Company Officer Flashcards
Orders vs Directives:
- _____ are based upon the authority delegated to the fire officer to implement organizational policies and procedures. Compliance is mandatory because an order is based upon a policy or procedure.
vs - A _____ is not based on a policy or procedure; it is more in the nature of a request. They are not mandatory except during emergency situations.
However, on the fire ground or at other emergency incidents, they are both considered mandatory because of the seriousness of the situation.
- Orders
2. Directive
\_\_\_\_\_ are based upon the authority delegated to the fire officer to implement organizational policies and procedures. Compliance is mandatory because an order is based upon a policy or procedure. Examples: -Open the roof. -Run a big line. -Raise a ladder to that window.
A. Orders.
B. Directives.
C. Priorities.
D. Goals.
A. Orders.
A(n) _____ is not based on a policy or procedure; it is more in the nature of a request. They are not mandatory except during emergency situations.
Example:
-Wash the truck.
A. Order.
B. Directive.
C. Priority.
D. Goal.
B. Directive.
The best method for handling the chronic complainer is to:
A. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success and high visibility.
B. Just ignore him and hope he will change.
C. Transfer him.
D. Discipline him.
A. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success and high visibility.
At a fire you order one of your firefighters to get a ladder and ventilate the roof. On his way to do this assignment one of your superior officers stopped the firefighter and gives him different orders that he follows. What would be the best solution to this problem:
A. You should discuss the problem with your superior officer that gave him the orders.
B. You should consider this a personal problem.
C. The firefighter needs more training.
D. You should discipline the firefighter.
A. You should discuss the problem with your superior officer that gave him the orders.
Which of the following could be held liable in a “tort” action:
A. A government agency but not an individual employee.
B. An individual employee but not a government agency.
C. Both an individual employee and a government agency.
D. Neither an individual employee nor a government agency.
C. Both an individual employee and a government agency.
- _____ a management principle that states that each subordinate must have only one supervisor.
- _____ is the pathway of responsibility from the top of the organization to the bottom and vice versa.
- _____ is the number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise. This principle applies equally to supervising the crew of a single company or the officers of several companies under the direction of an incident commander.
- Unity of command
- Chain of command
- Span of control
Span of Control:
A a rule of thumb for the fire service is that an officer can effectively direct or supervise ___ - ___ individuals, with the optimum number being ___ individuals.
3 - 7 individuals
5 individuals being optimum
When firefighters are assigned to a new or different company, they may need help in learning the methods by which the crew operates. The company officer should open clear lines of communication from the beginning of the relationship to ensure proper and complete transfer of information to the new member. Which of the following would be a good way to open this relationship:
A. A one on one conversation with other members of the company.
B. The new member sharing expectations with the company.
C. Let the new member learn by observation.
D. A one on one conversation between the company officer and the new member.
D. A one on one conversation between the company officer and the new member.
When conducting the interior facility survey by making a floor plan of each floor showing the location of…… the exception is:
A. Permanent walls. B. Desks.
C. Partitions. C. Machinery.
B. Desks.
As a general rule, when authority is delegated and excepted earnestly, mistakes made by the subordinates should be considered as subjects for _____ .
A. Disciple.
B. Training rather than discipline.
C. Suspension.
D. Termination.
B. Training rather than discipline.
An indicator of high power needs for firefighters would be which of the following.
A. Sticks with a task until completion.
B. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
C. Enjoys challenges.
D. Tries hard to be friendly and to make friends.
B. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
If the type of building construction is not clear, it usually is easier to determine the type of building construction from; the exception is:
A. In an attic.
B. In an unfinished basement.
C. On the sidewalk in front of the house.
D. While on the roof.
C. On the sidewalk in front of the house. (False statement)
The most productive way to harness the individuals potential is to align the requirements of the organization with the aspirations and skills of the individual. The best way to monitor this alignment is with:
A. Negative criticism.
B. Employee reprimand.
C. Employee evaluation.
D. Employee judgment.
C. Employee evaluation.
At no time should an offense of attack and a defense of attack be conducted simultaneously. Trying to conduct both and offenses and defensive attack is especially risky to:
A. The offense of team.
B. The defense of team.
C. Neither the offenses nor defensive team.
D. Both the offenses and defensive teams.
A. The offense of team.
Highwinds, a major factor in several fires throughout history should remind fire officers to consider master stream appliances for exposure protection as an initial priority and to use:
A. Fog nozzles instead of smoothbore tips.
B. Smoothbore tips instead of fog nozzles.
C. Neither smoothbore tips nor fog nozzles.
D. Both smoothbore tips and fog nozzles.
B. Smoothbore tips instead of fog nozzles.
Loss of life’s greatest between:
A. Midnight and 6 AM.
B. 8 PM and 8 AM.
C. Midnight and 8 AM.
D. 10 PM and 8 AM.
A. Midnight and 6 AM.
It is important for the officer to realize that the ability to positively influence the group is not dependent upon holding the informal leadership role. Generally, any role within the group can be used to help guide the group, and learn to use the influence of that role: The most detrimental action the officer can take is to:
A. Stay with the informal group.
B. Join the formal group.
C. Separate from the informal group.
D. Stay with the formal group.
C. Separate from the informal group.
People tend to pursue actions for which they received positive strokes. They tend to avoid actions for which they receive negative strokes. If no strokes are given by the company officer, individual members of the company can be expected to:
A. Be grateful that they have been left alone.
B. At least seek a negative stroke.
C. Behave in a manner that will only produce positive strokes.
D. Complain to the company officer.
B. At least seek a negative stroke.
Stopping by someone’s workplace just to say good morning is an example of what kind of power:
A. Coercive. C. Identification.
B. Expert. D. Reward.
D. Reward.
Power Types: (5)
According to Webster’s dictionary, “power” is the possession of control, authority, or influence over others.
_____ - Power is based on one person’s perception of another’s ability to grant rewards. Perceived power increases in the direct relation to the amount of rewards an employee sees a leader or supervisor controlling. Results depend on the strength of subordinates’ desires for these rewards and their perceptions of the leader’s ability to provide them.
Examples:
-Getting a raise or bonus
-Being promoted to a more responsible job
-Getting an expanded operating budget
-Gaining trust or respect
-Gaining additional authority
A. Identification power B. Legitimate power C. Expert power D. Reward power E. Coercive
D. Reward power
Power Types: (5)
According to Webster’s dictionary, “power” is the possession of control, authority, or influence over others.
_____ - Power is based on subordinates’ perceptions of the leader’s authority to punish.
Examples:
-Verbal or written reprimand for substandard work performance
-Suspension without pay
-Withholding a promised or expected reward such as a raise or promotion
-Termination
A. Identification power B. Legitimate power C. Expert power D. Reward power E. Coercive
E. Coercive
Power Types: (5)
According to Webster’s dictionary, “power” is the possession of control, authority, or influence over others.
_____ - Power is derived from someone’s desire to identify with or emulate another. Celebrities often use this power to sell merchandise or deliver public service messages.
Another form of this power is reference or personal power, which is one’s perception that they have power because of a relationship with someone who does have power. For example, a company officer may be a neighbor of the mayor. The Fire Chief and others may perceive the company officer has power in the form of influence because of his relationship.
A. Identification power B. Legitimate power C. Expert power D. Reward power E. Coercive
A. Identification power
Power Types: (5)
According to Webster’s dictionary, “power” is the possession of control, authority, or influence over others.
_____ - Power is based on one person’s perception that another’s knowledge and expertise can help in the first person’s endeavors. Knowledge is power, and those who have knowledge also have power. In any given situation, the one with the most knowledge often has the most power, even if that person does not have the most authority. In certain situations, a formal leader will accede to a subordinate who has greater knowledge about a subject, process, or situation.
Example:
-A firefighter who is a ropes expert in a high angle rescue situation
-A firefighter who is a hazmat specialist in a hazmat situation
A. Identification power B. Legitimate power C. Expert power D. Reward power E. Coercive
C. Expert power
Power Types: (5)
According to Webster’s dictionary, “power” is the possession of control, authority, or influence over others.
_____ - Power is derived because of the organizational structure of the department/organization. The agency (department/organization) invests this power in company officers in order to conduct the functions assigned to their unit.
A. Identification power B. Legitimate power C. Expert power D. Reward power E. Coercive
B. Legitimate power
_____ power is one’s perception that they have power because of a relationship with someone who does have power. For example, a company officer may be a neighbor of the mayor. The Fire Chief and others may perceive the company officer has power in the form of influence because of his relationship.
A. Personal power.
B. Knowledge power.
C. Legitimate power.
D. Information power.
A. Personal power aka Referent power.
Other forms of “Identification Power”
_____ power is based on the perception that a person or group controls information that is needed to perform a duty or activity.
A. Personal power.
B. Referent power.
C. Identification Power.
D. Information power.
D. Information power or Knowledge power.
Other forms of Expert Power
_____ is another term derived because of the organizational structure of the department/organization.
A. Personal power.
B. Knowledge power.
C. Position Power.
D. Referent power.
C. Position Power or Organizational Authority.
Other terms for Legitimate power
Company officers are most likely involved and what type of planning:
A. Medium-range. C. Short term.
B. Long-range. D. Medium-long.
C. Short term.
Early in life, individuals realize that they belong to various groups. These groups, from an individual’s perspective, are “in-groups”. Unfortunately, many people seem to comprehend their in-group memberships largely in terms of the differences, real and imagined from members of out-groups. The action of thinking of themselves as distinctly different from out-group members often results in the rejection of out-groups. This rejection is expressed in the form of… The exception is:
A. Verbal rejection.
B. Physical avoidance.
C. Physical confrontation.
D. Discrimination.
C. Physical confrontation. (False)
Basic Leadership Style:
_____ -The leader tell subordinates what to do and how to do it with little or no input from them. If this is the dominant leadership style used, it may result in significant challenges from subordinates. This style is appropriate for emergency operations but lacks effectiveness in daily operations.
Example: Giving emergency scene orders and commands.
A. Democratic. B. Autocratic. C. Laissez-faire. D. Two-Dimensional. E. Contingency Leadership Theory.
B. Autocratic.
Basic Leadership Style:
_____ -The leader includes employees in the decision making process and allows them to work with the least amount of supervision necessary. The style is appropriate for both day-to-day and special emergency operations such as hazardous materials or technical rescue incidents where knowledge and skills are more important than rank.
A. Democratic. B. Autocratic. C. Laissez-faire. D. Two-Dimensional. E. Contingency Leadership Theory.
A. Democratic.
Basic Leadership Style:
_____ -The leader leaves employees to make all the decisions and does not supervise them at all. This style is appropriate for routine station or community tasks. However, if it is the dominant leadership style, it can result in the loss of respect from followers and has the potential for a challenge from a strong informal leader. It should never be used at emergency incidents.
A. Democratic. B. Autocratic. C. Laissez-faire. D. Two-Dimensional. E. Contingency Leadership Theory.
C. Laissez-faire.
In French, it literally means “to allow to do”.
_____ Leadership Style is represented by a four-quadrant chart that compares the degree of job structure to the degree of employee consideration (also referred to as job-centered and employee-centered). Depending on the amount of emphasis placed on getting the job done through an autocratic approach or allowing employees full authority (as in the laissez-faire approach), this type of leadership style can be plotted on a graph. Graph measures concern for people over concern for task and plotted on the four quadrants: participating, delegating, telling, selling.
A. Democratic. B. Autocratic. C. Laissez-faire. D. Two-Dimensional. E. Contingency Leadership Theory.
D. Two-Dimensional Leadership Style.
_____ Leadership Theory is based on the belief that there is no single best leadership style. Application of this theory requires that the situation be matched to the leadership style.
Factors that affect the success or failure of particular leadership style include answers to the following questions:
-How good is the relationship between the leader in the subordinates?
-Is the task structured or unstructured?
-Is the leader working from a position of strong or weak power?
A. Democratic. B. Autocratic. C. Laissez-faire. D. Two-Dimensional. E. Contingency.
E. Contingency Leadership Theory.
Contemporary Leadership Styles:
_____ - Inspires follower loyalty and creates an enthusiastic vision that others work to attain. Leaders have strong personalities, and it is sometimes difficult to separate the personality of a leader from that of the organization. When the leader dies or leaves the organization, it is difficult to find a replacement who can live up to the image of the _____ leader.
A. Transactional.
B. Transformational.
C. Symbolic.
D. Charismatic.
D. Charismatic.
Contemporary Leadership Styles:
_____ - Depends on continuous learning, innovation, and change within the organization. This leader works to involve followers in the change process, challenge them to attain their full potential, and create follower satisfaction and growth while still meeting organizational goals.
A. Transactional.
B. Transformational.
C. Symbolic.
D. Charismatic.
B. Transformational.
Contemporary Leadership Styles:
_____ - Involves an exchange between a leader and followers in which followers perform tasks effectively in exchange for rewards provided by the leader. It is a style that can be used by first-line supervisors and middle-level managers who have the authority or ability to provide rewards.
A. Transactional.
B. Transformational.
C. Symbolic.
D. Charismatic.
A. Transactional.
Contemporary Leadership Styles:
_____ - Bases theory on a strong organizational culture that holds common values and believes. Leadership starts at the top of the organization and extends downward to the first-line supervisor. Employees and subordinates have full faith and trust in the leadership of the organization. Leaders are viewed as infallible.
The difficulty associated with this type of leadership is that employees fail to question leadership decisions or to speak openly when management makes apparent errors.
A. Transactional.
B. Transformational.
C. Symbolic.
D. Charismatic.
C. Symbolic.
_____ leadership believes:
- The average worker is inherently lazy, dislikes work, and will avoid it whenever possible.
- Because of their inherent dislike of work, most workers must be coerced into performing adequately by threats of punishment.
- The average worker prefers to be closely supervised and shuns responsibility because of a general lack of ambition.
A. Theory W.
B. Theory X.
C. Theory Y.
D. Theory Z.
B. Theory X.
_____ leadership believes:
- The average worker does not inherently dislike work; in fact, workers feel work can be as natural as rest or play.
- Workers will perform adequately with self-direction and self-control without coercion.
- Workers will support organizational objectives if they associate those objectives with their personal goals.
- The average worker learns not only to accept responsibility but, in fact, also learns to seek responsibility.
- Only a small part of the workers intelligence, ingenuity, and imagination is ever harnessed but with proper leadership, workers will excel.
A. Theory W.
B. Theory X.
C. Theory Y.
D. Theory Z.
C. Theory Y.
_____ leadership believes:
- Leadership style that focuses on the people.
- Employees remaining with the company for life.
- Close relationship between work and social life.
- Workers goal to produce economic success nurtures togetherness.
- Participative approach to decision-making.
- One problem that has been associated with this theory is a resistance to change.
A. Theory W.
B. Theory X.
C. Theory Y.
D. Theory Z.
D. Theory Z.
Situational Leadership Theories (3):
_____ - Is used to determine what leadership style (ranging from autocratic to democratic leadership) a leader should supply to a situation. Leaders that embrace empowerment move along a continuum from one extreme to another, using the most effective and efficient leadership style based on the specific situation.
A. Leadership-Continuum Theory.
B. Path-Goal Theory.
C. Results-Based Leadership Theory.
D. Principle-Centered Leadership.
A. Leadership-Continuum Theory.
Situational Leadership Theories (3):
_____ - Is based on employees perceptions of the units goals and objectives. These perceptions are composed of situational factors. The leader then determines the best of four styles to use in influencing members in the accomplishment of these goals.
Directive, supportive, participative, achievement.
A. Leadership-Continuum Theory.
B. Path-Goal Theory.
C. Results-Based Leadership Theory.
D. Principle-Centered Leadership.
B. Path-Goal Theory.
Situational Leadership Theories (3):
_____ - Explains that leadership ability should not be judged by personal traits alone but by the results those traits have on the success of the organization.
A. Leadership-Continuum Theory.
B. Path-Goal Theory.
C. Results-Based Leadership Theory.
D. Principle-Centered Leadership.
C. Results-Based Leadership Theory.
_____ - Focuses on the use of basic values or principles to lead an organization. It suggests that there are certain core ethical values on which individuals base decisions and live their lives.
Focuses on value driven leadership and proactively living one’s own life versus enduring a reactive life.
A. Leadership-Continuum Theory.
B. Path-Goal Theory.
C. Results-Based Leadership Theory.
D. Principle-Centered Leadership.
D. Principle-Centered Leadership.
Leadership Levels: (5)
_____ - Highly capable individual: person who makes productive contributions through talent, knowledge, skills, and good work habits.
A. Level 1 leader. B. Level 2 leader. C. Level 3 leader. D. Level 4 leader. E. Level 5 leader.
A. Level 1 leader.
Leadership Levels: (5)
_____ - Contributing team member: person who contributes individual capabilities to the achievement of group objectives and works effectively with others in a group setting.
A. Level 1 leader. B. Level 2 leader. C. Level 3 leader. D. Level 4 leader. E. Level 5 leader.
B. Level 2 leader.
Leadership Levels: (5)
_____ - Competent manager: person who organizes people and resources towards the effective and efficient pursuit of predetermined objectives.
A. Level 1 leader. B. Level 2 leader. C. Level 3 leader. D. Level 4 leader. E. Level 5 leader.
C. Level 3 leader.
Leadership Levels: (5)
_____ - Effective leader: person who catalyzes commitment to and vigorous pursuit of a clear and compelling vision, simulating higher performance standards.
A. Level 1 leader. B. Level 2 leader. C. Level 3 leader. D. Level 4 leader. E. Level 5 leader.
D. Level 4 leader.
Leadership Levels: (5)
_____ - Executive: person who builds enduring greatness through the paradoxical blend of personal humility and professional willpower.
A. Level 1 leader. B. Level 2 leader. C. Level 3 leader. D. Level 4 leader. E. Level 5 leader.
E. Level 5 leader.
_____ is the possession of control, authority, or influence over others.
A. Leadership.
B. Power.
C. Management.
D. Supervision.
B. Power.
The major problem encountered with Theory Z management is:
A. More concerned with production or the results than people.
B. More concerned with people than production or results.
C. A resistance to change.
D. Fail to except when applied to specific individuals.
C. A resistance to change.
During a fire the officer should check the walls to see if there are any metal stars on the walls. These metal stars mean which of the following:
A. They are ornamental to decorate the wall.
B. That the wall can fail at moderate temperatures when the rods and cables between the stars fail.
C. The rods between the stars can fail from high temperatures.
D. The stars mean that it is a fire resistive building.
B. That the wall can fail at moderate temperatures when the rods and cables between the stars fail.
The category of injuries that is the least likely cause of fire ground injuries is:
A. Exposure to fire products.
B. Fell, slipped.
C. Overexertion.
D. Exposure to chemicals and radiation.
D. Exposure to chemicals and radiation.
When you are writing a report and you want to ensure that it does not contain any errors in spelling or grammar, the best way to ensure that it does not would be to:
A. Put it down for an hour and then take a second look at it.
B. Read it again immediately while it is fresh in your mind.
C. Put it aside for a week and then check it.
D. Give it to another person to proofread.
D. Give it to another person to proofread.
Information that tends to require the closest attention to prevent grapevine distortion is information about….The exception is:
A. Promotions.
B. Hirings and sirens.
C. Layoffs and transfers.
D. Job assignments.
D. Job assignments.
The grapevine has spread word that the layoffs are planned and shift changes will be necessary. In order to combat the rumors that are causing havoc in the company, the company officer should:
A. Confide in a senior member but ask him to keep it to himself.
B. Do nothing because the rumors are unfounded.
C. Published a daily or weekly bulletin.
D. Refer all inquiries to headquarters.
C. Published a daily or weekly bulletin.
If, as a officer, you had a poorly motivated firefighter, what would be the best way to build his moral:
A. Team him with firefighters who seem to consistently do good work.
B. Transfer him to another job.
C. Give him an easier job.
D. Give him a tougher job.
A. Team him with firefighters who seem to consistently do good work.
Operational strategies differ from operational tactics. Which of the following would be an example of an operational strategy:
A. Confining a fire to a second-floor bedroom area.
B. Cutting a hole in the roof.
C. Placing ladders.
D. Directing master streams on exposures.
A. Confining a fire to the second-floor bedroom area. (Operational strategy)
The _____ of an incident is the overall desired outcome, and the _____ are the activities used to reach that outcome. Both are included in the IAP and must be communicated to all personnel involved in the operation.
A. Goal ; Objectives.
B. Objective ; Goals.
C. Conclusion ; Tasks.
D. Task ; Conclusions.
A. Goal ; Objectives.
_____ are the overall plan for controlling and incident. They are broad, general statements of the final outcomes to be achieved. They are dictated by the three overall priorities of life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation. They are based on the Layman decision-making model are RECEO-VS.
A. Tactical goals.
B. Strategic goals.
C. Tactical objectives.
D. Strategic objectives.
B. Strategic goals.
\_\_\_\_\_ are statements of measurable outcomes. Achieving them leads to the completion of the strategic goals. They are specific tasks assigned two units and personnel to accomplish. Examples: -Ventilating a roof -Placing ladders -Directing master streams on exposures
A. Tactical goals.
B. Strategic goals.
C. Tactical objectives.
D. Strategic objectives.
C. Tactical objectives.
The three overall priorities of firefighting are:
- Life safety
- Incident stabilization
- Property conservation
What is Layman’s decision making model:
RECEO-VS ----------------------------------------- Rescue Exposures Confinement Extinguishment Overhaul - Ventilation Salvage
Facility Survey Drawings:
Three general types of drawings used to show building information are described as follows:
- _____ - Indicate how buildings are situated with respect to other buildings and streets in the area.
- _____ - Show the layout of individual floors, subfloors, and roofs.
- _____ - Show side views of structures that depict the number of floors in buildings and grades of the surrounding ground.
- Plot plans
- Floor plans
- Elevations
An indicator of high affiliation needs would be:
A. Strives to accept responsibility.
B. Enjoys group projects.
C. Likes to be in charge.
D. Enjoys challenges.
B. Enjoys group projects.
Problem solving involves an 8 step process. If the officer determines that corrective action is necessary, he should go back to:
A. Step 1 - Recognize the problem.
B. Step 2 - Collect data.
C. Step 3 - Analyze the data.
D. Step 4 - Develop alternatives.
B. Step 2 - Collect data.
At what stage of the problem-solving process showed the officer never make assumptions:
A. Selecting the best alternative.
B. Implementing the solution.
C. Analyzing the problem.
D. Collecting the data.
D. Collecting the data.
Goals that are scheduled to be reached in less than a year are called:
A. Short range goals.
B. Medium-range goals.
C. Medium goals.
D. Long-range goals.
A. Short range goals.
An effective leader is one who deals with conflict by:
A. Ignoring it until it causes havoc in the group.
B. Confronting it.
C. Asking the chief of the department to intervene.
D. Reprimanding the members involved.
B. Confronting it.
Noted fire service author David Gratz has listed several methods company officers can use to justify their preliminary budgets. The exception is:
A. Let officials know how spending funds in a certain program now will bring savings in the future.
B. Use what has happened in the past to justify more spending in a problem area.
C. Compare the company’s operations and situation with those of other companies or divisions in the fire department.
D. Inflating costs in one program so that the company officer can later transfer the excess to another program that have a less of a chance of being approved at the desired level.
D. Inflating costs in one program so that the company officer can later transfer the excess to another program that have a less of a chance of being approved at the desired level.
There are four basic leadership styles. A leadership style that is characterized by low concern for production and a low concern for people would be which of the following:
A. Dual issue leadership.
B. Middle of the road leadership.
C. Single issue leadership.
D. Bureaucratic leadership.
D. Bureaucratic leadership.
Of the two examples given which is the better example of proper radio communication.
- ) “This is Lt. Murphy on Engine 9 portable. I need another truck company at box 1333 for manpower.”
- ) “Engine 9 portable to communications - dispatch one truck company to box 1333.”
Statement 2 is better
There are many symptoms that indicate a firefighter may be suffering from critical incident stress at the scene. An example of one of these symptoms would be… The exception is:
A. Anger. C. Frustration.
B. Anxiety. D. Feelings of guilt.
D. Feelings of guilt. (This would be a symptom that would happen after the incident)
A department that does not have written standard operating procedures does not have:
A. Operational strategies.
B. Operational tactics.
C. Strategic plans.
D. Operational strategy and tactics.
C. Strategic plans.
To ensure conciseness, the company officer must learn to plan communications. This can be done by planning the message. The officer should:
A. Let firefighters interpret the message themselves.
B. Direct messages to individuals -not companies.
C. Make messages task oriented.
D. Give options from messages.
C. Make messages task oriented.
At an emergency incident scene, there is no time for company officers to stop and think about the correct method for communicating by radio. Therefore, they must follow effective and accepted communication protocols in day-to-day operations so that these skills will become second nature.
In radio communications - Conciseness, Clarity, Confidence, Control, and Capability are know as:
The Five C’s of Radio Communication
The Five C’s of Radio Communication:
To ensure _____ the following actions are recommended:
- Make messages task oriented
- Direct messages to companies, not individuals
- Match messages to receivers
- Keep messages specific
A. Conciseness. B. Clarity. C. Confidence. D. Control. E. Capability
A. Conciseness.
The Five C’s of Radio Communication:
The _____ of a message adds to the overall effectiveness of all incident communications. Company officers should use standard terms and everyday language. When planning their transmissions, company officers should also strive to combine _____ with simplicity.
For orders to be effective, they should describe only one task at a time before having the unit report back for additional tasks.
A. Conciseness. B. Clarity. C. Confidence. D. Control. E. Capability
B. Clarity.
The Five C’s of Radio Communication:
- Company officers must show _____ when using communication equipment, especially during emergency operations. Company officers can communicate _____ by using a calm, natural tone and speaking at a controlled rate.
- This is also known as ____ ____.
A. Conciseness. B. Clarity. C. Confidence. D. Control. E. Capability. F. Command Presence.
C. Confidence.
F. Command presence.
The Five C’s of Radio Communication:
An example of _____ is being displayed when at the beginning of a transmission, each unit identifies who they are calling and identifies themselves; the receiver of the message should repeat or paraphrase the essence of the message back to the sender. This reduces the chances of misunderstanding, it tells the sender that the message was understood as transmitted or alerts the sender that the message was not understood correctly and further clarification is necessary. The most important people responsible for controlling communications at the company level are telecommunicator and the incident commander.
A. Conciseness. B. Clarity. C. Confidence. D. Control. E. Capability
D. Control.
The Five C’s of Radio Communication:
_____ is not limited to technical proficiency; it also includes an ability to communicate, which means that company officers must be capable of listening effectively as well as initiating effective messages.
Effective communication depends on well-trained senders and receivers.
A. Conciseness. B. Clarity. C. Confidence. D. Control. E. Capability
E. Capability.
Policies and procedures are examples of “standing” or “repeat use” of plans to deal with the reoccurring problems of an organization. Communicating these plans _____ helps ensure that organizational objectives will be met throughout all divisions of the department.
A. Face-to-face. C. In writing.
B. By telephone. D. By radio.
C. In writing.
Organizational Structure:
_____ structure is the common organizational structure in the fire and emergency services. Defined as having an uninterrupted series of steps or a chain of authority. Is a paramilitary, pyramid-type of organization with authority centralized at the top. Decisions are directed down from the top of the organizational structure through intermediate levels to the base of the structure. Information in turn, Is transmitted up from the bottom through the structure to the positions at the top.
A. Scalar structure.
B. Flat organizational structure.
C. Functional supervision.
D. Division of labor.
A. Scalar structure.
Organizational Structure:
_____ structure is well-suited for dealing with emergency situations for the following reasons:
- Span of control is maintained.
- Information is centralized for decision-making.
- Functional chain of command is maintained.
A. Scalar structure.
B. Flat organizational structure.
C. Functional supervision.
D. Division of labor.
A. Scalar structure.
Organizational Structure:
Fire and emergency services personnel are separated into two distinct groups:
(1) _____ are those who deliver services to the public or external customers; typical functions include fire suppression, emergency medical services, inspections, education, and investigations.
(2) _____ are those who provide support to the line personnel or internal customers; typical functions are training, logistics, and personal administration.
A. Line personnel.
B. Staff personnel.
C. Centralized authority.
D. Decentralized authority.
1) A. Line personnel.
2) B. Staff personnel.
_____ refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable.
A. Authority.
B. Power.
C. Management.
D. Supervision.
A. Authority.
What are the two types of authority?
Centralized and Decentralized
_____ - Decisions are made by one person at the top of the structure. _____ works well in very small organizations such as an individual fire company, but in large organizations the leader’s span of control may be exceeded unless decision-making authority is delegated.
A. Line personnel.
B. Staff personnel.
C. Centralized authority.
D. Decentralized authority.
C. Centralized authority.
_____ - Decisions are allowed to be made at a lower level (basically delegation of authority), with the effects of the decisions reported through the structure. For this authority to work effectively, the Fire Chief or CEO must ensure that all members understand the direction, values, and goals of the organization.
A. Line personnel.
B. Staff personnel.
C. Centralized authority.
D. Decentralized authority.
D. Decentralized authority.
_____ is when personnel are signed by their supervisor to perform duties that fall under the authority of another supervisor. While performing those duties, the subordinates are allowed to report to the second supervisor on matters relating to that function.
A. Scalar structure.
B. Flat organizational structure.
C. Functional supervision.
D. Division of labor.
C. Functional supervision.
_____ principle consists of dividing large jobs into smaller tasks that are then assigned to specific individuals.
In fire and emergency services this is important for the following reasons:
-Assigns responsibility
-Prevents duplication of effort
-Makes specific, clear-cut assignments
A. Scalar structure.
B. Flat organizational structure.
C. Functional supervision.
D. Division of labor.
D. Division of labor.
Organizational Structure:
_____ consists of one person with all the authority supervising the group on a one to one basis.
A. Scalar structure.
B. Flat organizational structure.
C. Functional supervision.
D. Division of labor.
B. Flat organizational structure.
Fire ground communication should be _____ .
A. Technical and complicated.
B. Tactical and authoritative.
C. Short and simple.
D. Explained and directed.
C. Short and simple.
The official leader of the fire company (formal group) is not necessarily the informal leader. It is desirable when the company officer is the leader in both the formal and informal groups, but this is not always the case. If this is the case how should the company officer respond in this situation:
A. Get rid of the group completely and start over.
B. Eliminate the leader of the group.
C. Accept his role and learn to deal within the group in both roles.
D. Separate totally from the informal group.
C. Accept his role and learn to deal within the group in both roles.
_____ stems from three sources: shared values, acceptance of social structure, or the sanction of a legitimizing agent.
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Identification power.
D. Legitimate power.
D. Legitimate power.
When a firefighter first enters the fire service, their attitudes are chiefly influenced by the _____ :
A. Chief of the department.
B. Company officer to whom they are assigned.
C. Union official.
D. Training officer.
B. Company officer to whom they are assigned.
John has been a difficult employee, as the company officer, you decide to team John together with Paul, a member who has consistently done good work. The likely outcome of this partnership is it:
A. Usually helps John only.
B. Usually helps Paul only.
C. Usually helps both John and Paul.
D. Usually helps neither John nor Paul.
C. Usually helps BOTH John and Paul.
Personality differences account for much of the variation in individual behavior in fire departments. These differences are defined largely in terms of needs: for achievement, power, and affiliation of the following indicators, which is an indicator of high power needs for firefighters.
A. Enjoys challenges.
B. Strives to accept responsibility.
C. Is status oriented.
D. Enjoys group projects.
C. Is status oriented.
When handling complaints, to separate the problem from the feelings officers must know why people complain. When the session begins, the officer should be a listener. The officer should help the individual see the difference, using open ended and reflective questions. An example of a reflective question is:
A. You really like this shift, but there are some guys who bother you?
B. You really like this shift, but there are some guys who bother you? How do they bother you?
C. Do you really like this shift?
D. Do some of the guys bother you?
A. You really like this shift, but there are some guys who bother you?
Most individuals will have complaints from time to time, a natural result of people working together. However there are certain individuals who chronically complain. Of the following choices, the one which should NOT be used to handle the chronic complainer is:
A. Send him to the chief.
B. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success.
C. Advise him to seek professional psychiatric help.
D. Ignore him, he’ll get over it.
D. Ignore him, he’ll get over it.
Operational strategies and tactics are interrelated. Of the following examples, which one is an operational strategy (opposed to tactics).
A. Confine the fire to the kitchen area.
B. Advance a headline to the second floor.
C. Directing master streams on exposures.
D. Ladder the side of a building.
A. Confine the fire to the kitchen area.
Weather will have many effects on incident operations. The company officer must ask 3 basic questions when sizing up the weather; exception is:
A. How will weather affect the ability of the firefighters to function?
B. How will weather affect the incident?
C. How will weather effect apparatus and other equipment?
D. How will wet weather affect the rate of burning?
D. How will wet weather affect the rate of burning?
Critical incident stress is a type of stress that deserves special attention. It occurs as a result of a particularly traumatic or disturbing incident. There are many symptoms that indicate a firefighter may be suffering from critical incident stress. Of the following symptoms, the one that would occur at the scene is:
A. Doubts of performance ability.
B. Feelings of guilt.
C. Restlessness.
D. Irritability.
A. Doubts of performance ability.
The purpose of peer support is to give a firefighter who has been exposed to a critical incident someone to talk to. Of the following characteristics of a potential peer supporter, the most important characteristic is:
A. Lieut. Jones is an easy person to talk to and well liked.
B. Firefighter Brown has the ability to follow through.
C. Firefighter Jackson has the ability to keep information confidential.
D. Enlist a variety of departmental ranks.
C. Firefighter Jackson has the ability to keep information confidential.
A tort is a civil wrong or injury. The main purpose of a tort action is to seek payment for damages to property and injuries to individuals. The following elements must exist for a valid tort action:
- ) The defendant must owe a legal duty to the plaintiff.
- ) There must be a breach of duty, that is, the defendant must have failed to perform or to properly perform that duty.
- ) The breach of duty must be a proximate cause of the accident or injury that resulted.
- ) The plaintiff must have suffered damages as a result.
The major issue in most court liability cases is:
A. Matter of duty.
B. Plaintiff has suffered damages.
C. Causation.
D. Breach of legal duty.
C. Causation.
(The question of causation is the most difficult to prove in a tort civil action case. The breach of duty must be a proximate cause of the accident or injury that resulted.)
(In-other-woods one that is a naturally continuous sequence produces the injury or damage and without which the injury or damage would not have occurred.)
It is important to note that not only can a government agency be held liable in tort, but an individual employee may also be liable. In this case, a plaintiff would have to show that the employee had performed with complete disregard for his training and the agencies:
A. Training and schedule.
B. Guidelines and policies.
C. Doctrine of immunity.
D. The common law.
B. Guidelines and policies.
Four elements must exist for a valid tort action. Of the following four elements, the one that is the major issue in most tort liability cases is:
A. The plaintiff must have suffered damages as a result.
B. The breach of duty must be a proximate cause of the incident.
C. There must be a breach of duty.
D. The defendant must owe a legal duty to the plaintiff.
B. The breach of duty must be a proximate cause of the accident.
Negligence is the failure to exercise such care as a reasonable, prudent, careful person would use under the same or similar circumstances. The essence of negligence is best represented by:
A. The adequacy of performance.
B. The dollar amount of damages.
C. The size of the incident.
D. How many injuries occurred.
A. The adequacy of performance.
Many items of information may be brought into the court to aid in establishing the prevailing standard of care. One of the strongest types of evidence will be:
A. The agency’s own guidelines and policies.
B. Opinions of expert witnesses.
C. Research publications.
D. Professional journals.
A. The agency’s own guidelines and policies.
An effective method of minimizing the effects of the “grapevine” is to:
A. Ignore it.
B. Have individual conversations.
C. Hold meetings.
D. Print and post a daily or weekly bulletin.
D. Print and post a daily or weekly bulletin.
An effective leader structures the relationship among firefighters so that they _____ to achieve the shared goals of the company and _____ with other companies to achieve the fire department’s goal.
A. Competition. C. Objectives.
B. Cooperate. D. Goals.
B. Cooperate.
An indicator of high power needs for firefighters is:
A. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
B. Strives to accept responsibility.
C. Is status oriented.
D. Is sensitive to what others think.
A. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
The best method for handling the chronic complainer is to:
A. Punish him.
B. Ignore him.
C. Lead by example.
D. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success and high visibility.
D. Arrange tasks that will provide a reasonable chance of success and high visibility.
(Asked all the time)
The company officer has the responsibility of attempting to recognize when a firefighter is under stress. Some of the more noticeable signs that indicate that stress may be building to dangerous levels are… the exception is:
A. General irritability
B. Fatigue
C. Restless sleep
D. Overeating.
D. Overeating
There are 4 basic organizational principles that company officers must use. They are… the exception is:
A. Unity of Command. B. Span of control. C. Division of labor. D. Discipline. E. Teamwork.
E. Teamwork. (FALSE)
- Unity of Command
- Span of control
- Division of labor
- Discipline
There are several factors that can effect the number of people who can be effectively supervised at one time (span of control), they are… the exception is:
A. Ability and experience of the company officer
B. Ability and experience of the firefighters
C. Situation under which the task is performed (nature of task)
D. Personality of the officer
E. Proximity of subordinates to the fire officer and each other
F. Consequences of a mistake
D. Personality of the officer (false)
The rest are true
The company officer’s role in the group becomes one of meshing the goals of the formal and informal groups. The officer must learn to work within the relationships of the company. The exception is:
A. Informal groups form within all formal groups.
B. The informal group may have greater influence on the productivity and success of the formal group than does any other factor.
C. The most detrimental action the officer can take is to separate from the informal group.
D. The informal leader is also the formal leader.
D. The informal leader is also formal leader. (This is not always true)
(while desirable for the company officer to be both informal and formal leader, this isn’t always the case)
The most productive leadership style to be used on the fireground is:
A. Middle-Of-The-Road Leadership
B. Dual-Issue Leadership
C. Single-issue Leadership
D. Bureaucratic Leadership
C. Single-issue Leadership
It is important to note that not only can a government agency now be held liable in this case:
- ) A plaintiff would have to show that the employee had performed with complete disregard for his or her training.
- ) A plaintiff would have to show that the employee had performed with complete disregard for the agency’s standard operating procedures.
A. #1 is true. C. #1 & #2 are true
B. #2 is true. D. #1 & #2 are false
C. #1 & #2 are true.
Several actions by the company officer will have positive effects in reducing a substantial number of firefighter injuries. If unsafe acts are being performed by a firefighter it indicates:
A. The need for training.
B. The need for psychiatric help.
C. If he is assigned to a truck company, transfer him to an engine company.
D. He should be sent to the fire prevention bureau.
A. The need for training.
When making field inspections of buildings a fire inspector must determine the type of building construction that the building has. An excellent place to examine the type of construction is… the exception is:
A. While on the roof.
B. While on the first floor.
C. While in the attic.
D. While in the unfinished basement.
B. While on the first floor.
The technical data provided by staff positions is then put into directives and sent directly through the chain of command. This method works well for policy matters. However, because of the bulk of information that must go down through the chain of command, it is not well suited for procedural matters. The above statement best describes the:
A. Traditional Staff Advisory Method
B. Staff Direct Implementation Method
C. Staff Direct Advice Method
D. Mutual Staff/Line Overlap Method
B. Staff Direct Implementation Method
On Maslow’s hierarchy of needs which are fulfilled when a person feels that the limits of his or her ability have been reached. Generally, individuals reach this level in respect to a certain job or achievement. For example, a firefighter save a child, or when a company effectively extinguishes a potentially major fire. At these times, individuals will fulfill the need, but soon, possibly the next call, the individual will be striving to meet it again.
A. Security. C. Self-esteem.
B. Social. D. Self-Actualzation.
D. Self-Actualization.
Annual reports continually support an approximate breakdown of causes of injuries on the fireground. The major cause of injuries on the fairground is:
A. Fell, slipped.
B. Overexertion.
C. Exposure to fire products.
D. Struck by objects.
C. Exposure to fire products.
The company officer’s main task during phase two of implementation are:
A. Directing but not controlling
B. Both directing and controlling
C. Controlling but not directing
D. Neither directing nor controlling
B. Both directing and controlling
What is this question referring too?
To some degree stress is beneficial. When controlled, stress can help a firefighter perform more quickly and effectively. After examining Dr. Hans Selye’s General Adaptation Syndrome, it may be easier to understand why chronic stress and not acute stress affect our health. The _____ is the stage where permanent damage to the system occurs. This damage may be small or large. It should be noted that if the stressor is not removed during this stage death with result.
A. Alarm reaction stage
B. Resistance stage
C. Initial stage
D. Exhaustion stage
D. Exhaustion stage
An order such as, “Smith, get a roof ladder and a flathead ax, then ventilate the structure by cutting a hole in the top of the roof where you see the smoke rising from the eaves.”
A. Is a waste of valuable time.
B. Is an insult to a rookie firefighter.
C. If it is necessary to be that explicit, the firefighter is being ordered to perform a task beyond his or her capability.
D. Is the best way to see that the tactic is carried out.
C. If it is necessary to be that explicit, the firefighter is being ordered to perform a task beyond his or her capability.
A _____ is a guide to decision-making within an organization. They originate with top management and are disseminated into lower levels for implementation. It also defines the boundaries and standards that the administration expects company officers and members to use.
A. Policy.
B. Procedure.
C. Order.
D. Directive.
A. Policy.
A _____ is a detailed plan of action. It details in writing the steps to follow in conducting organizational policy for some specific, reoccurring problem or situation. These are better developed at the company level because these individuals will be responsible for following and implementing them to meet certain policies.
A. Policy.
B. Procedure.
C. Order.
D. Directive.
B. Procedure.
The memorandum is usually short into the point. Of the following statements, the statement which is false is:
A. Memos transmit exactly the same information to several locations or individuals.
B. Memos typically formalize a telephone call.
C. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or results in a somewhat informal manner.
D. Memos provide a verbal record of decisions, requests, or policies.
D. Memos provide a verbal record of decisions, requests, or policies.
(False, the provide a written record)
Every day the bulk of organizational information is transmitted via the “grapevine”. The single most effective method of minimizing the effects of the “grapevine” is to:
A. Print and post a daily or weekly bulletin.
B. Ignore the grapevine.
C. Filter information which is out on the grapevine.
D. Provide adequate flow of official information.
D. Provide adequate flow of official information.
***(^ This is the single most effective method, an example of using this method would be by printing and posting a daily or weekly bulletin)
Bureaucratic leadership is characterized by a _____ concern for production and a _____ concern for people.
A. High, high. C. Low, low.
B. High, low. D. High, high.
C. Low, low
- Which of the following indicators would be exhibited by a firefighter who has high achievement needs?
& - Which of the following indicators would be exhibited by a firefighter who has high power need?
A. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
B. Strives to accept responsibility.
C. Is status oriented.
D. Is sensitive to what others think.
1) B. Strives to accept responsibility.
- —————————————-
2) A. Likes to discuss controversial subjects.
Open-ended questions are better for gathering information. What’s of the following questions are open-ended questions?
- Joe, what do you think the problem is?
- George, is there a fire inside?
- Tom, what seems to be wrong with the truck?
A. Questions 1 and 2 only.
B. Questions 2 and 3 only.
C. Questions 1 and 3 only.
D. Questions 1, 2, and 3.
C. Questions 1 and 3 only.
Problem solving involves an 8 step process. If the officer determines that corrective action is necessary, he should go back to:
A. Step one – recognize the problem.
B. Step two – collect data.
C. Step three – analyze the data.
D. Step four – develop alternatives.
B. Step two - collect data.
Critical incident stress is a _____ response to an abnormal situation.
A. Good.
B. Bad.
C. Normal.
D. Abnormal.
C. Normal.
The staff direct implementation method:
A. Is the current method of using staff personnel to route their advice through upper and middle management.
B. Works well for procedural matters.
C. Is not well-suited for policy matters.
D. Does not allow the staff positions to deal directly with the line structure to implement the decision.
A. Is the current method of using staff personnel to route their advice through upper and middle management.
The flat organization structure:
A. Works well on the fire ground.
B. Bogs down in routine work.
C. Is well suited to accomplish tasks when none of the tasks are interdependent.
D. Works well with complex tasks.
C. Is well suited to accomplish tasks when none of the tasks are interdependent.
The _____ aids in the effective routing of a message for a specific action.
A. Letter. C. Report.
B. Form. D. Memorandum.
D. Memorandum.
Planning is the first step in any type of management. The manager must have a plan. Which of the following statements is true regarding planning?
A. The company officer is most likely involved in short-term planning, which typically deals specifically with assigning personnel to attain immediate goals or meet day-to-day demands.
B. Medium-range plans cover a period from 6 to 10 years.
C. Company officer typically becomes involved in long-term planning.
D. Company officer does not set goals and/or develop a plan for the company.
A. The company officer is most likely involved in short-term planning, which typically deals specifically with assigning personnel to attain immediate goals or meet day-to-day demands.
Progressive discipline: 3 steps
1st step -
2nd step -
3rd step -
1st step - Oral reprimand.
2nd step - Written reprimand.
3rd step - Discipline (Suspension/ termination)
When conducting a formal evaluation session, after explaining the purpose of the agenda, the next step in the interview is:
A. Tell the firefighter what personal behavior makes him or her asset to the organization.
B. Review the firefighter strengths and weaknesses.
C. Ask the firefighter to talk about how he or she views the work and relationships with the department.
D. Describe the changes the firefighter needs to make in his or her behavior.
B. Review the firefighter strengths and weaknesses.
- Pre-incident _____ - Gathering information or facts about a particular structure, occupancy, or high-risk (target) hazards.
- Pre-incident _____ - Is the entire process of gathering and evaluating information, developing procedures based on that information, and ensuring that the information remains current.
A. Survey.
B. Analysis.
C. Report
D. Planning.
1) A. Survey.
2) D. Planning.
After assessing the sequence of operational strategies, the incident commander must quickly decide whether the primary size up was correct. To make this check, the most important consideration is:
A. Life safety.
B. Fire control.
C. The timing necessary with other objectives.
D. Whether there are adequate resources on the scene to implement the operational strategies outlined.
D. Whether there are adequate resources on the scene to implement the operational strategies outlined.
Violation of the “one-supervisor principle” can lead to confusion and frustration by company members. This statement best describes what to the following:
A. Unity of command.
B. Span of control.
C. Division of labor.
D. Chain of command.
A. Unity of command.
There are four basic structures or methods of overlapping authority. When introducing new equipment to the fire company, the least effective overlap situation is:
A. Undesirable overlap.
B. Staff direct overlap.
C. Mutual staff/line overlap.
D. Line advice to staff overlap.
A. Undesirable overlap.
The group formation of a fire company is not significantly different from the formation of any other formal or informal group. Shift changes, policy changes, labor generated conflicts, serious injury or death within the group, or any other traumatic occurrence can result in a disruption. This statement best describes which of the following?
A. Common binding interests.
B. Vital group image.
C. Sense of continuity.
D. Shared set of moral values.
C. Sense of continuity.
There are four basic leadership styles. Leadership style that has a high degree of concern for people with a high concern for production is known as:
A. Bureaucratic leadership.
B. Single-issue leadership.
C. Middle-of-the-road leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.
The method used to find effective solutions is called the eight-step method of problem resolution. The step where you determine; what brought the problem to the officers attention? What are the symptoms? Who is involved, and what is the standard, would be watched step in the method?
A. Recognize and define the problem.
B. Collect applicable data.
C. Analyze the problem.
D. Select the best alternative.
A. Recognize and define the problem.
The preincident survey is the fact gathering of preincident planning. The key to developing a suitable working relationship between the company officer and the tenant is respect and understanding. understanding. The following statements are FALSE… The exception is:
A. Facility surveys of public assembly occupancies should be scheduled during an event.
B. The company officer should explain the purpose of the survey when the appointment is made.
C. The preincident survey must not be scheduled near a fire enforcement inspection.
D. Facility survey must be completed in one day.
A. Facility surveys of public assembly occupancies should be scheduled during an event. (sometimes but not always)
C. The preincident survey must not be scheduled near a fire enforcement inspection. (It would be unwise)
D. Facility survey must be completed in one day. (FALSE, no literature found that states this)
Operational strategies and tactics are interrelated. An example of operational strategy is:
A. Advancing and lines.
B. Cutting a hole in the roof.
C. Overhaul.
D. Placing ladders.
C. Overhaul.
(Operational strategy = RECEO-VS;
tactics = actions to accomplish ^ )
When an incident occurs and the fire department is notified, the sequence moves into the operational strategy phase. When the dispatcher receives an alarm, information is collected, and the company officer is able to choose the appropriate operational strategy using the following decision-making factors… The exception is:
A. Standard operating procedures.
B. Standard fire ground priorities.
C. Information obtained by the fire department.
D. The officers inexperience.
D. The officers inexperience.
Wendhausen equal effect on both the incident and on fire department personnel. Wind can also affect the severity of an incident. The most correct statement regarding operations in windy conditions is:
A. In windy situations, cross ventilation can be less effective; therefore, more personnel will be needed for ventilation assignment.
B. Officers should consider master-stream appliances for exposure protection and use fog nozzles instead of smoothbore tips.
C. Aerial equipment should be deployed to knockdown firebrands even before the fire is ventilated for ventilate itself.
D. Precipitation does not affect the ability of firefighters to perform.
C. Aerial equipment should be deployed to knockdown firebrands even before the fire is ventilated for ventilate itself.
There are many symptoms that indicate a firefighter maybe suffering critical incident stress. Of the following symptoms, the one which occurs at the scene is:
A. Feelings of guilt.
B. Denial of the situation.
C. Restlessness.
D. Irritability.
B. Denial of the situation.
Occurs on scene or during an incident, the other examples occur after an incident
In the fire service, there are two major sources of standards. The first and most important is :
A. Federal jurisdiction.
B. State jurisdiction.
C. Local jurisdiction.
D. Nationally recognized consensus standards.
C. Local jurisdiction.
In order to manage personnel and other important resources in a fire company, an officer must have a plan of action. Once the plan is established and the resources organized, the next management step is implementing the plan. The most important leadership function for the company officer is:
A. Planning. C. Controlling.
B. Directing. D. Evaluating.
B. Directing.
Based on the initial assessment of the incident scene, company officers must make decisions based on “acceptable risk”. This concept is clearly stated in a decision-making model developed by the Phoenix Fire Department. The essence of the model is as follows: (4)
- Each emergency response is begun with the assumption that “responders can protect lives and property.”
- Responders will “risk their lives a lot, if necessary, to save savable lives.” (1)aka:
- Responders will “risk their lives a little, and in a calculated manner, to save salvageable property.” (2)aka:
- Responders will NOT “risk their lives at all to save lives and property that have all ready been lost.” (3)aka:
- “Risk a lot to save a lot.”
- “Risk little to save little.”
- “Risk nothing to save nothing.”
Command Activities:
The first-arriving officer has the following three optional command activities available… the exception is:
A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Investigating.
D. Investigating. (FALSE)
Command Activities:
The first-arriving officer has 3 optional command activities available. The following describes:
_____ - When the problem generating the response is not obvious to the first-arriving unit, the company officer should assume command of the incident and announced that “ _____ “. The officers then directs the other responding units to stage.
A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Investigating.
A. Nothing – showing.
Command Activities:
The first-arriving officer has 3 optional command activities available. The following describes:
_____ - When the company officer’s direct involvement is necessary for the unit to take immediate action to save a life or stabilize the situation, the officer should take command and announce that the unit is initiating a “ _____ “. This will last until one of the following situations occurs:
- Incident is stabilized.
- Incident is not stabilized, but the officer must withdraw to outside the hazardous area to establish a formal incident command post.
- Command is transferred.
A. Nothing-showing.
B. Fast-attack.
C. Command.
D. Investigating.
B. Fast – attack.
Command Activities:
The first-arriving officer has 3 optional command activities available. The following describes:
1.) _____ - Because of the nature and/or scope of some incidents, immediate and strong overall “ _____ “ is needed. In these instances, the first-arriving officer should assume command by naming the incident and designating and ICP, giving the initial report on conditions, and requesting additional resources need.
Two types:
- ) _____ - Involves the company officer performing multiple tasks such as serving as an incident commander, developing the incident action plan, and performing active tasks such as advancing a hoseline.
- ) _____ - Involves the company officer remaining at the mobile radio in the apparatus, assigning tasks to unit personnel, communicating with other responding units, and expanding the NIMS – ICS as needed.
A. Nothing-showing. B. Fast-attack. C. Command. D. Command Combat. E. Formal Command.
1) C. Command.
2) D. Combat Command.
3) E. Formal Command.
Supervision Definitions: (4)
_____ - Act of directing, overseeing, or controlling the activities and behavior of employees who are signed to a particular supervisor.
A. Leading.
B. Managing.
C. Supervising.
D. Following.
C. Supervising.
Supervision Definitions: (4)
_____ - Act of controlling, monitoring, or directing a project, program, situation, or organization through the use of authority, discipline, or persuasion.
A. Leading.
B. Managing.
C. Supervising.
D. Following.
B. Managing.
Supervision Definitions: (4)
_____ - Act of controlling, directing, conducting, guiding, and administrating through the use of personal behavioral traits or personality characteristics that motivate employees to the successful completion of an organization’s goals.
A. Leading.
B. Managing.
C. Supervising.
D. Following.
A. Leading.
Supervision Definitions: (4)
_____ - Act of being a team player while working toward a common goal.
A. Leading.
B. Managing.
C. Supervising.
D. Following.
D. Following.
Complaints are problems, but they are special because they involve someone’s feelings. Ideally, the officers objective in handling complaints should be two:
A. Solve the problem using the problem solving process, then deal with the firefighters feelings the bad feelings must be resolved.
B. Solve the problem using the problem-solving process, but the officer is not responsible for the firefighters feelings.
C. Separate the feelings from the problem, and then apply the problem-solving process to the problem.
D. Resolve the firefighters bad feelings, and the underlining problems will resolve themselves.
C. Separate the feelings from the problem, and then apply the problem-solving process to the problem.
Size-up is a process of gathering and evaluating information, probabilities, and resources of a situation. It is the assessment of the incidents during specific intervals and situations. Four basic areas of information must be considered (1)Environment, (3)Nature of Incident, (4)Occupancy, and Resources. In each of these areas, the officer should strive to FIRST determine:
A. The resources needed for the situation.
B. The possibilities of the situation.
C. The probabilities of the situation.
D. The facts of the situation.
D. The facts of the situation.
The most correct statement regarding potential collapse in older buildings is:
A. Cast-iron ornamental façades often separate and fall during a fire.
B. Ornamental metal stars attached to the stairs indicate the collapse hazard of the stairway.
C. Ornamental iron doors and windows will fail quickly during a fire.
D. Missing outside attachments such as ornamental marquees may injure firefighters.
A. Cast-iron ornamental façades often separate and fall during a fire.
Many serious injuries occur on the fireground. It is estimated that 55% of all firefighter injuries occur:
A. Responding to or returning from an incident.
B. On scene of an incident.
C. During training.
D. That’s nonemergency incidents.
B. On the scene of an incident.
According to Company Officer:
- ) Between 2000 and 2006 an average of ____ firefighters died while on duty.
- ) The two leading causes of death to firefighters are result of _____ and _____ resulting from physical stress.
- ) _____ is the leading cause of firefighter fatalities,
- ) while _____ or _____ that results in heart attacks or strokes is the leading cause of firefighter injury.
- ) 107
- ) motor vehicle accidents and heart attacks
- ) Cardiac arrest
- ) Overexertion or stress
The third structure of centralized authority is the circular structure. The circular structure involves a central authority interacting with the individuals of a group, and members interacting among themselves. The disadvantage of the circular structure is:
A. Involves a high level of interaction.
B. Fresh and innovative solutions are found.
C. Personal commitment of members tend to be higher because of the ability to receive feedback to provide input.
D. Used effectively as a task-implementer, but can be cumbersome for problem-solving.
D. Used effectively as a task-implementer, but can be cumbersome for problem-solving.
Planning is the first step in any type of management. Management planning is divided into several time frames. The company officer is most likely involved in _____ .
A. Short-term planning.
B. Long-term planning.
C. Standing planning.
D. Contingency planning.
A. Short-term planning.
An effective leader/manager helps people by cooperating to set meaningful goals. People work more diligently and effectively when they have a verbalize description, not just some vague understanding or generalized expectation of where they are going. The manager must allow people to help set their goals so they can feel responsible for their actions. The manager thereby shows trust in their capabilities and concern for hearing their opinions and ideas. The ability to influence people becomes based mostly on:
A. Legitimate power.
B. Expert power.
C. Identification power.
D. Coercive power.
C. Identification power.
The national fire protection Association (NFPA) conducts annual survey of accident locations and injury types. The greatest cause of “fire ground” injuries is exposure to fire products. The next most frequent cause is:
A. Overexertion.
B. Fell, slipped.
C. Exposure to chemicals or radiation.
D. Struck by object.
B. Fell, slipped.
(Can’t find “fire ground injury” in book; book sts “Overexertion” and “stress” as leading cause of firefighter “injury”.)
Exposures within the building receives initial consideration, especially floors above probable fire locations. The second exposure consideration is any adjoining buildings. Which of the buildings below is a secondary exposure?
A. The building on the left of the fire building.
B. The building on the right of the fire building.
C. The building to the rear of the fire building.
D. The building across the street from the fire building.
C. The building to the rear of the fire building.
Exam 13, Q-94 - seems strange but could very well be correct
Stress is simply an adjustment to change. The change can be good or it can be bad. In psychology, good stress it’s called eustress and bad stress is called dystress. In which of the following stages of stress will death result?
A. The alarm stage.
B. The resistance stage.
C. The fight/flight stage.
D. The exhaustion stage.
D. The exhaustion stage.
Define all stages in flash cards when found in book
Critical Incident Stress is the stress that occurs after a particularly traumatic or disturbing incident. There are several things the company officer can do to help alleviate the immediate reactions to a critical incident. The following statements are TRUE regarding critical incident stress… the exception is:
A. One thing would be to get the company back in service immediately.
B. The officer can make sure the company gets proper rest after the incident.
C. The officer should arrange vacation time of each of the company members.
D. The officer should provide professional counseling.
A. One thing would be to get the company back in service immediately. (False)
Company officers must develop the skills necessary to manage the responsibility of company safety. The following are all actions by the company officer that will have a positive effect in reducing a substantial number of firefighter injuries… the exception is:
A. Personal commitment by the company officer to reduce injuries.
B. Designing and conducting effective training for firefighters in the use of self-contained breathing apparatus.
C. Developing and supporting ineffective physical fitness program.
D. Making sure the firefighters wear the protective clothing 75% of the time.
D. Making sure the firefighters wear the protective clothing 75% of the time. (False)
The fire service is one of the most hazardous occupations in North America. The company officer can get a good idea whether a firefighter tends to work safely or takes unnecessary risks on the fire ground by:
A. Reviewing the firefighters training records from the fire Academy.
B. Examining the everyday work habits of the firefighter.
C. Asking the opinion of other members of the company.
D. Asking the training chief.
B. Examining the everyday work habits of the firefighter.
Clearly, the most important duty of a company officer is to:
A. Get the job done. (Meeting the organizations goals/objectives)
B. Build teamwork and cooperation.
C. Protect all members of the company from injury or illness.
D. Development members skills.
C. Protect all members of the company from injury or illness.
The statement “In most cases, what you are able to contribute to and achieve in the fire service is limited only by the degree of your personal commitment” is best associated with which of the following statements?
A. Be loyal to your department.
B. Learn your job, be sincerely interested in it, and be dedicated to it.
C. Accept criticism graciously; except praise, honors, and advancement modestly.
D. Be aggressive in the pursuit of education and training opportunities
B. Learn your job, be sincerely interested in it, and be dedicated to it.
One of the advantages of _____ is that enables different fire companies to work together well because each company officer understand the capabilities, requirements, and needs of the other.
A. Unity of command.
B. Span of control.
C. Division of labor.
D. Cross training.
D. Cross training.
In addition to being essential to the cohesion of the group, _____ is one of the greatest influences on the success of the group.
A. Having a common binding interest.
B. Having a sense of continuity.
C. The group image.
D. Having a shared set of moral values.
C. The group image.
In most of the industrialized world, the fulfillment of the first two levels of human needs are almost guaranteed by employment opportunities and social welfare programs. This is certainly true in the United States and Canada. The next level in the hierarchy is that of:
A. Safety and security.
B. Esteem and status.
C. Belonging and social activity.
D. Self-actualization and fulfillment.
C. Belonging and social activities.
List all when found in book
Knowledge is power. In any given situation, the one with the most knowledge often has the most power, even if he does not have the most authority. This statement best describes which of the following types of power?
A. Expert power
B. Coercive power
C. Identification power
D. Legitimate power
A. Expert power
Formal communications are essential to successful discharge of the departments responsibilities to the citizens of the community. _____ provide direction on which specific actions are based. _____ are the basis for much of the company level skills training, such as initial fire attack, supporting automatic sprinkler systems, coordinated fire attack, ground search and rescue, and others.
A. Written policies and procedures.
B. Standing operating procedures.
C. Orders.
D. Directives.
B. Standing operating procedures (SOP’s)
In formal groups, the leader is usually either signed or elected. In informal groups, a natural or indigenous leader emerges regardless of whether any formal selection process is used. The following statements are true regarding formal and informal leaders… The exception is:
A. It is not desirable that the company officer be the leader in both the formal and informal groups.
B. It is important for company officers to realize that the ability to positively influence a group is not dependent upon being their in formal leader.
C. The company officer must strive to become the informal leader as well as the appointed leader by earning the respect of the crew members.
D. The most detrimental thing a company officer can do is to distance himself from the informal group.
A. It is not desirable that the company officer be the leader in both the formal and informal groups. (False)
Authority refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable. There two types of authority: centralized and decentralized. The difference between centralized and decentralized authority is the level at which decisions are made. The desired result of decentralization is:
A. Decisions are made by one person at the top structure.
B. When decisions are made at lower levels in an organization, upper management personnel are freed to concentrate on more important matters.
C. The Chief may centralize the authority to make certain decisions only specific areas.
D. The chief delegates to officers authority to make decisions and to implement plans, and accountability for any decisions made.
B. When decisions are made at lower levels in an organization, upper management personnel are freed to concentrate on more important matters.
Company officers are bound by ADA employment regulations and maybe held personally liable for failure to comply with them. The following statements are true regarding reasonable accommodation may mean changing the working environment and/or the way the job is performed… the exception is:
A. Require that essential parts of the job be assigned to another worker in order to accommodate a disabled.
B. Providing work surfaces that are at wheelchair height and putting necessary switches and controls within reach of someone in a wheelchair.
C. Moving a job function to a ground-floor office if there is no elevator.
D. Rewriting the job description to eliminate nonessential functions that a disabled person could not perform.
A. Require that essential parts of the job be assigned to another worker in order to accommodate a disabled. (False)
There are five key dimensions that determine the quality of an officers leadership ability. An effective leader is one who can:
A. Structure competitive rather than cooperative relationships.
B. Resolve conflicts by avoiding or forcing a particular solution rather than confronting issues together.
C. Builds others’ trust in the leader.
D. Stimulate and promote task-oriented thinking and behavior.
C. Builds others’ trust in the leader.
Different activities generally fall into one of three categories; “must-do, should-do,and may-do”. Which of the following activities calls into the “must-do” category?
A. Training.
B. Public-education.
C. Emergency calls.
D. Code-enforcement.
C. Emergency calls.
In the fire service, one of the most widely used techniques for presenting new information is the fourth step method of instruction. The steps involved are preparation, presentation, application, and evaluation.
The _____ step is the most important because this is where most of the learning takes place.
A. Preparation C. Application
B. Presentation. D. Evaluation
C. Application
This is one of the most effective skill development and maintenance techniques, especially for the most critical skills. Like the four-step method of instruction, _____ has been around for many years and has proven its effectiveness. However, while _____ is highly effective, it is not as effective as the four-step method because it often involves small group instruction. The _____ in the statement is best represented by:
A. Small-step learning
B. Prescriptive training
C. Traditional training
D. Mastery learning
D. Mastery learning
Define all when found in book
A detailed narrative should be a part of every incident report. In general, company officers should use the following guidelines when preparing the narrative portion of their reports… The exception is:
A. Include only known facts. Do include speculation.
B. Organize the narrative in chronological sequence of events.
C. Be thorough. Gather information from all company members before writing the report, and clarify any apparent conflicting information.
D. Avoid using fire service jargon, acronyms, or technical terminology that some readers may not understand.
Do NOT include speculation.
All other answers are true.
If asked to define communications, most people might respond, “talking between two people” or “words” or some other simplistic answer. These answers are only partially correct. They fail to identify communications as a process:
A. Of a person sending the information - “the sender”.
B. Of the actual message.
C. That exchanges ideas and information between two parties.
D. Of a person receiving the information - “the receiver”.
C. That exchanges ideas and information between two parties.
The single most effective method of minimizing the effects of the “grapevine” is for the administration to:
A. Provide a daily or weekly information bulletin in every station.
B. Ignore the grapevine.
C. Provide an adequate flow of official information.
D. Provide a regular flow of false information.
C. Provide an adequate flow of official information.
Providing a daily or weekly information bulletin is a way to provide adequate/official information
The _____ of management was based on the belief that a happy worker is a productive worker. It’s major proponent was Elton Mayo of Harvard.
A. Scientific theory of management.
B. Human relations theory
C. Hygiene theory
D. Management by objectives (MBO
B. Human relations.
While the publics perception of the fire department is influenced by what they see and hear from the various news media, the primary source of their image of the department is their:
A Listening to the Fire Chief at government meetings.
B. Observation of fire stations and department apparatus.
C. Encounters with fire apparatus on city streets.
D. Day to day contact with department personnel at fires, medical calls, rescues, inspections, and public education presentations.
A.
D. Day to day contact with department personnel at fires, medical calls, rescues, inspections, and public education presentations.
The most important duty of every firefighter is to prevent fires and other emergencies from occurring because that is the most cost-effective way of protecting life and property. The goal toward which every fire department strives is to:
A. Reduce the loss of life and property within the jurisdiction.
B. Adopt enforce appropriate ordinances, codes and standards.
C. Prevent all emergencies.
D. Conscientiously apply the inspection program at the company level.
C. Prevent all emergencies.
When the company arrives at the business to be inspected, the inspection team members should enter the business through the main entrance and go directly to the main office. The inspection teams primary concern is:
A. Code violations.
B. Means of egress.
C. Risks.
D. Hazards.
B. Means of egress.
A department’s infectious disease control program is designed to protect the health of its members, but it also helps to protect the department against related liability. One component of an infectious control program known as _____ is described as the three most effective ways of protecting firefighters from communicable diseases on the job are through “immunizations, protective barriers, and proper disposal of contaminated materials”.
A. A written policy statement.
B. Exposure control plan.
C. An infectious control SOP.
D. A training / education program.
B. Exposure control plan.
Laws come from many different sources. In general, the major sources of laws in the Western world are common law, constitutional law, statutory law, case law, and administrative law. _____ law is described as within the limits of the statutory law that creates them, government agencies such as 0SHA, EPA, and state fire marshal’s offices are empowered to create and enforce rules and regulations to implement the legislation for which they are responsible. These rules and regulations have the force of law.
A. Common law. B. Case law. C. Constitutional law. D. Administrative law. E. Statutory laws.
D. Administrative law.
SOURCES of LAWS:
_____ law - “laws of the land”, Describes the organization of the federal government, the powers assigned to each branch of government, and the powers ascribed to the states or Providence. Contains the US Constitution and Bill of Rights. All laws enacted by Congress/Parliament, states/provincial legislators or local entities must be consistent with the respective federal Constitution.
A. Common law. B. Case law. C. Constitutional law. D. Administrative law. E. Statutory laws.
C. Constitutional law.
The federal court system and, ultimately, the U.S. Supreme Court is the arbiter in matters of constitutional law in the U.S. The Constitution creates a federal government structure consisting of three branches:
- Legislative branch (creates laws)
- Executive branch (implements, administers, and enforces laws)
- Judicial branch (interprets the laws)
- The Legislative branch - ____ laws.
- Executive branch - ____, ____, and ____ laws.
- Judicial branch - ____ the laws.
- Creates
- Implements, administers, and enforces
- Interprets
SOURCES of LAWS:
_____ laws - Are the result of legislation actions such as those laws passed by the US Congress, state, or local entities. The authority to create these laws stem from the federal Constitution. These laws, referred to as statutes or ordinances, maybe a revised or repealed by the body that enacted them.
For example, a local municipality has the right to enact and enforce laws regarding open burning, fireworks, or occupancy limitations. However, a local ordinance may not be in conflict with federal or state law.
A. Common laws (aka Case law).
B. Statutory laws.
C. Administrative laws.
D. Constitutional law.
B. Statutory laws.
SOURCES of LAWS:
_____ - Is that body of law that is based on tradition, custom, usage, and decisions of the judicial courts within a particular country, society, or culture. Therefore, ____ law consists of laws that were developed by judicial decisions rather than legislative action (statutory law).
A. Common laws (aka Case law).
B. Statutory laws.
C. Administrative laws.
D. Constitutional law.
A. Common laws (aka Case law).
SOURCES of LAWS:
_____ law - Within the limits of statutory laws that created them, federal, state, and local government agencies such as OSHA, EPA, state fire marshal’s offices, and local code enforcement departments are empowered to create and enforce rules and regulations to implement the legislation for which they are responsible.
A. Common laws (aka Case law).
B. Statutory laws.
C. Administrative laws.
D. Constitutional law.
C. Administrative laws.
All supervisors, whether paid or volunteer, are responsible for all the work that is assigned to the company and for making sure that it is done properly and on time. To accomplish this, company officers should do the following; carefully plan, schedule, and coordinate work. Organized subordinates so that they cooperate and work together as a team. Delegate as much work-related authority as possible, and monitor and evaluate the quality and quantity of work being done, is:
A. Getting the job done.
B. Keeping the work area safe and healthy.
C. Developing member skills.
D. Keeping records and making reports.
A. Getting the job done.
Four- step method of instruction:
_____ - Establish lesson relevancy to the job by introducing the topic, gaining the students attention, and stating the learning objectives. How the students will be evaluated should also be mentioned.
A. Step 1: Preparation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
C. Step 3: Application.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
A. Step 1: Preparation.
Four- step method of instruction:
_____ - Present the information to be taught using an orderly, sequential outline. Select the teaching method that is appropriate to the learning styles of the students in the topic to be taught. Can be combined with application. Generally, the presentation choices available are lecture, illustrated lecture, discussion, demonstration, learning activities (such as role-play).
A. Step 1: Preparation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
C. Step 3: Application.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
Four- step method of instruction:
_____ - Provide opportunities for learning through activities, exercises, discussions, workgroups, skill practice, practical training evolutions, and similar learning activities. The purpose is to reinforce the students learning.
Most learning takes place during this step, making this step critically important.
A. Step 1: Preparation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
C. Step 3: Application.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
C. Step 3: Application.
Described as the most important step
Four- step method of instruction:
_____ - Have students demonstrate how much they have learned through a written, oral, or practical examination or test. The purpose is to determine whether students achieved the lesson objectives or course outcomes.
A. Step 1: Preparation.
B. Step 2: Presentation.
C. Step 3: Application.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
D. Step 4: Evaluation.
There are two major reasons for _____ listening: One, there is too much to hear so the listener only hears what he can understand. Two, the listener does not like what is being said and so hears only the parts of the message with what she agrees.
A. Selective.
B. Active.
C. Not.
D. Comprehensive.
A. Selective listening.
If a reporter should ask for a prepared news or press release on a particular event or topic, it can be submitted in an outline form or it can be submitted in narrative form. Regardless of what form is being used, the content should be limited to the facts of the event or topic and should be a simple and straightforward as possible. The following statements are FALSE regarding the guidelines for a press release… the exception is:
A. Summarize the piece in the last sentence by answering the questions Who? What? When? Where? and Why?
B. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the most important facts first and the least important ones last.
C. Limit sentence length to more than 20 words.
D. Write no less than four or five lines per paragraph.
A. Summarize the piece in the “last sentence” by answering the questions Who? What? When? Where? and Why? (FALSE - first sentence)
C. Limit sentence length to “more” than 20 words. (FALSE- less than 20 words)
D. Write no “less” than four or five lines per paragraph. (FALSE - no more than)
Although gathering information about a particular building or occupancy during a pre-incident survey is often referred to as pre-incident planning, there is a difference. When company level personnel conduct at a preincident survey, they are there to… the exception is:
A. Concentrate on where and how fires are most likely to occur and how those fires are likely to behave.
B. See that the occupant has done everything that the code requires to prevent fires from occurring and that will allow the occupants to get out if and when the fire does occur.
C. Focus on what is likely to happen and what they will need in order to mitigate those contingencies.
D. Determine what firefighters will need to know about the occupancy in order to function there safely when their vision is totally obscured by darkness and/or smoke.
E. Identify the number and type of resources needed to handle an incident at the location.
F. Identify critical conditions that were not noted during any previous facility surveys or have changed since the last survey.
B. See that the occupant has done everything that the code requires to prevent fires from occurring and that will allow the occupants to get out if and when a fire does occur.
(FALSE - this is done during inspections not pre-incident survey’s)
A common means of communication is essential for maintaining control, coordination, and safety. The following statements are TRUE regarding common communications the exception is:
A. All units must use the 10-code or other agency specific radio codes.
B. Individual channels may be assigned for command, safety, tactical, support, ground-to-air, or air-to-air.
C. All unit leaders should be given a copy of the communications plan for the incident when they check in.
D. If mutual aid units are not equipped with radios that can receive and transmit on the channels assigned to them in the plan, they must be issued portable radios that will function on those channels.
A. All units must use the 10-code or other agency specific radio codes. (FALSE)
A type of stress that deserves special attention is the stress that occurs as result of a particular traumatic or disturbing incident. This type of stress is called critical incident stress. An example of a common delayed symptom is:
A. Denial of the situation.
B. Anger.
C. Feelings of guilt.
D. Frustration.
C. Feelings of guilt.
There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is defined as draws members together by some common interest that is important to them on some level. Weather it be shared hobby’s, beliefs, or needs.
A. Common Binding Interests. B. Vital Group Image. C. Sense of Continuity. D. Shared set of Values. E. Different Roles within the Group.
A. Common binding interest.
(Volunteer and combination organizations must determine, communicate, and supports the common binding interests of their members if they are to retain them.)
There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is defined as the members of the group must recognize the existence of their group and take pride in it. This pride contributes to group spirit and high morale. This feeling of pride must extend beyond the unit to the entire and organization. In addition to being essential to the cohesion of the group, it is one of the greatest influences on the success of the group.
A. Common Binding Interests. B. Vital Group Image. C. Sense of Continuity. D. Shared set of Values. E. Different Roles within the Group.
B. Vital group image.
it is one of the greatest influences on the success of the group.
There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is considered very important to group integrity. Without it commitment to the group may diminish. The group can be fragmented, and the members may begin to think and act more independently.
A. Common Binding Interests. B. Vital Group Image. C. Sense of Continuity. D. Shared set of Values. E. Different Roles within the Group.
C. Sense of continuity.
**considered very important to group integrity. **
There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is considered part of the cohesive structure of most groups. They are sometimes a composite of individual perception of reality, responsibility, and integrity.
A. Common Binding Interests. B. Vital Group Image. C. Sense of Continuity. D. Shared set of Values. E. Different Roles within the Group.
D. Shared set of values.
Common values
There are 5 Essential Elements of a Group. Which one is defined as - Within each group, different individuals act in different capacities such as company officer, formal and informal leader, and member.
A. Common Binding Interests. B. Vital Group Image. C. Sense of Continuity. D. Shared set of Values. E. Different Roles within the Group.
E. Different roles within the group.
According to Webster, power is “the possession of control, authority, or influence over others”. Those with power can give advice, offer rewards, or threaten subordinates with a variety of sanctions. Company officers who rely on their _____ power alone are not likely to be successful. They should strive to develop the ability to exercise all forms of power as each situation demands.
A. Reward power.
B. Coercive power.
C. Legitimate power.
D. Expert power.
C. Legitimate power.
Most fire service recruits today are significantly different than those of 20 or 30 years ago. The following statements are FALSE regarding today’s fire service recruits… the exception is:
A. They generally have less work experience than their predecessors.
B. They have less formal education.
C. They are less computer literate.
D. They are less aware social issues.
B. They have less formal education.(False they have MORE)
C. They are less computer literate.(false they have MORE)
D. They are less aware social issues. (False they have MORE)
_____ is a frequently used technique by firefighters who are preparing for promotional or certification examination. The _____ process is based upon several fundamental principles. They apply equally to skill development and skill maintenance situations, and they are very effective when used as part of a prescriptive training program.
A. Traditional training.
B. Non-traditional training.
C. Small-step learning.
D. Mastery learning.
D. Mastery learning.
Look up all definitions if found in book, esp mastery learning
_____ - Is the likelihood of suffering harm from a hazard. Can also be thought of as the potential for failure or loss. Is the exposure to a hazard.
Example - Fire related _____ is often expressed as the number of incidents, injuries, or deaths per capita.
Risk
_____ - Usually refers to the source of a risk. Is a condition, substance, or device that can directly cause an injury or loss.
Examples include ignition sources (such as smoking materials or faulty electrical wiring) or behaviors (such as children playing with matches or persons overloading electrical outlets).
Hazard
The terms hazard and risk are often used interchangeably. Technically, however, hazards and risks described two different things. RISK is the exposure to the hazard, and a HAZARD is a condition, substance, or device that can directly cause injury or loss. Which of the following is an example of a fire-related risk:
A. Smoking materials.
B. Number of deaths per capita.
C. Faulty electrical wiring.
D. Children playing with matches.
B. Number of deaths per capita.
Examples of fire related _____ include ignition sources (such as smoking materials or faulty electrical wiring) or behaviors (such as children playing with matches or persons overloading electrical outlets).
A. Risks.
B. Hazards.
C. Dangers.
D. Violations.
B. Hazards.
Fire related _____ is often expressed as the number of incidents, injuries, or deaths per capita.
A. Risks.
B. Hazards.
C. Dangers.
D. Violations.
A. Risk.
Of the following items, the one which relates to the other major issue about which firefighters are often concerned - job security is:
A. Grievance procedures.
B. Use of sick leave.
C. Overtime.
D. Vacations.
A. Grievance procedures.
Usually shortened to just “memos”, memoranda are a form of letter that is usually reserved for internal communication only - that is, within the department or the organization. The following statement is FALSE regarding memos:
A. Memos are sometimes used to document a face-to-face conversation.
B. Memos are used to transmit the same information to several locations or individuals.
C. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a formal manner.
D. Memos provide a written record of decisions, requests, or policies.
C. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a formal manner.
(FALSE - informal manner)
Which of the following statements represents the MOST COMMON cause of electrical fires?
A. An automatic coffee maker or similar appliance inadvertently being left on when the occupant leaves the premises.
B. Clothes dryers, both electric and gas, sometimes start fires because of a failure of the high temperature control of the timing mechanism.
C. Improperly installed wiring and/or equipment. Homeowners and business owners who lack the training to properly install electrical wiring and fixtures sometimes try to save money by doing the work themselves instead of calling a licensed contractor or electrician.
D. Misuse of the electrical system by the building occupants. This often involves the use of lightweight extension cords, sometimes called “zip cords”.
D. Misuse of the electrical system by the building occupants. This often involves the use of lightweight extension cords, sometimes called “zip cords”.
To ensure _____, company officers must learn to plan their transmissions before keying the microphone. They should do the following: make messages task-oriented, direct messages to companies and not individuals, match the message to the receiver, keep the messages specific.
A. Conciseness.
B. Clarity.
C. Confidence.
D. Control.
A. Conciseness.
Layman described a five-step process for analyzing any emergency situation. The step that he describes as… one set of facts that is known about the overall situation. Among these facts are the number and types of resources already at the scene. Also known are what additional resources are available immediately, with some delay, and with considerable delay,… is known as:
A. Facts.
B. Probabilities.
C. Own situation.
D. Plan of operation.
C. Own situation.
A common means of communication is essential to maintain the following… the exception is:
A. Control.
B. Command.
C. Coordination.
D. Safety.
B. Command.
Line and staff are terms that refer to the traditional organizational concept that separates fire department personnel into two distinct groups: line personnel and staff personnel. Which of the following activities would be carried out by line personnel?
A. Personal administration.
B. Training.
C. Emergency Medical Services.
D. Logistics.
C. Emergency medical services.
Which of the following roles is a traditional staff role of the fire department?
A. Hazardous materials response.
B. Fire prevention.
C. Personal administration.
D. Public education.
C. Personal administration.
Victor Vroom’s V.I.E. Theory of Motivation is often referred to as the expectancy theory. In very simplified terms, it links motivation to expectations. The elements that are the operative ones are:
A. Value and expectancy.
B. Instrumentality and expectancy.
C. Value, instrumentality, and expectancy.
D. Value and instrumentality
A. Value and expectancy.
The responsibility that includes “supervising firefighters includes answering their questions and handling their complaints while maintaining order and discipline within the company. To do this, the company officer must communicate the organizations culture and goals downward to the company members, and identify community concerns and opportunities upward to the administration” is:
A. Keeping the work area safe and healthy.
B. Developing member skills.
C. Encouraging teamwork and cooperation.
D. Keeping records and making reports.
C. Encouraging teamwork and cooperation.
A prescriptive training program system is one in which clearly defined and measurable performance standards have been developed for all the various individual skills and company evolutions deems necessary for the department to be able to fill its mission. The following statement is FALSE regarding prescriptive training:
A. The company officer evaluates the skills of his company members.
B. The training officer and/or the company officer supervisor evaluates the company evolutions.
C. Any performance found to be deficient must be brought up to standard within a specific period of time.
D. Prescriptive training systems are very efficient because they are processed-based, not performance-based.
D. Prescriptive training systems are very efficient because they are processed-based, not performance-based. (FALSE - they are performance-based)
A _____ program system is one in which clearly defined and measurable performance standards have been developed for all the various individual skills and company evolutions deems necessary for the department to be able to fill its mission.
The company officer evaluates the skills of his company members; The training officer and/or the company officer supervisor evaluates the company evolutions; Any performance found to be deficient must be brought up to standard within a specific period of time;
These systems are very efficient because they are performance-based, not processed-based.
A. Small-step learning
B. Prescriptive training
C. Traditional training
D. Mastery learning
B. Prescriptive training system.
There are many ways for a department to enhance the departments public image. The means most often used by fire department is public education. Three of the most effective means of enhancing the departments image are group presentations, _____, and direct assistance.
A. Company officer’s response during day to day contact.
B. Media programs.
C. Company officer’s response during emergency incidents.
D. Public education presentations.
B. Media programs.
While sometimes similar to handing citizen concerns, handling public inquiries is usually less strident and confrontational. An absolutely essential fire department customer service player is the company officer boss. The following statement is TRUE regarding the company officer.
A. They need to make a phone call to get permission to check a form or a computer screen.
B. The need to look up in the ops manual to determine what is going on.
C. They are typically captain and lieutenant types who do first level supervision as an integral (inside) part of the service delivery team.
D. Company officers operate outside the basic fire department service delivery team - fire company.
C. They are typically captain and lieutenant types who do first level supervision as an integral (inside) part of the service delivery team.
The fifth step in the “five-step planning process” is the evaluation step. This is the bottom line of public fire and life safety education programs. There are two types of feedback in the evaluation step; immediate feedback and long-term feedback. Which of the following is an example of long-term feedback?
A. Regardless of what the audience thought of the program, if it resulted in fewer fires, then it obviously succeeded. On the other hand, if there is little or no positive change in the data, it probably means that the program is less than successful. Either way, this is the most meaningful and reliable evaluation possible.
B. This feedback is valuable for its freshness, and immediately but it lacks objective validity.
C. The audience is asked to participate in the pretest/post-test approach.
D. Most people score higher after the presentation than they did before it.
(The others are examples of immediate feedback)
Because the injuries suffered by some of the victims at some accidents can be extremely gruesome and horrific, the firefighters and any others who had to deal directly with the victims should be required to attend a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) process. They should attend the folder debriefing process within _____ of completing their work on the incident.
A. 24 hours.
B. 48 hours.
C. 72 hours.
D. Immediately.
C. 72 hours.
Common Terminology for Resources:
_____ - All personnel and major items of equipment available (or potentially available) for assignment to incident tasks on which status is maintained; maybe individual companies (single resources), task forces, strike teams, or specialized units.
Factors:
- _____ are considered available when they have checked in at the incident and are not currently committed to an assignment.
-It is imperative that the status of these _____ is tracked so that they may be assigned when and where they’re needed without delay.
A. Resources. B. Resource types. C. Crew. D. Single resources. E. Task force. F. Strike team.
A. Resources.
Common Terminology for Resources:
_____ -Classification based on the capability of the resource. _____ may be referred to as fire apparatus, crew transport (buses), hoseline crews, aircraft, hazardous material units, fireboats, or ICS position assignments. Type I resource is considered more capable than Type II, and in sequence Type III, to the least cable Type IV.
A. Resources. B. Resource types. C. Crew. D. Single resources. E. Task force. F. Strike team.
B. Resource types.
Common Terminology for Resources:
_____ - Specified number of personnel assembled for an assignment such as search, ventilation, or hoseline deployment and operations.
The number of personnel assigned to a _____ should be within span-of-control guidelines. A _____ operates under the direct supervision of a _____ leader.
A. Resources. B. Resource types. C. Crew. D. Single resources. E. Task force. F. Strike team.
C. Crew.
Common Terminology for Resources:
_____ resources - Individual pieces of apparatus (engines, ladders/trucks, water tenders, bulldozers, air tankers, helicopters, etc.) and all personnel required to make them functional.
A. Resources. B. Resource types. C. Crew. D. Single resources. E. Task force. F. Strike team.
D. Single resources.
Common Terminology for Resources:
_____ - Any combination of resources (engines, ladders/trucks, bulldozers, etc.) assembled for specific mission or operational assignment. All units in the _____ must have common communication capabilities and a designated leader. Once a _____’s tactical objective has been met, it is disbanded; individual resources are reassigned or released.
A. Resources. B. Resource types. C. Crew. D. Single resources. E. Task force. F. Strike team.
E. Task force.
Common Terminology for Resources:
_____ - Set number of resources of the same kind and type (engines, ladders/trucks, bulldozers, etc.) that have an established minimum number of personnel. All units in the team must have common communication capabilities and a leader in a separate vehicle. Remain together and function as a team through out an incident.
A. Resources. B. Resource types. C. Crew. D. Single resources. E. Task force. F. Strike team.
F. Strike team.
Depending upon the needs of the incident, as specified in the incident action plan, resources maybe managed in different configurations. The resource that is described as “a set number of the same kind and type of resource, staffed with a specified minimum number of personnel. The leader must be in a separate vehicle”. Is known as:
A. Single resources.
B. Task forces.
C. Groups.
D. Strike teams.
D. Strike teams.
While the experience may vary from department to department, NFPA statistics show that the majority of serious injuries to firefighters, as well as the greatest number of injuries, occur:
A. At the scene of emergency incidents.
B. During training.
C. While responding to a returning from alarms.
D. During housework.
A. At the scene of emergency incidents.
Improper lifting techniques can result not only a personal injury but also in damage to equipment that is dropped or improperly handled. Every firefighter should be trained in safe lifting techniques. Safe lifting techniques include… the exception is:
A. Getting as close the object as possible.
B. When lifting, firefighter should bend at the waist.
C. Getting a good grip on the object, keeping the back straight or slightly arched.
D. Lifting with the legs, not the back.
B.
B. When lifting, firefighter should bend at the waist. (FALSE)
Statutory law pertains to laws enacted by legislative bodies of government. 3 Examples:
1) _____ level - USFA, OSHA, EPA, EEOC, IRS
2) _____ level - created tax codes, marriage laws, voting laws, motor vehicle laws, gaming laws, hunting regulations, health and safety laws, and laws governing the special districts for fire protection, sanitation, recreation, education, ect.
3) _____ level - Created ordinances that adopt a particular addition of a building or fire code, establish speed limits on local streets and roads, require business licenses, and adopt the fire and emergency services organizations annual budget.
1) Federal level
2) State level
3) Local level
Which of the following is an example of a statutory law at the local level?
A. TAX CODES.
B. OSHA.
C. Hunting regulations.
D. Fire codes.
D. Fire codes. (Local level) ----------------------------------------- A. TAX CODES. (State level) B. OSHA. (Federal level) C. Hunting regulations. (State level)
While it is possible for the same acts to be a violation of both criminal and civil law, most actionable behavior is either one or the other. Which of the following statements is most correct regarding criminal law?
A. It deals primarily with private rights and responsibilities.
B. It is the means by which society protects itself and it penalties are sometimes monetary.
C. It is the means by which individuals seek redress usually in the form of monetary damages.
D. The defendants guilt must be proven by a preponderance of the evidence.
A. It deals primarily with private rights and responsibilities. (Civil law)
C. It is the means by which individuals seek redress usually in the form of monetary damages. (Civil law)
D. The defendants guilt must be proven by a preponderance of the evidence. (Civil law)
In their book The Managerial Grid, Blake and Mouton Theorized that there are several basic types of leadership. Each type of leadership is based on the leader’s concern (or lack thereof) for people and/or production. _____ leadership Is characterized by a low concern for people and a low concern for production.
A. Autocratic.
B. Bureaucratic.
C. Democratic.
D. Single-issue.
B. Bureaucratic.
In most cases, company officers will spend the majority of their time training with their firefighters “skill maintenance”. Rather than focusing on learning new skills, this training focuses on maintaining the skills they have already learned. The following statement is TRUE regarding skill maintenance:
A. Drilling often involves nothing more than periodically practicing the skills that they do not apply frequently in the field is “Skill Maintance”.
B. Drilling on using self-contained breathing apparatus is “Skill Maintance”.
C. Drilling on applying cardiopulmonary resuscitation is “Skill Maintance”.
D. Drilling on defibrillation techniques is “Skill Maintance”.
A. Drilling often involves nothing more than periodically practicing the skills that they do not apply frequently in the field is “Skill Maintance”.
(Other answers could possibly be correct but above answer is most correct)
Most states maintain a _____ office. In as many as 47 of the states, the _____ serves as the principle authority on fire protection. A key responsibility is to advise the legislature or assembly on fire and life-safety related legislation and to oversees the fire prevention program. In cases of fire involving state property, or private property located outside a municipal boundary, the _____ generally conducts cause and origin investigations. The _____ commonly serves on open panels and committees tasked with state planning for hazardous materials control and disaster preparedness.
Fire Marshal
Because the structure and function of agencies very greatly among the states, company officers must make an effort to become familiar with the exact agencies and their responsibilities that are active in their political subdivision. In most states, a key responsibility of the _____ is to advise the legislature or assembly on fire related legislation and to oversee the fire prevention program.
A. Fire Chief’s Association
B. Firefighters Association
C. Fire Marshal
D. Fire Commission
C. Fire Marshal
The three most widely used forms of conflict resolution are mediation, arbitration, and fact-finding. Arbitration is sometimes required by local or state law is usually binding on both sides. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding arbitration?
A. The arbitrator is free to decide on any issue-by-issue basis.
B. Arbitrators look at the facts and developing list of suggested solutions.
C. The arbitrator meets separately with both sides in a conflict to identify the real issues and concerns that have caused the impasse.
D. Because arbitration is an all-or-nothing process, this forces each side to propose its most reasonable
package.
D. Because arbitration is an all-or-nothing process, this forces each side to propose its most reasonable
package. (TRUE)
The relationship-by-objectives (RBO) program is designed to improve relationships between labor and management. It concentrates on the process by which a labor and management may work co-operatively. An optional objective of this program is:
A. It does not replace the negotiation process between the entity and the union.
B. Development of skills that will enable participants to work together to address labor/management concerns.
C. Identification of viewpoints, conflicts, and concerns that hinder a productive labor/management relationship.
D. Formation of an objective-based plan designed to resolve problems into building mutually beneficial working relationship.
B. Development of skills that will enable participants to work together to address labor/management concerns.
_____ cover major purchases - items that cost more than a certain specified amount of money and are expected to last more than one year, usually three or more years.
A. Program budgets.
B. Line-item budgets.
C. Capital budgets.
D. Operating budgets.
C. Capital budgets.
Budget Types: (2)
_____ - Projected major purchases. Items that cost more than a specified amount of money and are expected to last more than one year (usually three or more years).
Fire apparatus/vehicles, equipment, and facilities are typical capital items for fire and emergency services organizations.
A. Program budgets.
B. Line-item budgets.
C. Capital budgets.
D. Operating budgets.
C. Capital budget.
Budget Types: (2)
_____ - Reoccurring expenditures of day-to-day operation. The largest single item in the _____ of most career organizations is personnel costs (salaries and benefits). Other items also includes utilities, office supplies, fuel, supplies, maintenance, etc…
A. Program budgets.
B. Line-item budgets.
C. Capital budgets.
D. Operating budgets.
D. Operating budget.
Fire departments that do not have a full-time PIO may task company officers with preparing press or news releases. In preparing the piece, the following guidelines should be used; the most correct statement is:
A. Use the inverted pyramids style of organization by putting the least important facts first and the most important ones last.
B. limit sentence length to no more than 20 words.
C. Write more than six lines per paragraph. One sentence paragraphs are not acceptable.
D. Use flowery really language and technical or exotic terms, avoid writing clearly and concisely.
A. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the least important facts first and the most important ones last. (FALSE - inverted pyramid style puts most important first)
C. Write more than six lines per paragraph. One sentence paragraphs are not acceptable.(FALSE - no more than 4-5 lines per paragraph / one sentence paragraphs are acceptable)
D. Use flowery really language and technical or exotic terms, avoid writing clearly and concisely.(FALSE - avoid using)
Tires and vehicles behave according to the same physical laws as any other fire, and they may present the same challenges to those investigating them. Fires caused by electrical malfunctions are most likely to be in the engine compartment or:
A. In the upholstery or seat cushions.
B. In the carpet on the floor.
C. In the trunk area.
D. Under the dashboard.
D. Under the dashboard.
Company officers and the department administrations need to understand the difference between pre-incident surveys and code enforcement inspections. Each is conducted for entirely different purposes and should not be combined. The following statements are true regarding the pre-incident survey; the exception is:
A. Company officers concentrate on where and how fires are most likely to occur and how those fires are likely to behave.
B. Company officers focus on what is likely to happen and what they will need in order to mitigate those contingencies.
C. Company officers focus on any potential hazards to firefighter safety that may exist on the premises.
D. Company officers are there to see that the occupant has done everything that the code requires to prevent fires from occurring and that will allow the occupants to get out if and when he fired does occur.
D. Company officers are there to see that the occupant has done everything that the code requires to prevent fires from occurring and that will allow the occupants to get out if and when he fired does occur. (FALSE - this is code enforcement)
NFPA 220 lists five classifications of building construction. According to NFPA 220 the primary fire concern specific to _____ construction is the problem of fire and smoke spread through concealed spaces between the walls, floors, and ceiling.
A. Type I. B. Type II. C. Type III. D. Type IV. E. Type V.
C. Type III.
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Type I construction is also called -
A. Fire-resistive construction. B. Noncombustible. C. Ordinary construction. D. Heavy timber construction. E. Woodframe construction.
A. Fire-resistive construction.
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Type II construction is also called -
A. Fire-resistive construction. B. Noncombustible. C. Ordinary construction. D. Heavy timber construction. E. Woodframe construction.
B. Noncombustible.
aka noncombustible
aka limited combustible construction
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Type III construction is also called -
A. Fire-resistive construction. B. Noncombustible. C. Ordinary construction. D. Heavy timber construction. E. Woodframe construction.
C. Ordinary construction.
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Type IV construction is also called -
A. Fire-resistive construction. B. Noncombustible. C. Ordinary construction. D. Heavy timber construction. E. Woodframe construction.
D. Heavy timber construction.
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Type V construction is also called -
A. Fire-resistive construction. B. Noncombustible. C. Ordinary construction. D. Heavy timber construction. E. Woodframe construction.
E. Woodframe construction.
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Fire-resistive construction is also called -
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
A. Type I construction.
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Noncombustible or noncombustible/limited combustible construction is also called -
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
B. Type II construction.
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Ordinary construction is also called:
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
C. Type III construction.
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Heavy timber construction is also called -
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
D. Type IV construction.
NFPA 220 has 5 classification codes but may use different terms to describe each classification.
Wood-frame construction is also called -
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
E. Type V construction.
What makes IBC construction types different than NFPA construction types?
A. The NFPA designates five construction types, similar to IBC but with two subcategories for each type (with the exception of Type IV).
B. The IBC designates five construction types, similar to NFPA, but with two subcategories for each type (with the exception of Type IV).
C. The IBC designates five construction types, similar to NFPA, but with three. subcategories for each type (with the exception of Type IV).
D. A. The NFPA designates five construction types, similar to IBC but with three subcategories for each type (with the exception of Type IV).
B. The IBC designates five construction types, similar to NFPA, but with two subcategories for each type (with the exception of Type IV).
IBC Classifications:
_____ – consists of noncombustible materials characterized by the use of steel, iron, concrete, or masonry structural elements.
A. Type I.
B. Type IA.
C. Type IB.
D. Type IC.
A. Type I construction.
IBC Classifications:
_____ - Requires a 3-hour fire-resistance rating of the structural frame and load-bearing walls; Floors must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating; and roofs must have 1 1/2 fire-resistance rating (most stringent classification).
A. Type I.
B. Type IA.
C. Type IB.
D. Type IC.
B. Type IA.
IBC Classifications:
_____ - Requires a 2-hour fire-resistance rating for the structural frame and loadbearing walls; Floors must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating; and roofs must have a 1 hour fire-resistance rating.
A. Type I.
B. Type IA.
C. Type IB.
D. Type IC.
C. Type IB.
IBC Classifications:
_____ - Consists of noncombustible materials but with a reduced fire resistance rating when compared with Type I construction. Although the term is not completely accurate, this type is often referred to as a “1-hour building”, which means that bearing walls and floors have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating.
Type II construction
IBC Classifications:
_____ - Consists of noncombustible materials but with a reduced fire resistance rating when compared with Type I construction. Although the term is not completely accurate, this type is often referred to as a “1-hour building”, which means that bearing walls and floors have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating.
_____ - Requires noncombustible fire-resistant material similar to Type I buildings insofar as the structural elements must be of steel, concrete, or masonry.
A. Type II.
B. Type IIA.
C. Type IIB.
D. Type IIC.
1) A. Type II.
2) B. Type IIA.
IBC Classifications:
1) _____ - Consists of noncombustible materials but with a reduced fire resistance rating when compared with Type I construction. Although the term is not completely accurate, this type is often referred to as a “1-hour building”, which means that bearing walls and floors have a 1-hour fire-resistance rating.
2) _____ - Requires approved noncombustible materials, but the materials used may have no assigned fire-resistance rating.
A. Type II.
B. Type IIA.
C. Type IIB.
D. Type IIC.
A. Type II.
C. Type IIB.
IBC Classifications:
_____ - Consists of structural elements made of any material permitted by the code. Exterior bearing walls must have a 2-hour fire-resistance rating.
A. Type III.
B. Type IIIA.
C. Type IIIB.
D. Type IIIC.
A. Type III.
IBC Classifications:
1) _____ - Consists of structural elements made of any materials permitted by the code. Exterior bearing walls must have a 2-hour fire-resistant rating.
2) _____ - Requires materials that will provide a 1-hour fire-resistant construction throughout the structure.
A. Type III.
B. Type IIIA.
C. Type IIIB.
D. Type IIIC.
1) A. Type III.
2) B. Type IIIA.
IBC Classifications:
1) _____ - Consists of structural elements made of any materials permitted by the code. Exterior bearing walls must have a 2-hour fire-resistant rating.
2) _____ - Lacks the 1-hour fire-resistant construction requirement for construction materials throughout the structure.
A. Type III.
B. Type IIIA.
C. Type IIIB.
D. Type IIIC.
1) A. Type III.
2) C. Type IIIB.
IBC Classifications:
_____ - Consists of structural elements of any type permitted by the code with exterior walls being constructed of noncombustible materials while interior building elements are constructed of solid or laminated wood having no concealed spaces (also known as heavy-timber or HT). Buildings must have permitted partitions, and members of the structural frame must have a minimum fire-resistant rating of at least 1-hour.
A. Type I. B. Type II. C. Type III. D. Type IV. E. Type V.
D. Type IV.
IBC Classifications:
_____ - Consists of structural elements and exterior and interior walls constructed of any materials permitted by the code (also known as wood-frame construction).
A. Type I. B. Type II. C. Type III. D. Type IV. E. Type V.
E. Type V.
IBC Classifications:
1) _____ - Consists of structural elements and exterior and interior walls constructed of any materials permitted by the code (also known as wood-frame construction).
2) _____ - Requires a 1-hour fire-resistance rating for all structural elements except for nonbearing interior walls and partitions.
A. Type V.
B. Type VA.
C. Type VB.
D. Type VC.
1) A. Type V.
2) B. Type VA.
IBC Classifications:
1) _____ - Consists of structural elements and exterior and interior walls constructed of any materials permitted by the code (also known as wood-frame construction).
2) _____ - May have non-fire-rated structural elements
A. Type V.
B. Type VA.
C. Type VB.
D. Type VC.
1) A. Type V.
2) C. Type VB.
NFPA 220 Classifications:
_____ - Consists of structural members, including walls, columns, beams, floors, and roofs, that are made of noncombustible or limited combustible materials. Buildings of this type were originally designed to confine any fire and it’s resulting products of combustion to a given location.
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
A. Type I construction.
NFPA 220 Classifications:
The following are characteristics of _____ construction.
- Because of the limited combustibility of the construction materials, the primary fuel load (total fuel available) is composed of the contents of the structure.
- The ability of this construction to confine a fire to a certain area can be compromised by openings made in partitions and improperly designed heating, ventilating, and air-conditioning (HVAC) systems.
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
A. Type I.
NFPA 220 Classifications:
The following are characteristics of _____ construction:
- Contents of the structure compose the primary fuel load.
- Roofs are often flat, built-up types that may contain combustible felt (tar paper) and roofing tar. Fire extensions to the roof can eventually cause the entire roof to become involved and fail.
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
B. Type II construction.
NFPA 220 Classifications:
_____ - Consists of structural members similar to Type I except that the degree of fire-resistance is lower. In some cases, materials with no fire resistance rating (such as untreated wood) maybe used. The heat buildup from a fire in the building can cause structural supports to fail. Another potential problem is the type of roof.
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
B. Type II construction.
NFPA 220 Classifications:
_____ -Consists of exterior walls in structural members that are portions of exterior walls that are made of noncombustible or limited combustible materials. Interior structural members, including walls, columns, beams, floors, and roofs, may be completely or partially constructed of wood. The wood used in these members are smaller dimensions than that required for heavy timber construction. Fire hazards can be reduced if fire-stops are placed inside concealed spaces to limit the spread of combustion byproducts.
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
C. Type III construction.
NFPA 220 Classifications:
The following are fire concerns/characteristics for _____ construction:
- Fire and smoke spreading through concealed spaces between walls, floors, and ceilings.
- Heat conducting to concealed spaces through finished materials (drywall or plaster) or holes in finished materials, causing heat, smoke, and gases to spread to other parts of the structure.
- Fire actually burning within concealed spaces and feeding on combustible construction materials in the space.
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
C. Type III construction.
NFPA 220 Classifications:
_____ - Consists of exterior and interior walls and their associated structural members that are of noncombustible or limited combustible materials. Other interior structural members, including beams, columns, arches, floors, and roofs, are made of solid or laminated wood with no concealed spaces.
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
D. Type IV construction.
NFPA 220 Classifications:
The following are characteristics of _____ construction:
- Wooden members must have large enough dimensions to be considered heavy timber.
- Dimensions that qualify as heavy timber vary but are usually defined as being at least 8 inches and its smallest dimension.
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
D. Type IV construction.
NFPA 220 Classifications:
_____ -Consists of exterior walls, bearing walls, columns, beams, girders, trusses, arches, floors, and roofs made entirely or partially of wood or other approved combustible material. Buildings are typically wood-frame structures used for various mercantile occupancies, most single-family and multifamily residents, and other freestanding structures up to about six stories in height.
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
E. Type V construction.
NFPA 220 Classifications:
The following is characteristics of _____ construction:
- Construction differs from heavy timber construction mainly in the smaller dimensions of the structural members.
- Balloon framed and platform framed are two common styles of this construction.
A. Type I construction. B. Type II construction. C. Type III construction. D. Type IV construction. E. Type V construction.
E. Type V construction.
Control Zones:
_____ - Area where resolving the problem takes place - fires are suppressed, hazardous materials releases are controlled and contained, vehicle extrication is performed, etc. Only personnel who are directly involved in disposing of the problem are allowed, which limits crowds and confusion at the most critical area of the scene. The size of the zone may vary greatly, depending upon the nature and extent of the problem.
Hot zone
Control Zones:
The following are personal requirements for the _____ zone:
- Trained appropriately to manage the situation.
- Attired in complete personal protective equipment (PPE) designed for the specific hazard.
- Participated in a personal accountability system implemented by that incident commander (IC) or incident scene officer (ISO).
Hot zone
Control Zones:
_____ - Area immediately outside the hot zone for personnel who are directly supporting the work being preformed by those in the hot zone - limited to personnel who are operating hydraulic tool power plants, providing emergency lighting, and providing fire protection. These personnel are in full PPE and ready to enter the hot. In hazardous materials incidents, this is where a decontamination station is normally assembled.
Warm zone
Control Zones:
- limited to personnel who are operating hydraulic tool power plants, providing emergency lighting, and providing fire protection. These personnel are in full PPE.
- In hazardous materials incidents, this is where a decontamination station is normally assembled.
Warm zone
Control Zones:
_____ -Area may include the incident command post (ICP) with a rapid intervention crew (RIC) nearby, public information officer’s (PIO) location, rehabilitation area, and staging areas for personnel and portable equipment.
Cold zone
Control Zones:
The following would be examples of the _____ zone.
- Witnesses and family members of victims
- News media accompanied by the PIO or organization representative
- Backup personnel available to enter the other zones.
Cold zone
Control Zones:
_____ - The outer boundary area of the cold zone would be _____ for the general public.
A. Prohibited line.
B. Control line.
C. No access line.
D. No entry line.
B. Control line.
aka Crowd-control line
There are numerous reasons to control the incident scene. Most common method of organizing incident scenes is to establish control zones. Vehicle extrication is done in the _____ zone.
Hot zone
Lloyd Layman described a 5-step process for analyzing any emergency situation. In the 5th step “Plan of Operation” a written incident action plan will be required in larger, more complex incidents. An IAP normally covers a single operational period, usually about ____ in duration.
A. 6 hours.
B. 12 hours.
C. 24 hours.
D. 48 hours.
B. 12 hours.
What are the 3 “Modes of Operation”?
- Offensive mode
- Defensive mode
- Transitional mode (switching from offensive to defensive mode bc of a rapid change in conditions)
There are several possible types of facilities that can be established in and around an incident. The types of facilities and their locations are determined by the requirements of the incidents as outlined in the incident action plan. An incident base is described as:
A. Locations at which minor support functions are performed on very large wildland incident. They may be relocated as the needs of the incident dictate.
B. The location at which resources are held in reserve. On wildland fires and other incidents, units are on a three-minute availability.
C. The location at which primary support functions are performed. There is only one and its location remains fixed throughout the incident.
D. The location from which all incident operations are directed. There is only one per incident.
A. Locations at which minor support functions are performed on very large wildland incident. They may be relocated as the needs of the incident dictate. (Camps)
B. The location at which resources are held in reserve. On wildland fires and other incidents, units are on a three-minute availability. (Mobilization/Staging areas)
D. The location from which all incident operations are directed. There is only one per incident. (Incident Command Post - ICP)
Predesigned Incident Facilities:
_____ - Location from where all incident tactical operations are directed; located at or in the immediate vicinity of the incident site. There is only one per incident.
A. Operations base.
B. Incident command post.
C. Safe zone.
D. Incident command base.
B. Incident command post (ICP).
Predesigned Incident Facilities:
_____ - Location (which remains fixed throughout the incident) to house equipment and personal support functions; performs primary support activities; only one is established per incident.
A. Incident base. B. Camps. C. Mobilization/staging areas. D. Helibases. E. Helispots.
A. Incident base.
Predesigned Incident Facilities:
_____ - Locations (remote from the incident base) from which essential auxiliary support functions (such as providing food, sleeping areas, and sanitation) are performed at very large incidents; may relocate as needs of the incident dictate.
A. Incident base. B. Camps. C. Mobilization/staging areas. D. Helibases. E. Helispots.
B. Camps.
Predesigned Incident Facilities:
_____ - Any location where resources (personal, supplies, and equipment) are held in reserve while awaiting operational assignment.
Examples:
-Wildland fires and other incidents: Units are on a three-minute availability.
-High-rise fire: Staging is located two floors below the fire floor.
A. Incident base. B. Camps. C. Mobilization/staging areas. D. Helibases. E. Helispots.
C. Mobilization/staging areas.
Predesigned Incident Facilities:
_____ - Locations where helicopters are parked, serviced, maintained, and loaded; may be more than one on large incidents.
A. Incident base. B. Camps. C. Mobilization/staging areas. D. Helibases. E. Helispots.
D. Helibases.
Predesigned Incident Facilities:
_____ - Temporary locations where helicopters can land, refuel, and reload.
A. Incident base. B. Camps. C. Mobilization/staging areas. D. Helibases. E. Helispots.
E. Helispots.
Legitimate power is derived from one of three sources. The three sources of legitimate power are… the exception is:
A. Shared values.
B. Sanction of a legitimizing agent.
C. Acceptance of a social structure.
D. Knowledge or expertise.
D. Knowledge or expertise. (FALSE)
The Managerial Grid (Blake & Mouton):
_____ leadership is characterized by a low concern for production, and a low concern for people.
A. Bureaucratic.
B. Single-issue.
C. Middle-of-the-road.
D. Dual-issue.
A. Bureaucratic.
The Managerial Grid (Blake & Mouton):
_____ leadership is characterized by a high concern for one dimension of leadership (people or production), coupled by a low concern for the other.
A. Bureaucratic.
B. Single-issue.
C. Middle-of-the-road.
D. Dual-issue.
B. Single-issue.
The Managerial Grid (Blake & Mouton):
_____ leadership is characterized by a moderate degree of concern for both people and production.
A. Bureaucratic.
B. Single-issue.
C. Middle-of-the-road.
D. Dual-issue.
C. Middle-of-the-road.
The Managerial Grid (Blake & Mouton):
_____ leadership is characterized by a high concern for production, and a high concern for people.
A. Bureaucratic.
B. Single-issue.
C. Middle-of-the-road.
D. Dual-issue.
D. Dual-issue.
The company officer must communicate the organizational culture and goals downward to the company members and identify community concerns and opportunities upward to the administration. This would be known as:
A. Getting the job done.
B. Keeping the work area safe and healthy.
C. Encouraging teamwork incorporation.
D. Developing member skills.
C. Encouraging teamwork incorporation
A _____ is a guide to decision making. They originate with top management and are disseminated to low levels for implementation. These not only aid in decision-making, but they also define the boundaries and standards that the administration expects company officers and members to use.
May include everything from sick leave to the smoking policy of the organization.
A. Policy.
B. Procedure.
C. Orders.
D. Demands.
A. Policy.
A _____ is a detailed plan of action. It details in writing the steps to follow in conducting organizational policy for some specific, reoccurring problem or situation. They are better developed at the company level because these individuals will be responsible for following and implementing them.
A. Policy.
B. Procedure.
C. Orders.
D. Demands.
B. Procedure.
Formal communications are essential to the successful discharge of the departments responsibility to the citizens of the community. Depending on the definition adopted by the authority having jurisdiction, these documents may be called by many different names (standard operating procedures/SOP, standing operating guidelines/SOG, policy and procedures manual/PPM, or general orders/GO). The most common term used is standard operating procedures or SOP’s. An SOP is defined as:
A. A guide to decision-making within an organization. They originate with top management in the department and are disseminated to lower levels for implementation.
B. A document which gives department members a reference point for decision-making. They promote more uniform, consistent practices throughout the organization and more predictable outcomes in the field.
C. Based upon the authority delegated to the officer to implement departmental policies and procedures.
D. Most fire departments provide their personnel with specific, detailed information about how specific situations should be handled.
A. A guide to decision-making within an organization. They originate with top management in the department and are disseminated to lower levels for implementation. (POLICIES)
B. A document which gives department members a reference point for decision-making. They promote more uniform, consistent practices throughout the organization and more predictable outcomes in the field. (PROCEDURES)
C. Based upon the authority delegated to the officer to implement departmental policies and procedures. (ORDERS)
_____ -Based upon the authority delegated to the officer to implement departmental policies and procedures. Compliance is mandatory because it is based upon a policy or procedure.
A. Policy.
B. Procedure.
C. Orders.
D. Demands.
C. Orders.
There are many symptoms that may indicate a firefighter is suffering from critical incident stress. Which of the following is one of the more common symptoms during an incident?
A. Feelings of guilt.
B. Irritability.
C. Sense of hopelessness.
D. Sleep disturbances.
C. Sense of hopelessness.
Regardless of how well planned and prioritize the daily schedule is, it is always subject to change - especially by fires and other emergencies. It is good to remember that handling emergencies is the company’s primary job. An activity that falls into the “may-do” category is:
A. Training.
B. Preventative maintenance.
C. Code enforcement.
D. Public education.
B. Preventative maintenance.
_____ fire service training systems are processed-based. That is, monthly training assignments specify that a certain minimum number of hours must be spent in training on certain specific topics or skills such as ladders, SCBA, or interior attack. The company officer dutifully leads the company members through the signed subject matter for the required amount of time.
A. Mastery learning.
B. Traditional learning.
C. Small-step learning.
D. Prescriptive training.
B. Traditional training
Company Level Training:
_____ - a high-level or near complete proficiency in an execution of a skill. Can be competency, performance, or individually based.
A. Small-step learning. B. Prescriptive training. C. Traditional training. D. Mastery learning. E. Simple-to-complex sequencing. F. Four-step method of instruction.
D. Mastery learning.
Company Level Training:
_____ - One of the most effective teaching models used for instructional delivery. Instructors use this model to develop lesson plans and as a process for teaching lessons and courses. Company officers can use the process for effective company level training. The model consists of preparation, presentation, application, and evaluation.
A. Small-step learning. B. Prescriptive training. C. Traditional training. D. Mastery learning. E. Skill maintenance. F. Simple-to-complex sequencing. G. Four-step method of instruction.
G. Four-step method of instruction.
Company Level Training:
_____ - Is an excellent method for teaching practical skills. It is well adopted for small-group study. A group of three or four firefighters can learn a skill with or without a formal instructor. It is also good for small groups that have a similar goal, such as promotional exams or college courses. Is based on seven principles.
A. Small-step learning. B. Prescriptive training. C. Traditional training. D. Mastery learning. E. Skill maintenance. F. Simple-to-complex sequencing. G. Four-step method of instruction.
D. Mastery learning.
Company Level Training:
_____ - Is based on seven principles: Mastery definition, small-step learning, Simple-to-complex sequencing, reinforcement, formative evaluation, corrective activities, and summative evaluation.
A. Small-step learning. B. Prescriptive training. C. Traditional training. D. Mastery learning. E. Skill maintenance. F. Simple-to-complex sequencing. G. Four-step method of instruction.
D. Mastery learning.
Company Level Training:
_____ - Often focuses on the number of hours taught rather than on what is taught or how effective the class is. There are often requirements for a minimum amount of time spent in training for each member of the department. Is processed based.
A. Small-step learning. B. Prescriptive training. C. Traditional training. D. Mastery learning. E. Skill maintenance. F. Simple-to-complex sequencing. G. Four-step method of instruction.
C. Traditional training.
Company Level Training:
_____ - Adopts measurable performance standards for each level. The training then focuses on helping the member meet these standards. If the performance standards are well done the training will be effective. The company officer just needs to adopt the performance standards into measurable objectives. Is performance based.
A. Small-step learning. B. Prescriptive training. C. Traditional training. D. Mastery learning. E. Skill maintenance. F. Simple-to-complex sequencing. G. Four-step method of instruction.
B. Prescriptive training.
Company Level Training:
_____ - Breaking a complex skill down into smaller, individual steps helps the trainee to avoid feeling overwhelmed by the challenge of mastering the entire skill.
A. Small-step learning. B. Prescriptive training. C. Traditional training. D. Mastery learning. E. Skill maintenance. F. Simple-to-complex sequencing. G. Four-step method of instruction.
A. Small-step learning.
Company Level Training:
_____ - Training focusing on skills already learned.
A. Small-step learning. B. Prescriptive training. C. Traditional training. D. Mastery learning. E. Skill maintenance. F. Simple-to-complex sequencing. G. Four-step method of instruction.
E. Skill maintenance.
Company Level Training:
_____ - Learning efficiency is increased when skills are taught from simplest to most complex (also called production order).
A. Small-step learning. B. Prescriptive training. C. Traditional training. D. Mastery learning. E. Skill maintenance. F. Simple-to-complex sequencing. G. Four-step method of instruction.
F. Simple-to-complex sequencing.
Company Level Training:
_____ - Consists of clearly defined and measurable performance standards for various skills necessary for a department to meet its goals (i.e. SCBA, defibrillators, ladders). Is very effective because it is performance based.
A. Small-step learning. B. Prescriptive training. C. Traditional training. D. Mastery learning. E. Skill maintenance. F. Simple-to-complex sequencing. G. Four-step method of instruction.
B. Prescriptive training.
Company Level Training:
_____ - Are process-based (i.e. monthly training). Focuses on the actual time spent (hours) on a subject.
A. Small-step learning. B. Prescriptive training. C. Traditional training. D. Mastery learning. E. Skill maintenance. F. Simple-to-complex sequencing. G. Four-step method of instruction.
C. Traditional training.
In addition to the fire protection agency, a local government is likely to include one or more of the agencies discussed in the following paragraphs. The definition which is most closely associated with “civil groups” is:
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues.
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.(Building department)
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.(Law enforcement)
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.(Zoning commission)
In addition to the fire protection agency, a local government is likely to include one or more of the agencies discussed in the following paragraphs. The definition which is most closely associated with “Law enforcement” is:
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues.
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.(Building department)
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.(Zoning commission)
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues. (Civil groups)
In addition to the fire protection agency, a local government is likely to include one or more of the agencies discussed in the following paragraphs. The definition which is most closely associated with “Building department” is:
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues.
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.(Law enforcement)
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.(Zoning commission)
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues. (Civil groups)
In addition to the fire protection agency, a local government is likely to include one or more of the agencies discussed in the following paragraphs. The definition which is most closely associated with “Zoning commission” is:
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.
C. Involved in the selection and allocation of sites for fire stations and support buildings such as training centers and maintenance facilities.
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues.
A. Frequently maintains files for building floor plans that indicate structural layout, locations of entrances and exits, fire suppression systems, and other features that can assist with the emergency.(Building department)
B. Support fire protection efforts through crowd and traffic control, with large-scale evacuations, and by providing protection to firefighters during civil unrest.(Law enforcement)
D. Allow the fire department to provide fire education to members and assist the department in publicizing and hosting classes, demonstrations, and other efforts designed to promote public awareness of fire and related safety issues. (Civil groups)
Providing a systematic planning and action process is composed of five steps. Step which is “The objective of the _____ is to choose the most cost-effective or achievable objectives for the public education program. Being aware of the scope and limitations of available resources is important if planners are to be realistic about what an education program can accomplish.”
A. Identification step. B. Selection step. C. Design step. D. Implementation step. E. Evaluation step.
B. Selection step.
Five-Step Planing Process:
Step 1: _____ -Major fire and life safety problems.
Step 2: _____ - The most cost-effective objectives for the education program.
Step 3: _____ - The program.
Step 4: _____ - The program plan.
Step 5: _____ - The program to determine impact.
Step 1: Identify Step 2: Select Step 3: Design Step 4: Implement Step 5: Evaluate
Five-Step Planing Process:
The following are some of the questions asked during the _____ step:
- What are the major fire and burn hazards?
- Where are the high-risk locations?
- When are the high-risk times?
- Who are the high-risk audiences?
- What is the high-risk behavior?
A. Step 1: Identification step. B. Step 2: Selection step. C. Step 3: Design step. D. Step 4: Implementation step. E. Step 5: Evaluation step.
A. Step 1: Identification step.
Five-Step Planing Process:
The following are some of the questions asked during the _____ step:
- Who are the potential audiences?
- What are the potential costs and benefits of various training options?
- What resources are available within the community?
A. Step 1: Identification step. B. Step 2: Selection step. C. Step 3: Design step. D. Step 4: Implementation step. E. Step 5: Evaluation step.
B. Step 2: Selection step.
Five-Step Planing Process:
By the end of the _____ step, program planners will be able to reach a crucial decision: “the specific objectives of the education program.”
A. Step 1: Identification step. B. Step 2: Selection step. C. Step 3: Design step. D. Step 4: Implementation step. E. Step 5: Evaluation step.
B. Step 2: Selection step.
Five-Step Planing Process:
The _____ step is the bridge between planning a fire and life-safety education program and actually implementing it in the field. The objective is to develop the most effective means of communicating the program’s message to the identified object. In other words, this step is the time when the public educator decides what to say and how to say it, based on the message, audience, and available resources.
A. Step 1: Identification step. B. Step 2: Selection step. C. Step 3: Design step. D. Step 4: Implementation step. E. Step 5: Evaluation step.
C. Step 3: Design step.
Five-Step Planing Process:
Is where the day-to-day job of public fire and life safety education happens. Planning the _____ step includes answering the following questions and identifying the associated tasks:
- How will the target audience participate and cooperate and implementing the program?
- How will public educators be trained and scheduled?
- How will materials be produced and distributed?
A. Step 1: Identification step. B. Step 2: Selection step. C. Step 3: Design step. D. Step 4: Implementation step. E. Step 5: Evaluation step.
D. Step 4: Implementation step.
Five-Step Planing Process:
_____ the “bottom line” of public fire and life safety education. It is the point for measuring the effects of education programs and modifying them as needed.
A. Step 1: Identification step. B. Step 2: Selection step. C. Step 3: Design step. D. Step 4: Implementation step. E. Step 5: Evaluation step.
E. Step 5: Evaluation step.
The most widely known job action is a strike, but there are others. Especially in the Public Safety sector where strikes were illegal, workers invented other ways of applying pressure on management in order to achieve their goals. The job action described as: “While the firefighters report for duty as scheduled, once on duty they refuse to do anything but respond to emergency calls. After they check their emergency clothing and equipment to make sure everything is ready if needed, then firefighter sit down, play cards, watch TV, or do anything other than their normal routine duties. This tactic can put a lot of pressure on company officers unless they are part of the job action also.” is known as a _____ job action.
A. Selective duty.
B. Sick-out.
C. Work-to-rule.
D. Strike.
A. Selective duty.
Define others
Usually shortened to just “Memos”, memoranda are a form of letter. Their format usually includes the following headings: Date, To, From, and Subject. The following statements are TRUE regarding purposes of “memos”… the exception is:
A. To transmit the same information to several locations or individuals.
B. To provide a written record of decisions, requests, or policies.
C. To be used for external communication outside the department.
D. To provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a somewhat informal manner.
C. To be used for external communication outside the department. (FALSE - used within an organization)
Types of Documents:
_____ - Is it quick and relatively simple way of transmitting a message within an organization. It has the benefit of being brief and providing a written document that describes what, where, when, who, why, and sometimes how:
A. Memos. B. Letters. C. Press releases. D. Reports. E. Form-based reports.
A. Memos.
Types of Documents:
_____ are generally used with persons, groups, and agencies outside the organization. They are more formal and tend to represent the entire organization rather than a specific branch or section.
A. Memos. B. Letters. C. Press releases. D. Reports. E. Form-based reports.
B. Letters.
Types of Documents:
_____ - Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the most important facts first and the least important ones left.
- Limit sentence length to no more than 20 words.
- Write no more than 4 to 5 lines per paragraph; one sentence paragraphs are acceptable.
- Use is an active voice; written clearly and concisely, avoiding flowery language and technical terms/jargon.
A. Memos. B. Letters. C. Press releases. D. Reports. E. Form-based reports.
C. Press releases.
Types of Documents:
_____ - Constitute the bulk of writing produced by most company officers. Some are simply forms that are completed with specific information concerning incident or event. Others are more like essays, written in narrative, paragraph form and requiring greater thought and organization.
A. Memos. B. Letters. C. Press releases. D. Reports. E. Form-based reports.
D. Reports.
Types of Documents:
_____ - Recorded on computers or hard copy forms, the officer is required to place specific information into spaces or fields. Reports that may consist of incident reports, injury reports, fire investigation reports, training reports, internal or external inspection reports, or attendance reports.
A. Memos. B. Letters. C. Press releases. D. Reports. E. Form-based reports.
E. Form-based reports.
General Inspection Categories: (6)
_____ - Is the single most important life-safety item to be inspected. Consists of three parts: the access to the exit, the exit itself, and exit discharge. Must be usable by a person with a severe mobility impairment. The inspector should look for a obstructions, markings, lighting, door swing, hardware, and stairwells.
A. Processes. B. Fire protection. C. Waste management. D. Means of egress. E. Housekeeping. F. Storage.
D. Means of egress.
General Inspection Categories: (6)
_____ - Besides being potential environmental hazards, accumulations of flammable or combustible waste such as wastepaper or oily rags can be a significant fire and life safety hazard. These materials must be kept separate from sources of ignition.
-With flammable wastes, this most often means proper containment such as putting oily rags into approved, self-closing containers to putting flammable trash in metal containers in sprinkled enclosures.
A. Processes. B. Fire protection. C. Waste management. D. Means of egress. E. Housekeeping. F. Storage.
C. Waste management.
General Inspection Categories: (6)
_____ - Is an indication of how homeowners and employees feel about a safe work environment.
-Accumulations of trash and litter in the workplace can be hazardous in several ways: can obscure or block access to the means of egress, can provide additional fuel to a fire, can create trip/fall hazards, can conceal the existence of other hazards such as leaking pipes or exposed wiring.
A. Processes. B. Fire protection. C. Waste management. D. Means of egress. E. Housekeeping. F. Storage.
E. Housekeeping.
General Inspection Categories: (6)
_____ - Is based on the assumption that the other parts of the system may not always be successful in preventing fires.
Includes many components such as:
-Employees’ knowledge of how to recognize and report a fire.
-Employees’ knowledge of the capabilities and limitations of various types of portable fire extinguishers and how to use them safely.
-Built-in fire detection and alarm systems.
-Automatic sprinklers and other built-in fire suppression systems.
A. Processes. B. Fire protection. C. Waste management. D. Means of egress. E. Housekeeping. F. Storage.
B. Fire protection.
General Inspection Categories: (6)
_____ - There are countless ways in which industrial “_____” can create hazards to human life. They can start fires or contribute to their spread or contaminant the environment. Because there are so many ways, requirements for each of the various classes of occupancies have been developed and included in the various codes.
A. Processes. B. Fire protection. C. Waste management. D. Means of egress. E. Housekeeping. F. Storage.
A. Processes.
General Inspection Categories: (6)
_____ - May contain the raw materials used to produced finished products, boxes containing the finished products, or both. In any case, flammable materials, such as cardboard boxes, packing materials, or egg ignitable liquids, must be kept separate from sources of ignition. This may include prohibiting smoking and/or welding and cutting operations in these areas.
-Must not interfere with automatic sprinklers or other built-in fire protection devices or systems.
A. Processes. B. Fire protection. C. Waste management. D. Means of egress. E. Housekeeping. F. Storage.
F. Storage.
General Inspection Categories: (6)
_____ - These areas come in all sizes and may contain a variety of items, some hazardous. Smaller “_____” areas/rooms may contain janitorial supplies, office supplies, or miscellaneous materials. Larger ones may contain retail merchandise such as toys, clothing, maintenance parts, or ignitable liquids.
A. Processes. B. Fire protection. C. Waste management. D. Means of egress. E. Housekeeping. F. Storage.
F. Storage.
In all occupancies, regardless of size or classification, there are certain general fires and life safety items that must be inspected. These items fall into six categories: Means of Egress, Housekeeping, Processes, Storage, Waste Management, and Fire Protection.
These are referred to as the _____ .
A. General Inspection Categories
B. Required Inspection Categories.
C. Mandatory Inspection Categories.
D. Special Inspection Categories.
A. General Inspection Categories.
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
Generally, fires may be classified as: (4)
- _____ - Those that did not result from intentional or malicious human activity.
- _____ - Those that result from phenomena such as lightning strikes and earthquakes and not from human activity.
- _____ - Those that involve human activity and are deliberately set. The intent may or may not be malicious.
- _____ - Is the classification used when the specific cause of a fire cannot be determined.
- Accidental fires
- Natural fires
- Incendiary fires
- Undetermined
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
_____ - Fires that did not result from intentional or malicious human activity. Common causes are smoking related fires, pyrophoric ignition, and electrical fires.
A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.
A. Accidental fires.
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
_____ - Those that result from phenomena such as lightning strikes and earthquakes and not from human activity.
-Other examples include fires caused by wind damage to electrical conductors and transmission lines, or flooding resulting in electrical system short outs that ignite combustibles.
A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.
B. Natural fires.
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
_____ - Are started intentionally and may involve malicious intent. As a crime, intentionally set malicious fires are termed arson.
A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.
C. Incendiary fires.
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
_____ - Although intentional, these fires lack the malicious intent. However, may still result in litigation if negligence is alleged.
A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.
A. Accidental fires.
An example could be a person burning leaves carelessly and the fire becomes out-of-control.
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
Use of accelerants, disabled fire detection systems, disabled fire suppression systems, or use of a delayed ignition device are signs of a fire-setter and could be classified as a(n) _____ fire.
A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.
C. Incendiary fire.
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
Indicators that a fire was an _____ in origin and involved malicious intent are the following: Multiple points of origin, timing devices, trailers (when materials are used to intentionally spread the fire from one area to another) chemicals, matches, ignitable liquids, etc…
A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.
C. Incendiary fire.
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
_____ - Is the classification used when the specific cause of a fire cannot be determined. This classification may be used as an interim classification as the fire investigation is proceeding, or it may be the final outcome if additional information cannot be developed that identifies the specific cause. However, a cause should be given sufficient information is available.
A. Accidental fires.
B. Natural fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Undetermined.
D. Undetermined.
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
_____ ignition - Considered a source of an accidental fire; These fires occur when wood or other cellulose material is more or less continuously subjected to a low level of heat over a long period, The material can be converted to “____” carbon through pyrolysis. As this conversion takes place, the ignition temperature of the material is gradually lowered until autoignition occurs.
-A common example is the autoignition of wood framing in walls adjacent to metal fireplace boxes and flues. Other examples include steam pipes, flu pipes (wood-burning stoves and fireplaces), and fluorescent light ballasts.
A. Pyrophoric ignition.
B. Monophonic ignition.
C. Spontaneous ignition.
D. Auto ignition .
A. Pyrophoric ignition.
Once the point of origin has been located and any obvious evidence protected, company officers must also apply the understanding of basic fire behavior to determine specific cause of fire. There are several classifications of a fire. _____ are fires that may still result in litigation if negligence is alleged.
A. Natural fires.
B. Suspicious fires.
C. Incendiary fires.
D. Accidental fires.
D. Accidental fires.
Determining the Cause of the Fire:
_____ - Is the term given to a maliciously set incendiary fire. Generally defined as the act of intentionally or maliciously destroying or damaging property through the use of fire.
A. Natural.
B. Suspicious.
C. Arson.
D. Accidental.
C. Arson.
Report drawings are polished versions of field sketches, and they must be drawn to scale showing the essential details of the building and its surroundings. The details should be shown using the standard mapping symbols adopted by the department. If an item must be included for which there is no standard symbol, it should be indicated by a:
A. Numeral within a square.
B. Letter within a square.
C. Numeral within a circle.
D. Letter within a circle.
C. Numeral within a circle.
If helicopters are to be used to transport injured or uninjured people, company-level personnel may be responsible for setting up the landing zone (LZ). The unobstructed open area should be at least ___x___ feet with no more than a ___% slope.
70 x 70’ feet
2% slope
Because the injuries suffered by victims in some incidents can be extremely gruesome and horrific, the firefighters and any others who had to deal directly with the victims should be required to retain a critical incident stress debriefing (CISD) process. They should attend the full debriefing process within _____ of completing their work on the incident.
A. 6 hours. B. 12 hours. C. 24 hours. D. 48 hours. E. 72 hours.
E. 72 hours.
To help in the decision-making process, the company officer applies Lloyd Layman’s Decision-Making Model. The following non-fire emergency is considered which step in RECEO-VS:
_____ - Is the term used to identify the life safety aspect of emergency incident priorities. Includes decisions such as evacuation or shelter in place.
A. Rescue. B. Exposures. C. Confinement. D. Extinguishment. E. Overhaul. F. Ventilation. G. Salvage.
A. Rescue.
To help in the decision-making process, the company officer applies Lloyd Layman’s Decision-Making Model. The following non-fire emergency is considered which step in RECEO-VS:
_____ - Stopping oncoming traffic to protect the scene of a vehicle accident from being hit by other vehicles and thereby compounding the situation should be seen as addressing this priority.
A. Rescue. B. Exposures. C. Confinement. D. Extinguishment. E. Overhaul. F. Ventilation. G. Salvage.
B. Exposures.
To help in the decision-making process, the company officer applies Lloyd Layman’s Decision-Making Model. The following non-fire emergency is considered which step in RECEO-VS:
_____ - Limiting a hazardous material problem to the smallest area of the property in which it originated should be seen as addressing this priority.
A. Rescue. B. Exposures. C. Confinement. D. Extinguishment. E. Overhaul. F. Ventilation. G. Salvage.
C. Confinement.
To help in the decision-making process, the company officer applies Lloyd Layman’s Decision-Making Model. The following non-fire emergency is considered which step in RECEO-VS:
_____ - After a hazardous material release has been stopped, liquids must be cleaned up and package for proper disposal and any residues must be neutralized.
-In the case of a motor vehicle accident, the roadway must be cleared of debris and any liquids must be picked up or neutralized.
A. Rescue. B. Exposures. C. Confinement. D. Extinguishment. E. Overhaul. F. Ventilation. G. Salvage.
E. Overhaul.
To help in the decision-making process, the company officer applies Lloyd Layman’s Decision-Making Model. The following non-fire emergency is considered which step in RECEO-VS:
_____ - Is a means of controlling or modifying the environment within a structure. Consists of those operations needed to replace a contaminated atmosphere with normal air. Could be applied to releases of toxic or harmful gases within a structure (ex CO). Can be applied any time needed during the implementation of the RECEO model.
A. Rescue. B. Exposures. C. Confinement. D. Extinguishment. E. Overhaul. F. Ventilation. G. Salvage.
F. Ventilation.
To help in the decision-making process, the company officer applies Lloyd Layman’s Decision-Making Model. The following non-fire emergency is considered which step in RECEO-VS:
_____ - Process includes all actions taken to protect structures and contents from preventable damage and can be applied at any time during the implementation of the RECEO model.
A. Rescue. B. Exposures. C. Confinement. D. Extinguishment. E. Overhaul. F. Ventilation. G. Salvage.
G. Salvage.
Two terms identified in the RECEO-VS model are referred to as “floats” or “floating”, meaning it may or may not be used when and if needed during any point of the REVECO model.
Ventilation & Salvage
Layman’s list of priorities are represented by the acronym are RECEO-VS. The priority described as “even though Layman used this fire specific term, the concept is that of mitigating the problem. This is the phase of the operation in which the incident action plan that was based on the initial size up is implemented” is known as:
A. Exposures. C. Confinement.
B. Overhaul. D. Extinguishment.
D. Extinguishment.
_____ - are statements of measurable outcomes. Achieving them leads to the completion of strategic goals. These statements are less general and more specific than strategic goal statements. Units and personnel are assigned specific tasks to accomplish each objective.
Some common examples are:
-Initiate search and rescue.
-Provide a water curtain to protect exposures.
-Contain a hazardous material spill.
-Use salvage covers to route water from the building second floor.
A. Tactical objectives.
B. Operational strategies.
C. Orders.
D. Procedures.
A. Tactical objectives.
_____ are based on the Layman Decision-Making Model RECEO-VS.
They are the overall plans for controlling an incident. They are broad, general statement of the final outcome to be achieved. These goals are dictated by the three overall priorities of life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation.
A. Tactical objectives.
B. Operational strategies.
C. Orders.
D. Procedures.
B. Operational strategies.
aka Strategic goals
Under IMS, the first arriving officer has three operational modes available. An example of the “nothing showing mode” is:
A. Appoint one of the crew members as the acting officer, and give him a portable radio and an assignment.
B. He should direct the other responding units to stage at Level I, accompany the crew on an investigation of the situation, and maintain command using a portable radio.
C. Assign the crew to work under the supervision of another company officer.
D. Use the crew members to perform staff functions in support of command.
A. Appoint one of the crew members as the acting officer, and give him a portable radio and an assignment. (Formal command)
C. Assign the crew to work under the supervision of another company officer. (Formal command)
D. Use the crew members to perform staff functions in support of command. (Formal command)
Command Actives: (3)
_____ - When the problem generating the response is not obvious to the first arriving units, company officers should assume command of the incident and announced “_____” . The officer should direct the other responding units to stage at the last intersection in their route of travel before the reported incident location. The officer then accompanies unit personnel on an investigation of the situation and maintains command using a portable radio. Staging in this way allows for a maximum of deployment flexibility.
A. Nothing-showing. B. Fast-attack. C. Command. D. Combat command. E. Formal command.
A. Nothing-showing.
Command Actives: (3)
_____ - When the company officer’s direct involvement is necessary for the unit to take immediate action to save a life or stabilize the situation, the officer should take command and announce that the unit is initiating a “____” . Personnel will continue the “____”, which usually lasts only a short time, until one of the following situations occur:
- Incident is stabilized.
- Incident is not stabilized, but the officer must withdraw to outside the hazardous area to establish a formal incident command post.
- Command is transferred.
A. Nothing-showing. B. Fast-attack. C. Command. D. Combat command. E. Formal command.
B. Fast-attack.
Command Actives: (3)
_____ - Because of the nature and/or scope of some incidents, immediate and strong overall “____” is needed. In these incidents, the first arriving officer should assume “____” by naming the incident and designating an ICP, giving an initial report on conditions, and requesting additional resources needed.
A. Nothing-showing. B. Fast-attack. C. Command. D. Combat command. E. Formal command.
C. Command.
Command Actives: (3)
Two types of “Command” :
_____ - Involves the company officer performing multiple tasks such as serving as incident commander (IC), developing an incident action plan (IAP), and performing active tasks such as advancing hoseline.
A. Nothing-showing. B. Fast-attack. C. Command. D. Combat command. E. Formal command.
D. Combat command.
Command Actives: (3)
Two types of “Command” :
_____ - Involves the company officer remaining at the mobile radio in the apparatus, assigning tasks to unit personnel, communicating with other responding units, and expanding the NIMS-ICS as needed by the complexity of the incident.
A. Nothing-showing. B. Fast-attack. C. Command. D. Combat command. E. Formal command.
E. Formal command.
Command Actives: (3)
Two types of “Command” :
_____ - Under this type of command, the company officer must remain at the mobile radio inside the apparatus. In addition, must decide how to deploy the remainder of the unit. Three options are normally available:
- Appoint one unit member as the acting officer to supervise the rest of the unit, provide a portable radio, and make an assignment such as performing a search of the incident site.
- Assign unit members to work under the supervision of another company officer, performing the task assigned to that officer by the IC.
- Use unit members to perform staff functions in support of command such as the incident safety officer (ISO) or accountability officer.
A. Nothing-showing. B. Fast-attack. C. Command. D. Combat command. E. Formal command.
E. Formal command.
Improper lifting techniques and slip-and-fall accidents are two of the most common accidents that result in injury. Back _____ are the most common injuries related to improper lifting techniques. Improper lifting techniques can result not only in personal injury but also in damage to equipment that is dropped or improperly handled in the process of lifting.
A. Strains. B. Sprains.
C. Bruises. D. Disc rupture.
A. Strains.
Resource Allocation:
Agreements with other jurisdictions or agencies are normally formal, written plans that define the roles of the participants. Agreements can be categorized as three different types:
- 2.
3.
- Mutual aid
- Automatic aid
- Outside aid
Resource Allocation:
_____ - is the result of a reciprocal agreement between two or more fire and emergency service organizations. The agreement defines how the organizations will provide resources in various situations and how the actions of the shared resources will be monitored and controlled.
A. Mutual aid.
B. Automatic aid.
C. Outside aid.
D. Special aid.
A. Mutual aid.
Resource Allocation:
_____ - Results from a formal, written agreement between fire and emergency services organizations that share a common boundary. Occurs whenever certain predetermined conditions occur, such as a common jurisdictional boundary.
-May also be required at specific facilities such as airports, oil refineries, or chemical manufacturing plants.
A. Mutual aid.
B. Automatic aid.
C. Outside aid.
D. Special aid.
B. Automatic aid.
Resource Allocation:
_____ - Payment rather than reciprocal aid is made by one jurisdiction to the other. Is normally addressed through a signed contract under which one jurisdiction agrees to provide aid to another in return for an established payment that is normally an annual fee but may be on a pre-response basis.
A. Mutual aid.
B. Automatic aid.
C. Outside aid.
D. Special aid.
C. Outside aid.
Resource Allocation:
_____ - This type of agreement should define the following elements:
- Conditions under which support will be provided: automatic or on request
- Terms for conducting the response: command and communication, standard operating procedures/standing operating guidelines, legal considerations, etc.
A. Mutual aid.
B. Automatic aid.
C. Outside aid.
D. Special aid.
C. Outside aid.
Company officers may be asked to assist in the development and maintenance of mutual aid plans. The following statements are TRUE regarding mutual aid plans… the exception is:
A. Define roles of each agency, including incident management and chains of command.
B. Address insurance policy payments and legal considerations that may affect the agreement.
C. Define lines and methods of communication.
D. Establish operating guidelines.
E. Include common terminology, references, specifications, equipment compatibility, and other factors that may directly affect the effectiveness of the different organizations in working with each other.
F. Provide maps, evacuation routes, hydrant locations and data, details of potentially affected systems (sewers, railroads, waterways, etc.), and similar informational useful in a response outside of once jurisdiction.
G. Address insurance and legal considerations that may affect agreement.
H. Establish additional nonemergency agreements such as training and routine communications as required.
B. Address insurance “policy payments” and legal considerations that may affect the agreement. (FALSE)
The term used to describe the common organizational structure in the fire service is scalar The scalar organization is a paramilitary, pyramid type of organization with authority centralized at the top. The following statements are TRUE regarding scalar organizations… the exception is:
A. Information is decentralized for decision-making.
B. Span of control is maintained.
C. Well-suited for dealing with emergency situations.
D. A functional chain of command is maintained.
A. Information is “decentralized” for decision-making. (FALSE)
Statutory laws are those that are passed by the US Congress, state legislators, or local entities. These laws may be revised or repealed by the body that enacted them. An example of a state statutory law is:
A. Adopt the fire department’s annual budget.
B. Health and safety laws.
C. Law creating the Occupational Health & Safety administration.
D. Fire code.
A. Adopt the fire department’s annual budget. (Local)
C. Law creating the Occupational Health & Safety administration. (Federal)
D. Fire code. (Local)
This is the body of law that is the result of court decision. _____ varies widely from jurisdiction to jurisdiction, so it is extremely important for the company officers know how the statutes that directly affect their duties have been interpreted by the courts in their area. The State fire Marshall’s office and the jurisdictions attorney can help in this regard.
A. Common law.
B. Constitutional law.
C. Case law.
D. Administrative law.
C. Case law.
Civil law deals primarily with private rights and her spots ability. It is the means by which individuals seek redress, usually in the form of monetary damages, from other individuals, corporations, or government. The major issue in most tort liability cases is:
A. Misfeasance.
B. Nonfeasance.
C. Negligence.
D. Personal liability.
C. Negligence.
_____ is the major issue in most tort liability cases.
Negligence
Many items of information may be brought into court to aid in establishing the prevailing standard of care. Some of the strongest types of evidence are an organization’s own guidelines and policies and _____ .
A. Professional texts and manuals (Such as IFSTA manuals).
B. Opinions of expert witnesses.
C. Research publications.
D. National consensus standards (such as NFPA).
D. National consensus standards (such as NFPA).
The group structure of a fire company is not significantly different from the structure of any other formal or informal group. Every group, including a fire company, tends to meet the five essential elements of a group. The element that is described as “They are a composite of individual views or reality, responsibility and integrity. The views of individual members surface as various subjects are confronted on a day-to-day basis in the normal interaction within the group structure. They can change as the membership of the group changes”, is known as:
A. Common binding interest.
B. Common values.
C. Vital group image.
D. Sense of continuity.
B. Common values.
Maslow’s “Hierarchy of Needs” theory, Provides one explanation of why individuals behave the way they do. The step described as “These needs are satisfied when people feel that they are doing what they were meant to do. When people find their niche, their work becomes of their life” is known as:
A. Basic physiological needs.
B. Esteem and Status needs.
C. Belonging and Social Activity needs.
D. Self-Actualization and Fulfillment needs.
D. Self-Actualization and Fulfillment needs.
Define all
There are several basic types of leadership. _____ involves a high degree of concern for people and a high concern for production. This type of leadership offers workers the luxury of working for a leader who is concerned about their needs and is willing to allow them to produce.
A. Bureaucratic leadership.
B. Single-issue leadership.
C. Middle-of-the-Road leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.
Mastery learning is one of the most effective skill development and maintenance techniques. The TRUE statement regarding mastery learning is:
A. Mastery learning is more efficient for group instruction than the four-step-method.
B. Mastery learning uses “complex to simple” sequencing of material.
C. Mastery learning uses clearly defined and measurable performance standards which have been developed for all the various individual skills and company evolutions deemed necessary.
D. Mastery learning is used for those skills that relate directly to life safety.
D. Mastery learning is used for those skills that relate directly to life safety.
There are a variety of different types of operating budgets used by fire departments, both public and private, career and volunteer. Many public entities use the line-item budget because those reviewing it easily can see where the money goes. Which of the following expenses would be listed in the “others” expenses category?
A. Special pay for serving out of classification.
B. Contracts with fuel suppliers.
C. Purchase of a new fire engine.
D. Life insurance, and workers compensation insurance.
B. Contracts with fuel suppliers.
________________________________
A. Special pay for serving out of classification. (Operating budget)
C. Purchase of a new fire engine. (Capital budget)
D. Life insurance, and workers compensation insurance. (Operating budget)
Laws come from many different sources. In general, the major sources of laws in the Western world are common-law, constitutional law, statutory law, case law, administrative law. In the United States, much of the federal, state, and local law is based on:
A. Constitutional law
B. Statutory law
C. Common law
D. Case law
C. Common law
In behavioral psychology, a stroke is anything that acknowledges a person’s existence. Strokes can be either positive or negative. Consider the following statements regarding strokes.
1) Praise for a job well done.
2) Friendly greeting.
3) Silence and lack of eye contact (the “silent treatment”).
4) Being chastised by a supervisor.
The following combinations of the above statements are considered “stamp collecting”.
A. 1&2 are true.
B. 3&4 are true.
C. 2&3 are false.
D. All four are true.
D. All four are true.
Total quality management also known as continuous quality improvement, has been adopted by many private businesses and public organizations. It is based on for elements. The most important of these elements is:
A. Customer identification feedback.
B. Tracking performance.
C. Consistent and continuous improvement.
D. Employee participation in all processes.
D. Employee participation in all processes.
Which of the following activities falls into the “should do” category?
A. Emergency calls.
B. Citizen inquiries.
C. Code enforcement
D. Preventative maintenance.
C. Code enforcement
The following statement is TRUE regarding the fire commission… the exception is:
A. A few states have established commissions to conduct fire service training and certification programs.
B. The commission advises the legislature or assembly on fire related legislation.
C. The commission oversees the fire prevention program.
D. The commissioner commonly serves on panels and committees tasked with state planning for hazardous materials control and disaster preparedness.
A. A few states have established commissions to conduct fire service training and certification programs. (FALSE - most states (47))
Two of the most effective means of enhancing the fire department image through public education our media programs and _____ .
A. Day-to-day contact with department personnel at fires.
B. Times when the citizens make inquiries or lodge complaints.
C. Group presentations to civic groups, service clubs, and other organizations.
D. Inspections.
C. Group presentations to civic groups, service clubs, and other organizations.
(There are actually 3 ways: media, group presentation, and direct assistance)
In the five-step planning process, the step described as the bridge between planning and fire education program and actually implementing it in the field is known as:
A. Identification.
B. Evaluation.
C. Selection.
D. Design.
D. Design.
Company officers usually collaborate with their peers when developing the budget request for their station. In the _____ step the only involvement by company officers at this stage if any, is limited to preparing estimates of the fees to be generated by the services provided by the department.
A. Planning. C. Internal review.
B. Preparation. D. Implementation
A. Planning.
The typical EMS report is a combination of an incident report, which is open to the public by law, and a patient care report that is privileged information that the public is not allowed to see. Information about each of the following is open to the public… the exception is:
A. Information about the response, its location, who responded, general nature of the incident.
B. How many patients were involved.
C. Nature of the medical problem, mechanism of injury.
D. Information about patient transport to a medical facility.
C. Nature of the medical problem, mechanism of injury.
Formal communications consist of written policies and procedures, standing operating procedures, orders and directives, and fire ground orders. Policies and procedures are examples of “standing” or “repeat use” plans designed to deal with the reoccurring problems of an organization. The following statements are TRUE regarding policies and procedures… the exception is:
A. A policy is a guy to decision-making within an organization.
B. A policy provides fire department personnel specific and detailed information about how specific situations should be handled.
C. Policies not only aid in decision-making, but they also define the boundaries within which the administration expects company officers to act.
D. Written policies give department members a reference point for decision-making.
B. A “policy” provides fire department personnel specific and detailed information about how specific situations should be handled. (FALSE - Procedure)
There are many symptoms that may indicate that a firefighter is suffering from critical incident stress. stress. The following symptoms which occur during an incident are… the exception is:
A. Irritability.
B. Anger.
C. Frustration.
D. Sense of hopelessness.
A. Irritability. (Happens after)
Which of the following answers is an example of “discipline”?
A. Breaking large jobs down into smaller tasks that are assigned to specific individuals.
B. Refers to an organization’s responsibility to provide the direction needed to satisfy the goals and objectives it has identified. It means setting the limits or boundaries for expected performance and enforcing them.
C. The number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise.
D. Although each member reports to one supervisor directly, every member is still responsible to the Fire Chief indirectly.
A. Breaking large jobs down into smaller tasks that are assigned to specific individuals. (Division of labor)
C. The number of subordinates that one individual can effectively supervise. (Span of control)
D. Although each member reports to one supervisor directly, every member is still responsible to the Fire Chief indirectly. (Chain of command)
Which of the following examples is an example of a statutory law at the local level?
A. Laws governing the formation of special districts for fire protection, sanitation, and recreation.
B. Hunting regulations.
C. Adopt a particular edition of a fire code.
D. Occupational health and safety administration.
A. Laws governing the formation of special districts for fire protection, sanitation, and recreation. (State)
B. Hunting regulations. (State)
D. Occupational health and safety administration. (Federal)
Every group, including a fire company, tends to meet the five essential elements of a group. _____ is described as “This pride contributes to the group spirit and high morale. In addition to being essential to the cohesion of the group, is one of the greatest influences on the success of the group”.
A. Vital group image.
B. Sense of continuity.
C. Common binding interest.
D. Shared set of values.
A. Vital group image.
Blake and Mouton’s book @The Managerial Grid” theorized that there are several basic types of leadership. The type of leadership characterized: “By an overriding concern for production. This results from a high concern for production, and a low concern for employee needs. This form is often associated with the Theory X perspective, attempting to arrange conditions so that the human element only minimally affects production”, is known as:
A. Bureaucratic leadership.
B. Single-issue leadership.
C. Middle-of-the-Road leadership.
D. Dual-issue leadership.
B. Single-issue leadership.
There are five major responsibilities that are common to all supervisors. Which of the following statements describes the major responsibility of “encouraging teamwork and cooperation”?
A. Stress safety when teaching firefighters any new skill.
B. Carefully plan, schedule, and coordinate work so that subordinates know what they are supposed to do and the expected results.
C. To do this, the company officer must communicate the organizational culture and goals downward to the company members, and identified community concerns and opportunities upward to the administration.
D. Company officer should encourage their firefighters to grow in their jobs, accept more responsibility, and consistently strive to be the best firefighters and public servants of which they are capable.
C. To do this, the company officer must communicate the organizational culture and goals downward to the company members, and identified community concerns and opportunities upward to the administration.
The four-step method of instruction is one of the most widely used techniques for presenting new information in the fire service. Which of the following statements is the essence of the application step?
A. Any lapses in instruction will be identified and any misunderstandings corrected. It is critical that the firefighters be given the opportunity to practice applying the new information until they get it right.
B. That the firefighter demonstrate, by the means state in the behavioral objective, that he understands the new material and can apply it effectively.
C. That both the firefighter and the company officer know the important of the information to be presented. If either part of the step is ignored or done superficially, the rest of the presentation is likely to be less effective.
D. That firefighters be given all the information they need to meet the behavioral objectives stated in the lesson plan.
B. That the firefighter demonstrate, by the means state in the behavioral objective, that he understands the new material and can apply it effectively. (Evaluation)
C. That both the firefighter and the company officer know the important of the information to be presented. If either part of the step is ignored or done superficially, the rest of the presentation is likely to be less effective. (Preparation)
D. That firefighters be given all the information they need to meet the behavioral objectives stated in the lesson plan. (Presentation)
There are many symptoms of critical incident stress. Some of the more common delayed symptoms are… the exception is:
A. Irritability.
B. Restlessness.
C. Feelings of guilt.
D. Sense of hopelessness.
D. Sense of hopelessness. (Immediate/during an incident)
Progressive discipline usually involves three levels - preventive action, corrective action, and punitive action. Which of the following statements describes a corrective action?
A. The violator is given a letter, or one is sent by certified mail with a return receipt requested to guarantee that it is received. The letter includes a description of what the firefighter is or is not doing that violates department rules, review the department policy regarding the possible consequences if the behaviors continued, and a statement informing the firefighter that a copy of the letter will be placed in his file.
B. The violator is taken aside for an informal but private interview. During the interview, the company officer makes sure that the firefighter understands both the rule that was violated and the organizational necessity for the rule. The company officer should explain exactly what is expected of the firefighter in the future and what may happen if the rule is violated again.
C. Suspension.
D. Termination.
B. The violator is taken aside for an informal but private interview. During the interview, the company officer makes sure that the firefighter understands both the rule that was violated and the organizational necessity for the rule. The company officer should explain exactly what is expected of the firefighter in the future and what may happen if the rule is violated again. (Preventative action)
C. Suspension. (Punitive action)
D. Termination. (Punitive action)
What are the three levels of progressive discipline:
1)
2)
3)
- Preventive action (verbal warning)
- Corrective action (written warning)
- Punitive action (suspension/termination)
Which of the following activities takes place in the “warm zone”?
A. Providing emergency lighting.
B. Vehicle extrication.
C. Command post.
D. Hazardous materials releases are controlled and contained.
B. Vehicle extrication. (Hot zone)
C. Command post. (Cold zone)
D. Hazardous materials releases are controlled and contained. (Hot zone)
According to Tannenbaum and Schmidt “Continuum of Leadership Behavior” the most appropriate behavior falls at different points along the continuum based on three variables - the leader, the subordinates, and the situation. Whenever possible, company officers should operate toward the right end of the continuum by _____ their subordinates and planning how to most effectively carry out their assigned task.
A. Telling.
B. Selling.
C. Consulting.
D. Joining.
D. Joining.
Feedback from a public fire and life safety program is critical. Feedback may be immediate or it may be long-term. Regardless of how feedback is obtained, it must be heeded. While positive feedback may be very gratifying, negative feedback may be more valuable. Which of the following statements best represents short-term feedback?
A. Ask the members to use the pretest/posttest feedback approach which works best with adult groups.
B. The results of the public education program are demonstrated in a positive change in the data on the fire and life safety within the community.
C. The results of the public education program are monitored over time.
D. Ask the members to fill out an evaluation form at the end of the program.
A. Ask the members to use the pretest/posttest feedback approach which works best with adult groups. (Evaluation)
B. The results of the public education program are demonstrated in a positive change in the data on the fire and life safety within the community. (Long-term feedback)
C. The results of the public education program are monitored over time. (Long-term feedback)
In general, there are two types of budgets used by public entities - capital budgets and operating budgets. Even though these budgets include very different items and serve very different purposes, they are often combined into one budget document. Company officers are often involved in planning and preparing both types of budgets. Which of the following is an example of a capital budget item?
A. Fire hose. C. Benefits.
B. Salaries. D. Station utilities.
A. Fire hose. (Capital budget) ----------------------------------------- B. Salaries. (Operating budget) C. Benefits. (Operating budget) D. Station utilities. (Operating budget)
The following statements are TRUE regarding “memos” … the exception is:
A. Memos are sometimes used to document a face-to-face conversation or telephone call.
B. Memos provide a written record of decisions, requests, or policies.
C. Memos transmit the same information to several locations or individuals.
D. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a somewhat formal manner.
D. Memos provide specific information concerning questions or requests in a somewhat “formal” manner. (False - informal manner)
When preparing a news or press release the content should be limited to the facts of the event or topic and should be as simple and straightforward as possible. The following guidelines are FALSE regarding preparation of a news release the exception is:
A. Limit sentence length to no more than 30 to 35 words.
B. Use the inverted pyramid style of organization by putting the most important facts first and the least important ones last.
C. Do not write one sentence paragraphs.
D. Summarize the piece at the end by including Who, What, Where, and Why in that specific order.
A. Limit sentence length to no more than “30 to 35” words. (20 words)
C. “Do not write” one sentence paragraphs. (are acceptable)
D. Summarize the piece at the “end” by including Who, What, Where, and Why in that “specific order”. (In the first sentence / doesn’t have to be in that order)
Size-up is an ongoing process of evaluating a situation to determine what has happened, what is happening, what is likely to happen, and what resources will be needed to resolve the situation. One way to conform to the size-up definition given earlier involves using a three-step process. Evaluating any emergency, regardless of its specific nature, can be done by using the three-step process of locate, isolate, mitigate. Which of the following statements is an example of “isolate”?
A. Head to toe medical exam of the patient.
B. Striking additional alarms to get more personnel and equipment to the scene of a structure fire.
C. Damning or taking contaminated runoff water to limit it spread.
D. Determine what will be needed to eliminate the problem.
_____ - Is the ongoing process of evaluating an emergency situation to determine the following facts:
- What has happened
- What is happening
- What is likely to happen
- What resources will be needed to resolve the situation
Size-up
Depending upon the needs of the incident, as specified in the incident action plan, resources may be managed in three different configurations. _____ are any combination of up to five resources assembled for specific assignment. There must be a leader, and all units must have common communications capability. Once the units tactical objective has been met, the unit is disbanded, and the individual resources reassigned or released.
A. Strike teams.
B. Task force.
C. Squad.
D. Companies.
B. Task force.