Fire Inspector Flashcards
A _____ is a rough drawing of a structure, facility, or site used to illustrate existing and special conditions.
A. Field sketch.
B. Plot plan.
C. Floor plan.
D. Elevation view.
A. Field sketch.
The density of liquids in relation to water is known as _______.
A. Vapor density.
B. Specific gravity.
C. Miscible.
D. Solubility.
B. Specific gravity.
Name the three general types of drawings used to show structure, facility, or site information.
- Plot plan
- Floor plan
- Elevation view
Type of drawing used to indicate how buildings or structures are situated with respect to other structures and streets in the area.
A. Field sketch.
B. Plot plan.
C. Floor plan.
D. Elevation view.
B. Plot plan.
Drawing used that shows the layout of individual floors, subfloors, and roofs.
A. Field sketch.
B. Plot plan.
C. Floor plan.
D. Elevation view.
C. Floor plan.
Drawing that shows the side views of structures depicting the number of floors in structures and grades of surrounding ground.
A. Field sketch.
B. Plot plan.
C. Floor plan.
D. Elevation view.
D. Elevation view.
The transfer of heat by the movement of air or liquid is called _____ .
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Passive agents.
B. Convection.
The transfer of heat with in an object or to another object by direct contact; In other words, heat flow through and between solids.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Passive agents.
A. Conduction.
The transmission of energy as an electromagnetic wave (such as lightwaves, radio waves, or X-rays) without an intervening medium.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Passive agents.
C. Radiation.
Transmission of Heat:
Heat can be transferred from one body to another by three mechanisms. They are… the exception is:
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Passive agents.
D. Passive agents.
_____ are materials that absorbs heat but do not participate actively in the combustion reaction. An example could be a well watered shrub; it will be slower to ignite then one that is dehydrated.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Passive agents.
D. Passive agents.
Fire doors rated for _____ hours are used to protect openings for two hour rated fire enclosures.
A. 1 hour
B. 1 1/2 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 2 1/2 hours
B. 1 1/2 hours
Code may also require two _____ hour-rated fire doors to protect an opening in a 4 hour-rated wall.
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hour
C. 3 hour
D. 4 hour
C. 3 hour. (Two 3 hour-rated doors fire doors to protect an opening in a 4 hour-rated wall.)
A ____ hour-rated door may be found being used as a smoke barrier and an opening to a corridor.
A. 1/3 hour.
B. 1/2 hour.
C. 1 hour.
D. 2 hour.
A. 1/3 hour. (rated fire door)
If a fire involves gas escaping from a relief valve, the procedure that would be most correct is:
A. Protect exposures.
B. Do nothing, let it burn.
C. Cool down the tanks with a hose stream.
D. Turn off the valve.
C. Cool down the tanks with a hose stream.
A fire continues to burn, heated gases rise to the ceiling. When a portion of the trap trapped gasses around the ceiling burst into flame, the flames spread across the ceiling until all the heated gases have ignited. This is called _____ .
A. Flameover / rollover.
B. Backdraft.
C. Flashover.
D. Smoke explosion.
A. Flameover / Rollover
The term _____ describes a condition where the unburned fire gasses accumulated at the top of a compartment ignited and flames propagate through the hot-gas layer or across the ceiling. It is a fire gas ignition.
A. Rollover.
B. Backdraft.
C. Flashover.
D. Smoke explosion.
A. Rollover.
_____ is when the temperature in a compartment results in the simultaneous ignition of all the combustible contents in the space. The rapid transition between the growth and the fully developed fire stages.
A. Flameover / rollover.
B. Backdraft.
C. Flashover.
D. Smoke explosion.
C. Flashover
As a fire inspector, you come upon a building with a large cooling tower on the roof. There is evidence that conditions are serious enough to pose an immediate danger. The floors are sagging and cracked and immediate steps have been taken to protect the public. You should refer the matter to:
A. The head of the fire department.
B. The fire marshal.
C. The building department.
D. The head of the police department.
C. The Building department.
There are three classifications of standpipe systems. _____ has Firefighter (2 1/2 inch connections)
A. Class 1.
B. Class 2.
C. Class 3.
D. Class 4.
Class 2: Trained Building Occupants (1 1/2 inch hose)
Class 3: Combination (have both 2 1/2 inch connections for firefighters and 1 1/2 inch connections and hose for occupants)
A _____ roof covering is one that is effective against a moderate fire exposure, affords a moderate degree of fire protection to the roof deck, does not slip from position and does not present a flying brand hazard.
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
B. Class “B”.
If an exit connects 4 or more stories, the separating construction must have at least a ____ hour fire resistance rating.
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hour
C. 3 hour
D. 4 hour
B. 2 hours
The water supply for a Class I and Class III standpipe systems must provide a minimum flow rate _____ gpm for at least _____ minutes. A residual pressure of _____ psi at the mist hydraulically remote 2 1/2 inch outlet. A minimum of _____ psi is required for the most remote 1 1/2 inch outlet.
A. 500 gpm ; 30 minutes ; 100psi ; 65psi .
B. 500 gpm ; 60 minutes ; 100psi ; 65psi .
C. 1000 gpm ; 30 minutes ; 100psi ; 65psi .
D. 1000 gpm ; 60 minutes ; 100psi ; 65psi .
A. 500 gpm ; 30 minutes ; 100psi ; 65psi .
In a horizontal standpipe system that supplies three or more Class I or III hose stations, a minimum flow rate of _____ gpm is required.
A. 250 GMP.
B. 500 GMP.
C. 750 GMP.
D. 1,000 GMP.
C. 750 GPM.
For Class II standpipe systems, _____ gpm must be provided for at least _____ minutes, with a residual pressure of at least _____ psi at the highest outlet.
A. 100 gpm / 30 minutes / 65 psi
B. 500 gpm / 30 minutes / 65 psi
C. 100 gpm / 30 minutes / 100 psi
D. 500 gpm / 30 minutes / 100 psi
A. 100 gpm / 30 minutes / 65 psi
_____ is defined as the maximum heat that can be produced if all of the combustible materials in a given area burn.
A. Structural load.
B. Fire load.
C. Flammable load.
D. Density load.
B. Fire load
The most reliable of all sprinkler systems is a _____.
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
B. Dry-pipe sprinkler system.
C. Deluge sprinkler system.
D. Preaction sprinkler system.
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
Fires involving energized electrical equipment where the electrical nonconductivity of the extinguishing agent is of first importance is called a _____ .
A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D. E. Class K.
C. Class C.
Class _____ fires - Involves ordinary, solid, combustible materials such as wood, cloth, paper, rubber, and many plastics.
A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D. E. Class K.
A. Class A.
Class _____ fires - Involves flammable and combustible liquids and gases such as gasoline, oil, lacquer, paint, mineral spirits, and alcohol.
A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D. E. Class K.
B. Class B.
Class _____ fires - Involves energized electrical equipment where the electrical nonconductivity of the extinguishing agent is of major importance; materials involved are either Class A (wiring insulation) or Class B (lubricants), and they can be extinguished once the equipment is de-energized.
A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D. E. Class K.
C. Class C.
Class _____ fires - Involves combustible metals such as aluminum, magnesium, potassium, sodium, titanium, and zirconium (particularly in their powdered forms); May require special extinguishing agents or techniques.
A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D. E. Class K.
D. Class D.
Class _____ fires - Involves oils and greases normally found in commercial cooking kitchens and food preparation facilities using deep fryers; through a process known as “saponification”, extinguishing agents turn fats and oils into a soapy form extinguishes a fire.
A. Class A. B. Class B. C. Class C. D. Class D. E. Class K.
E. Class K.
Traditionally, the fire service has recognized four basic types of automatic sprinkler system. They are: 1._____, 2._____, 3._____, & 4._____
- Wet pipe sprinkler system
- Dry pipe sprinkler system
- Deluge sprinkler system
- Preaction sprinkler system
_____ sprinkler system - Continually charged with water under pressure that discharges immediately when one or more sprinklers are activated by heat from a fire.
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
B. Dry-pipe sprinkler system.
C. Deluge sprinkler system.
D. Preaction sprinkler system.
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
_____ Sprinkler system - Continually charged with air or nitrogen under pressure. When a sprinkler activates, the air is released allowing the dry-pipe water-flow control valve to operate and charge the system with water. These systems are used in areas where freezing temperatures are likely to occur.
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
B. Dry-pipe sprinkler system.
C. Deluge sprinkler system.
D. Preaction sprinkler system.
B. Dry-pipe sprinkler system.
_____ Sprinkler system - Consists of open sprinklers attached to unpressurized dry pipes. The system is activated when a detection device in the protected area senses a fire and opens the water-flow control valve to the system. All sprinklers discharge water simultaneously.
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
B. Dry-pipe sprinkler system.
C. Deluge sprinkler system.
D. Preaction sprinkler system.
C. Deluge sprinkler system.
____ Sprinkler system - Continually charged with air that may or may not be under pressure. The system only operates when both a sprinkler opens and a detection device in the same area activate the water-flow control valve.
A. Wet-pipe sprinkler system.
B. Dry-pipe sprinkler system.
C. Deluge sprinkler system.
D. Preaction sprinkler system.
D. Preaction sprinkler system.
When inspecting a compressed and liquified gas storage room, the electrical lights must be in a fixed position, encased in glass to prevent contact with gas and the switch to the lights is must be located _____ the storage room.
A. Inside.
B. Outside.
C. On a timer inside.
D. On a timer outside.
B. Outside.
_____ is defined as the ability of a structural assembly to maintain it’s load bearing abilities under fire conditions. In the case of walls, partitions and ceilings, it also means the ability of the assembly to act as a barrier to the fire.
A. Fire protection.
B. Fire tolerance.
C. Fire resistance.
D. Flame spread rating.
C. Fire resistance.
At one time, only fire doors with ratings up to _____hours were permitted to have glass panels. Currently, doors with ratings up to _____hours can be equipped with glass panels.
A. 1 ; 3.
B. 1 1/2 ; 3.
C. 1 1/2 ; 4.
D. 2 ; 4.
B. 1 1/2 ; 3.
- Fire doors with ratings of 1, 1-1/2, and 3 hours can have glass panels up to _____ square inches in area per door.
A. 25 square inches.
B. 50 square inches.
C. 75 square inches.
D. 100 square inches.
- Fire doors with ratings of _____hour can have a total glass area consistent with their listing, but in individual piece cannot exceed 1,296 square inches. Fire doors with ratings of _____hour Can have fire-rated glass up to a maximum area to which they were test
A. 3/4 hour ; 1/3 hour.
B. 1/2 hour ; 3/4 hour.
C. 1/3 hour ; 1/2 hour.
D. 1/2 hour ; 1 hour.
1) D. 100 square inches.
2) A. 3/4 hour ; 1/3 hour.
A member of your crew approaches you during overhaul operations and reports that he located some charred documents in a wastebasket. The best action you could take would be to:
A. Put the wastebasket contents into a paper bag for evidence.
B. Place the documents between two pieces of glass.
C. The documents are burnt and useless for evidence.
D. Notify the chief.
B. Place the documents between two pieces of glass.
_____ agents leaves no residue and sometimes are referred to as “clean extinguishing agents”.
A. Dry-chemical agents.
B. Foam agents.
C. NA-X agents.
D. Halogenated agents.
D. Halogenated agents.
_____ agent - Agent that leaves no residue when discharged.
A. Wet agent.
B. Dry agent.
C. Clean agent.
D. Foam agent.
C. Clean agent.
Fire is involved in free-burning and smoldering phases. The missing element of combustion in the smoldering phase of burning is _____ .
A. Fuel.
B. Heat.
C. Oxygen.
D. Chemical reaction.
C. Oxygen.
________________________________
However when referring to the “fire tetrahedron” - chemical reaction would be correct.
- The “Fire Triangle” consists of:
2. The “Fire Tetrahedron” is a more accurate version, it consists of:
- Oxygen, Fuel, & Heat
2. Oxygen, Fuel, Heat, & Self-sustained chemical reaction
Fire hazards for flammable liquids are measured in terms of _____ .
A. Flammability. B. Flash points. C. Flame points. D. Boiling points. E. Autoignition temperature.
B. Flash points.
_____ is the minimum temperature at which a liquid fuel releases sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture with the air near the liquid surface.
A. Flammability. B. Flash point. C. Flame point. D. Boiling point. E. Autoignition temperature.
B. Flash point.
The _____ is normally only slightly higher in temperature than the flashpoint.
A. Flammability. B. Flash point. C. Flame point. D. Boiling point. E. Autoignition temperature.
C. Flame point.
Regarding draft curtains - the distance between curtain boards should not exceed _____ times the ceiling height.
A. 2 times.
B. 4 times.
C. 6 times.
D. 8 times.
D. 8 times.
A _____ occupancy is any building, structure, or compartment (room) that is used for the gathering of 50 or more persons.
A. Assembly occupancy.
B. Business occupancy.
C. Residential occupancy.
D. Factory/industrial occupancy.
A. Assembly occupancy.
Assembly occupancies are divided into three classes: Class A, Class B, and Class C. Class A has occupant loads of _____ .
A. Over 1,000 people.
B. 301
A. Over 1,000 people. (Class A)
________________________________
B. 301
_____ Extinguishing systems are especially effective on fires involving cooking hazards. The nature of the chemical is such that it attacks by fuel removal, cooling, smothering, and flame inhibition.
A. Dry-chemical. B. Wet-chemical. C. Clean agent. D. Carbon dioxide. E. Foam fire.
B. Wet-chemical. (extinguishing systems).
After a tank has been installed in the ground for five years, how many more years is it expected to last:
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30
B. 20 years more
25 total years a tank is expected to last in the ground
Most commonly, as a fire inspector, you will encounter flammable or combustible liquids stored in containers. The maximum allowable size for an approved safety can is:
(According to Fire Inspector text)
A. 1 quart.
B. 5 quarts.
C. 1 gallon.
D. 5 gallons.
D. 5 gallons. (According to Fire Inspector text)
A _____ type of fire extinguisher would be considered a self propelling extinguisher.
A. Water can.
B. Dry-chemical.
C. Carbon dioxide.
D. K agent.
C. Carbon dioxide.
A fire inspector encountering instances of structural abuse during fire inspection should refer the matter to the local building department for structural inspection. Evidence that conditions are serious enough to pose an immediate danger include:
A. Hole’s in dry-wall.
B. Leaking roof.
C. Broken windows.
D. Sagging or cracked floors.
D. Sagging or cracked floors.
The highest degree of fire protection for means of egress from a building is:
A. Elevator.
B. Smokeproof towers.
C. Fireproof enclosures.
D. Fire-resistant enclosures.
B. Smokeproof towers.
An untrained operator using a 20B fire extinguisher can be expected to extinguish a fire of _____ square feet.
A. 10 square feet.
B. 15 square feet.
C. 20 square feet.
D. 25 square feet.
C. 20 square feet.
Fire extinguishers with a 20B rating must be located so that the maximum travel distance from the hazard to the extinguisher is not more than _____ feet.
A. 30 feet.
B. 50 feet.
C. 75 feet.
D. 100 feet.
B. 50 feet.
As a fire officer you return to a building that has been found in violation of many hazards. When you return you see the corrections that should have been made, you find that they have done nothing to make corrections. You should:
A. Issue a final notice with a date for another inspection.
B. Impose a $500 fine.
C. Notify the police department and have the building evacuated.
D. Notify the building department and have the building condemned.
A. Issue a final notice with a date for another inspection.
Containers that have air tight lids and are supported by legs so that the bottom is several inches off the floor are best used to safely store _____ .
A. Gasoline.
B. Propane.
C. Oily or greasy materials.
D. Volatile combustibles.
C. Oily or greasy materials.
You are conducting an inspection and you observe a large accumulation of dust. The best recommendation you can make to remove the dust is:
A. Sweeping it away.
B. Blowing it out open doors and window.
C. Vacuuming the dust.
D. Washing with detergent.
C. Vacuuming the dust.
Another serious hazard is presented during battery recharging. _____ is produced during this operation, which can ignite explosively.
A. Methane gas.
B. Hydrogen gas.
C. Pure oxogen.
D. MEK.
B. Hydrogen gas.
Lead-acid batteries contain two hazardous materials: Sulfuric acid which releases flammable hydrogen gas when charging and Metallic lead which:
A. Also releases hydrogen gas.
B. Is a toxic heavy metal.
C. Can explode.
D. Can leak strong acid.
B. Is a toxic heavy metal.
Many common conditions can generate static discharges. Some examples of these conditions include… the exception is:
- Conductive fluids flowing through pipes.
- Liquids breaking into drops and the drops hitting liquid or solid surfaces.
- Air, gas, or steam flowing from an opening in a hose or pipe (especially true with cryogenic materials).
- Polarized materials traveling through shoots or pneumatic transfer devices.
- Slurry loading of materials including explosives, animal feed, or waste processing.
- Belts in motion.
- Moving vehicles.
- “Conductive” fluids flowing through pipes. (FALSE - “Nonconductive”)
An inspector must answer the 4 following questions concerning static electricity as a potential ignition source… the exception is:
A. Is there a source that generates a dangerous amount of static electricity?
B. Is there a conductor that will accumulate the charges generated and maintain a suitable difference of electrical potential between the materials involved?
C. Will there be a spark discharge of sufficient energy to create a hazardous situation?
D. Is there an tangible mixture present?
D. Is there an “tangible” mixture present? (FALSE - “ignitable”)
“Types of building construction” divides construction types into five basic classifications,Types I through V. Each classification is further broken into subtypes by use of a three digit Arabic number code or several letters (for example Type I-443). What does the first Arabic digit refer to?
A. Fire resistance rating (in hours) of the exterior bearing walls.
B. Fire resistance rating (in hours) of structural frames or columns that support loads of more than one floor.
C. Fire resistance rating (in hours) of the Floors.
A. Fire resistance rating (in hours) of the exterior bearing walls. (1st)
________________________________
B. Fire resistance rating (in hours) of structural frames or columns that support loads of more than one floor. (2nd)
C. Fire resistance rating (in hours) of the Floors. (3rd)
_____ is the most commonly used method for evaluating surface-burning characteristics of materials.
A. Flame test.
B. Fire test.
C. The Steiner Tunnel Test.
C. The Steiner Tunnel Test.
The Steiner Tunnel Test produces a numerical evaluation of flammability of interior materials, which is known as the flame-spread rating. What are the three classifications:
*What is the max flame-spread rating allowed?
- Class A (0-25) required in vertical exits
- Class B (26-75) required in corridors providing exit access
- Class C (76- )
** THE MAXIMUM FLAME-SPREAD RATING ALLOWED IS 200!!! **
The “Steiner tunnel test” is used to test certain interior materials. The Steiner tunnel test of evaluates three things… the exception is:
A. Flame-spread rating.
B. Smoke developed
C. Fuel contributed.
D. Toxicity.
D. Toxicity.
It is important to remember that the Steiner tunnel test does not a valuate toxicity.
Fire doors designated to serve as exit enclosures, such as doors into stairwells, must be _____ hinged.
A. Side hinged.
B. Single hinged.
C. Double hinged.
D. Top hinged.
A. Side hinged.
When fire doors that serve as part of an exit are kept closed, they may be _____ but not _____.
A. Latched but not locked.
B. Locked but not latched.
C. Latched but not obstructed.
D. Obstructed but not locked.
A. Latched but not Locked.
Draft curtains, or curtain boards, are designed to limit the mushroom effect of _____ and _____.
A. Heat and smoke.
B. Smoke and toxins.
C. Air and smoke.
D. Heat and air.
A. Heat and Smoke.
The means of egress system consists of three basic elements: (3)
- Exit access
- Exit
- Exit discharge
The _____ leads from an occupied portion of the building or structure to the exit. Examples include:
- *hallways
- Corridor leading to the exit open
- Aisle within an assembly occupancy that is designated to accommodate and conduct people to an exit
- Pathway leading from inside a space to an exit
- Unclosed ramp or stairs
- Occupied room or space
A. Exit access.
B. Exit.
C. Exit discharge.
D. Exit passageways.
A. Exit access.
The _____ is separated from the area of the building from which escape is to be made. It is a protected path consisting of _____ components constructed of approved fire-resistance-rated assemblies so that the occupants can proceed with a reasonable safety to the exit discharge. Examples: Exit passageways, Horizontal exits, Smokeproof enclosures.
A. Exit access.
B. Exit.
C. Exit discharge.
D. Exit passageways.
B. Exit.
_____ are designed to connect an interior exit stair to an exit door on the exterior of the structure; must be constructed of the same fire-resistance-rated material as the exit stairs. Can be used to shorten the travel distance to an exit.
A. Exit access.
B. Exit.
C. Exit discharge.
D. Exit passageways.
D. Exit passageways.
_____ Are commonly used in (but not limited to) high-rise buildings and hospitals as a means of passing through a fire-barrier wall that separates two fire compartments in a structure.
A. Exit passageways.
B. Horizontal exits.
C. Smokeproof enclosures.
D. Safe rooms.
B. Horizontal exits.
_____ are stairways or stair enclosures designed to limit the penetration of smoke, heat, and toxic gases into the stairway. They are the highest degree of fire protection of stair enclosures.
A. Smokeproof enclosures.
B. Smokeproof tunnels.
C. Fire-resistant enclosures
D. Fire-resistant towers.
A. Smokeproof enclosures.
aka Smokeproof towers.
The _____ exits between the termination of the exit and the public way.
A. Exit access.
B. Exit.
C. Exit discharge.
D. Exit passageways.
C. Exit discharge.
Two examples of ____ would be: 1. Exterior walkway along the side of a structure from the exit to a public way and 2. Privately owned drive or alley that connects the exit to a public way.
A. Exit access.
B. Exit.
C. Exit discharge.
D. Exit passageways.
C. Exit discharges.
A mechanically pumped fire extinguisher is used to extinguish fires in _____ materials.
A. Ordinary combustibles.
B. Liquids.
C. Electric.
D. Metal.
A. Ordinary combustibles.
A person who is trained in fire extinguisher use can be expected to extinguish a flammable liquid fire _____ square feet in area with a 10-B portable fire extinguisher.
A. 10 square feet.
B. 15 square feet.
C. 20 square feet.
D. 25 square feet.
D. 25 SQ FT.
In many jurisdictions, fire inspectors are considered to be public officers and therefore immune from certain kinds of liability. Immunity is not a guarantee, state or local statues, or both, may impose liability. Generally, fire inspectors are not held liable for _____ acts.
A. Discretionary acts (only).
B. Non-discretionary acts (only).
C. Both discretionary and non-discretionary acts.
D. Intentional acts.
A. Discretionary acts (only).
_____ is a precious metal that is a good conductor of electricity.
A. Gold.
B. Tin.
C. Aluminum.
D. Bronze.
A. Gold.
Fire partitions are typically _____ hour-rated structures, while fire barriers can be 1 to 4 hour-rated structures.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A. 1 hour-rated
_____ may not extend continuously through a building. These walls are erected from a floor to the underside of the floor above or to the bottom of the fire-rated floor/ceiling assembly.
A. Fire partitions.
B. Fire barriers.
C. Fire blocks.
D. Parapets.
A. Fire partitions.
_____ are used for area separations, hazard protection, stairwells, camshafts. Their construction is identical to fire partitions except that partitions are allowed to terminate the bottom of a fire rated floor/ceiling assembly and _____ are required to terminate at the floor or roof deck.
A. Fire partitions.
B. Fire barriers.
C. Fire blocks.
D. Parapets.
B. Fire barriers.
The firewall should extend from the foundation of a structure through and above combustible roofs so that it will stop flame spread on the roof covering and to adjacent surfaces. This protection is accomplished by topping the firewall with _____ .
A. Fire partitions.
B. Fire barriers.
C. Fire blocks.
D. Parapets.
D. Parapets.
Building codes determine the parapet height above a combustible roof. The height varies from _____ to _____ inches.
A. 12 to 24 inches.
B. 18 to 36 inches.
C. 24 to 48 inches.
D. 36 to 54 inches.
B. 18 to 36 inches.
Because they are extremely unsafe and unreliable, external fire escape stairs may not be used as any part of a means of egress in new construction. Where still allowed on old buildings, these stairs may constitute only _____ of the required means of egress in exiting buildings.
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
C. 50% (or one half)
The highest degree of protection for stairways in high-rise buildings is found in _____.
A. Fire resistant enclosures.
B. Smokeproof stairwells.
C. Smokeproof towers.
D. Fire resistant stairwells.
C. Smokeproof towers.
The three common types of portable fire extinguishers are… the exception is:
A. Stored-pressure extinguisher.
B. Cartridge-operated extinguisher.
C. Pump-operated extinguisher.
D. Gravity-assisted extinguisher.
D. Gravity-assisted extinguisher. (FALSE)
_____ Extinguisher - Contains an expelling gas and extinguishing agent in a single chamber. The pressure of the gas forces the agent out through a siphon tube into the chamber, valve, and nozzle assembly.
These extinguishers are normally found in office buildings, department stores, or even private residences where a high-use factor is not expected.
A. Stored-pressure extinguisher.
B. Cartridge-operated extinguisher.
C. Pump-operated extinguisher.
D. Gravity-assisted extinguisher.
A. Stored-pressure extinguisher.
Dry-chemical extinguishers typically use _____ as an expelling gas.
A. Compressed air.
B. Nitrogen.
C. Co2.
D. Oxygen.
B. Nitrogen.
_____ Extinguishers - Stores the expellant gas in a separate cartridge attached to the side of the agent cylinder or tank.
These extinguishers are found in industrial operations such as paint spraying or solvent manufacturing facilities where they may be used frequently.
A. Stored-pressure extinguisher.
B. Cartridge-operated extinguisher.
C. Pump-operated extinguisher.
D. Gravity-assisted extinguisher.
B. Cartridge-operated extinguisher.
_____ Extinguisher - Discharges its agent by the manual operation of a pump. This extinguisher is limited to the use of water as the extinguishing agent.
Typically not found outside fire department or fire brigades.
A. Stored-pressure extinguisher.
B. Cartridge-operated extinguisher.
C. Pump-operated extinguisher.
D. Gravity-assisted extinguisher.
C. Pump-operated extinguisher.
Sprinklers must have adequate room in which to operate if they are to be effective. Partitions or stock must not be arranged so that they can obstruct the distribution of water from sprinklers. A minimum clearance of at least _____ should be maintained under sprinklers.
A. 6 inches.
B. 12 inches.
C. 18 inches.
D. 24 inches.
C. 18 inches.
18-36inches
Inspectors should be aware of the consequences of stuck or partially closed valves. If a valve is partially closed, it would not be noticed during normal use of water, however, the _____ will prevent the fire department from obtaining sufficient water to combat a fire.
A. High friction loss.
B. Low friction loss.
C. Obstructions.
D. Kinks.
A. High friction loss.
Mrs. Henry owns a store and wants to have a display of turpentine placed on temporary shelves at the end of an aisle. She comes to you and wants to know how high she may stack the containers, and how many containers may be in each stack.
A. 3 feet high or two containers high.
B. 4 feet high or two containers high.
C. 3 feet high or three containers high.
D. 4 feet high or three containers high.
A. 3 feet high or two containers high.
The maximum travel distance to an extinguisher for Class A hazards is _____ .
A. 30 feet.
B. 50 feet.
C. 75 feet.
D. 100 feet.
C. 75 feet.
Placement of a Class D fire extinguisher should be no more than _____ from the Class D fire hazard.
A. 30 feet.
B. 50 feet.
C. 75 feet.
D. 100 feet.
C. 75 feet.
Class K fires are likely, the maximum travel distance from the hazard to the extinguisher is reduced to _____ .
A. 30 feet.
B. 50 feet.
C. 75 feet.
D. 100 feet.
A. 30 feet.
Fire inspectors are expected to know the basic techniques for extinguishing fires involving flammable and combustible liquids. Extinguishers with a 20B rating must be located so that the minimum travel distance from the hazard to the extinguisher is not more than _____ .
A. 30 feet.
B. 50 feet.
C. 75 feet.
D. 100 feet.
B. 50 feet.
In water distribution systems multiple housing developments should use at least a _____ inch main.
A. 6 inch. B. 8 inch. C. 12 inch. D. 16 inch. A.
B. 8 inch.
When do the majority of accidents that result in injury, fires, or damaged machinery occur?
A. During daily use operations.
B. During afternoon shifts operations.
C. During morning shift operations.
D. During maintenance and repair operations.
D. During maintenance and repair operations.
An inspector should choose one of 3 common methods for performing an inspection, they are… the exception is:
A. Start from the roof and work downward.
B. Start from the basement and work upward.
C. Follow an established manufacturing process within the structure from the raw materials to the finished product and include all storage areas.
D. Start from the outside and work to the inside.
D. Start from the outside and work to the inside. (FALSE)
The three most common sources of heat that result in the ignition of a fuel is… the exception is:
A. Chemical Heat energy
B. Electrical Heat energy
C. Mechanical Heat energy
D. Nuclear Heat energy.
D. Nuclear Heat energy. (FALSE)
Self-heating or spontaneous heating occurs when a material increases in temperature without the addition of external heat. This is an example of _____ heat energy.
A. Chemical Heat energy
B. Electrical Heat energy
C. Mechanical Heat energy
D. Nuclear Heat energy.
A. Chemical heat energy.
_____ density describes the density of gases in relation to air. Air has been assigned a _____ density of 1. This means that a gas with a _____ density greater than 1 will sink in air but a gas with a _____ density of less than 1 will rise.
A. Vapor density.
B. Specific gravity.
C. Miscibility.
D. Flammability.
A. Vapor density.
What is the difference between “flammable” and “inflammable”.
A. Flammable materials has a lower flash point than inflammable materials.
B. Flammable materials has a higher flash point than inflammable materials.
C. Flammable materials have lower boiling points than inflammable materials.
D. Both Flammable and inflammable means the same thing, burns easily.
D. Both Flammable and inflammable means the same thing, burns easily.
Flammable liquids vs. combustible liquids according to FIC.
“Flammable” liquids have a flashpoint that is less than _____ degrees F; where “combustible” liquids have flashpoints that are greater than _____ degrees F.
A. 100 degrees F.
B. 120 degrees F.
C. 140 degrees F.
D. 160 degrees F.
A. 100 degrees F.
According to FIC
According to FIC.
- _____ liquids have a flashpoint that is less than 100°F.
- _____ liquids have a flashpoint that is greater than 100°F.
A. Flammable.
B. Combustible.
C. Volatile.
D. Non-volatile.
1) A. Flammable liquids. and
C. Volatile.
2) B. Combustible liquids. and
D. Non-volatile.
_____ is the weight of a substance compared to the weight of an equal volume of water at a given temperature.
A. Vapor pressure. B. Specific gravity. C. Solubility. D. Miscibility. \_\_\_\_\_ less than 1 indicates a substance lighter than water, greater than 1 indicates a substance heavier than water.
B. Specific gravity.
What is the difference between volatile liquids and flammable liquid?
A. There is no difference they mean the same thing; Liquids that have a flashpoint less than 100°F.
B. Volatile liquids have a flashpoint over 100°F; Flammable liquids have a flashpoint under 100°F.
C. Volatile liquids have a flashpoint under 100°F; Flammable liquids have a flashpoint over 100°F.
D. There is no difference they mean the same thing; Liquids that have a flashpoint more than 100°F.
A. There is no difference they mean the same thing; Liquids that have a flashpoint less than 100°F.
Liquids with low flashpoints such as gasoline and acetone are also known as _____ or _____ liquids.
A. Combustible or non-volatile.
B. Flammable or volatile.
C. Combustible or volatile.
D. Flammable or non-volatile.
B. Flammable or volatile (liquids).
~ Flashpoints less than 100°F~
_____ is when the temperature in a compartment results in the simultaneous ignition of all the combustible contents in the space.
A. Flashover
B. Rollover.
C. Backdraft.
D. Explosion.
A. Flashover.
The flow of electricity through a wiring system is like the flow of water through a water distribution system. The electrical term which is related to water pressure is _____ . A power surge is a brief spike in _____ .
A. Electricity.
B. Voltage.
C. Amperage.
D. Circuits.
B. Voltage.
Exit Doors:
Exit doors are required to open in the direction of travel toward the exit. The floor or landing on each side of the door must be level and at the same elevation on both sides of the doorframe. When panic hardware is required, occupants should be able to open the door latch by applying a force of not more than _____ pounds, and to open the door by applying a force of not more than _____ pounds.
A. 5 pounds / 10 ponds.
B. 10 pounds / 20 pounds.
C. 15 pounds / 30 pounds.
D. 20 pounds / 40 pounds.
C. 15 pounds / 30 pounds.
Ramps are preferable to stairs in certain occupancies, particularly in _____ and _____ .
A. Schools and institutions.
B. Schools and businesses.
C. Businesses and institutions.
D. Businesses and farms.
A. Schools and institutions.
Escalators and moving walks are _____ for a means of egress.
A. Required.
B. Not allowed.
C. Only allowed for up to 1/2.
D. Only allowed for 1/4.
B. Not allowed.
_____ exit signs are used in addition to standard ceiling-level exit signs, they are not a substitute.
A. Door level.
B. Floor level.
C. Wall.
D. Elevator.
B. Floor-level.
No numerical ratings are given to Class D extinguishers, the types of tests conducted very depending upon the metals for which the extinguisher is intended. The _____ details the specific metals on which the extinguisher should be used.
A. Directions.
B. Color.
C. Faceplate.
D. Package.
C. Faceplate.
Cold flow occurs when a sprinkler is repeatably heated near its operating temperature. Cold flow problems can be eliminated by:
1) Using a fusible-link sprinkler with a higher temperature rating.
2) Using frangible bulb sprinklers.
3) Removing the sprinkler heads.
A. #1 and #2 are true. B. #2 and #3 are true. C. #1 and #3 are true. D. All three are true. B.
A. #1 and #2 are true.
A permanent record of all detector tests should be maintained for a minimum of _____ .
A. 1 year.
B. 3 years.
C. 5 years.
D. 10 years.
C. 5 years.
For liquids, the _____ refers to the temperature at which a liquid fuel will continue to burn with an outside ignition source.
A. Flash point.
B. Fire point.
C. Autoignition temperature.
D. Boiling point.
B. Fire point.
In new buildings, each of the model code organizations require that doors serving as component of a means of egress be at least _____ inches wide but not more than _____ inches wide to provide a minimum of _____ inches of clear unobstructed width.
A. 36 - 48 - 32.
B. 32 - 46 - 30.
C. 36 - 46 - 32.
D. 32 - 48 - 30.
A. 36 - 48 - 32.
________________________________At least 36 inches wide.
Not more than 48 inches wide.
A 32 inches of clear unobstructed space.
Weak sprinklers are indicated by a creeping or sliding apart of a fusible link. Another indication of a weak sprinkler is:
A. Leakage around the sprinkler orifice.
B. Rust around the sprinkler orifice.
C. Cold to the touch around the sprinkler orifice.
D. Cold to the touch around the sprinkler orifice.
A. Leakage around the sprinkler orifice.
The clearance between the bottom of the extinguisher and the floor should never be less than _____ inches.
A. 4 inches.
B. 5 inches.
C. 5 feet.
D. 3 1/2 feet.
A. 4 inches.
Extinguishers with a gross weight not exceeding 40 pounds should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than _____ feet above the floor.
A. 4 inches.
B. 5 inches.
C. 5 feet.
D. 3 1/2 feet.
C. 5 feet.
Extinguishers with a gross weight greater than 40 pounds, except wheeled types, should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than _____ feet above the floor.
A. 4 inches.
B. 5 inches.
C. 5 feet.
D. 3 1/2 feet.
D. 3 1/2 feet.
When the inspector visits a warehouse facility, the most critical thing for the inspector to check is the _____ .
A. Exit accesses.
B. Fire alarm system.
C. Automatic sprinkler system.
D. HVAC systems.
C. Automatic sprinkler system.
There are number of things that inspectors should look for when inspecting hood systems and their associated fire protection equipment. If the system actuator is controlled by a fusible link device, the fusible link should be replaced every _____ .
A. 3 months.
B. 6 months.
C. Year.
D. 3 years.
C. Year. (once every year)
_____ may consist of gravel with a thin layer of asphalt over-the-top. These surfaces may not support the weight of fully loaded apparatus,
and could affect the operation of Arial apparatus that need to set stabilizers and deploy an aerial device.
A. Private driveways or parking-lots.
B. Interstate highways.
C. Major city streets.
D. Business parking-lots.
A. Private driveways or parking-lots.
Two of the most important functions of doors, in terms of life safety is as follows… the exception is:
A. serve as a component of a means of egress.
B. act as a barrier to smoke and fire.
C. provide adequate security and locking mechanisms.
C. provide adequate security and locking mechanisms. (FALSE)
Both automatic sprinkler systems and standpipe systems are dependent on adequate water supplies to be effective. An adequate supply of water is one that is sufficient in both _____ and _____ .
A. Volume and pressure.
B. Supply and flow.
C. Flow and pressure.
D. Volume and supply.
A. Volume and pressure.
A gravity tank of the proper size also makes a reliable primary water supply. In order to give the minimum required pressure, the bottom of the tank should be at least _____ above the highest sprinkler in the building.
A. 15 feet.
B. 25 feet.
C. 35 feet.
D. 45 feet.
C. 35 feet.
The first step in performing the main drain test is to: (5 steps)
A. Observe and record the pressure on the gauge at the system riser.
B. Have a building representative fully open the main drain.
C. Observe and record the pressure drop.
D. Have the building representative close the 2 inch main drain slowly.
E. Observe and record the final static pressure. If it is not the same as the initial static pressure, it is likely that pressure was trapped in the system.
A. Observe and record the pressure on the gauge at the system riser. (Step 1)
________________________________
B. Have a building representative fully open the main drain. (Step 2)
C. Observe and record the pressure drop. (Step 3)
D. Have the building representative close the 2 inch main drain slowly. (Step 4)
E. Observe and record the final static pressure. If it is not the same as the initial static pressure, it is likely that pressure was trapped in the system. (Step 5)
The _____ are probably the most important consideration in the selection of fire extinguishers.
A. Ease-of-use.
B. Mobility.
C. Hazards.
D. Level of training.
C. Hazards.
When the inspection is complete, the fire inspector should discuss the results with the person in charge of the property. Violations are discussed in (1)_____ term. Written documentation such as a follow-up letter describes the (2)_____ details of the inspection.
A. Casual ; specific.
B. General ; specific.
C. Specific ; casual.
D. Specific ; general.
B. (1)General ; (2)specific.
_____ occurs most frequently were sufficient air is not present and insulation prevents dissipation of heat, heat that is produced by a low grade chemical breakdown process.
A. Chemical heat energy.
B. Spontaneous heating.
C. Electric heat energy.
D. Mechanical heat energy.
B. Spontaneous heating.
aka Self-heating.
_____ refers to the heat generated through a conductor such as a wire or appliance. _____ is increased if the wire is not large enough in diameter for the amount of current or there’s a poor connection between conductors. Fires are caused when a simple extension cord is overloaded with too many appliances.
A. Sparking.
B. Arcing.
C. Overcurrent or overload.
D. Resistance heating.
D. Resistance heating.
There are several means of dissipating static charges. _____ involves connecting two objects that conduct electricity with something that is also a conductor.
A. Bonding.
B. Grounding.
C. Faulting.
D. Clamping.
A. Bonding.
There are several means of dissipating static charges. _____ involves connecting an object that conducts electricity to the ground with something that is a conductor.
A. Bonding.
B. Grounding.
C. Faulting.
D. Clamping.
B. Grounding.
_____ are the most common type of central heating appliances in use today.
A. Gravity furnaces. B. Warm-air furnaces. C. Forced-air furnaces. D. Floor furnaces. E. Wall furnaces.
B. Warm-air furnaces.
Note: All other answers choices listed are different types of Warm-air furnaces.
There are four classes of furnaces/ovens: Class ____ - operates at approximately atmospheric pressure and has the potential for explosion or fire hazard when flammable volatiles or combustible materials are processed or heated.
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
A. Class A.
There are four classes of furnaces/ovens: Class ____ - operates at approximately atmospheric pressure where no flammable volatiles or combustible materials are being heated.
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
B. Class B.
(most asked furnace/oven class answer on practice exams)
There are four classes of furnaces/ovens: Class ____ - has a potential hazard due to flammable material being used or a special atmosphere is present; can use any type of heating system and includes a special atmosphere supply system; includes integral quench furnaces and molten salt bath furnaces.
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
C. Class C.
There are 4 classes of furnaces/ovens: Class ____ - operates at temperatures from above ambient to over 5000°F; also operates at pressures normally below atmospheric using any type of heating system; can include the use of special processing atmospheres.
A. Class A.
B. Class B.
C. Class C.
D. Class D.
D. Class D.
For a building or a portion of a building that contains two or more distinct occupancies (Multiple occupancies in one building), The occupancy load is determined by:
A. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then multiply them together.
B. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then adding them together.
C. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then using the larger occupancy number.
D. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then using the smaller occupancy number.
B. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then adding them together.
For a building or a portion of a building that has more than one use (multi-use occupancy), the occupant load is determined by:
A. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then multiply them together.
B. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then adding them together.
C. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then using the larger occupancy number.
D. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then using the smaller occupancy number.
C. Calculating the occupant load for each of the occupancies separately and then using the larger occupancy number.
(The use that allows for the largest number of persons to occupy the building.)
To determine the “Exit Capacity”, it is necessary to calculate the capacity for each of the three means of egress elements: exit access, exit, and exit discharge. The element that has the (1)_____ capacity will determine the total capacity for the entire means of egress. For example: a corridor capacity is 210 persons, a stairway has a capacity of 147 persons, and alley has a capacity of 720 person. What is the exit capacity of this exit? (2)
A. Smallest ; 147 persons.
B. Largest ; 720 persons.
C. Largest total sum ; 1,077 persons.
D. Smallest corridor ; 210 persons.
A. Smallest ; 147 persons.
Water discharge from a sprinkler head is activated by a heat responsive element. Some of the most commonly used release mechanisms are… the exception is:
A. Fusible links.
B. Glass (frangible) bulbs.
C. Chemical pellets.
D. Electronic heat valves.
D. Electronic heat valves. (FALSE)
Fire extinguishers for use on Class B fires are classified with numeric ratings from 1-B through 640-B. Using a 10-B portable fire extinguisher, and “untrained” operator should be expected to extinguish a fire of (1)_____ sq. ft. A “trained” operator should be able to extinguish a fire of (2)_____ sq. ft.
A. 10 ; 15.
B. 10 ; 20.
C. 10 ; 25.
D. 10 ; 30.
C. 10 ; 25.
Dry powder extinguishing agents are designed to extinguish Class D fires in combustible metals such as aluminum, magnesium, sodium, and potassium. There is no single agent that’s effective on all combustible metals. NA-X is a Class D extinguishing agent that is not suitable on _____ .
A. Sodium fires.
B. Potassium fires.
C. Magnesium fires.
D. Sodium-potassium fires.
C. Magnesium fires.
A “rate-of-rise heat detector” operates on the principle that fires rapidly increase the temperature in a given area. These detectors respond at substantially lower temperatures than fixed-temperature detectors. Typically “rate-of-rise heat detectors” are designed to send a signal when the rise in temperature exceeds ____ to ____ per minute because temperature changes of this magnitude are not expected under normal, non-fire circumstances.
A. 10 to 15°F.
B. 12 to 15°F.
C. 10 to 20°F.
D. 12 to 22°F.
B. 12 to 15°F.
The most commonly used type of “rate-of-rise heat detector” is:
A. Pneumatic rate-of-rise line heat detectors.
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot heat detectors.
C. Rate-compensation heat detector.
D. Electronic spot-type heat detector.
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise spot detectors. (most common type)
Fire inspectors must have a systematic approach of to performing the inspection. You must establish a system of touring the building that assures all portions of the building are examined. It is common for the inspector to begin with an _____ examination of the structure.
A. Interior.
B. Exterior.
C. Ariel.
D. Electronic.
B. Exterior.
A classic example of a situation that could lead to _____ is oil soaked rags that are rolled into a ball thrown into a corner. If ventilation is not adequate to let the heat drift off, eventually the heat will become sufficient to cause ignition of the rags.
A. Chemical heating.
B. Spontaneous ignition.
C. Self-heating.
D. Resistance heating.
B. Spontaneous ignition.
Note: Can be a result of Self-heating/Spontaneous-heating which are both examples of Chemical heat energy.
Which occupancy classification is one in which the amount of ordinary combustible materials or flammable liquids presents is such that a fire of small size may be expected. Examples include classrooms, churches, and assembly hall. Would be classified as:
A. Light (low) hazard occupancy.
B. Ordinary (moderate) hazard occupancy
C. Extra (high) hazard occupancy
A. Light (low) hazard occupancy.
The following are the five most common causes of electrical hazard fires… the exception is:
A. Worn electrical equipment.
B. Improper use of electrical equipment.
C. Defective or improper electrical installations.
D. Live electrical equipment that becomes contaminated by fluid (water).
E. Power surges.
F. Static electricity.
D. Live electrical equipment that becomes contaminated by fluid (water). (FALSE)
_____ is a hazardous process operation that inherently provide two of the three sides of the fire triangle, an ignition source and oxogen in the air.
A. Flammable finishing operations.
B. Quenching operations.
C. Welding and thermal cutting operations.
D. Dry cleaning operations.
C. Welding and thermal cutting operations.
Welding and thermal cutting uses a combination of oxygen and fuel gas to produce a flame to melt or join metallic materials. The most common fuel gas used for this purpose is:
A. Propane.
B. Methane.
C. Butane.
D. Acetylene.
D. Acetylene.
When a demolition project is underway, the contractor should schedule the demolition systematically to keep the fixed fire protection systems operational as long as possible. The last piece of fire equipment to be removed from a building should be the:
A. Standpipe system.
B. FDC.
C. Pull stations.
D. Fire doors.
A. Standpipe system.
Regardless of the type of _____ , the key to successfully handling any emergency situation that may arise is having and executing an effective emergency plan. The complexity of the emergency plan will depend on the type of _____ .
A. Fire.
B. Occupancy.
C. Hazard.
D. Emergency.
B. Occupancy. (Terrible worded question but “type of occupancy” is the answer)
All water supplies to sprinkler systems must be checked during an inspection. The best way to verify that a gravity tank is full is to:
A. Check pressure gauges.
B. Check site gauges.
C. Climb to the top of the tank and look into it.
D. Open a discharge valve and monitor water flow.
C. Climb to the top of the tank and look into it.
When planning a trip test on a dry pipe sprinkler system, the inspector should be aware that this process can take from 2 to 4 hours to complete. The FIRST step is observe and record the pressure gauge. The Second step in performing the trip test is: Have a building representative fully open the _____ . Slowly close the drain valve.
A. Check valve.
B. Main drain.
C. Pressure valve.
D. Sprinkler head.
B. Main drain.
Each sprinkler system riser has a _____ . The primary purpose of the _____ is to simply drain water from the system for maintenance purposes.
A. Check valve.
B. Main drain.
C. Pressure valve.
D. Sprinkler head.
B. Main drain.
How frequently should the main drain test should be conducted?
A. Monthly.
B. Quarterly.
C. Semiannually.
D. Annually.
B. Quarterly.
This type of portable fire extinguisher characteristically discharges with a loud noise that may startle an untrained operator:
A. Water. B. Carbon dioxide (CO2). C. Foam. D. Dry Chemical. E. Wet Chemical. F. Clean agent.
B. Carbon dioxide (CO2).
There are 2 main types of fixed dry-chemical extinguishing system:
1) Total flooding - Discharges agent onto a specific surface such as the cooking area in a restaurant kitchen; the most common type.
2) Local application - Introduces a thick concentration of agent into a closed area such as a spray-paint booth.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
D. #1 & #2 are false. (Opposite)
Follow-up inspections are made to ensure that the recommendations made in the inspection report has been followed. When performing follow-up inspections it is:
A. Not necessary to inspect the entire occupancy again. Only inspect the problem areas included in the inspection report to verify that the hazards have been corrected.
B. Necessary to inspect the entire occupancy again.
C. Important to show up unannounced.
D. Necessary to bring police incase noncompliance results in arrest or removal of the occupants.
A. Not necessary to inspect the entire occupancy again. Only inspect the problem areas included in the inspection report to verify that the hazards have been corrected.
Because the occupants in a particular building tend to change over time, the most reliable method of cataloging inspection records is by:
A. Phone number.
B. Street address.
C. Email.
D. Name and SSN.
B. Street address.
Mechanical heat is generated by two ways:
1) Heat of friction - The movement of two surfaces against each other. This movement results in the generation of heat and or sparks.
2) Heat of compression - Generated when a gas is compressed. Diesel engines use this principle to ignite fuel vapor without a spark plug.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
There are four basic types of fire retardant coatings used on wood: Which is described as: “Expands upon exposure to heat to create a thick, puffy coating that insulates the surface beneath the woods.”
A. Intumescent paints.
B. Mastics.
C. Gas-forming paints.
D. Cementitous and mineral-fiber coatings.
- _____ - Form a thick, noncombustible membrane over the surface of the wood.
- _____ -
- _____ - Coating that in the past have been used primarily on steel structure members. In recent times, they have seen limited use on wood-based materials.
A. Intumescent paints.
Where combustible materials, such as paper clippings, shavings wood, or textile fibers, are on the floor, an area with a radius of at least _____ must be cleared. Where impractical to produce this radius, the materials must be covered with approved fire- resistant guards or curtains.
A. 12 feet.
B. 25 feet.
C. 35 feet.
D. 50 feet.
C. 35 feet.
What is the formula used for determining the occupant load of a structure, room, or area:
A. Occupant load = Net Floor Area (divided by) Area Per Person.
B. Occupant load = Net Floor Area (multiply by) Area Per Person.
C. Occupant load = Net Floor Area (subtract by) Area Per Person.
D. Occupant load = Net Floor Area (add by) Area Per Person.
A. Occupant load = Net Floor Area (divided by) Area Per Person.
The public area of this facility is a room that measures 100’ x 150’. Given a floor area per occupant of 100 gross; what is the legal occupant load for this business?
A. 100 persons.
B. 150 persons.
C. 350 persons.
D. 400 persons.
B. 150 persons. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Occupant load = Net floor area / Area per person (factor) So: Next floor area = 100x150 = 15000 Occupant load = 15000 / 100 Occupant load = 150 persons :)
Hospitals and nursing homes require special evacuation procedures a total evacuation is not warranted every time; the extent of the evacuation is determined by the severity of the emergency. Evacuation plans proceed in progressive steps or phases. How many different phases are there?
A. 2 phases.
B. 3 phases.
C. 4 phases.
D. 5 phases.
C. 4 Phases.
Hospitals and nursing homes require special evacuation procedures a total evacuation is not warranted every time; the extent of the evacuation is determined by the severity of the emergency. Evacuation plans proceed in four progressive steps or phases. Phase 1 activities is described as:
A. Involve evacuating a single room. A common procedure used in many facilities involves following a system that uses the acronym REACT or RACE.
B. Involved evacuating an entire zone of a building. Close all room and smoke-barrier doors first.
C. Involve evacuating an entire floor and zones on the floor above the incident floor. Evacuate the fire floor first. Once this is done, evacuate the necessary zones on the floor above the incident. Move occupants down stairwells or elevators.
D. Require that the entire building be evacuated; work best when preincident plans are in place and practiced on a regular basis.
A. Involve evacuating a single room. A common procedure used in many facilities involves following a system that uses the acronym REACT or RACE. (Phase 1)
REACT: Remove those in immediate danger Ensure that the room door is closed Activate the fire alarm Call the fire department Try to extinguish or control fire
RACE: Remove (patients) Alert (call 911) Confine (close off the area of origin) Extinguish (if able to do so)
Hospitals and nursing homes require special evacuation procedures a total evacuation is not warranted every time; the extent of the evacuation is determined by the severity of the emergency. Evacuation plans proceed in four progressive steps or phases. Phase 2 activities is described as:
A. Involve evacuating a single room. A common procedure used in many facilities involves following a system that uses the acronym REACT or RACE.
B. Involved evacuating an entire zone of a building. Close all room and smoke-barrier doors first.
C. Involve evacuating an entire floor and zones on the floor above the incident floor. Evacuate the fire floor first. Once this is done, evacuate the necessary zones on the floor above the incident. Move occupants down stairwells or elevators.
D. Require that the entire building be evacuated; work best when preincident plans are in place and practiced on a regular basis.
B. Involved evacuating an entire zone of a building. Close all room and smoke-barrier doors first. (Phase 2 activities)
________________________________
A. Involve evacuating a single room. A common procedure used in many facilities involves following a system that uses the acronym REACT or RACE. (Phase 1)
C. Involve evacuating an entire floor and zones on the floor above the incident floor. Evacuate the fire floor first. Once this is done, evacuate the necessary zones on the floor above the incident. Move occupants down stairwells or elevators. (Phase 3)
D. Require that the entire building be evacuated; work best when preincident plans are in place and practiced on a regular basis. (Phase 4)
Hospitals and nursing homes require special evacuation procedures a total evacuation is not warranted every time; the extent of the evacuation is determined by the severity of the emergency. Evacuation plans proceed in four progressive steps or phases. Phase 3 activities is described as:
A. Involve evacuating a single room. A common procedure used in many facilities involves following a system that uses the acronym REACT or RACE.
B. Involved evacuating an entire zone of a building. Close all room and smoke-barrier doors first.
C. Involve evacuating an entire floor and zones on the floor above the incident floor. Evacuate the fire floor first. Once this is done, evacuate the necessary zones on the floor above the incident. Move occupants down stairwells or elevators.
D. Require that the entire building be evacuated; work best when preincident plans are in place and practiced on a regular basis.
C. Involve evacuating an entire floor and zones on the floor above the incident floor. Evacuate the fire floor first. Once this is done, evacuate the necessary zones on the floor above the incident. Move occupants down stairwells or elevators. (Phase 3 activities)
Hospitals and nursing homes require special evacuation procedures a total evacuation is not warranted every time; the extent of the evacuation is determined by the severity of the emergency. Evacuation plans proceed in four progressive steps or phases. Phase 4 activities is described as:
A. Involve evacuating a single room. A common procedure used in many facilities involves following a system that uses the acronym REACT or RACE.
B. Involved evacuating an entire zone of a building. Close all room and smoke-barrier doors first.
C. Involve evacuating an entire floor and zones on the floor above the incident floor. Evacuate the fire floor first. Once this is done, evacuate the necessary zones on the floor above the incident. Move occupants down stairwells or elevators.
D. Require that the entire building be evacuated; work best when preincident plans are in place and practiced on a regular basis.
-Evacuate the fire floor first, followed by all floors above the incident.
- Evacuate the floors below the fire when the fire floor and floors above it are clear.
-Transport patients to other buildings or sites.
D. Require that the entire building be evacuated; work best when preincident plans are in place and practiced on a regular basis. (Phase 4 activities)
Actions for fire incidents:
- Evacuate the fire floor first, followed by all floors above the incident.
- Evacuate the floors below the fire when the fire floor and floors above it are clear.
- Transport patients to other buildings or sites.
According to the practice exams, manufacturing areas with combustible products in a noncombustible building is an example of a _____ fire load/hazard.
A. Low fire hazard.
B. Moderate fire hazard.
C. High fire hazard.
C. High fire hazard.
aka Severe / Extra / High Fire Hazard
According to the practice exams, a cotton and waste storage (bailed), and well arranged noncombustible building is an example of _____ fire load/hazard?
A. Low fire hazard.
B. Moderate fire hazard.
D. Sever fire hazard.
B. Moderate fire hazard.
aka Moderate / Ordinary Fire Load/Hazard
According to the practice exams, a noncombustible institutional building with combustible occupancy has a _____ fire load.
A. Low fire hazard.
B. Moderate fire hazard.
D. Sever fire hazard.
B. Moderate fire hazard.
aka Moderate / Ordinary Fire Load/Hazard
According to the practice exam, an automotive repair shop has a _____ fire load.
A. Low fire hazard.
B. Moderate fire hazard.
D. High fire hazard.
D. High fire hazard.
aka Extra / High / Severe Fire Load/Hazard
In lumberyards, the height of stacks in an open yard storage should not exceed _____ feet.
A. 10 feet.
B. 15 feet.
C. 20 feet.
D. 25 feet.
C. 20 feet.
Recycling facilities usually contain materials in large bundles, that may be stored inside a building or outside in the yard. Materials stored inside should be stacked no closer than _____ feet to the ceiling in unsprinklered buildings.
A. 2 feet.
B. 4 feet.
C. 6 feet.
D. 8 feet.
A. 2 feet. (or at least 18 inches in building with sprinklers)
Freeboard is the distance from the liquid surface to the top of the tank when the tank is fully loaded. The freeboard should never be less than _____ inches.
A. 4 inches.
B. 6 inches.
C. 8 inches.
D. 12 inches.
B. 6 inches.
Every sprinkler system must have an automatic water supply of adequate volume, pressure, and reliability. A gravity tank of the proper size makes a reliable primary water supply. In order to give the minimum required pressure, the bottom of the tank should be at least _____ above the highest sprinkler in the building.
A. 20 feet.
B. 35 feet.
C. 40 feet.
D. 65 feet.
B. 35 feet.
Water mist systems are designed to be operated at considerably higher pressure than standard sprinkler systems. Three basic pressure ranges and which these systems may be designed to operate are low, intermediate, and high. Intermediate-pressure systems operate at ____ to ____ psi.
A. 175 to 300 psi.
B. 175 to 400 psi.
C. 175 to 500 psi.
D. 175 to 600 psi.
C. 175 to 500 psi.
Note: the low pressure systems works at under 175 psi, and the high pressure system works at over 500 psi.
_____ monitor levels of CO2 and CO for fire detection purposes. It uses either semiconductors or catalytic elements to sense a particular gas or gases and trigger an alarm.
They are not used as frequently as other types of detectors but can be found in such places such as refineries, chemical plants, and areas of electronic assembly.
A. Flame detectors.
B. Fire-gas detectors.
C. Combination detectors.
D. Smoke detectors.
B. Fire-gas detectors.
As a result of experience and water system analysis, fire protection engineers have established _____ psi as the minimum required residual pressure when computing the available water for area flow test results. This residual pressure is considered enough to overcome friction loss in a short 6 inch branch, and the hydrant itself, and in the intake hose, as well as allowing a safety factor to compensate for gauge error.
A. 5 psi.
B. 10 psi.
C. 15 psi.
D. 20 psi.
D. 20 psi.
Fire development in a compartment may be described in terms of 4 stages. Which stage of fire development is described as “when an incipient fire continues to burn, a plume of hot gases and flames rises from the fire and mixes with the cooler air in the room (convection). In this stage “Mushrooming” can be seen and the fire begins to influence the environment within the compartment.
A. Incipient stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Fully developed stage.
D. Decay stage.
B. Growth stage.
Fire development in a compartment may be described in terms of 4 stages. During which stage dose “the fire exhibits a variety of traits that indicate changes in the environment. Among these are thermal layering, isolated flames, rollover, and flashover.”
A. Incipient stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Fully developed stage.
D. Decay stage.
B. Growth stage.
Fire development in a compartment may be described in terms of 4 stages. Which stage is described as “all combustible materials in the compartment are burning. During this stage the burning fuels in the compartment are releasing the maximum amount of heat possible for the available fuel and ventilation.”
A. Incipient stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Fully developed stage.
D. Decay stage.
C. Fully developed stage.
Fire development in a compartment may be described in terms of 4 stages. Which stage is described as “when the fuel is consumed or the oxygen concentration falls to the point were flaming combustion can no longer be supported.” Potential smoke explosion and Backdraft conditions exist in the stage.
A. Incipient stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Fully developed stage.
D. Decay stage.
D. Decay stage.
aka hot-smoldering phase
Fire development in a compartment may be described in terms of 4 stages. During which stage does the “Potential for smoke explosion and Backdraft conditions exist”.
A. Incipient stage.
B. Growth stage.
C. Fully developed stage.
D. Decay stage.
D. Decay stage.
aka hot-smoldering phase
_____ is the ignition of accumulated flammable products of combustion, a form of fire gas ignition. Unlike ghosting or rollover, this involves an ignition of a mixture of flammable combustion products and air that is within its flammable range. Occurs in the decay stage of fire development in a compartment fire.
A. Backdraft.
B. Smoke explosion.
C. Flame over.
D. Flash over.
B. Smoke explosion.
NFPA 101 and NFPA 5000, building inspection and safety code describe an educational occupancy as a structure that is used by _____ or more persons through the 12th grade that meets for _____ or more hours a day or more than _____ hours a week.
A. 3 ; 2 ; 6
B. 6 ; 4 ; 12
C. 8 ; 5 ; 18
D. 8 ; 4 ; 15
B. 6 ; 4 ; 12
6 or more persons
4 or more hours a day or
12 or more hours a week.
In multistory buildings, exit stairs are critical components of the means of egress. Stairways must be at least _____ inches wide unless the total occupant load of all floors served by the stairway is less than _____ people, in which case, stairways must be at least _____ inches wide.
A. 44 ; 100 ; 42
B. 48 ; 100 ; 44
C. 44 ; 50 ; 38
C. 44 ; 50 ; 36
C. 44 ; 50 ; 36
44 inches wide unless
50 people or less, in which case
36 inches wide
The horizontal shaft pump is the most common type of fire pump found in fixed suppression systems. This pump has its shaft in a horizontal plane, with the pump on one end of the shaft and the driver on the other. The most common gallonage reading for horizontal shaft pumps in use today are those in the _____ range.
A. 1000
D. 500
The source of power that operates the fire pump is called the driver. A(n) _____ motor is the most common method for driving a fire pump.
A. Gasoline.
D. Diesel fuel.
C. Natural gas.
D. Electric.
D. Electric motor.
This type of proportioner is one of the most reliable methods of foam portioning. _____ has a foam concentrate line connected to each fire pump discharge outlet or to the system riser. A foam concentrate pump (separate from the main pump) supplies the concentrate line from the fixed storage tank. This pump provides pressure equal to the pressure at which the fire pump is supplying water to the riser. Because the foam concentrate in water being supplied the same pressure and the sizes of the discharges are proportional, the foam proportioned correctly.
A. Balanced pressure proportioner.
B. Around-the-pump proportioner.
C. Pressure proportioning tank system.
D. Coupled water motor-pump proportioner
A. Balanced pressure proportioner.
This type of proportioner is the most common type of built-in proportioners installed in mobile fire apparatus. _____ has a small return line (bypass) from the discharge side of a fire pump back to the intake side of the pump; and in-line educator is positioned on the bypass line. * Its advantage is when there is low water pressure or when the monitor is not available for a separate foam concentrate pump.*
A. Balanced pressure proportioner.
B. Around-the-pump proportioner.
C. Pressure proportioning tank system.
D. Coupled water motor-pump proportioner.
B. Around-the-pump proportioner.
_____ consists of one or two foam concentrate tanks that connect to both the water supply and foam solution lines of the overall system; designed so that a small amount of water from the supply source is pumped into the concentrate tank(s). This water volumetrically displaces the concentrate forcing it into the foam solution line where it is mixed with discharge water. The system allows for automatic proportioning over a wide range of flows and pressures and does not depend on external power source. However, the system is limited by the size of the concentrate tank.
A. Balanced pressure proportioner.
B. Around-the-pump proportioner.
C. Pressure proportioning tank system.
D. Coupled water motor-pump proportioner.
C. Pressure proportioning tank system.
_____ consists of two positive displacement rotary-gear pumps that are mounted on a common shaft; one pump is for water and the other is for the foam concentrate. The water pump is proportionally larger than the foam pump. As water flows through the larger pump, it causes the smaller pump to turn and draft foam concentrate from the foam tank. Because the pumps are sized in proportion to each other, the correct water/foam solution is made. This type of proportioner is used in fixed system applications. It is limited to only two sizes, and both are designed for 6% proportioning rates.
A. Balanced pressure proportioner.
B. Around-the-pump proportioner.
C. Pressure proportioning tank system.
D. Coupled water motor-pump proportioner.
D. Coupled water motor-pump proportioner.
The following are rate-of-rise heat detectors… the exception is:
A. Pneumatic rate-of-rise "spot" B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise "line" C.Pneumatic rate-of-rise "loop" D. Rate-compensation E. Electronic spot-type
C.Pneumatic rate-of-rise “loop”. (FALSE)
Rate-of-Rise Heat Detectors:
_____ are the most common type of rate-of-rise heat detectors. It is self-contained in one unit that monitors a specific location. Alarm wiring extends from the detector back to the FACP.
A. Pneumatic rate-of-rise “spot”.
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise “line”.
C. Rate-compensation.
D. Electronic spot-type.
A. Pneumatic rate-of-rise “spot”.
Rate-of-Rise Heat Detectors:
_____ heat detectors can monitor large areas of a building. They consist of a system of metal pneumatic tubing arranged over a wide area of coverage. When area being served by the tubing experiences a temperature increase, the air pressure increases and the heat detection device operates.
A. Pneumatic rate-of-rise “spot”.
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise “line”.
C. Rate-compensation.
D. Electronic spot-type.
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise “line”.
Rate-of-Rise Heat Detectors:
_____ heat detector is designed for use in areas that are subject to regular temperature changes, but it rates that are lower than those of fire conditions. It contains an outer bimetallic sleeve with a moderate expansion rate. This outer sleeve contains two bowed struts that have a slower expansion rate than the sleeve. If the rate of temperature rise is fairly slow such as 5 to 6°F per minute, the sleeve expands at a slow rate that maintains tension on the inner strips. This tension prevents unnecessary system activations.
A. Pneumatic rate-of-rise “spot”.
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise “line”.
C. Rate-compensation.
D. Electronic spot-type.
C. Rate-compensation.
Rate-of-Rise Heat Detectors:
_____ heat detectors consist of one or more thermistors that produce a marked change in electrical resistance when exposed to heat. Greater changes in temperature result in larger amounts of current flowing and activation of the alarm system.
A. Pneumatic rate-of-rise “spot”.
B. Pneumatic rate-of-rise “line”.
C. Rate-compensation.
D. Electronic spot-type.
D. Electronic spot-type.
Alarm-Signaling Systems:
_____ are only used in communities that are served by a municipal firebox alarm systems. This is a system within an occupancy that is attached directly to the municipal firebox alarm system. When an alarm is activated in the protected occupancy, it is transmitted directly over the same communication lines as the alarms from the street boxes. This results in an alarm signal being received directly at the fire department dispatch center.
A. Auxiliary fire-alarm system. B. Proprietary fire-alarm systems. C. Central station fire-alarm systems. D. Remote receiving fire-alarm systems. E. Protected premises (local) alarm system.
A. Auxiliary fire-alarm system.
practice test question
Alarm-Signaling Systems:
Two general types of auxiliary fire-alarm systems: Local energy system and Shut system:
1) Local energy system alarm systems have their own source of power and does not depend on the supply source that powers the entire municipal fire alarm system.
2) Shunt system is electrically connected to an integral part of the municipal fire-alarm system and depends on the municipal system’s source of electric power. When a power failure occurs, an alarm indication (false alarm) is sent to the fire department communication center. Only manual pull stations and water-flow detection devices are allowed to be used on this type of system.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
Alarm-Signaling Systems:
A _____ is used to protect large commercial and industrial buildings, high-rise structures, and groups of commonly owned facilities such as college campus or industrial complex in a single location. Each building or area has its own system that is wired into a common receiving point in the facility. The receiving point must be in a separate structure or part of the structure that is removed from any hazardous operations.
A. Auxiliary fire-alarm system. B. Proprietary fire-alarm systems. C. Central station fire-alarm systems. D. Remote receiving fire-alarm systems. E. Protected premises (local) alarm system.
B. Proprietary system.
Alarm Signaling Systems:
_____ are similar to a proprietary system except that receiving point for alarms is located outside the protected premises and is monitored by a contracted service. The contracted service is typically a company that sells its services to many customers. When an alarm is activated an employee receives that information and contacts the fire department and representatives of the occupancy.
A. Auxiliary fire-alarm system. B. Proprietary fire-alarm systems. C. Central station fire-alarm systems. D. Remote receiving fire-alarm systems. E. Protected premises (local) alarm system.
C. Central station fire-alarm systems.
Alarm Signaling Systems:
_____ are common in localities that are not served by central station systems. Instead of being connected to the fire department telecommunication center through a municipal fire alarm box system, the _____ are connected by other means, usually a least telephone line.
A. Auxiliary fire-alarm system. B. Proprietary fire-alarm systems. C. Central station fire-alarm systems. D. Remote receiving fire-alarm systems. E. Protected premises (local) alarm system.
D. Remote receiving fire-alarm systems.
Alarm-Signaling Systems:
_____ are designed to transmit both visible and an audible alarm only within the immediate premises. There are no provisions for off-site reporting. The alarm’s purpose is to alert the buildings occupants and to ensure their life safety.
A. Auxiliary fire-alarm system. B. Proprietary fire-alarm systems. C. Central station fire-alarm systems. D. Remote receiving fire-alarm systems. E. Protected premises (local) alarm system.
E. Protected premises (local) alarm system.
Alarm-Signaling Systems:
There are three basic types of Protected premises (local) alarm systems currently in use: Noncoded Local Alarm ; Zoned / Annunciated Alarm ; and Addressable Alarm System. The Addressable Alarm System is defined as:
A. Are the simplest type of local alarm. Signaling devices usually operate continuously until the FACP is reset. It is not capable of identifying what detector device triggered the alarm, therefore the building personnel or fire department must walk around the entire facility and visually check.
B. Should print out or visibly indicate the building, floor, fire zone, or other area that coincides with the location of an operating alarm detection device at the FACP or annunciation panel.
C. Is the most effective protected premises (local) alarm system. This system has each alarm detection device connected to a specific visible indicator on the FACP / annunciator panel. This allows building personnel or firefighters responding to the alarm to pinpoint the specific device that has been activated.
C. Is the most effective protected premises (local) alarm system. This system has each alarm detection device connected to a specific visible indicator on the FACP / annunciator panel. This allows building personnel or firefighters responding to the alarm to pinpoint the specific device that has been activated. (Addressable Alarm System)
________________________________
A. Are the simplest type of local alarm. Signaling devices usually operate continuously until the FACP is reset. It is not capable of identifying what detector device triggered the alarm, therefore the building personnel or fire department must walk around the entire facility and visually check. (Noncoded Local Alarm)
B. Should print out or visibly indicate the building, floor, fire zone, or other area that coincides with the location of an operating alarm detection device at the FACP or annunciation panel. (Zoned / Annunciated Alarm)
In most cases, occupancies should be inspected during normal business or operating hours. While it may be possible to inspect many of the necessary building features of a nightclub during nonoperating, daytime hours, there will be a number of factors that can only be properly addressed during evening operations. One example of these factors is:
A. Building occupancy changes.
B. Proper illumination and operation of exits.
C. Exit capacity.
D. Fire detection and alarm systems.
B. Proper illumination and operation of exits.
(Practice exam question x3)
Fire inspectors must have a systematic approach to performing the inspection. An inspector should choose one of the following common methods for performing an inspection… the exception is:
A. Start from the roof and work downward.
B. Start from the basement and work upward.
C. Follow an established manufacturing process within the structure from the raw materials to the finished product and include all storage areas.
D. Start from the middle and work outward.
D. Start from the middle and work outward. (FALSE)
Draft curtains, also called curtain boards, are designed to limit the mushrooming effect of heat and smoke as it rises in large areas of buildings that are not otherwise subdivided by partitions or walls. Generally, curtain boards should not extend below _____ feet from the floor.
A. 10 feet.
B. 12 feet.
C. 15 feet.
D. 20 feet.
A. 10 feet.
Most fire dampers have a fire-resistive rating of at least _____ .
A. 1 hour.
B. 1 1/2 hours.
C. 2 hours.
D. 2 1/2 hours.
B. 1 1/2 hours.
Cooking is another very common cause of fires. Cooking equipment must have a clearance of at least _____ to any combustible material, unless it is specially designed for a lesser clearance.
A. 8 inches.
B. 12 inches.
C. 16 inches.
D. 18 inches.
D. 18 inches.
Solid-fuel cooking equipment is becoming very common in many restaurants. Solid-fuel burning system that have a firebox greater than 5 cubic ft shall be protected by fixed water system with attached hose providing at least _____ psi.
A. 20 psi.
B. 40 psi.
C. 60 psi.
D. 80 psi.
B. 40 psi.
Exit “stairs” are a critical component of the means of egress and multistory buildings. When the total occupant load of all floors served by the stairway is less than 50 people, the stairway must be at least _____ wide. In occupant loads more than 50 people, stairways must be at least _____ inches wide.
A. 36 ; 44
B. 36 ; 48
C. 32 ; 44
D. 32 ; 48
A. 36 ; 44
36 inches (less than 50 people) 44 inches (more than 50 people)
Example 1: Occupant Load Calculation for Single-Use Occupancy -
An inspector must calculate the occupant load of a building that was formally a warehouse and has recently been turned into a nightclub. The area of the facility measures 100’ x 150’. As a nightclub, it will contain unconcentrated tables and chairs around a large dance floor. What is the legal occupant load for this building?
A. 1000 persons.
B. 500 persons.
C. 750 persons.
D. 1200 persons.
(100’ x 150’) = 1500 ft.²
-Allow 15 ft.² per person
Occupant Load = (1500 ft.² / 15 ft.²) = 1000 persons
(Just memorize question / answer of all 4 examples - examples are word for word in practice exams)
Example 2: Occupant Load Calculation for Single-Use Occupancy -
An inspector has been given architectural plans for a new building being constructed. The building will be used as a single-story parking garage, 100’ x 75’. What is the legal occupant load for the structure?
A. 30 persons.
B. 37 persons.
C. 46 persons.
D. 50 persons.
(100’ x 75’) = 7500 ft.²
-Allow 200 ft.² area per person
Occupant Load = (7500 ft.² / 200 ft.²) = 37 persons
(Memorize question/answer as it appears Word for Word in practice exams)
Example 3: Occupant Load Calculation for Multiuse Occupancy-
Inspectors are signed to determine the occupant load on a new youth oriented entertainment facility being constructed. The building’s main room is 100’ x 250’. Depending on the day of operation, this room is used as either a Dancehall or an exercise area (skating rink). What is the legal occupant load for this building?
A. 3,571 persons.
B. 4,543 persons.
C. 2,346 persons.
D. 3,474 persons.
(100’ x 250’) = 2500 ft.²
-Allow 7 ft.² floor area per person for dance hall
-Allow 50 ft.² Floor area per person for exercise area/skating rink.
•Occupant Load (when used as dance hall) = (2500 ft.² / 7 ft.²) = 3,571 persons
•Occupant Load (when used as exercise or skating) = (2500 ft.² / 50 ft.²) = 500 persons
•The occupancy load is based on the maximum number of people that will use the facility at one time, therefore:
•Occupant Load = 3,571 persons **
(Only need to memorize question and answer. Examples appear Word for Word on exam.)
Example 4: Occupant Load Calculation for Multiple Occupancies in One Structure -
An inspector has been given plan for a new single-story mercantile store. The inspector must determine the occupant load for the structure. The sales floor portion of the building is 100’ x 125’ and contains general displays for the merchandise. A storage area is located at the rear of the building for storage of additional stock and shipping and receiving activities. It is 75’ x 75’. What is the legal occupant load for this building?
A. 18 persons.
B. 416 persons.
C. 434 persons.
D. 456 persons.
Sales area (100’x125’) = 12,500 ft.²
Storage area (75’x75’) = 5625 ft.²
-Allow 30 ft.² per person for sales area, allow 300 ft.² per person for storage area.
•Occupant Load for Sales Area = (12,500 ft.² / 30 ft.²) = 416 persons
•Occupant Load for Storage Area = (5625 ft.² / 300 ft.²) = 18 persons
•Total Occupant Load for whole building = 416 persons (sales) + 18 persons (storage) = 434 person
•** Occupant Load = 434 Persons***
(Only need to memorize questions and the final Occupant Load answers. Examples appear Word for Word on practice exams.)
There are four phases in evacuating a hospital. Which of the following phases is FALSE:
A. Phase 1 activities involve evacuating a single room.
B. Phase 2 activities involve evacuating an entire zone.
C. Phase 3 activities involve evacuating an entire floor.
D. Phase 4 activities require a evacuating the entire corridor.
D. Phase 4 activities require a evacuating the entire “corridor”. (FALSE - “building”)
Sprinkler coverage in residential systems is not as extensive as in standard systems. In single-family dwellings, sprinklers can be omitted from many areas, including bathrooms not over 55 ft.²; Small closets not more than _____ and having a short wall that does not exceed 3 feet; Garages; Porches; carports; uninhabited Attics; and entrance hallways.
A. 12 ft.².
B. 20 ft.².
C. 24 ft.².
D. 32 ft.².
C. 24 ft.².
- The height of the building and class of service determine the size of the standpipe riser. For Class I & Class III service, the minimum riser is ____ inch pipe. But for buildings over 100 feet a riser of 6 inch pipe is required.
A. 2 inch.
B. 3 inch.
C. 4 inch.
D. 6 inch.
C. 4 inch.
Current practice is to locate Standpipes so that any part of the floor is within _____ of the Standpipe hose connection. This distance allows any fire to be reached with _____ of hose, and _____ of stream.
A. 100 feet ; 50 feet ; 50 feet.
B. 130 feet ; 100 feet ; 30 feet.
C. 150 feet ; 100 feet ; 50 feet.
D. 180 feet ; 150 feet ; 30 feet.
B. 130 feet ; 100 feet ; 30 feet.
_____ can be used to illustrate existing conditions and any serious problems or fire-code violations that are found at the time of inspection. They can be used in conjunction with sketches and drawings to provide an accurate portrayal of the scene. It is particularly helpful when documenting violations that may result in a citation or legal action.
A. Reports.
B. Witnesses.
C. Photographs.
D. Police.
C. Photographs.
Oil soaked rags that are rolled into a ball and thrown into a corner could be an example of _____ heating.
A. Resistance.
B. Compression.
C. Spontaneous.
D. Nuclear.
C. Spontaneous.
For exposure protection, it is recommended that lumberyards store their least combustible materials near the perimeter of the yard to act as a barrier between the yard adjacent properties or buildings. Unsprinklered buildings containing hazardous manufacturing operations should have at least _____ feet of clear space to the nearest lumber stack, shed, or warehouse.
A. 20 feet.
B. 25 feet.
C. 50 feet.
D. 75 feet.
C. 50 feet.
Electrical heating can occur in a variety of ways. A type of electrical heating occurs when the current flow is interrupted. Interruption occurs when there is a loose connection is known as:
A. Heat from aching.
B. Heat from resistance.
C. Heat from overloading.
D. Heat from sparking.
A. Heat from arcing.
There are two types of fire stops: Fire stop devices and Fire stop systems. Fire stop devices are:
A. Used for penetrations involving wiring or cable.
B. Used to stop the vertical flow of fire in platform wood frame construction.
C. Used for fireproof enclosures.
D. Used for partition walls.
A. Used for penetrations involving wiring or cable.
All quenching tanks should have drained to protect from overflow, particularly tanks that are _____ gallons or more. Also any tank over _____ gallons must have a bottom drain that opens automatically or manually in the event of a fire.
A. 150 gallons ; 500 gallons
B. 250 gallons ; 500 gallons.
C. 250 gallons ; 550 gallons.
D. 300 gallons ; 600 gallons.
A. 150 gallons ; 500 gallons
The floor or roof above a dry cleaning room shall have a fire-resistance rating of not less than _____ .
A. 1 hour.
B. 2 hours.
C. 2 1/2 hours.
D. 4 hours.
A. 1 hour.
Chargers for electric battery-operated units should be kept at least _____ from combustible materials. Charging areas should not be accessible to the public; and charging areas should be vented to prevent an accumulation of hydrogen gas.
A. 5 feet.
B. 10 feet.
C. 12 feet.
D. 15 feet.
A. 5 feet.
Horizontal exits are commonly used in high-rise and institutional-type buildings. These types of exits require a separating wall or partition having at least a _____ fire-resistance rating, with a _____ rated door fire door assembly rating. Horizontal exits may be substituted for other exits if they do not compose more than _____% of the total exit capacity of the building.
A. 2 hour ; 2 hour ; 50%
B. 2 hour ; 1 1/2 hour ; 50%
C. 4 hour ; 3 1/2 hour ; 50%
D. 4 hour ; 3 hour ; 50%
B. 2 hour ; 1 1/2 hour ; 50%
Generally, illuminated exit signs are required in most occupancies. Exit signs must be positioned so that no point in the exit access is more than _____ feet from the nearest visible sign. Letters on the exit signs must be at least _____ inches high and the principal strokes of the letter at least _____ inch wide.
A. 100 feet ; 6 inches ; 2 inches.
B. 100 feet ; 6 inches ; 3/4 inch.
C. 50 feet ; 4 inches ; 2 inches.
D. 50 feet ; 4 inches ; 3/4 inch .
B. 100 feet ; 6 inches ; 3/4 inch.
CLASS D - DRY POWDER AGENTS:
_____ - Sodium carbonate-based agent with additives to enhance its flow; designed specifically for use on sodium, potassium, and sodium-potassium alloy fires (NOT suitable on magnesium fires). Agent forms and encasing crust or cake on the burning material extinguishing the fire.
A. LITH-X.
B. MET-L-X.
C. NA-X.
D. Potassium bicarbonate.
C. NA-X.
CLASS D - DRY POWDER AGENTS:
_____ - Sodium chloride (salt) based agent intended for use on magnesium, sodium, and potassium fires; contains additives to enhance flowing and prevent caking in the extinguisher. It extinguishes metal fires by forming a crust on the burning metal. It is nonabrasive and has no known toxic effects.
A. LITH-X.
B. MET-L-X.
C. NA-X.
D. Potassium bicarbonate.
B. MET-L-X.
CLASS D - DRY POWDER AGENTS:
_____ - Graphite-based agent that extinguishes fires by conducting heat away from the fuel after a layer of powder has been applied to the fuel; can be used on several combustible metals. Developed to control lithium fires but can also be used to extinguish magnesium, zirconium, and sodium fires. Unlike other dry powders, it does not form a crust on the burning metal.
A. LITH-X.
B. MET-L-X.
C. NA-X.
D. Potassium bicarbonate.
A. LITH-X.
Only water, carbon dioxide, and carbon monoxide are released from all materials that burn. The other gases released are dependent on the specific chemical makeup of the fuel. Which of the following combinations list detectors performance from fastest to slowest?
A. Heat - Smoke - Fire gas.
B. Fire gas - Heat - Smoke.
C. Smoke - Heat - Fire gas.
D. Smoke - Fire gas - Heat.
D. 1.Smoke -> 2.Fire Gas -> 3.Heat
Smokeproof enclosures must have a _____ fire-rating in buildings that are four stories or taller.
A. 2 hour.
B. 2 1/2 hour.
C. 3 hour.
D. 4 hour.
A. 2 hour.
Some residential sprinklers can be spaced to protect an area as large as 20×20 feet. However, with the sprinkler spacing, the minimum discharge with one sprinkler operating is increased to _____ gpm. With two sprinklers operating _____ gallons per minute per sprinkler.
A. 42 GPM ; 32 GPM
B. 42.5 GPM ; 32.5 GPM
C. 32 GPM ; 22 GPM
D. 32.5 GPM ; 22.5 GPM
D. 32.5 GPM ; 22.5 GPM
The two main types of modern fire hydrants are dry-barrel hydrants and wet-barrel hydrants. Regardless of the design or type, the hydrant outlets are considered to be standard if there is at least one large (1)_____ inches outlet for pumper supply (often referred to as “pumper outlet nozzle” or “steamer connection”; and two hose outlet nozzles for (2)_____ inch couplings.
A. 4 or 4.5 inch ; 2 1/2 inch.
B. 4 or 5 inch ; 2 1/2 inch.
C. 4 or 4.5 inch ; 3 inch.
D. 4 or 5 inch ; 3 inch.
A. 4 or 4.5 inch ; 2 1/2 inch.
Fire extinguishers for use on Claspie fires are classified with numerical ratings from 1-B through 640-B. The number indicates the approximate area, in square feet of fire involving a 2-inch layer of n-heptane in an 8-inch deep pan that can be extinguished. For example, a “trained” operator using a 10-B portable fire extinguisher can be expected expected to extinguish fire of _____sq. ft. An “untrained” operator using a 10-B portable fire extinguisher can be expected to extinguish fire of _____ sq. ft.
A. 25 ft.² ; 15 ft.²
B. 20 ft.² ; 10 ft.²
C. 25 ft.² ; 10 ft.²
D. 30 ft.² ; 15 ft.²
C. 25 ft.² ; 10 ft.²
- 25 sq ft (trained operator)
- 10 sq ft (untrained operator)
The wet-chemical agent is typically a solution that is composed of water and either potassium carbonate or potassium acetate. A wet-chemical system is best suited for application in:
A. Commercial cooking hoods, plumes, ducts, and associating
cooking appliances.
B. Flammable liquid storage rooms, dip tanks, paint spray booth.
C. Computer rooms, data storage areas, telecommunications facilities.
D. Flammable liquids processing or storage facilities, aircraft hangers, rolled paper or fabric storage facilities.
A. Commercial cooking hoods, plumes, ducts, and associating
cooking appliances. (Wet-chemical)
________________________________
B. Flammable liquid storage rooms, dip tanks, paint spray booth. (Dry-chemical)
C. Computer rooms, data storage areas, telecommunications facilities. (Clean-agent)
D. Flammable liquids processing or storage facilities, aircraft hangers, rolled paper or fabric storage facilities. (Foam)
When fire breaks out in any confined area, it drastically changes the chemical gas content of that atmosphere. Only 3 gases are released from “ALL” materials that burn, they are 1._____, 2._____, and 3._____. Whether other gases are released depends on the specific chemical makeup of the fuel.
A. Carbon monoxide, Sulfuric gas vapors, and Oxogen.
B. Water, Oxogen, and Carbon dioxide.
C. Carbon dioxide, Carbon monoxide, and Oxogen.
D. Water, Carbon dioxide, and Carbon monoxide.
D. Water, Carbon dioxide, and Carbon monoxide.
• Water (H2O), Carbon dioxide (CO2), and Carbon monoxide (CO)
The three general types of drawings used to show structure, facility, or site information are… the exception is:
A. Plot Plan.
B. Floor Plan.
C. Elevation view/drawing.
D. Ariel view.
D. Ariel view. (FALSE)
Fire exit drills should be conducted in all types of occupancy. The responsibility for planning and executing fire drills lies with the:
A. Head of the fire department.
B. Fire marshal.
C. Occupancy’s loss control or safety staff and management.
D. Occupancy’s owner.
C. Occupancy’s loss control or safety staff and management.
The _____ is frequently defined as the rapid oxidation of combustible materials accompanied by the release of energy in the form of heat and light.
A. Combustion process.
B. Ignition process.
C. Flammability process.
D. Combustibility process.
A. Combustion process.
Places of assembly include, but are not limited to, all buildings or portions of buildings used for the gathering together of more than _____ persons for such purposes as deliberations, worship, entertainment, dining, amusement, or waiting transportation.
A. 25 persons.
B. 50 persons.
C. 75 persons.
D. 100 persons.
B. 50 persons.
Exits include: the exception is:
A. Horizontal exit.
B. Interior stairs.
C. Exterior stairs.
D. Elevators.
D. Elevators. (exit access)
Horizontal exits are becoming popular in high rise and institutional type buildings:
1. These types of exits require a separating wall or partition having at least a _____ hour fire resistance rating. 2. Horizontal exit door assembly installed in the fire barrier would require a _____ hour fire rated door, and they must swing in the direction of exit travel. 3. Horizontal exits may be substituted for other exits if they do not compose more than _____% of the total exit capacity of the building.
A. 4 hour ; 3 hour ; 50%
B. 2 1/2 hour ; 2 hour ; 50%
C. 2 hour ; 1 1/2 hour ; 50%
D. 1 hour ; 1/2 hour ; 50%
C. 2 hour ; 1 1/2 hour ; 50%
_____ are designed to connect an interior exit stair to an exit door on the exterior of the structure; they must be constructed of the same fire-resistance-rated material as the exit stairs. Simply, it is similar to an exit stair enclosure except that it is constructed in a horizontal plane. In buildings with extremely large areas such a shopping malls, large factories, or industrial complexes, the _____ can be used to shorten the travel distance to an exit. Must be wide enough to accommodate the total capacity of all exits that discharge through.
A. Exits.
B. Exit passageways.
C. Exit discharge.
D. Exit escape.
B. Exit passageways.
An assembly area of concentrated use without fixed seating, such as an auditorium would have a maximum floor area allowance of _____ sq. ft. per person.
A. 5.
B. 10.
C. 15.
D. 20.
C. 15 ft.² per person.
In business areas, the occupant load is _____ ft.² per person.
A. 15.
B. 30.
C. 50.
D. 100.
D. 100 ft.² per person.
Heat energy generally comes from five sources… the exception is:
A. Chemical heat energy. B. Mechanical heat energy. C. Electrical heat energy. D. Light heat energy. E. Nuclear heat energy. F. Radioactive heat energy.
F. Radioactive heat energy. (FALSE)
One _____ is the amount of heat required to raise 1 pound of water 1°F.
A. BTU.
B. Degree C.
C. Calorie.
D. Joule.
A. British thermal unit (BTU).
Atmospheric air contains _____% oxygen.
A. 18%
B. 19%
C. 20%
D. 21%
D. 21% oxygen
- The density of liquids in relation to water is known as specific gravity. Liquids with a specific gravity of less than 1 (such as gasoline) are _____ than water. Liquids with a specific gravity greater than 1 are _____ than water.
A. Heavier (sink) ; lighter (float)
B. Lighter (float) ; heavier (sink)
C. Heavier (float) ; lighter (sink)
D. Lighter (sink) ; heavier (float)
B. Lighter (float) ; heavier (sink)
The following materials are excellent conductors… the exception is:
A. Steel
B. Aluminum
C. Glass
D. Copper
C. Glass
Maintaining a relative humidity of _____% to _____% greatly reduces the static electricity problems associated with manufacturing of paper, cloth, and fiber.
A. 30 - 40%
B. 40 - 50%
C. 50 - 60%
D. 60 -70%
D. 60 -70%
_____ are used for Class B and C fires. They operate on the principle of inert gas that will not support combustion. It is self-propelled, because it is stored under it’s own pressure, it is ready for release at any time.
A. Water extinguishers.
B. Carbon dioxide extinguishers.
C. Halogenated agent extinguishers.
D. Wet-chemical extinguishers.
B. Carbon dioxide extinguishers.
_____ extinguish the fire by a complicated, chemically dynamic process which inhibits the combustion reaction.
A. Water extinguishers.
B. Carbon dioxide extinguishers.
C. Halogenated agent extinguishers.
D. Wet-chemical extinguishers.
C. Halogenated agent extinguishers.
- NFPA 10 recommends that extinguisher inspections be performed _____ . 2. However fire extinguishers should be “thoroughly” inspected at least _____ .
A. Weekly ; monthly
B. Monthly ; semiannually
C. Monthly ; annually
D. Weekly ; semiannually
C. Monthly ; annually (yearly)
Storage pressure extinguishers that require a 12 year hydrostatic test must be emptied every _____ years for complete maintance.
A. 3 years.
B. 5 years.
C. 6 years.
D. 12 years.
C. 6 years.
Class II standpipe systems are generally limited to _____ feet in height. Buildings in excess of _____ feet are zoned so this requirement can be satisfied.
A. 150 feet.
B. 250 feet.
C. 275 feet.
D. 300 feet.
C. 275 feet.
Dry standpipe systems should be hydrostatic we tested every _____ .
A. Month.
B. Year.
C. 3 years.
D. 5 years.
D. 5 years.
The exit access is that portion of a means of egress that leads to an exit. Compartments that commonly serve as exit access are… the exception is:
A. Stairs
B. Hallways
C. Corridors
D. Aisles
A. Stairs (Enclosed stairs = exit)
The means of egress system consists of 3 basic elements: exit access, exit, and exit discharge. Answer the following 9 examples:
- Unclosed stairs or ramp = _____
- Stairway that is enclosed by smoke proof enclosure = _____
- Occupied room or space = _____
- Doors at ground level that lead directly to the outside = _____
- Exit passageways, horizontal exits = _____
- Corridor, aisle, pathway, or hallway = _____
- Drive or alley that connects to a public way = _____
- Exit passageway to the outside = _____
- Exterior walkway along the side of a structure leading to a public way = _____
- Exit access
- Exit
- Exit access
- Exit
- Exit
- Exit access
- Exit discharge
- Exit
- Exit discharge
Portable fire extinguisher is viewed by some as the _____ against incipient fires of limited size.
A. First line of offense.
B. Last line of offense.
C. Fist line of defense.
D. Last line of defense.
C. First line of defense.
_____ agent leave no residue and are sometimes referred to as a “clean agent”. The concentration of agent needed to extinguish fire under normal circumstances is between 3% and 7%.
A. Carbon dioxide.
B. Halogen.
C. Dry chemical.
D. Foam.
B. Halogenated agent.
A _____ alarm system is used in an occupancy when the potential for panic it’s high, such as in a hospital. The system responds by first alerting emergency personnel, then alerting the general occupancy.
A. Duel action.
B. Presignal.
C. Pre action.
D. Duel signal.
B. Presignal alarm.
The maximum lengths for valve spacing should be (1)_____ feet in high-value districts and (2)_____ feet in other areas as recommended by commercial risk services.
Or as the practice exam states:
On water mains the maximum lengths for valve spacing should be (1)_____ feet in high-value districts. The maximum lengths for valve spacing in suburban areas is (2)_____ feet.
A. 500 ; 1000
B. 500 ; 800
C. 800 ; 1000
D. 400 ; 800
B. 500 ; 800
The water line on which sprinklers are directly installed is called:
A. Main lines.
B. Risers.
C. Distributors.
D. Branch lines.
D. Branch lines.
Pressure tanks are a source of water supply for sprinkler systems. This type of tank is filled 2/3 full of water and has an air pressure of at least:
A. 50 psi
B. 75 psi
C. 100 psi
D. 150 psi
B. 75psi
A _____ sprinkler system contains piping with closed sprinklers. Air is maintained under pressure within the system piping. Water is held back by a deluge valve, which is tripped when fire detection devices activate. If a sprinkler or pipe is broken, no water will flow. If a detector malfunctions water will enter the system but none will be discharged unless a sprinkler actuates.
A. Wet-pipe.
B. Dry-pipe.
C. Deluge.
D. Preaction.
D. Preaction.
Carbon dioxide systems exist as either high-pressure systems or low-pressure systems. 1. In high-pressure systems the carbon dioxide is stored at a pressure of _____ psi. 2. The low-pressure system is designed to protect much larger hazards. The liquefied carbon dioxide in the system is stored in large, refrigerated tanks at _____ psi and at 0°F.
A. 1500 ; 300
B. 1000 ; 50
C. 800 ; 300
D. 800 ; 50
A. 850 psi (high pressure) ; 300 psi (low pressure)
Halogenated agents are principally effective on Class B and Class C fires. They are not effective on most _____ .
A. Hydrocarbons.
B. Reactive metals.
C. Electrical equipment.
D. Plastics.
B. Reactive metals.
The water distribution system consists of three main feeders.
- Primary feeders - Large pipes, known as arterial names, with a relatively widespread spacing. Can be very large, beginning at 16 inches and extending to 72 inches in diameter or greater. Fire hydrants are rarely attached directly to these mains.
- Secondary feeders - Intermediate pipes that interconnect with the primary feeder lines to create a grid. They are 12 to 14 inches in diameter.
- Distributors - Smallest water mains, 6 to 8 inches in diameter, that serve individual fire hydrants and commercial and residential customers. May form an intermittent grid between secondary feeders or may be dead-end lines with the hydrant or supplied property at the end of the line.
A. #1 & #2 are true.
B. #1 & #3 are true.
C. #2 & #3 are true.
D. All three are true.
D. All three are true.
When water is converted into steam at _____°F, it expands approximately _____ times and can cool a much larger area.
A. 212°F ; 2,700
B. 100°F ; 1,700
C. 100°F ; 2,700
D. 212°F ; 1,700
D. 212°F ; 1,700 times
Normal oxygen content in the air is _____%, nitrogen makes up _____% of air.
A. 21% ; 78%
B. 21% ; 79%
C. 19% ; 78%
D. 19% ; 79%
A. 21% ; 78%
Fire stop devices and systems must be constructed of materials that do not readily breakdown when exposed to heat or flame. Acceptable materials include… the exception is:
A. Wood.
B. Sheet metal.
C. Gypsum board.
D. Sand.
A. Wood. (FALSE)
There are three primary methods of storing materials within a warehouse… The exception is:
A. Palletized storage
B. Rack storage
C. Bulk storage
D. Solid piling
C. Bulk storage (FALSE)
Pallet storage, Rack storage, and Solid piling are types of storage found in.
A. Lumberyards.
B. Warehouses.
C. Recycling facilities.
D. Pallet storage facilities.
B. Warehouses. (and High pile storage)
The are three primary Warehouse & High-Piled Storage methods. _____ - Consists of materials that are stored on _____, most of which are made of wood, although the use of the metal or plastic is finding increased use. Plastic _____, while more resilient and longer-lasting and wooden ones, contribute up to three times the fuel load compared to that of wooden ones.
A. Pallet storage.
B. Rack storage.
C. Solid piling.
D. Bulk storage.
A. Pallet storage.
The are three primary Warehouse & High-Piled Storage methods. _____ - Consists of a structural framework onto which pallets or other materials are placed. The height of these various depending on the inside ceiling height of the building and equipment available to load and retrieve items from them. Heights exceeding 25 feet are not uncommon, Special automated systems may exceed 100 feet in height.
A. Pallet storage.
B. Rack storage.
C. Solid piling.
D. Bulk storage.
B. Rack storage.
The are three primary Warehouse & High-Piled Storage methods. _____ - Involves stacking boxes, bags, bales, or the products themselves directly on top of each other, which may be done by hand or forklift. When compared to the other two methods of storage, this type gives a fire the least chance to develop because it limits the airspace between the fuel units.
A. Pallet storage.
B. Rack storage.
C. Solid piling.
D. Bulk storage.
C. Solid piling.
Fuel is the material or substance being oxidized or burned in the combustion process. In scientific terms, the fuel in a combustion reaction is known as the reducing agent.
1) Organic fuels such as hydrogen or magnesium do not contain carbon.
2) Inorganic fuels contain carbon; most common fuels.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
D. #1 & #2 are false. (Opposite)
Fuel gases and vapors are created from solid fuels by _____, it is the chemical decomposition of a substance through the action of heat.
A. Combustion.
B. Pyrolysis.
C. Constipation.
D. Heating.
B. Pyrolysis.
Heat is a form of energy, and energy exists in two states: _____ is the energy possessed by a moving object, heat is a type of this energy.
A. Potential energy.
B. Kinetic energy.
C. Heat energy.
D. Mechanical energy.
B. Kinetic energy.
There are two forms of ignition:
1) Piloted ignition occurs when a mixture of fuel and oxygen encounters an external heat source with sufficient heat energy to start the combustion reaction. (Most common)
2) Autoignition occurs without any external flame or spark to ignite the fuel gases or vapors. The fuel surface is chemically heated to the point at which the combustion reaction occurs.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
Three of the more common products of combustion that can be hazardous to occupants and firefighters are… the exception is:
A. Carbon monoxide (CO).
B. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN).
C. Carbon dioxide (CO2).
D. Oxogen (O2).
D. Oxogen (O2). (FALSE)
Apartment buildings that are greater than _____ may be considered as high-rise structures and may require greater fire and life safety protection.
A. 6 stories.
B. 7 stories.
C. 8 stories.
D. 10 stories.
B. 7 stories.
The strength of wood varies significantly with species, grade, and direction of load with respect to grain - wood is stronger in the direction parallel to the grain. The allowable compressive strength parallel to the grain varies from ____ to ____ for commercially available grades and species of framing lumber.
A. 125 psi
B. 325 psi
Dimension lumber has a nominal thickness of 2 to 4 inches. It is available in length from 8 to 16 feet in 2 foot increments; in addition, members for use as rafters can be supplied in lengths up to _____ .
A. 22 feet.
B. 24 feet.
C. 28 feet.
D. 32 feet.
B. 24 feet.
Wood Structures:
1) In Heavy Timber design, the columns are not less than 8x8 inches and beams are not less than 6x10 inches.
2) In Post and Beam design, the posts are usually 4x4 inches or 6x6 inches. The posts are usually spaced at 4 to 12 feet apart.
3) Light Wood - frame construction makes use of 4 inch nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches.
A. #1 & #2 are true.
B. #1 & #3 are true.
C. #2 & #3 are true.
D. All three are true.
A. #1 & #2 are true.
________________________________
3) Light Wood - frame construction makes use of “4 inch” nominal pieces of lumber measuring 2x4 or 2x8 inches. (FALSE - “2 inch”)
_____ are constructed with sufficient fire resistant and structural stability to act as an absolute barrier to fire under conditions of a total burnout on either side. Can be constructed with fire-resistance ratings of 2 or more hours; the highest rating required by building codes is 4 hours.
A. Party walls. B. Fire walls. C. Enclosure walls. D. Curtain walls. E. Movable partition walls.
B. Fire walls.
Walls: 2 types of Fire Walls:
1) Freestanding fire walls must be designed to resist a lateral load of at least 5 pounds per square foot. Typically found in wood-frame or masonry construction.
2) Tied fire walls are erected at a column line in a building of steel-frame or concrete-frame construction. The structural framework must have sufficient strength to resist the lateral pull of the collapse of framework on either side.
A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
Fire walls must extend beyond walls and roofs to prevent the radiant heat of flames from igniting adjacent surfaces. This extension is accomplished by continuing the firewall through the roof in the form of a _____ .
A. Roof wall.
B. Parapet.
C. Extended fire wall.
D. Fire resistance roof barrier.
B. Parapet.
Building codes determine that the parapet height above combustible roofs must be _____ .
A. 6 - 12 inches.
B. 12 - 24 inches.
C. 18 - 36 inches.
D. 20 - 40 inches.
C. 18 - 36 inches.
_____ lay on a lot line between two buildings and is common to both buildings. Common in old masonry construction, row-house or town-house construction. They are almost always loadbearing walls, and frequently function as fire walls that extended through a building from the basement through the roof and are capped with a parapet.
A. Party walls. B. Fire walls. C. Enclosure walls. D. Curtain walls. E. Movable partition walls.
A. Party walls.
Fire Partitions and Fire Barriers are interior walls used to subdivide a floor or area of a building but do NOT qualify as _____ .
A. Party walls. B. Fire walls. C. Enclosure walls. D. Curtain walls. E. Movable partition walls.
B. Fire walls.
_____ are used to encompass vertical openings such as stairwells, elevator shafts, and pipe chases that extend from floor to floor in a building. The purpose is to block the vertical spread of fire through a building, and in the case of stairwells, protect the means of egress. Must be fire barriers and are usually non-load bearing.
A. Party walls. B. Fire walls. C. Enclosure walls. D. Curtain walls. E. Movable partition walls.
C. Enclosure walls. (aka Shaft Walls)
