D. Ammonium nitrate and fuel oil.
906
A flame impinging directly onto a tank shell of a large highway tank truck or rail tank car quickly weakens the metal. A minimum of _____ must be played on each tank at the point of flame impingement.
A. 250 GPM.
B. 500 GPM.
C. 750 GPM.
D. 1000 GPM.
B. 500 GPM.
907
Nerve agents attack the nervous system by affecting the transmission of impulses and are the most toxic of the known chemical warfare agents. "Soman" is described as:
A. Usually low volatility persistent chemical agent that is absorbed to skin contact or inhaled as a gas or aerosol.
B. Usually moderately volatile chemical agent that can be inhaled absorbed through skin contact.
C. Low volatility persistent chemical agent that is absorbed through skin contact and inhaled as a gas or aerosol.
D. Usually volatile, non-persistent chemical agent mainly inhaled.
B. Usually moderately volatile chemical agent that can be inhaled absorbed through skin contact. (Soman)
________________________________
A. Usually low volatility persistent chemical agent that is absorbed to skin contact or inhaled as a gas or aerosol. (Tabun)
C. Low volatility persistent chemical agent that is absorbed through skin contact and inhaled as a gas or aerosol. (Cyclohexyl sarin)
D. Usually volatile, non-persistent chemical agent mainly inhaled. (Sarin)
908
Vapor pressure is the pressure exerted by a saturated vapor above its own liquid in a closed container, or more simply, it is the pressure produced or exerted by the vapors released by a liquid. The following statement is correct regarding vapor pressure.
A. The lower the temperature of a substance, the higher the vapor pressure will be.
B. The higher the temperature of a substance, the higher the vapor pressure will be.
C. The lower the boiling point of a substance, the lower the vapor pressure will be.
D. The higher the boiling point of a substance, the higher the vapor pressure will be.
B. The higher the temperature of a substance, the higher the vapor pressure will be.
909
US Department of Transportation (DOT) defines an elevated temperature material as one that when offered for transportation or transported in bulk packaging in it's solid phase and at a temperature at or above _____ .
A. 464°F
B. 350°F
C. 250°F
D. 212°F
A. 464°F
910
Many poisons have a fast acting, acute toxic effects while others have chronic effects that aren't manifested for many years. Nephrotoxic agents such as _____ effect kidneys.
A. Arsine.
B. Halogenated hydrocarbons.
C. Carbon Tetrachloride.
D. Organophosphates.
B. Halogenated hydrocarbons.
911
Teratogens are substances or agents that are capable of causing development abnormalities in utero; another words, exposure to these substances by a pregnant female can result in malformations in her fetus. A material classified as a teratogen is:
A. Chlorinated hydrocarbons.
B. Isocyanates.
C. Ethylene oxide.
D. Ethyl alcohol.
D. Ethyl alcohol.
912
Tank cars carry the bulk of the hazardous materials transported by rail. These tank cars are divided into three main categories. Pressure tankcars typically transport hazardous materials including flammable, nonflammable, and poison gases at pressures greater than 25 PSI, and have capacities ranging from 4,000 to _____ gallons.
A. 35,000.
B. 40,000.
C. 45,000.
D. 50,000.
C. 45,000.
913
Ton containers are tanks that have capacities of one short ton or approximately 2000 pounds. Typically stored on their sides, the ends of the containers are convex or concave. Ton containers commonly contain:
A. Gasoline.
B. Chlorine.
C. Methanol.
D. Toluene.
B. Chlorine.
914
All shipments of radioactive material (sometimes called RAM), must be packaged and transported according to strict regulations. According to the US department of Energy, the type of radioactive material most commonly shipped (54.5%) are:
A. Nuclear fuel.
B. Uranium ores/compounds.
C. Medical/research (including radioisotopes).
D. Radioactive waste.
C. Medical/research (including radioisotopes).
915
Recently developed AR-AFFF concentrates are available in 1 and 3% formulations: use at 1% for hydrocarbons spills that are _____ or less in depth, and 3% for hydrocarbons spills that are more than _____ in depth.
A. 4 inches.
B. 2 inches.
C. 1 inch.
D. 1/2 inch.
C. 1 inch.
916
Normally, the last strategic goals for the proper management of a hazardous materials emergency are the recovery and termination efforts. It is important to remember that there is a distinct difference between these functions. Which of the following is a goal of the termination effort?
A. Debriefing personnel before they leave the scene.
B. Return the equipment and personnel of all involved agencies to the condition they were in before the incident.
C. Return the operational area to a safe condition.
D. Complete the after-action analysis.
D. Complete the after-action analysis.
917
Blood agents are chemical asphyxiants because they interfere with oxygen utilization at the cellular level. _____ is a colorless, non-irritating toxic gas that has a mild garlic odor that can only be detected at levels higher than those necessary to cause poisoning.
A. Tabun.
B. Sarin.
C. Soman.
D. Arsine.
D. Arsine.
918
IMPORTANT: According to Haz book decon showers are to be _____ volume and _____ pressure. (The practice exams has had this incorrect on several questions, so it is important to know it is always _____ volume and _____ pressure. )
```
A. High, high.
B. High, low.
C. Low, low.
D. Low, high.
D.
```
B. High, low.
________________________________
HIGH-VOLUME, LOW-PRESSURE
919
Hazardous material incidents are not infrequent occurrences. It is likely that all emergency first responders will have to deal with hazardous materials at some point in their careers. Records have shown the majority of hazmat incidents involve the following products... the exception is:
A. Petroleum products, paint products, resins, adhesives, etc. (Flammable/combustible liquids).
B. Sulfuric acid, hydrochloric acid, sodium hydroxide, etc. (Corrosives).
C. Anhydrous ammonia.
D. Chlorine.
E. Argon.
E. Argon. (FALSE)
920
Hazardous material incidents are not infrequent occurrences. It is likely that all emergency first responders will have to deal with hazardous materials at some point in their careers. Records have shown the majority of hazmat incidents involve certain products. One of these products is:
A. Argon.
B. Anhydrous ammonia.
C. Co2.
D. Nitrogen.
B. Anhydrous ammonia.
921
Exposures to poisons can cause damage to organs and other parts of the body and may even cause death. A hepatotoxic agent affects the liver. An example of a hepatotoxic agent is:
A. Arsine.
B. Trichloroethylene.
C. Sarin.
D. Napthalene.
B. Trichloroethylene.
922
Non-pressure tank cars (known as general service tank cars) transport hazardous and nonhazardous materials with a vapor density below 25 psi at:
A. 45 to 65°F.
B. 75 to 85°F.
C. 105 to 115°F.
D. 145 to 165°F.
C. 105 to 115°F.
923
_____ transport hazardous and nonhazardous materials with vapor pressures below 25 psi at 105 to 115°F. Tank test pressures for _____ are 60 and 100 psi. Capacities range from 4,000 to 45,000 gallons.
A. Low-pressure or general service tank cars (sometimes called non-pressure tank cars).
B. Pressure tank cars.
C. Cryogenic liquid tanks.
D. Hopper cars.
A. Low-pressure or general service tank cars (sometimes called non-pressure tank cars).
924
_____ typically transport flammable, nonflammable, and poisonous gases at pressures greater than 25 psi at 68°F. They also transport flammable liquids and liquefied compressed gases. Tank test pressures from these tank cars range from 100 to 600 psi. Capacities range from 4,000 to 45,000 gallons.
A. Low-pressure or general service tank cars (sometimes called non-pressure tank cars).
B. Pressure tank cars.
C. Cryogenic liquid tanks.
D. Hopper cars.
B. Pressure tank cars.
925
In GEBMO, the dispersion of material is sometimes referred to as engulfment. The path of the product, energy, and container travel depend on its form and physical characteristics. The dispersion pattern _____ , is described as: "Three-dimensional (including depth) slow-flowing liquid dispersion."
A. Pool.
B. Plume.
C. Cone.
D. Stream.
A. Pool.
926
An initial symptom of hypothermia is:
A. Slurred speech.
B. Irrational behavior.
C. Hibernation state.
D. Lethargy.
D. Lethargy.
927
In _____ incidents would be where the immediate concern is to confine the spread and not dilute the material, and the primary objective is to turn off the flow, isolate the area, and denied entry.
A. Flammable/combustible liquid spill, no fire.
B. Corrosive spill, no fire.
C. Spontaneously combustible spill, no fire.
D. Flammable solid spill, no fire.
B. Corrosive spill, no fire.
928
The CDC divides potential biological agents into three categories: A, B, and C. A subset Category B agent includes pathogens that are foodborne or waterborne. Category B agents include those that pose a risk in the following way:
A. Low morbility and low mortality.
B. Moderate morbility and low mortality.
C. High mortality and high morbidity.
D. High mortality and moderate morbidity.
B. Moderate morbility and low mortality.
929
Blister agents (vesicants) burn and blister the skin or any other part of the body they contact. An agent categorized as a blister agent is:
A. Sarin.
B. Tabun.
C. Lewisite.
D. Soman.
C. Lewisite.
-----------------------------------------
Other Blister Agents include:
Sulfur mustard, nitrogen mustard, phosgene oxime
930
In the ERG, if a material in the yellow or blue index is highlighted, it means:
A. Materials may undergo violent polymerization if subjected to heat or contamination.
B. The material is explosive.
C. That it releases gases that are toxic inhalation hazards.
D. The material is extremely flammable.
C. That it releases gases that are toxic inhalation hazards.
931
A small spill is approximately _____ or less and a large spills are _____ or more. However a small spill is also one that involves a single, small package (up to a _____ drum, small cylinder, or small leak from a large package. Whereas a large spill is one that involves a spill from a large package or multiple spills from many small packages.
A. 53 gallons / 55 gallon drum
932
Solubility in water is a term expressing the percentage of a material by weight that will dissolve in water at ambient temperatures. The following statement is TRUE regarding water solubility.
A. Water-soluble chemicals penetrate into the lower respiratory system, causing delayed symptoms that include breathing difficulties, pulmonary edema, and coughing up blood.
B. Water-soluble chemicals usually caused early upper respiratory tract irritation, resulting in coughing and throat irritation.
C. Polar solvent liquids do not mix easily with water.
D. Hydrocarbon liquids mix easily with water.
B. Water-soluble chemicals usually caused early upper respiratory tract irritation, resulting in coughing and throat irritation. (TRUE)
________________________________
A. "Water-soluble" chemicals penetrate into the lower respiratory system, causing delayed symptoms that include breathing difficulties, pulmonary edema, and coughing up blood. (FALSE - "Partially water-soluble")
933
Which of the following statements is most correct regarding nerve agent "V-agent (VX)".
A. VX vapors are heavier than air.
B. VX is a non-persistent chemical agent.
C. VX is a volatile chemical agent.
D. Considering the very low vapor pressures, VX will travel great distances under normal conditions.
A. VX vapors are heavier than air. (TRUE - with all nerve agents)
934
Phosgene was used as a chemical weapon for the first time in World War I, and it accounted for the majority of all chemical fatalities in that war. The following statement is TRUE regarding phosgene:
A. Phosgene is a nonflammable gas heavier than air.
B. Phosgene is a nonflammable gas lighter than air.
C. Phosgene is a flammable gas heavier than air.
D. Phosgene is a flammable gas lighter than air.
A. Phosgene is a nonflammable gas heavier than air. (TRUE)
935
There are a number of processes that render etiological containment harmless. _____ is described as: "Kills most of the microorganisms present."
A. Sterilization.
B. Disinfection.
C. Sanitization.
D. Neutralization.
B. Disinfection. "Most"
936
There are a number of processes that render etiological containment harmless. _____ is described as: "Kills all microorganisms present."
A. Sterilization.
B. Disinfection.
C. Sanitization.
D. Neutralization.
A. Sterilization. "all"
937
There are a number of processes that render etiological containment harmless. _____ is described as: "Reduces the number of microorganisms to a safe level."
A. Sterilization.
B. Disinfection.
C. Sanitization.
D. Neutralization.
C. Sanitization. (Ex: washing hands)
938
One type of ionizing radiation is described as: "Commonly emitted in the radioactive decay of the heaviest radioactive elements such as uranium. They can be harmful if the material is ingested or inhaled." This type of radiation is known as:
A. Neutron radiation.
B. Beta radiation.
C. Gamma radiation.
D. Alpha radiation.
D. Alpha radiation.
939
The UN system, a Class 5 material is:
A. Gases.
B. Corrosive substances.
C. Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides.
D. Explosives.
C. Oxidizing substances and organic peroxides.
940
A DOT placard is a diamond shape, color-coded sign provided by shippers identify the material in transportation containers. The following statement is TRUE regarding DOT placarding:
A. The hazard class or division number corresponding to the primary or subsidiary hazard class of a material must be displayed in the lower corner of a placard.
B. Private agricultural vehicles must be placarded as they carry significant quantities of hazardous materials.
C. Class I materials always must be placarded.
D. Infectious substances must be placarded.
A. The hazard class or division number corresponding to the primary or subsidiary hazard class of a material must be displayed in the lower corner of a placard. (TRUE)
941
The dispersion pattern described as: "Irregular shaped pattern of an airborne hazardous material where whether and terrain influence the downrange course from the point of release" is known as:
A. Cloud.
B. Plume.
C. Hemispheric.
D. Cone.
B. Plume.
942
The US&R Has designated audio signals for use on scene. One long horn blast (three seconds) indicates:
A. Cease operations/all quiet.
B. Evacuate the area.
C. Resume operations.
A. Cease operations/all quiet.
943
The US&R Has designated audio signals for use on scene. Three short blasts (one second each) indicates:
A. Cease operations/all quiet.
B. Evacuate the area.
C. Resume operations.
B. Evacuate the area.
944
The US&R Has designated audio signals for use on scene. One long and one short blast indicates:
A. Cease operations/all quiet.
B. Evacuate the area.
C. Resume operations.
C. Resume operations.
945
NFPA 1994 sets performance requirements for protective ensembles used in response to CBRN terrorism incidents. Class _____ ensembles are intended for use at terrorism incidents involving vapor or liquid chemical or particulate hazards where the concentrations are at or above IDLH level requiring the use of CBRN compliant self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA).
A. 4.
B. 3.
C. 2.
D. 1.
C. 2. (Class 2 dose NOT totally encapsulate the wearer and self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA).)
946
NFPA 1994 sets performance requirements for protective ensembles used in response to CBRN terrorism incidents. Class _____ ensembles are intended for use at terrorism incidents involving low levels of paper or liquid chemical or particulate hazards where the concentrations are below IDLH, permitting the use of a CPRN compliant air purifying respirator (APR) or power air purifying respirator (PAPR).
A. 4.
B. 3.
C. 2.
D. 1.
B. 3.
947
NFPA 1994 sets performance requirements for protective ensembles used in response to CBRN terrorism incidents. Class _____ ensembles are intended for use at terrorism incidents involving biological or radiological particulate hazards where the concentrations are below IDLH levels permitting the use of CBRN compliant APR or PAPR. The ensembles are not tested for protection against chemical vapor or liquid permeability, gas-tightness, or liquid integrity.
A. 4.
B. 3.
C. 2.
D. 1.
A. 4.
948
NFPA 1994 sets performance requirements for protective ensembles used in response to CBRN terrorism incidents. Class _____ ensembles are the highest level PPE protection. They encapsulate the wearer and self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). They are intended for use at terrorism incidents involving vapor or liquid chemical or particulate hazards where concentrations are at or above IDLH levels.
A. 4.
B. 3.
C. 2.
D. 1.
D. 1.
949
Exposure limits and other hazard measurements are expressed in terms of maximum dose or concentration. The unit for expressing concentrations of dusts, gases, or mists in air is:
A. Milligrams per liter (mg/l).
B. Micrograms of materials per liter of air (ug/L).
C. Milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3).
D. Milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg).
C. Milligrams per cubic meter (mg/m3).
950
The US FBI identifies four response phases at criminal hazmat/WMD incidents. The "Operational phase" is described as:
A. Life safety objectives are met and the scene is stabilized and secured. While the first priority is safety, responders should take measures to not disturb the scene.
B. Evidence is recovered and packaged for transport, and the crime scene is processed.
C. Law-enforcement removes hostile threats, booby-traps are neutralized, and explosives are removed.
D. Operations to mitigate any remaining hazards are conducted in order to bring the scene back to a safe condition.
A. Life safety objectives are met and the scene is stabilized and secured. While the first priority is safety, responders should take measures to not disturb the scene. (Operational phase 2)
951
The US FBI identifies four response phases at criminal hazmat/WMD incidents. The "Tactical phase" is described as:
A. Life safety objectives are met and the scene is stabilized and secured. While the first priority is safety, responders should take measures to not disturb the scene.
B. Evidence is recovered and packaged for transport, and the crime scene is processed.
C. Law-enforcement removes hostile threats, booby-traps are neutralized, and explosives are removed.
D. Operations to mitigate any remaining hazards are conducted in order to bring the scene back to a safe condition.
C. Law-enforcement removes hostile threats, booby-traps are neutralized, and explosives are removed. (Tactical phase 1)
952
The US FBI identifies four response phases at criminal hazmat/WMD incidents. The "Crime scene phase" is described as:
A. Life safety objectives are met and the scene is stabilized and secured. While the first priority is safety, responders should take measures to not disturb the scene.
B. Evidence is recovered and packaged for transport, and the crime scene is processed.
C. Law-enforcement removes hostile threats, booby-traps are neutralized, and explosives are removed.
D. Operations to mitigate any remaining hazards are conducted in order to bring the scene back to a safe condition.
B. Evidence is recovered and packaged for transport, and the crime scene is processed. (Crime scene phase 3)
953
The US FBI identifies four response phases at criminal hazmat/WMD incidents. The "Remediation phase" is described as:
A. Life safety objectives are met and the scene is stabilized and secured. While the first priority is safety, responders should take measures to not disturb the scene.
B. Evidence is recovered and packaged for transport, and the crime scene is processed.
C. Law-enforcement removes hostile threats, booby-traps are neutralized, and explosives are removed.
D. Operations to mitigate any remaining hazards are conducted in order to bring the scene back to a safe condition.
D. Operations to mitigate any remaining hazards are conducted in order to bring the scene back to a safe condition. (Remediation phase 4)
954
The acronym TRACEMP is used for identifying the hazards faced an emergency incidents. The letters in the acronym indicate the exception is:
```
A. Thermal hazards.
B. Radiological hazards.
C. Asphyxiation hazards.
D. Chemical hazards.
E. Etiological/biological hazards.
F. Mechanical hazards.
G. Physiological hazards.
```
G. Physiological hazards. ( FALSE - the acronym is actually TRACEM and the is no "P" or "Physiological hazards" )
955
Many hazardous materials are carcinogenic (cancer-causing). Examples of known or suspected carcinogenic hazardous materials are... the exception is:
A. Polyvinyl chloride.
B. Ethyl alcohol.
C. Asbestos.
D. Chlorinated hydrocarbons.
B. Ethyl alcohol.
956
In the United States, the four main agencies involved in the regulation of hazardous materials and/or wastes at the federal level are as follows... the exception is:
A. Department of Transportation (DOT).
B. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).
C. Department of Labor (DOL).
D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
E. Nuclear regulatory commission (NRC).
D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). FALSE
957
The first responder should always be looking for clues or indicators that hazardous materials actually are involved in an incident. These clues can be grouped into seven categories. Which of the following is NOT one of the seven clues to the presence of hazardous materials?
A. Occupancy types, locations, and preincident surveys.
B. Container shapes.
C. Transportation placards, labels, and markings.
D. Other markings and colors (non-transportation).
E. MSDS sheets.
F. Written resources.
G. Senses.
H. Monitoring and detection devices.
E. MSDS sheets. (FALSE)
958
The type of packaging used to transport radioactive materials is determined by the activity, type, and form of the material to be shipped. Depending on these factors, radioactive material is shipped in one of several types of containers... the exception is:
```
A. Excepted.
B. Secure.
C. Industrial.
D. Type A.
E. Type B.
F. Type C.
```
B. Secure. (FALSE)
959
A MOT is a hazardous material other than a hazardous waste that is carried on motor vehicles. Placards are not required. Examples of MOT's are... the exception is:
```
A. Hairspray.
B. Insect repellent.
C. Spare batteries.
D. Gasoline.
E. Engine starting fluid.
F. Used motor oil.
```
F. Used motor oil. (FALSE)
960
The EPA regulates the manufacture of labeling of pesticides. Each EPA label must contain the manufacturer's name for the pesticide and one of the following signal words: DANGER/POISON, WARNING, or CAUTION. The signal word DANGER/POISON is used for:
A. Highly toxic materials.
B. Moderate toxicity.
C. Relatively low toxicity.
D. Potentially lethal materials.
A. Highly toxic materials.
961
The EPA regulates the manufacture of labeling of pesticides. Each EPA label must contain the manufacturer's name for the pesticide and one of the following signal words: DANGER/POISON, WARNING, or CAUTION. The signal word WARNING is used for:
A. Highly toxic materials.
B. Moderate toxicity.
C. Relatively low toxicity.
D. Potentially lethal materials.
B. Moderate toxicity.
962
The EPA regulates the manufacture of labeling of pesticides. Each EPA label must contain the manufacturer's name for the pesticide and one of the following signal words: DANGER/POISON, WARNING, or CAUTION. The signal word CAUTION is used for:
A. Highly toxic materials.
B. Moderate toxicity.
C. Relatively low toxicity.
D. Potentially lethal materials.
C. Relatively low toxicity.
963
The initial isolation distance is the distance within which all personnel should be considered for evacuation in all directions from an actual hazardous material spill/leak source, according to the ERG. If hazardous materials are on fire or have been leaking for longer than _____ , this ERG table does not apply. Seek a more detailed information on the involved material on the appropriate orange-boarded pages in the ERG.
A. 15 minutes.
B. 30 minutes.
C. 60 minutes.
D. 90 minutes.
B. 30 minutes.
964
Air contaminants are commonly classified as either particulate or gas and vapor contaminants. The most common particulate contaminants include dusts, fumes, mists, aerosols, and fibers. A "fume" is described as:
A. Suspension of particles that form when material from a volatilized solid condenses in cool air.
B. Finally divided liquid suspended in the atmosphere.
C. Form of the mist characterized by highly respirable, minute liquid particles.
D. Gaseous form of a substance that is normally in a solid or liquid state at room temperature and pressure.
A. Suspension of particles that form when material from a volatilized solid condenses in cool air. "Fume"
________________________________
B. Finally divided liquid suspended in the atmosphere. "Mist"
C. Form of the mist characterized by highly respirable, minute liquid particles. "Aerosol"
D. Gaseous form of a substance that is normally in a solid or liquid state at room temperature and pressure. "Vapor"
965
There may be a variety of markings on railroad tank cars that responders can use to gain valuable information about the tank and its contents. Dedicated railcars transporting a single material must have the name of the material painted on the car. Likewise, more than _____ hazardous materials transported by rail are required to have their names stenciled on the sides of the car.
A. 640
B. 325
C. 250
D. 13
C. 250
966
The three sides of a reactivity triangle are... the exception is:
A. Oxygen.
B. Chemical reaction.
C. Activation energy.
D. Reducing agent.
B. Chemical reaction. (FALSE)
967
Most biological agents and toxins fall under the United Nations/US Department of Transportation (UN/DOT) Hazard Class 6.2. The CDC divides potential biological agents into three categories. Category _____ agents have the highest priority because they include organisms that pose a risk to national security in the following ways:
•Can be easily disseminated or transported person-to-person. •Cause HIGH mortality and subsequently have a major public health effect.
•Might cause public panic and social disruption.
•Require special action for public-health preparedness.
A. Category A.
B. Category B.
C. Category C.
D. Category D.
A. Category A.
968
Most biological agents and toxins fall under the United Nations/US Department of Transportation (UN/DOT) Hazard Class 6.2. The CDC divides potential biological agents into three categories. Category _____ agents include pathogens that are foodborne or waterborne. They include those that pose a risk in the following ways:
• Are moderately easy to disseminate.
• Cause MODERATE morbidity and LOW mortality.
• Require specific enhancements of CDC's diagnostic capacity and enhanced disease surveillance.
A. Category A.
B. Category B.
C. Category C.
D. Category D.
B. Category B.
969
Most biological agents and toxins fall under the United Nations/US Department of Transportation (UN/DOT) Hazard Class 6.2. The CDC divides potential biological agents into three categories. Category _____ agents include emerging pathogens that could be engineered for mass dissemination in the future because they pose risks in the following ways:
• Availability.
• Ease of production and dissemination.
• "Potential" for HIGH morbidity and mortality and major health effect.
A. Category A.
B. Category B.
C. Category C.
D. Category D.
C. Category C.
970
Most biological agents and toxins fall under the United Nations/US Department of Transportation (UN/DOT) Hazard Class 6.2. The CDC divides potential biological agents into three categories. CDC recommends that other less critical agents also received attention for bioterrorism preparedness. These categories include new or emerging pathogens. Examples of biological agents for Category _____ are: Smallpox; anthrax; plague; botulism; tularemia; hemorrhagic fever.
A. Category A.
B. Category B.
C. Category C.
D. Category D.
B. Category B.
971
Most biological agents and toxins fall under the United Nations/US Department of Transportation (UN/DOT) Hazard Class 6.2. The CDC divides potential biological agents into three categories. CDC recommends that other less critical agents also received attention for bioterrorism preparedness. These categories include new or emerging pathogens. Examples of Category _____ agents are as follows: nipah virus; hantavirus; tickborne hemorrhagic fever virus; tickborne encephalitis virus; yellow fever virus; multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (mycobacterium tuberculosis).
A. Category A.
B. Category B.
C. Category C.
D. Category D.
C. Category C.
972
In addition to teargas, mace, pepper spray, and other irritants, the following agents are sometimes categorized as riot control agents (vomiting agents)... the exception is:
A. Anticholinergics.
B. Diphenylchorarsine.
C. Diphenylaminearsine chloride.
D. Diphenylcyanarsine.
A. Anticholinergics. (FALSE - Incapacitant)
973
An Incapacitant is a chemical agent that produces a temporary disabling condition that persist for hours to days after exposure has occurred (unlike that produced by most riot control agents). Examples include... the exception is:
A. Anticholinergics (CNS depressant).
B. Lysergic acid diethylamide or LSD (CNS stimulant).
C. Diphenylchorarsine (irritant).
C. Diphenylchorarsine (irritant). (FALSE - Vomiting agent)
974
The expanding gases of an explosion move outward in a circle from the point of detonation in a wave, compressing the surrounding atmosphere into a shock front. The pressure wave formed by the expanding gases is sometimes called the blast pressure wave. There are actually two phases to the blast pressure wave: the positive pressure phase and the negative pressure phase, sometimes called the suction phase. The negative-pressure phase of an explosion last about _____ than the positive-pressure phase.
A. Two times longer.
B. Three times longer.
C. Four times longer.
D. Five times longer.
B. Three times longer.
975
A chemical attack is the deliberate release of a toxic gas, liquid, or solid that can poison people in that environment. Soman is an example of a _____ .
A. Choking agent.
B. Blood agent.
C. Blister agent.
D. Nerve agent.
D. Nerve agent.
976
There are several different devices designed to expose people to radiation or to disburse radiological material. They are sometimes referred to as dirty bombs because the contamination they spread could ruin property, crops, and livestock and cause large areas to become unusable. These radiological devices include: radiation-emitting devices (REDs); radiological-dispersal devices (RDDs); and radiological-dispersal weapons (RDWs). An RDD is described as:
A. A weapon typically owned by a country/state and is strictly controlled and highly secure.
B. Any device, including weapons and equipment, other than a nuclear explosive device, specifically designed to employ radioactive material by disseminating it to cause destruction, damage, or injury by means of the radiation produced by the decay of such material.
C. A powerful gamma emitting radiation source that can be placed in a high-profile location, such as a high-traffic urban area, entertainment area, or a shopping complex which could expose a large number of people to the intense radiation source.
D. Used to target specific individuals and/or harm a limited number of people over a long period of time.
E. Can use inexpensive and common items such as pressurized containers, building ventilation systems, fans, and mechanical devices to spread radioactive contamination. Dispersal by these means would require putting the radioactive material into a dispersible form (powder or liquid) and would require large amounts of radioactive material to pose a hazard once disbursed.
B. Any device, including weapons and equipment, other than a nuclear explosive device, specifically designed to employ radioactive material by disseminating it to cause destruction, damage, or injury by means of the radiation produced by the decay of such material. (RDD - More simply stated, and RDD is a device intended to disburse radioactive material over a large area, but is not capable of producing a nuclear yield.)
________________________________
A. A weapon typically owned by a country/state and is strictly controlled and highly secure. (Nuclear weapon)
C. A powerful gamma emitting radiation source that can be placed in a high-profile location, such as a high-traffic urban area, entertainment area, or a shopping complex which could expose a large number of people to the intense radiation source. (RED)
D. Used to target specific individuals and/or harm a limited number of people over a long period of time. (also RED)
E. Can use inexpensive and common items such as pressurized containers, building ventilation systems, fans, and mechanical devices to spread radioactive contamination. Dispersal by these means would require putting the radioactive material into a dispersible form (powder or liquid) and would require large amounts of radioactive material to pose a hazard once disbursed. (RDW)
977
There are several different devices designed to expose people to radiation or to disburse radiological material. They are sometimes referred to as dirty bombs because the contamination they spread could ruin property, crops, and livestock and cause large areas to become unusable. These radiological devices include: radiation-emitting devices (REDs); radiological-dispersal devices (RDDs); and radiological-dispersal weapons (RDWs). An RED is described as:
A. A weapon typically owned by a country/state and is strictly controlled and highly secure.
B. Any device, including weapons and equipment, other than a nuclear explosive device, specifically designed to employ radioactive material by disseminating it to cause destruction, damage, or injury by means of the radiation produced by the decay of such material.
C. A powerful gamma emitting radiation source that can be placed in a high-profile location, such as a high-traffic urban area, entertainment area, or a shopping complex which could expose a large number of people to the intense radiation source. Used to target specific individuals and/or harm a limited number of people over a long period of time.
D. Can use inexpensive and common items such as pressurized containers, building ventilation systems, fans, and mechanical devices to spread radioactive contamination. Dispersal by these means would require putting the radioactive material into a dispersible form (powder or liquid) and would require large amounts of radioactive material to pose a hazard once disbursed.
C. A powerful gamma emitting radiation source that can be placed in a high-profile location, such as a high-traffic urban area, entertainment area, or a shopping complex which could expose a large number of people to the intense radiation source. Used to target specific individuals and/or harm a limited number of people over a long period of time. (RED)
________________________________
A. A weapon typically owned by a country/state and is strictly controlled and highly secure. (Nuclear weapon)
B. Any device, including weapons and equipment, other than a nuclear explosive device, specifically designed to employ radioactive material by disseminating it to cause destruction, damage, or injury by means of the radiation produced by the decay of such material. (RDD)
D. Can use inexpensive and common items such as pressurized containers, building ventilation systems, fans, and mechanical devices to spread radioactive contamination. Dispersal by these means would require putting the radioactive material into a dispersible form (powder or liquid) and would require large amounts of radioactive material to pose a hazard once disbursed. (RDW)
978
There are several different devices designed to expose people to radiation or to disburse radiological material. They are sometimes referred to as dirty bombs because the contamination they spread could ruin property, crops, and livestock and cause large areas to become unusable. These radiological devices include: radiation-emitting devices (REDs); radiological-dispersal devices (RDDs); and radiological-dispersal weapons (RDWs). An RDW is described as:
A. A weapon typically owned by a country/state and is strictly controlled and highly secure.
B. Any device, including weapons and equipment, other than a nuclear explosive device, specifically designed to employ radioactive material by disseminating it to cause destruction, damage, or injury by means of the radiation produced by the decay of such material.
C. A powerful gamma emitting radiation source that can be placed in a high-profile location, such as a high-traffic urban area, entertainment area, or a shopping complex which could expose a large number of people to the intense radiation source. Used to target specific individuals and/or harm a limited number of people over a long period of time.
D. Can use inexpensive and common items such as pressurized containers, building ventilation systems, fans, and mechanical devices to spread radioactive contamination. Dispersal by these means would require putting the radioactive material into a dispersible form (powder or liquid) and would require large amounts of radioactive material to pose a hazard once disbursed.
D. Can use inexpensive and common items such as pressurized containers, building ventilation systems, fans, and mechanical devices to spread radioactive contamination. Dispersal by these means would require putting the radioactive material into a dispersible form (powder or liquid) and would require large amounts of radioactive material to pose a hazard once disbursed. (RDW)
________________________________
A. A weapon typically owned by a country/state and is strictly controlled and highly secure. (Nuclear weapon)
B. Any device, including weapons and equipment, other than a nuclear explosive device, specifically designed to employ radioactive material by disseminating it to cause destruction, damage, or injury by means of the radiation produced by the decay of such material. (RDD)
C. A powerful gamma emitting radiation source that can be placed in a high-profile location, such as a high-traffic urban area, entertainment area, or a shopping complex which could expose a large number of people to the intense radiation source. Used to target specific individuals and/or harm a limited number of people over a long period of time. (RED)
979
Riot control agents (sometimes called tear gas or irritating agents) are chemical compounds that temporarily make people unable to function by causing immediate irritation to the eyes, mouth, throat, lungs, and skin. All riots control agents are solids and require dispersion in the form of aerosol particles, usually released by pyrotechnics or a propelled spray with the particles suspended in a liquid. An example of an "incapacitated" is:
A. Lysergic acid diethylamide.
B. Diphenylchorarsine.
C. Diphenylaminearsine chloride.
D. Diphenylcyanarsine.
A. Lysergic acid diethylamide. (aka LSD a CNS stimulant)
________________________________
The other "incapacitant" example is Anticholinergics (CNS depressant)
The others would be considered "vomiting agents".
980
First responders are more likely to encounter homemade or improvised explosive materials rather than military weapons in their day-to-day response activities. Improvised explosive materials are typically made by combining an oxidizer with a fuel. The following are three homemade/improvised explosives... the exception is:
A. Urea nitrate-based.
B. Peroxide-based.
C. Potassium chlorate-based.
D. Cellulose nitrate-based.
D. Cellulose nitrate-based. (FALSE)
________________________________
A. Urea nitrate-based. (Fertilizer-based explosive)
B. Peroxide-based. (Acetone peroxide TATP and HMTD)
C. Potassium chlorate-based. (~83% the powder of TNT)
981
Liquid splash protective clothing must be tested for penetration resistance to the following chemicals... the exception is:
```
A. Acetone.
B. Ethyl acetate.
C. Methanol.
D. Tetrahydrofuran.
E. Acetonitrile.
F. Dimethylformanide.
G. Nitrobenzene.
H. 50% w/w sodium hydroxide.
I. 50% w/w sulfuric acid.
```
C. Methanol. (FALSE)
982
Prolonged exposure to freezing temperatures can result in health problems and serious trench foot, frostbite, and hypothermia. A critical factor to evaluate when working outside in cold weather is:
A. Low temperature.
B. Dampness.
C. Wind chill.
D. Cold water.
C. Wind chill.
983
Decontamination methods can be divided into four categories: wet or dry methods and physical or chemical methods. Examples of chemical methods include... the exception is:
```
A. Adsorption.
B. Sanitization.
C. Sterilization.
D. Solidification.
E. Chemical degradation.
F. Disinfection.
G. Neutralization.
```
A. Adsorption. (FALSE - physical)
984
Decontamination methods can be divided into four categories: wet or dry methods and physical or chemical methods. An example of dry decontamination method is:
A. Adsorption.
B. Absorption.
C. Evaporation.
D. Sterilization.
```
B. Absorption. (Dry)
________________________________
A. Adsorption. (Physical)
B. Absorption. (Dry & Physical)
C. Evaporation. (Physical)
D. Sterilization. (Chemical)
```
985
Decontamination methods can be divided into four categories: wet or dry methods and physical or chemical methods. Examples of physical methods include... the exception is:
```
A. Adsorption.
B. Absorption.
C. Brushing and scraping.
D. Dilution.
E. Evaporation.
F. Isolation and disposal.
G. Washing.
H. Disinfection.
I. Vacuuming.
```
H. Disinfection. (FALSE - chemical)
986
Decontamination methods can be divided into four categories: wet or dry methods and physical or chemical methods. Examples of wet methods include... the exception is:
A. Washing.
B. Flushing.
C. The use of hose stream of safety shower.
D. Dilution.
D. Dilution. (FALSE - considered physical)
987
Decontamination methods can be divided into four categories: wet or dry methods and physical or chemical methods. Examples of dry methods include... the exception is:
```
A. Scraping.
B. Brushing.
C. Vacuuming.
D. Wiping.
E. Absorption.
F. Adsorption.
```
F. Adsorption. (FALSE - Physical)
988
In order to understand the principles behind product control, it is useful to return to the General Hazardous Materials Behavior Model. Container stress can result in a breach or rupture. When the container is breached, it may release its contents.
1) Spill-control tactics are used to contain the product in its original or other container, thereby preventing it from escaping. Most spill-control tactics are offenses, performed by hazardous material technicians and specialist.
2) Leak-control tactics are used to confine a hazardous material that has already been released from its container. These tactics reduce the amount of contact the product makes with people, property, and the environment thereby limiting the amount of potential harm. Leak-control tactics are generally defensive in nature.
3) Fire-control tactics are aimed at extinguishing fires and preventing ignition of flammable materials. Fire-control tactics may be offenses or defensive, depending on the situation.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #3 is true.
D. All three are true.
```
C. #3 is true.
-----------------------------------------
#1 defines Leak-control &
#2 defines Spill-control
```
989
Rather than attempting to confine the dispersion, some defensive control tactics are aimed at reducing the amount of harm caused by material by "diluting the concentration or changing its physical and/or chemical properties". These tactics include the following... the exception is:
```
A. Vapor dispersion.
B. Ventilation.
C. Dispersion.
D. Dilution.
E. Diversion.
F. Dissolution.
G. Neutralization.
```
E. Diversion. (Defensive spill control tactics that "confines" the hazardous material rather than "diluting the concentration or changing its physical/chemical properties".
990
Operations level responders are expected to take protective actions but not to physically stop the release (unless it can be done from a safe location by closing a remote shut off valve). Defensive spill control tactics that "confine" hazardous materials include the following... the exception is:
```
A. Absorption.
B. Adsorption.
C. Blanketing/covering.
D. Dam, dike, diversion, and retention.
E. Vapor suppression.
F. Dispersion.
```
F. Dispersion. (FALSE - doesn't "confine")
991
_____ foams are designed to be used on hydrocarbon fires. This foam is based on hydrolyzed protein solids. _____ foams are also fortified with _____ surfactants. These surfactants allow this concentrate is (oleophobic) which enabled the foam to shed, or separate from, hydrocarbon fuels. The ability to separate from the fuel makes them well suited for subsurface injection.
A. AFFF.
B. Detergent based.
C. Fluoroprotein.
D. Protein.
C. Fluoroprotein.
992
Leak control and containment are generally considered offensive actions. Offensive actions are not to be attempted by personnel trained below the Technician level with two exceptions: The first is turning off a remote valve. The second involves situations involving all of the following... the exception is:
```
A. Gasoline.
B. Diesel.
C. Hydrogen.
D. Liquid petroleum gas (LPG).
E. Natural gas fuels.
```
C. Hydrogen. (FALSE)
993
The US military uses MOPP ensembles to protect against chemical, biological, radiological hazards. MOPP ensembles consist of an overgarment, mask, hood, overboots, and protective gloves. MOPPs provide a number of levels of protection based on threat level, work rate of the mission, temperature and humidity. The levels are listed as:
A. A,B,C,D,E, and F.
B. 1,2,3,4,5,6.
C. 0-4, plus Alpha.
D. I,II,III,IV,V,VI.
C. 0-4, plus Alpha.
(The higher the MOPP #, the greater the protection. MOPP Level Alpha is designed in situations upwind from any threat with little danger of exposure to hazardous vapors.)
994
Colorimetric tubes are known to have an error rate of:
A. 1 to 2%.
B. 3 to 5%.
C. 10 to 20%.
D. 25 to 35%.
D. 25 to 35%.
995
Responders assigned to perform evidence preservation and sampling tasks must be able to identify the investigative authority at hazmat/WMD crimes. The following agencies may investigate incidents involving suspicious letters or packages... the exception is:
A. Postal Inspection Service.
B. FBI.
C. ATF.
D. DEA.
D. DEA. (FALSE)
996
The GEBMO is basically a _____ action that is concerned with potential hazmat emergencies involving containers.
A. Offensive mode.
B. Defensive mode.
C. Offensive/defensive mode.
D. Defensive/offensive.
B. Defensive mode.
997
The 4-step problem solving formula developed by George Polya are:
A. Analyze. Plan. Implement. Evaluate.
B. Observe. Orient. Decide. Act.
C. Understand the problem. Devise a plan. Carry out the plan. Look back.
D. Recognize. Avoid. Isolate. Notify.
C. Understand the problem. Devise a plan. Carry out the plan. Look back.
998
Strategies are divided into three options that relate to modes of operation: defensive, offensive, and nonintervention. The following three incident-based elements affect the selection of strategic mode, and the IC must always have a clear picture of them as the IAP is developed. The three incident-based elements are... the exception is:
A. Value.
B. Time.
C. Size.
D. Resources.
D. Resources. (FALSE)
999
Another term for the warm zone is:
A. Exclusion zone.
B. Contamination reduction zone.
C. Limited access zone.
D. Restricted zone.
B. Contamination reduction zone.
1000
Using time, distance, and shielding to limit exposure to radiation is sometimes referred to as the _____ method or principal.
A. Inverse square law.
B. Reduce exposure below allowable limits.
C. As low as reasonably achievable (ALARA).
D. Minimize your exposure.
C. As low as reasonably achievable (ALARA).
1001
_____ are found on corrosive liquid cargo tanks.
A. Ring stiffeners.
B. Bolted manways.
C. Reefers.
D. Box containers.
A. Ring stiffeners. (Corrosive liquid tanks)
________________________________
B. Bolted manways. (High pressure tanks)
C. Reefers. (Intermodal container / Freight container - Refrigerated intermodal containers)
D. Box containers. (Intermodal container / Freight container - Dry van intermodal containers)
1002
_____ are found on high pressure cargo tanks.
A. Ring stiffeners.
B. Bolted manways.
C. Reefers.
D. Box containers.
B. Bolted manways. (High pressure tanks)
________________________________
A. Ring stiffeners. (Corrosive liquid tanks)
C. Reefers. (Intermodal container / Freight container - Refrigerated intermodal containers)
D. Box containers. (Intermodal container / Freight container - Dry van intermodal containers)
1003
An Intermodal Container is a freight container used interchangeably in multiple modes of transportation such as rail, highway, and ship. They can be divided into two main categories: Freight containers and Tank containers. The following are examples of Freight containers... the exception is:
A. Dry van intermodal containers (Box containers).
B. Refrigerated intermodal containers (Reefers).
C. Open top intermodal containers.
D. Flat intermodal containers of various sorts.
E. Pressure intermodal tanks.
E. Pressure intermodal tanks. (Tank container)
1004
An Intermodal Container is a freight container used interchangeably in multiple modes of transportation such as rail, highway, and ship. They can be divided into two main categories: Freight containers and Tank containers. The following are examples of Tank containers (aka Intermodal tanks)... the exception is:
A. Refrigerated intermodal containers (Reefers).
B. Low-Pressure intermodal tanks (Nonpressure intermodal tanks).
C. Pressure intermodal tanks.
D. Special intermodal tanks such as cryogenic intermodal tanks and tube modules.
A. Refrigerated intermodal containers (Reefers). (Freight container)
1005
Bulk packaging refers to a packaging in which materials are loaded with no intermediate form of containment. This packaging type includes transport vehicle or freight container such as... the exception is:
A. Cargo tank.
B. Railcar.
C. Portable tank.
D. Vessel.
D. Vessel. aka ship (FALSE)
1006
Drums, boxes, carboys, and bags are examples of _____ . Composite packages and combination packages may also be classified as _____ .
```
A. Bulk packaging.
B. Nonbulk packaging.
C. Intermodal containers.
D. Intermediate bulk containers.
E. Ton containers.
```
B. Nonbulk packaging.
1007
This packaging type includes a transport vehicle or freight container such as cargo tank, railcar, or portable tank. Intermediate bulk containers (IBCs) and intermodal (IM) containers are also examples.
```
A. Bulk packaging.
B. Nonbulk packaging.
C. Composite packages.
D. Combination packages.
E. Ton containers.
```
A. Bulk packaging.
1008
_____ are either rigid or flexible portable packaging (other than a cylinder or portable tank) designed for mechanical handling. The maximum capacity is not more than 3 cubic meters (793 gals, or 106 ft3); the minimum capacity is not less than 0.45 cubic meters (119 gals, or 15.9 ft3) or a maximum net mass of not less than 400 kilograms (882 lbs) but no weight limit on solid products.
A. Composite packages.
B. Combination packages.
C. Intermodal containers.
D. Intermediate bulk containers.
D. Intermediate bulk containers.
| Note: IBCs have no weight limit on solid products***
1009
A _____ is a freight or tank container that is used interchangeably in multiple modes of transportation such as rail, highway, and ship.
A. Composite packages.
B. Combination packages.
C. Intermodal containers.
D. Intermediate bulk containers.
C. Intermodal containers.
1010
Packages with an outer packaging and inner receptacle. May be classified as nonbulk packaging.
A. Composite packages.
B. Combination packages.
C. Intermodal containers.
D. Intermediate bulk containers.
A. Composite packages.
1011
Multiple packages grouped together in a single outer container such as bottles of acid packed inside a cardboard box. May be classified as nonbulk packaging.
A. Composite packages.
B. Combination packages.
C. Intermodal containers.
D. Intermediate bulk containers.
B. Combination packages.
1012
Containers that are used to transport smaller quantities of hazardous materials than bulk or IBCs are called "nonbulk packaging". The majority of these incidents occur during highway transport or routine use. Common types of nonbulk packaging containers are listed below. Which type is described as:
* Pressures higher than 40 psi
* Sizes range from lecture bottle size to very large
Contents: Compressed gasses.
```
A. Bags.
B. Carboys and Jerrycans.
C. Cylinders.
D. Drums.
E. Dewar flasks.
```
C. Cylinders.
1013
Containers that are used to transport smaller quantities of hazardous materials than bulk or IBCs are called "nonbulk packaging". The majority of these incidents occur during highway transport or routine use. Common types of nonbulk packaging containers are listed below. Which type is described as:
* Made of glass or plastic
* Often encased in a basket or box
* Sizes vary
Contents: Flammable and combustible liquids, corrosives.
```
A. Bags.
B. Carboys and Jerrycans.
C. Cylinders.
D. Drums.
E. Dewar flasks.
```
B. Carboys and Jerrycans.
1014
Containers that are used to transport smaller quantities of hazardous materials than bulk or IBCs are called "nonbulk packaging". The majority of these incidents occur during highway transport or routine use. Common types of nonbulk packaging containers are listed below. Which type is described as:
* Vacuum insulated
* Made of glass, metal, or plastic with hollow walls from which the air has been removed
* Sizes vary
Contents: Cryogenic liquids, thermoset may contain nonhazardous liquids.
```
A. Bags.
B. Carboys and Jerrycans.
C. Cylinders.
D. Drums.
E. Dewar flasks.
```
E. Dewar flasks.
1015
Containers that are used to transport smaller quantities of hazardous materials than bulk or IBCs are called "nonbulk packaging". The majority of these incidents occur during highway transport or routine use. Common types of nonbulk packaging containers are listed below. Which type is described as:
* Made of metal, fiberboard, plastic, plywood, or other materials
* May have open heads (removable tops) or tight (closed) heads with small openings
* Sizes vary from 55 gallons to 100 gallons.
Contents: Hazardous and nonhazardous liquids and solids.
```
A. Bags.
B. Carboys and Jerrycans.
C. Cylinders.
D. Drums.
E. Dewar flasks.
```
D. Drums.
1016
Containers that are used to transport smaller quantities of hazardous materials than bulk or IBCs are called "nonbulk packaging". The majority of these incidents occur during highway transport or routine use. Common types of nonbulk packaging containers are listed below. Which type is described as:
* Made of paper, plastic, film, textiles, woven materials, or others
* Sizes vary
Contents: Explosives, flammable solids, oxidizers, organic peroxides, fertilizers, pesticides, and other regulated materials.
```
A. Bags.
B. Carboys and Jerrycans.
C. Cylinders.
D. Drums.
E. Dewar flasks.
```
A. Bags.
1017
To be considered "bulk packaging", one of the following criteria must be met:
1) Maximum capacity is greater than _____ as a receptacle for a liquid.
2) Maximum net mass is greater than _____ or maximum capacity is greater than _____ as a receptacle for a solid.
3) Water capacity is _____ or greater as a receptacle for a gas.
1) 119 gallons
2) 882 pounds / 119 gallons
3) 1,001 pounds
1018
To be considered "nonbulk packaging", one of the following criteria must be met:
1) Maximum capacity of _____ or less as a receptacle for a liquid.
2) Maximum net mass of _____ or less and a maximum capacity of _____ or less as a receptacle for a solid.
3) Water capacity of _____ or less as a receptacle for a gas.
1) 119 gallons or less
2) 882 pounds or less / 119 gallons or less
3) 1,000 pounds or less
1019
Containers and aircraft pallets used to consolidate air cargo into a single, transportable unit. Designed and shaped to fit into various decks and compartments of airplanes (commercial cargo planes). May ship hazardous materials that are required to be labeled or placarded.
A. Flexible intermediate bulk container (FIBC).
B. Rigid intermediate bulk container (RIBC).
C. Ton containers.
D. Unit loading devices (ULDs).
D. Unit loading devices (ULDs).
1020
Typically made of steel, aluminum, wood, fiberboard, or plastic; and are designed to be stacked. May be used to carry liquids, fertilizers, solvents, and other chemicals; and they may have capacities up to 400 gallons and pressures up to 100 psi.
A. Flexible intermediate bulk container (FIBC).
B. Rigid intermediate bulk container (RIBC).
C. Ton containers.
D. Unit loading devices (ULDs).
B. Rigid intermediate bulk container (RIBC).
1021
Tanks that have capacities if 1 short ton or 2,000 pounds. Typically stored on their sides, the ends (heads) of the containers are convex or concave and have two valves in the center of one end. Also have pressure-relief devices (fusible plugs) in case of fire or elevated temps. Commonly store chlorine but may also store sulfur dioxide, anhydrous ammonia, or freon.
A. Flexible intermediate bulk container (FIBC).
B. Rigid intermediate bulk container (RIBC).
C. Ton containers.
D. Unit loading devices (ULDs).
C. Ton containers.
1022
Are flexible, collapsible bags or sacks that are used to carry both solid materials and fluids. A common sized supersack can carry the equivalent of four to five 55-gallon drums and may be stacked on top of each other (depending on design).
A. Flexible intermediate bulk container (FIBC).
B. Rigid intermediate bulk container (RIBC).
C. Ton containers.
D. Unit loading devices (ULDs).
A. Flexible intermediate bulk container (FIBC).
aka:
Bulk bags , Bulk sacks, Supersacks, Big bags, Tote bags, or Totes
1023
Natural or depleted uranium or natural thorium would be shipped in:
```
A. Excepted.
B. Industrial.
C. Type A.
D. Type B.
E. Type C.
```
A. Excepted.
1024
Plutonium would be shipped in:
```
A. Excepted.
B. Industrial.
C. Type A.
D. Type B.
E. Type C.
```
E. Type C.
1025
Spent fuel from nuclear power plants would be shipped in:
```
A. Excepted.
B. Industrial.
C. Type A.
D. Type B.
E. Type C.
```
D. Type B.
1026
Slightly contaminated clothing, laboratory samples, and smoke detectors are shipped in:
```
A. Excepted.
B. Industrial.
C. Type A.
D. Type B.
E. Type C.
```
B. Industrial.
1027
Certain regulatory qualified industrial products, soil density meters, cylinders for radiological gasses such as xenon, and radiopharmaceuticals would be shipped in:
```
A. Excepted.
B. Industrial.
C. Type A.
D. Type B.
E. Type C.
```
C. Type A.
1028
Specific avenues of attack at chemical emergencies is to determine the immediate concern and primary objective. The following are all "immediate concerns"... the exception is:
A. Eliminating all ignition sources with an appropriate distance.
B. Denying access to the area.
C. Influencing the incident favorably with available resources.
D. Extinguishing fires and stabilizing the scene.
D. Extinguishing fires and stabilizing the scene. (FALSE - Primary objective)
1029
Specific avenues of attack at chemical emergencies is to determine the immediate concern and primary objective. The following are all "primary objectives"... the exception is:
A. Extinguishing fires and stabilizing the scene.
B. Controlling flammable and/or toxic gas clouds.
C. Stopping leaks by plugging and/or patching.
D. Influencing the incident favorably with available resources.
D. Influencing the incident favorably with available resources. (FALSE - Immediate concern)
1030
Phosgene is a colorless, nonflammable gas that has the odor of:
```
A. Mild garlic odor.
B. Bitter almonds.
C. Pungent, biting odor.
D. Bleach.
E. Freshly cut hay.
```
E. Freshly cut hay. (Phosgene - Choking agent)
________________________________
A. Mild garlic odor. (Arsine - Blood agent)
B. Bitter almonds. (Hydrogen cyanide - Blood agent)
C. Pungent, biting odor. (Cyanogen chloride - Blood agent)
D. Bleach. (Chlorine - Choking agent)
E. Freshly cut hay. (Phosgene - Choking agent)
1031
Cyanogen chloride is a colorless, highly volatile liquid that dissolves readily in organic solvents but is only slightly soluble in water. Its vapors are heavy than air and has a:
```
A. Mild garlic odor.
B. Bitter almonds.
C. Pungent, biting odor.
D. Bleach.
E. Freshly cut hay.
```
C. Pungent, biting odor. (Cyanogen chloride - Blood agent)
________________________________
A. Mild garlic odor. (Arsine - Blood agent)
B. Bitter almonds. (Hydrogen cyanide - Blood agent)
C. Pungent, biting odor. (Cyanogen chloride - Blood agent)
D. Bleach. (Chlorine - Choking agent)
E. Freshly cut hay. (Phosgene - Choking agent)
1032
Arsine gas is formed when arsenic comes in contact with an acid. It is a colorless, nonirritating toxic gas that has a:
```
A. Mild garlic odor.
B. Bitter almonds.
C. Pungent, biting odor.
D. Bleach.
E. Freshly cut hay.
```
A. Mild garlic odor. (Arsine - Blood agent)
________________________________
A. Mild garlic odor. (Arsine - Blood agent)
B. Bitter almonds. (Hydrogen cyanide - Blood agent)
C. Pungent, biting odor. (Cyanogen chloride - Blood agent)
D. Bleach. (Chlorine - Choking agent)
E. Freshly cut hay. (Phosgene - Choking agent)
1033
Hydrogen cyanide is a colorless, highly volatile liquid that is extremely flammable, highly soluble, and stable in water; gas/air mixtures may be explosive. The vapor is less dense than air and has a faint odor, somewhat like:
```
A. Mild garlic odor.
B. Bitter almonds.
C. Pungent, biting odor.
D. Bleach.
E. Freshly cut hay.
```
B. Bitter almonds. (Hydrogen cyanide - Blood agent)
________________________________
A. Mild garlic odor. (Arsine - Blood agent)
B. Bitter almonds. (Hydrogen cyanide - Blood agent)
C. Pungent, biting odor. (Cyanogen chloride - Blood agent)
D. Bleach. (Chlorine - Choking agent)
E. Freshly cut hay. (Phosgene - Choking agent)
1034
Chlorine is a gas heaver than air. It is usually yellow-green in color, is not flammable by itself but can react explosively or form explosive compounds with other chemicals such as turpentine and ammonia. Chlorine can be recognized by its pungent, irritating odor, which is like the odor of:
```
A. Mild garlic odor.
B. Bitter almonds.
C. Pungent, biting odor.
D. Bleach.
E. Freshly cut hay.
```
D. Bleach. (Chlorine - Choking agent)
________________________________
A. Mild garlic odor. (Arsine - Blood agent)
B. Bitter almonds. (Hydrogen cyanide - Blood agent)
C. Pungent, biting odor. (Cyanogen chloride - Blood agent)
D. Bleach. (Chlorine - Choking agent)
E. Freshly cut hay. (Phosgene - Choking agent)
