Engine Company Flashcards

0
Q

Flashover is the ignition of combustibles in an area heated by _____ . The action may be one of sudden ignition in a particular location followed by rapid spread or one of a “flash” of the entire area. The later action is more likely to happen in an open area.

A. Radiation.
B. Convection.
C. Conduction and convection.
D. Convection, radiation or combination of both.

A

D. Convection, radiation or combination of both.

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1
Q

The word “coverage” as used here means of the assignment of companies to particular portions of the fire ground for size-up and to accomplish any or all of the objectives of a firefighting operation. Both front and rear (and both sides when possible) must be covered quickly in order to establish effective control of the fire. You respond to a mercantile occupancy and the main body of fire is in the rear of the store. This fire should be attacked:

A. Primarily from the front or unburied side of the building.
B. Primarily from the rear or fire area of the building.
C. Primarily from the outside of the building.
D. Primarily from the corners of the building.

A

A. Primarily from the front or unburied side of the building.

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2
Q

If initial attack lines are not gaining control of a fire, is probably that the streams are not reaching into the seat of the fire or that these hoselines are not delivering enough water to cool the area. If a 2 1/2 inch hose line with spray nozzle is used for the initial attack, the backup lines should be:

A. Master stream devices.
B. 2 inch hoseline with spray nozzle.
C. 2 1/2 inch hoseline with smoothbore tip.
D. 2 1/2 inch hoseline with spray nozzle.

A

C. 2 1/2 inch hoseline with smoothbore tip.

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3
Q

If initial attack lines are not gaining control of a fire, is probably that the streams are not reaching into the seat of the fire or that these hoselines are not delivering enough water to cool the area. Went two 1 3/4 inch hoselines are used for initial attack, the backup line should be a:

A. One 1 3/4 inch hose line.
B. Two 1 2/3 hose lines.
C. Three 1 3/4 inch hose lines.
D. One 2 1/2 inch hose line.
C.
A

D. One 2 1/2 inch hose line.

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4
Q

If initial attack lines are not gaining control of a fire, is probably that the streams are not reaching into the seat of the fire or that these hoselines are not delivering enough water to cool the area. When a fire is so serious that the heaviest hoselines must be used for the initial attack (2 1/2 inch hose with 1 1/8 inch and 1 1/4 inch tips), _____ must be available for backup.

A. Additional 2 1/2 inch hoselines.
B. Additional pumpers.
C. Master stream appliances.
D. Foam extinguishing agents.

A

C. Master stream appliances.

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5
Q

If backup lines are placed in service, the initial attack lines should be shut down. The latter have already proved to be ineffective against the fire; there is little that they can do in support of the heavier streams. After the backup lines have gained control of the fire and an advance have been made, the smaller lines can be used to perform:

A. Back up for the larger lines.
B. Extinguishment and overhaul operations.
C. Rescue operations.
D. An emergence exit path for disoriented firefighters.

A

B. Extinguishment and overhaul operations.

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6
Q

According to EOC: In addition to backup lines, a rapid intervention crew of at least _____ firefighters equipped with full PPE, SCBA, and necessary tools and equipment should be standing by ready to enter the building. This group consists of personnel who may be needed to respond immediately to assist in locating or removing a lost or trapped firefighter or to any incident involving a firefighter in distress.

A. 2.
B. 3.
C. 4.
D. 6.

A

C. 4. (According to ECO p.109)

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7
Q

NFPA 1901 requires a minimum of _____ of 1/2 inch, 1 3/4 inch, or 2 inch fire hose to be carried on pumper fire apparatus.

A. 400 feet.
B. 600 feet.
C. 800 feet.
D. 1,000 feet.

A

A. 400 feet.

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8
Q

NFPA 1901, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus states that an engine itself should be equipped the pump having a rated pumping capacity of no less than _____ and a water tank that carries at least 300 gallons of water.

A. 500 gallons per minute.
B. 750 gallons per minute.
C. 1,000 gallons per minute.
D. 1,250 gallons per minute.

A

B. 750 gallons per minute.

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9
Q

NFPA 1901, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus states that an engine itself should be equipped the pump having a rated pumping capacity of no less than 750 gallons per minute and a water tank that carries at least ____ of water.

A. 250 gallons.
B. 300 gallons.
C. 500 gallons.
D. 750 gallons.

A

B. 300 gallons.

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10
Q

Wherever possible, 1 1/2 or 1 3/4 inch hose line should be preconnected to pump outlets. However, preconnected hose lines of 1 1/2 or 1 3/4 inch should not exceed _____ in length because excessive friction losses in longer lays. If these hose lines need to be extended a further distance, they should be connected to larger diameter hose lines.

A. 150 feet.
B. 200 feet.
C. 250 feet.
D. 300 feet.

A

C. 250 feet.

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11
Q

NFPA 1901 requires a minimum of _____ 2 1/2 inch or larger firehose.

A. 400 feet.
B. 500 feet.
C. 800 feet.
D. 1,200 feet.

A

C. 800 feet.

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12
Q

The NFPA requires the following nozzles to be carried on pumper apparatus… the exception is:

A. One combination spray nozzle, 200 gallons per minute.
B. Two combination spray nozzles, 95 gallons per minute.
C. One combination spray nozzles, 35o gallons per minute.
D. One playpipe, with shutoff and 1 inch, 1 1/8 inch, and 1 1/4 inch tips.

A

C. One combination spray nozzles, 35o gallons per minute. (FALSE)

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13
Q

Solid stream nozzles are classified according to nozzle diameter. Nozzles with tips up to 1 1/8 inch or perhaps 1 1/4 inch are generally considered for use on handlines (those normally held in hands). A _____ tip is the breaking point for handlines and streams at 50 PSI versus 80 psi.

A. 1 1/8 inch.
B. 1 1/4 inch.
C. 1 1/2 inch.
D. 2 inch.

A

B. 1 1/4 inch.

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14
Q

The 1 1/8 inch nozzle used with 2 1/2 inch hose line produces the so-called standard fire department stream of _____ at about 50 PSI nozzle pressure.

A. 150 GPM.
B. 200 GPM.
C. 250 GPM.
D. 300 GPM.

A

C. 250 GPM.

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15
Q

The ____ nozzle used with 2 1/2 inch hose line produces the so-called standard fire department stream of 250 GPM at about 50 PSI nozzle pressure.

A. 1 inch.
B. 1 1/8 inch.
C. 1 1/4 inch.
D. 1 1/2 inch.

A

B. 1 1/8 inch.

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16
Q

The 1 1/8 inch nozzle used with ____ hose line produces the so-called standard fire department stream of 250 GPM at about 50 PSI nozzle pressure.

A. 1 1/2 inch.
B. 1 3/4 inch.
C. 2 inch.
D. 2 1/2 inch.

A

D. 2 1/2 inch.

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17
Q

The 1 1/8 inch nozzle used with 2 1/2 inch hose line produces the so-called standard fire department stream of 250 GPM at about _____ nozzle pressure.

A. 50 PSI.
B. 80 PSI.
C. 100 PSI.
D. 150 PSI.

A

A. 50 PSI.

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18
Q

Tips from ____ to ____ are usually used on master stream appliances, such as monitors, deluge sets, or deck guns.

A. 1 1/8 to 2 inches.
B. 1 1/4 to 2 inches.
C. 1 1/2 to 2 inches.
D. 1 3/4 to 2 1/2 inches.

A

B. 1 1/4 to 2 inches.

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19
Q

Spray nozzles are also called fog nozzles and produce varying degrees of Waterspray. They may have a fix spray angle or maybe adjusted from almost a straight stream to a very wide angle spray. Many spray nozzles have predetermined pattern settings, usually at straight stream, ____ , ____ , ____ degree spray angles. The designated flow from a spray nozzle is usually rated at 100 PSI nozzle pressure.

A. 20-, 30-, and 40-.
B. 25-, 50-, and 75-.
C. 30-, 60-, and 90-.
D. 35-, 65-, and 95-.

A

C. 30-, 60-, and 90-.

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20
Q

Spray nozzles are also called fog nozzles and produce varying degrees of Waterspray. They may have a fix spray angle or maybe adjusted from almost a straight stream to a very wide angle spray. Many spray nozzles have predetermined pattern settings, usually at straight stream, 30-, 60-, and 90- degree spray angles. The designated flow from a spray nozzle is usually rated at _____ nozzle pressure, although there are now low-pressure spray nozzles operate at lower pressures.

A. 50 PSI.
B. 80 PSI.
C. 100 PSI.
D. 105 PSI.

A

C. 100 PSI.

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21
Q

The master stream appliance is a portable unit that can be used either mounted or detached from the pumper. It is capable of immediate application of a heavy stream. NFPA 1901 recommended master stream appliance of _____ minimum.

A. 500 GPM.
B. 750 GPM.
C. 1,000 GPM.
D. 1,200 GPM.

A

C. 1,000 GPM.

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22
Q

NFPA 1901 requires a minimum of ____ of soft suction or ____ of hard suction hose.

A. 10 feet ; 20 feet.
B. 15 feet ; 20 feet.
C. 20 feet ; 30 feet.
D. 25 feet ; 35 feet.

A

B. 15 feet ; 20 feet.

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23
Q

A hard-suction hose is generally available in sizes from 2 1/2 to 6 inches. Pumpers will carry a minimum of _____ section of hard sleeves (hard suction).

A. 10 feet.
B. Two 10 foot sections.
C. 20 feet.
D. Two 20 foot sections.

A

B. Two 10 foot sections.

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24
Q

Perhaps the most desirable hose lay is the _____ , with the immediate charging of the supply line to the pumper. This enables the engine company to function independently with an uninterrupted supply of water from the beginning of the operation. The pumper is hooked up to its own hydrant and can quickly take up its position at the fire ground. If the fire continues to gain headway after the initial attack, other pumpers can supply water to the pump, which is already in position.

A. Forward to lay using a charged supply line.
B. Forward lay using an uncharged supply line.
C. Direct to fire-no line laid (or split lay).
D. Reverse lay using a charge line.

A

A. Forward to lay using a charged supply line.

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25
Q

In this approach, a supply line is laid from the hydrant to the fire, but the line is left uncharged at the hydrant for another company to charge or hook up too. Now the entire crew of the first pumper can proceed to the fire; the firefighter who wraps the supply line around hydrant boards the pumper immediately and proceeds with the rest of the crew to the fire ground. Another company will now be responsible for going to the hydrant, hooking up the supply hose and charging the line.

A. Forward to lay using a charged supply line.
B. Forward lay using an uncharged supply line.
C. Direct to fire-no line laid (or split lay).
D. Reverse lay using a charge line.

A

B. Forward lay using an uncharged supply line.

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26
Q

In this approach, the first pumper to arrive to the fire ground lays no supply line. It proceeds directly to the fire and begins working off the water in its tank. This can be a safe and effective procedure only when at least two companies are sure of arriving close together or, better still, see each other arriving. The second pumper lays an adequate supply line from the first pumper to the hydrant and charges the line. Another alternative would have the second pumper lay a supply line from a hydrant to the first pumper for a quick water supply. If needed, the second pumper could then obtain its own water supply.

A. Forward to lay using a charged supply line.
B. Forward lay using an uncharged supply line.
C. Direct to fire-no line laid (or split lay).
D. Reverse lay using a charge line.

A

C. Direct to fire-no line laid (or split lay).

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27
Q

In this approach, the pumper lays firefighting hose lines or an LDH supply line from the fire to the hydrant. The pumper is then hooked up to the hydrant and when ready, pumping operations can begin.

A. Forward to lay using a charged supply line.
B. Forward lay using an uncharged supply line.
C. Direct to fire-no line laid (or split lay).
D. Reverse lay using a charge line.

A

D. Reverse lay using a charge line.

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28
Q

The following are advantages of a forward lay using a charged supply line… the exception is:

A. The engine company is self-sufficient in terms of water supply.
B. The company is free to take up any position in the front, rear, or side of the burning structure and began operations with an uninterrupted water supply.
C. Another responding engine company may drop off its crew and use hose lines taken off the forward engine company. If needed, this later arriving engine could then lay an additional supply line to another hydrant, supplementing the water supply on the fire ground.
D. There is a slight delay while the pumper stops and drops off a firefighter to dress the hydrant with the supply line.
E. A large hose line (2 1/2 inch line) or a preconnected master stream appliance may be used almost immediately after arrival at the fire, with an uninterrupted water supply.

A

D. There is a slight delay while the pumper stops and drops off a firefighter to dress the hydrant with the supply line. (FALSE - disadvantage)

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29
Q

The following are disadvantages of a forward lay using a charged supply line… the exception is:

A. The engine company is self-sufficient in terms of water supply.
B. There is a slight delay while the pumper stops and drops off a firefighter to dress the hydrant with the supply line.
C. There is a temporary loss of this firefighter, who must remain at the hydrant until the supply line is charged.
D. Supply lines being laid may hinder access of ladder company or aerial apparatus.

A

A. The engine company is self-sufficient in terms of water supply. (FALSE - advantage)

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30
Q

The following are advantages in using the forward lay using an uncharged supply line… the exception is:

A. After laying the supply line at the hydrant, the entire crew can proceed to the fire scene to fight the fire.
B. The second arriving pumper should arrive shortly thereafter and establish a water supply.
C. Two engine companies are required to provide one engine company with an uninterrupted water supply.

A

C. Two engine companies are required to provide one engine company with an uninterrupted water supply. (FALSE - disadvantage)

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31
Q

The following are disadvantages in using the forward lay using an uncharged supply line… the exception is:

A. Two engine companies are required to provide one engine company with an uninterrupted water supply.
B. Another company must respond from the same direction for this task to be completed in a timely manner.
C. After laying the supply line at the hydrant, the entire crew can proceed to the scene to fight the fire.
D. At least two engine companies must arrive at the fire ground in quick succession if this procedure is to be efficient.
E. If radiocommunication’s are not monitored or standard operating guidelines are not followed, there’s a good chance that this evolution will not be completed in a timely manner.

A

C. After laying the supply line at the hydrant, the entire crew can proceed to the scene to fight the fire. (FALSE - advantage)

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32
Q

The following are advantages of the direct-to-fire-no-line-laid approach… the exception is:

A. The first arriving pumper and its entire crew go directly to the fire to begin firefighting operations.
B. The crew of the second pumper is dropped off at the fire; they can use attack lines off the first pumper on the fire once a water supply has been established.
C. Two engine companies are required to provide one engine company with an uninterrupted water supply.
D. This approach is effective when drafting is necessary to obtain an uninterrupted supply of water.

A

C. Two engine companies are required to provide one engine company with an uninterrupted water supply. (FALSE - disadvantage)

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33
Q

The following are disadvantages of the direct-to-fire-no-line-laid approach… the exception is:

A. The operation will not work unless companies arrive close together, communicate with each other, and follow standard operating guidelines.
B. This approach is effective when drafting is necessary to obtain an uninterrupted supply of water.
C. Two engine companies are required to provide one engine company with an uninterrupted water supply.
D. There is little or no margin of safety for attack crews.

A

B. This approach is effective when drafting is necessary to obtain an uninterrupted supply of water. (FALSE - advantage)

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34
Q

The following are advantages of using the reverse lay using a charged line… the exception is:

A. The engine company is self-sufficient in terms of its own water supply.
B. Later arriving engine companies may initially hook up to a pumper operating from a hydrant and, if required, lay additional lines to the fire.
C. Pumpers are not positioned close to the fire and thus do not block the approach and operation of aerial ladder trucks or elevating platforms.
D. This procedure does not get water onto the fire as fast as operations with pre-connected hose lines.

A

D. This procedure does not get water onto the fire as fast as operations with pre-connected hose lines. (FALSE - disadvantage)

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35
Q

The following are disadvantages of using the reverse lay using a charged line… the exception is:

A. This procedure does not get water on the fire as fast as operations with pre-connected hose lines.
B. Equipment needed on the fire ground will have to be removed from the pumper before the pumper proceeds to the hydrant. Standard operating guidelines should dictate what firefighter should remove from the pumper before it proceeds to the hydrant.
C. Pumpers are not positioned close to the fire and thus do not block the approach and operation of aerial ladder trucks or elevating platforms.

A

C. Pumpers are not positioned close to the fire and thus do not block the approach and operation of aerial ladder trucks or elevating platforms. (FALSE - advantage)

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36
Q

Both front and rear (and the sides, when possible) must be covered quickly in order to establish effective control of the fire. The first arriving engine company is normally assigned to cover the _____ .

A. Front of the building.
B. Water supply/backup line.
C. Rear of the building.
D. Water supply for RIT.

A
A. Front of the building. (First pumper)
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
B. Water supply/backup line. (Second pumper)
C. Rear of the building. (Third pumper)
D. Water supply for RIT. (Fourth pumper)
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37
Q

Both front and rear (and the sides, when possible) must be covered quickly in order to establish effective control of the fire. The second arriving ladder company is usually assigned to _____ .

A. The front of the building.
B. The rear of the building.
C. The sides of the building.
D. Water supply/backup line.

A

B. The rear of the building. (2nd arriving ladder company)
________________________________
A. The front of the building. (1st arriving ladder company)

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38
Q

Both front and rear (and the sides, when possible) must be covered quickly in order to establish effective control of the fire. The position the first arriving company takes may depend on the building type. When responding to a _____ , The first pumper should proceed just passed the building. This permits the officer and crew to observe one side as they approach, then the front, and then the far side when they stop. Only the rear will not have been observed, and that will be covered by the next arriving engine company. The engine company, positioned in this manner, leaves room for a later arriving ladder company to get into position in front of the building.

A. Narrow, detached building.
B. Wide-frontage building.
C. Detached buildings.
D. Attached buildings.

A

A. Narrow, detached building. (ex- Single-family detached dwelling)

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39
Q

In _____ the first arriving company can at least observe the approach side of the building and the front. The pumper should be positioned so that entrances to the building can be used in attacking the fire. Later arriving pumpers may be used to cover the rear, predicted on the strategic goals of command.

A. Narrow, detached building.
B. Wide-frontage building.
C. Detached buildings.
D. Attached buildings.

A

B. Wide-frontage building. (Ex- Warehouses, garden apartment buildings, or large factories)

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40
Q

In approaching a building with wide frontage, the pumper should be positioned:

A. Just passed the structure.
B. At the entrance that is most assessable to the fire.
C. According to the approach of the first arriving ladder truck.
D. In front of the building so that hose lines and equipment can be carried to the rear.

A

B. At the entrance that is most assessable to the fire.

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41
Q

As the first pump arrives at the front of a narrow, detached building, it should proceed:

A. Just passed the structure.
B. At the entrance that is most assessable to the fire.
C. According to the approach of the first arriving ladder truck.
D. In front of the building so that hose lines and equipment can be carried to the rear.

A

A. Just passed the structure.

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42
Q

For front coverage of an attached structure, the first arriving engine should be positioned:

A. Just passed the structure.
B. At the entrance that is most assessable to the fire.
C. According to the approach of the first arriving ladder truck.
D. In front of the building so that hose lines and equipment can be carried to the rear.

A

C. According to the approach of the first arriving ladder truck.

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43
Q

Where alleys or other access routes allow, pumpers may be positioned at the rear of a detached building. When no rear access to a detached building is available, pumpers need to be positioned:

A. Just passed the structure.
B. At the entrance that is most assessable to the fire.
C. According to the approach of the first arriving ladder truck.
D. In front of the building so that hose lines and equipment can be carried to the rear.

A

D. In front of the building so that hose lines and equipment can be carried to the rear.

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44
Q

A fire in _____ presents a more acute problem. The sides of all but the end buildings are hidden, and the first arriving company has a limited view of the situation. When the ladder company is approaching the building from the same direction, the engine company should position itself slightly past the front of the building. This will keep the front clear for the ladder company operations. When the ladder company is approaching from the opposite direction, the engine company should stop short of the front of the building.

A. Narrow, detached building.
B. Wide-frontage building.
C. Detached buildings.
D. Attached buildings.

A

D. Attached buildings. (Continuing complex of attached structures)

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45
Q

In a complex of attached structures with the ladder company approaching a fire from the same direction as the pumper, the engine company should position itself:

A. Slightly past the front of the fire building.
B. Just short of the front of the building.
C. At the entrance that is most accessible to the fire.
D. At the rear of the building.

A

A. Slightly past the front of the fire building. (keeping the front clear for ladder company operations)

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46
Q

In a complex of attached structures with the ladder company approaching a fire from the opposite direction as the pumper, the engine company should:

A. Slightly past the front of the fire building.
B. Stop just short of the front of the building.
C. At the entrance that is most accessible to the fire.
D. At the rear of the building.

A

B. Stop just short of the front of the building.

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47
Q

In some residential, light commercial, or industrial areas with _____ , rear access-ways may not be wide enough for a pumper. This means that the company or companies assigned to cover the rear must position the apparatus on the street and carry their hose lines and equipment to the rear.

A. Narrow, detached building.
B. Wide-frontage building.
C. Detached buildings.
D. Attached buildings.

A

C. Detached buildings.

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48
Q

Complete coverage ensures that exposures will be protected by properly laid hoselines. In terms of rescue, the benefit of this complete coverage is a immediate. The benefit in terms of other firefighting operations is almost as great. These benefits include… the exception is:

A. The full extent of the fire will be known.
B. There will be few, if any, surprises.
C. Severe exposure problems will be discovered and dealt with.
D. Companies surrounding the fire building can work independently from each other, assisting each other for maximum efficiency.

A

D. Companies surrounding the fire building can work “independently from each other”, assisting each other for maximum efficiency. (FALSE - “in unison”)

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49
Q

Rear coverage is vital _____ in in general. Many of these fire start in the work/storage sections behind the sales floor (in the rear of the store). Utilities (water, gas, and electricity) pass from store to store at the rear and pierce the walls. Fire can spread rapidly through these utility openings. Fire companies position that the rear may be the first to notice the spread and take action to stop it. The main body of fire in the rear of the store, however, should be attacked primarily from the front or unburnt side of the building.

A. Shopping Malls.
B. Set-back buildings.
C. Standard Shopping Centers.
D. Mercantile areas. 
E. Garden apartments.
F. Central corridor construction.
G. High-rise buildings.
A

D. Mercantile areas.

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50
Q

_____ might be set far off the street, with a long drive leading to it and no room in which to maneuver apparatus. There maybe other barriers and hindrances such as trees, a wall, or a fence that block the proper positioning of apparatus. In such a case, the first engine company to arrive should approach as close to the building as fire and wind conditions permit. The second engine company should locate the rear of the first engine, in a position that will not interfere with the operation of the first engine. The crew of the second engine should then proceed on foot to provide the rear or side coverage.

A. Shopping Malls.
B. Set-back buildings.
C. Standard Shopping Centers.
D. Mercantile areas. 
E. Garden apartments.
F. Central corridor construction.
G. High-rise buildings.
A

B. Set-back buildings.

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51
Q

Huge enclosed _____ are usually close to rectangular in shape. Most are designed to allow direct entrance into the central area through large doorways on either side of the structure. Although few doors are big enough for apparatus, hoselines can be carried through with little problem. _____ are usually surrounded by parking lots or roads. Thus, there is ready access to the sides and entrances for front and rear coverage of a fire in a store or in the central court itself. Engine companies should be positioned to take advantage of the best entrances in relation to the fire.

A. Shopping Malls.
B. Set-back buildings.
C. Standard Shopping Centers.
D. Mercantile areas. 
E. Garden apartments.
F. Central corridor construction.
G. High-rise buildings.
A

A. Shopping Malls.

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52
Q

_____ usually consist of attached blocks of buildings. Front and rear coverage here is as important as in the situations discussed earlier. Sometimes the rear doors and windows permit ready access to the back of the building. In other cases, rear windows are limited in size, are barred, and/or are located high on the wall, the doors are made of steel and securely fastened from the inside; however, most windows can be put to use for fire attack or venting, and it might be possible to force the doors without losing much time. If conditions warrant, walls maybe breached to gain entry, perform rescue, or attack the fire.

A. Shopping Malls.
B. Set-back buildings.
C. Standard Shopping Centers.
D. Mercantile areas. 
E. Garden apartments.
F. Central corridor construction.
G. High-rise buildings.
A

C. Standard Shopping Centers.

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53
Q

Front and rear coverage are most important in the non-fire-resistant structures commonly known as _____ . Usually limited in height to three or four stories, these are actually frame buildings with a wood, brick, or masonry veneer. Often, the workmanship and materials are flimsy, and there is little to slow the spread of fire once it starts within the building.

A. Shopping Malls.
B. Set-back buildings.
C. Standard Shopping Centers.
D. Mercantile areas. 
E. Garden apartments.
F. Central corridor construction.
G. High-rise buildings.
A

E. Garden apartments.

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54
Q

In the usual design, half of the _____ can be seen only from the front, and half only from the rear. Thus, the first arriving company may not even notice a fire in a rear apartment. For this reason, it is important that command assigns the other responding companies to the rear and that a size-up is quickly made of this area.

A. Shopping Malls.
B. Set-back buildings.
C. Standard Shopping Centers.
D. Mercantile areas. 
E. Garden apartments.
F. Central corridor construction.
G. High-rise buildings.
A

E. Garden apartments.

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55
Q

Another problem is the varying height of some _____ . Building codes usually limited these buildings to three and sometimes four stories; however, this is often measured from the position of the front entrance. If such a building is set into a steep grade, additional stories maybe added at the rear. This means that firefighters in front may be looking at a three or four story building, whereas crews in the rear must cope with a five or six story structure.

A. Shopping Malls.
B. Set-back buildings.
C. Standard Shopping Centers.
D. Mercantile areas. 
E. Garden apartments.
F. Central corridor construction.
G. High-rise buildings.
A

E. Garden apartments.

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56
Q

In _____ , engine companies should be positioned to take advantage of the best entrances in relation to the fire. Also, protective systems should be located as soon as possible, in the event they need to be supplied.

A. Shopping Malls.
B. Set-back buildings.
C. Standard Shopping Centers.
D. Mercantile areas. 
E. Garden apartments.
F. Central corridor construction.
G. High-rise buildings.
A

A. Shopping Malls. (or Covered Malls)

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57
Q

Occasionally, in _____ buildings that are extremely long will be divided in two lengthwise, blocking access to the rear through the building. Also, outside accessways to the rear may be too narrow for an engine. If the fire is in a rear apartment near either end of the building, there is little problem, but when it is located 200 or 300 feet or more towards the center, crews must have some way to get into action quickly. Lines could be stretched around the back from pumpers positioned at the ends of the building; In extremely long stretches, it might be better to drop some firefighters at the end of the building so that they can proceed on foot to the fire area. The engine is then located in the front, opposite the fire, and lines are passed over the roof by quickly laddering the front side. Many fire departments have had success with such operations, but only after planning and on-site training.

A. Shopping Malls.
B. Set-back buildings.
C. Standard Shopping Centers.
D. Mercantile areas. 
E. Garden apartments.
F. Central corridor construction.
G. High-rise buildings.
A

E. Garden apartments.

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58
Q

In _____ (such as many motels, hotels, and office buildings), because the rear units cannot be covered from the front, both front and rear coverage must be put into operation.

A. Shopping Malls.
B. Set-back buildings.
C. Standard Shopping Centers.
D. Mercantile areas. 
E. Garden apartments.
F. Central corridor construction.
G. High-rise buildings.
A

F. Central corridor construction.

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59
Q

In buildings with _____, a central corridor on each floor divides the floor in two. Again, the result is that half the rooms can be seen only from the front and half only from the rear. Because the rear units cannot be covered from the front, both the front and rear coverage must be put into operation. The first arriving company is usually positioned close to the front entrance, because that is the major access point.

A. Shopping Malls.
B. Set-back buildings.
C. Standard Shopping Centers.
D. Mercantile areas. 
E. Garden apartments.
F. Central corridor construction.
G. High-rise buildings.
A

F. Central corridor construction.

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60
Q

In _____ operations, the first arriving company should be positioned so that crew members have ready access to the front entrance and to standpipe inlets and outlets. Other responding engine companies are positioned by command at the rear and sides, if possible, with consideration to the width and length of the building and locations of standpipe intakes, rather than by its height.

A. Shopping Malls.
B. Set-back buildings.
C. Standard Shopping Centers.
D. Mercantile areas. 
E. Garden apartments.
F. Central corridor construction.
G. High-rise buildings.
A

G. High-rise buildings.

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61
Q

Both front and rear (and besides, when possible) must be covered quickly in order to establish effective control fire. The position the first arriving company takes may depend on the building type. When responding to a _____ the first arriving company can at least observed the approach side of the building and the front. The pumper should be positioned so that entrances to the building can be used in attacking the fire. Later arriving pumpers maybe used to cover the rear, predicated on the strategic goals of command.

A. Narrow, detached building.
B. Wide-frontage building.
C. Attached building.
D. Set-back building.

A

B. Wide-frontage building.

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62
Q

Initial size up will indicate where firefighters should begin their search and rescue and fire attack operations. These operations, coordinated by the incident commander, should begin immediately. Firefighters must be aware of the two-in/two-out rule as dictated by OSHA and NFPA 1500. During the initial stages of an incident, firefighters working inside the hazard area must work with a crew of at least:

A. 5.
B. 4.
C. 3.
D. 2.

A

D. 2.

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63
Q

A rapid intervention team (RIT) must be provided from the initial stages of an incident to its conclusion. The objective of the RIT is to have a fully equipped rescue team on site, in a ready state, to immediately react and respond to rescue injured or trapped firefighters and civilians. If possible, the RIT should be a crew of ____ firefighters, one of whom must be an officer.

A. 5.
B. 4.
C. 3.
D. 2.

A

B. 4.

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64
Q

If possible, the RIT should be a crew of four firefighters, one of whom must be an officer. This process begins with the first arriving companies using the two-in/two-out protocol. During the initial stages of an incident, firefighters working inside the hazard area must work with a crew of at least ____ members.

A. 5.
B. 4.
C. 3.
D. 2.

A

D. 2.

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65
Q

If possible, the RIT should be a crew of four firefighters, one of whom must be an officer. This process begins with the first arriving companies using the two-in/two-out protocol. A minimum of _____ firefighters should be assigned, but usually a company consisting of three or more firefighters is assigned to this responsibility. If the incident becomes complex, additional companies should be assigned. RIT members should be in full PPE and have all necessary tools and equipment needed.

A. 5.
B. 4.
C. 3.
D. 2.

A

D. 2.

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66
Q

Water is essential to the primary search and rescue operations as it is to extinguishment. Water from attack lines is used to… the exception is:

A. Separate the fire from the occupants closest to it by placing hose lines in strategic locations.
B. Control interior stairways and corridors for evacuating occupants and advancing firefighters.
C. Protect firefighters performing the primary search, ventilation, and extinguishment around, above, and below the fire.
D. As an alternative to accommodate firefighters not wearing SCBAs.

A

D. As an alternative to accommodate firefighters not wearing SCBAs. (FALSE)

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67
Q

FDCs are required on all Class I and Class III standpipe systems. On manual standpipe systems, FDCs serve as the only water supply. On automatic and semiautomatic standpipe systems, they serve as an auxiliary supply. As a rule, FDCs are provided with one 2 1/2 inch inlet for each _____ of the design flow rate. Some fire departments require larger diameter inlets that are designed to connect to larger diameter hose. It is preferable to use 4 inch or larger piping for connecting the FDC to the system mains.

A. 100 GPM.
B. 250 GPM.
C. 500 GPM.
D. 1000 GPM.

A

B. 250 GPM.

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68
Q

At least two supply lines should be connected into the intake siamese FDC. Standard Siamese hookup is accomplished by first connecting first supply line to the _____ intake and charged to get water into the system quickly. The second supply line should then be connected to the _____ intake and charged.

A. Right, left.
B. Left, right.
C. Right, middle.
D. Middle, left.

A

B. Left, right.
________________________________
1st line = left intake
2nd line = right intake

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69
Q

Basement fires are one of the most difficult and dangerous types of incidents that firefighters will encounter. The following statement is TRUE regarding basement fires when fire is showing out of the basement windows or doorways:

A. An aggressive exterior attack should be made from the unburnt side.
B. In most of these incidents, the fire, heat, and smoke are usually venting out in the proper direction (the unburnt side).
C. Ventilation is a key element in controlling the fire by permitting the products of combustion to escape while allowing firefighters to gain entry into the basement.
D. An aggressive interior should be made from the burned side.

A

A. An aggressive “exterior” attack should be made from the unburnt side. (FALSE - “interior”)
B. In most of these incidents, the fire, heat, and smoke are usually venting out in the proper direction (the “unburnt side”). (FALSE - “burned side”)
D. An aggressive interior should be made from the “burned side”. (FALSE - “unburned side”)

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70
Q

Basement fires are one of the most difficult and dangerous types of incidents that firefighters will encounter. The following statements are TRUE regarding basement fires when fire is showing out of the basement windows or doorways… the exception is:

A. An aggressive exterior attack should be made from the unburnt side.
B. In most of these incidents, the fire, heat, and smoke are usually venting out in the proper direction (the burned side).
C. Ventilation is a key element in controlling the fire by permitting the products of combustion to escape while allowing firefighters to gain entry into the basement.
D. An aggressive interior should be made from the unburned side.

A

A. An aggressive “exterior” attack should be made from the unburnt side. (FALSE - “interior”)

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71
Q

You are operating at a first floor fire in a two-story building. You are climbing stairs to conduct a search on the second floor. As you approach the second floor, you find the conditions are untenable. Your best course of action at this point is to:

A. Search the second floor from your location with a thermal imaging camera.
B. Ventilate the second floor by opening the roof.
C. Ventilate the second floor from outside.
D. Back down the stairs until second-floor conditions become tenable.

A

C. Ventilate the second floor from outside.

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72
Q

A free burning fire may also be attacked indirectly. An indirect attack is one in which a solid, straight, or narrow fog stream is used to direct water at the ceiling to cool superheated gases in the upper levels of the room. The objective of the indirect attack is to:

A. Prevent flashover.
B. Apply water directly to the burning material.
C. Prevent Backdraft.
D. Establish thermal layering.

A

A. Prevent flashover. (by removing heat from the upper atmosphere)

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73
Q

Following statements are TRUE regarding guidelines for safe and effective stream operation… the exception is:

A. Conduct a risk versus benefit analysis before entering a building.
B. Use a direct attack to deliver water directly onto the fire.
C. Sweep the floor with the stream to cool burning debris and hot services.
D. As the advance is made, the angle of the stream should be increased to protect firefighters from the heat of the fire.

A

D. As the advance is made, the angle of the stream should be “increased” to protect firefighters from the heat of the fire. (FALSE - “lowered”)

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74
Q

Backup lines are the engine company’s first line of defense. The following statements are TRUE regarding backup lines… the exception is:

A. Backup lines should be positioned close to and set up to cover the same areas as the initial attack lines. They should not be charged or put into operation unless needed.
B. Backup lines should have greater reach and deliver more water than the initial attack lines.
C. Backup lines should always be the same size and nozzle as used on the initial attack line.
D. A 2 1/2 inch attack line should always be backed up by another 2 1/2 inch hose line.

A

C. Backup lines should always be the same size and nozzle as used on the initial attack line. (FALSE - at least one size larger)

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75
Q

Your company has responded to a working fire in a commercial structure. You’re directed to protect an external exposure. The best way to accomplish this goal is to:

A. Direct your fog nozzle between the fire building and the exposure taking care not to allow water to hit either building. This will absorb radiant heat on the exposure.
B. Direct your fog nozzle on the exterior of the exposure to cool the surface of the building.
C. Direct your straight stream nozzle between the fire building and exposure taking care not to allow water to hit either building in order to minimize unnecessary water damage.
D. Direct your fog nozzle from the outside to drive the radiant heat back into the fire building.

A

B. Direct your fog nozzle on the exterior of the exposure to cool the surface of the building. (TRUE)

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76
Q

There are three ways in which fire travels: convection, radiation, and conduction.

1) In combination with convected heat, radiation creates the most severe area of exposure; this area must be protected first.
2) However, since radiation is not affected by wind, the windward side of the fire cannot be ignored by the fire force.

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.

A

C. #1 & #2 are true.

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77
Q

The three major tactical priorities on the fire ground are as follows… the exception:

A. Life safety.
B. Water supply.
C. Extinguishment.
D. Property conservation.

A

B. Water supply. (FALSE)

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78
Q

Oxygen, fuel, and heat are required to start and sustain the combustion process. These form three sides of the familiar fire triangle. A more advanced concept of combustion includes a fourth element, _____ , to form a fire tetrahedron.

A. A combustion phase.
B. A chemical chain reaction phase.
C. A growth phase.
D. A nuclear chain reaction phase.

A

B. A chemical chain reaction phase.

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79
Q

When the fire burns unchecked, heat production increases. As the original fuel sources are consumed, the fire travels to new fuel sources in uninvolved parts of the building and in exposures. There are four ways he travels:

A. Convection, radiation, conduction, explosion.
B. Convection, radiation, conduction, chemically.
C. Convection, radiation, conduction, direct flame contact.
D. Convection, radiation, conduction, vertically/horizontally.

A

C. Convection, radiation, conduction, direct flame contact.

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80
Q

1) Proper ventilation is a great help against concentrations of radiant heat.
2) Venting will remove the smoke, hot air and heating gases, thereby lessening the chance of rapid spread and flashover.

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & # 2 are true.
D. #1 & # 2 are false.

A

B. #2 is true.

1) Proper ventilation is a great help against concentrations of “radiant heat”. (FALSE - “convected heat”)

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81
Q

_____ is the travel of heat through a solid body. Although it is normally the least of the problems at a fire, the chances of fire travel by _____ should not be overlooked.

A. Convection.
B. Radiation.
C. Conduction.
D. Flying brands.

A

C. Conduction.

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82
Q

The engine itself should be equipped with a pump having a pumping capacity of at least 750 gallons per minute and a booster tank that carries at least 300 gallons of water. A rural company might find that a 1000 gallon booster tank is required to maintain initial attack for the length of time needed to set up its pumper. If so, that company should be equipped with a _____ booster tank.

A. 500 gallon.
B. 750 gallon.
C. 1,000 gallon.
D. 1,250 gallon.

A

C. 1,000 gallon.

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83
Q

An LDH offers many advantages, especially with a limited number of personnel. The following are all advantages of LDH… the exception is:

A. Increase in flow area. 
B. Reduction of maintenance. 
C. Reduction of friction loss. 
D. Increased productivity.
E. Less physical stress on personnel.
A

B. Reduction of maintenance. (FALSE)

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84
Q

A supply hose is an LDH of _____ or larger. LDHs provide the movement of large amounts of water to the fire ground from a water source with less friction loss and fewer firefighters to establish a permanent water supply.

A. 2 1/2 inches.
B. 3 inches.
C. 3 1/2 inches.
D. 4 inches.

A

C. 3 1/2 inches.

Most common LDH hose are 4 or 5 inch diameter

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85
Q

Perhaps the most desirable hose lay is the straight lay of supply line from the hydrant to the fire. The following are advantages of the straight lay… the exception is:

A. The company is self-sufficient in terms of water supply.
B. The company is free to take up any position and began operations with continuing water supply.
C. Later arriving units may drop off their crew to use the firefighting lines of the first unit.
D. Supply lines may hinder access of ladder companies.

A

D. Supply lines may hinder access of ladder companies.

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86
Q

On arriving at a single family detached dwelling, the first arriving engine company should:

A. Stop 100 feet before the fire building.
B. Stop just short of the fire building.
C. Stop in front of the fire building.
D. Stop just passed the fire building.

A

D. Stop just passed the fire building.

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87
Q

Preparation for rescue begins well before the alarm is received. It begins with a thorough knowledge of the company’s area of responsibility, including the occupancies, the hazards, and potential rescue problems. Even before the pumper has stopped, the officer should have begun a careful sizeup of the fire scene. In addition to the extent of fire, all of the following facts about the building are important in asserting what rescue operations are needed… the exception is:

A. Occupancy. 
B. Construction.
C. Size.
D. Age.
E. Apparent population of building.
A

B. Construction. (FALSE)

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88
Q

In a typical two-story, single-family dwelling with two or three rooms on fire on the first floor, occupants in the most danger are those close to the fire on the first floor and directly over the fire on the second floor.

1) The occupants on the first floor will be affected by radiant heat.
2) The occupants on the second floor will be affected by conducted smoke, hot air, and gases.

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & # 2 are true.
D. #1 & # 2 are false.

A

A. #1 is true.
________________________________
2) The occupants on the second floor will be affected by “conducted” smoke, hot air, and gases. (FALSE - “convected”)

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89
Q

Pump operations at a fire must keep track of their residual pressure, which should be maintained at _____ or more if possible.

A. 10 to 15 psi.
B. 15 to 20 psi.
C. 20 to 25 psi.
D. 25 to 30 psi.

A

C. 20 to 25 psi.

90
Q

Pump operators should maintain residual pressure of 20 psi or more if at all possible. The residual pressure should not be allowed to drop below _____ except under extreme conditions.

A. 0 psi.
B. 5 psi.
C. 10 psi.
D. 15 psi.

A

C. 10 psi.

91
Q

A 2 1/2 inch line should not be used to deliver more than _____ .

A. 250 to 300 GPM.
B. 300 to 350 GPM.
C. 350 to 400 GPM.
D. 400 to 450 GPM.

A

B. 300 to 350 GPM.

92
Q

The attack hose is designed to convey water to hoseline nozzles, distributor nozzles, Master stream appliances, portable hydrants, manifolds, standpipe and sprinkler systems, and pumps used by the fire department. Attack hose is designed for use at operating pressure up to at least _____ .

A. 250 psi.
B. 275 psi.
C. 300 psi.
D. 325 psi.

A

B. 275 psi.

93
Q

An LDH has a diameter of 3 1/2 inches or larger. The 4 and 5 inch LDHs are the most common sizes used in the fire service. In addition to supply lines, an LDH can also be used to supply attack lines, master stream appliances, portable hydrants, manifolds, and standpipe and sprinkler systems. Whenever used for these applications, a pressure relief device with a maximum setting of _____ should be used.

A. 200 psi.
B. 300 psi.
C. 400 psi.
D. 500 psi.

A

A. 200 psi.

94
Q

A 2 1/2 inch supply line should not be used to deliver much more than 350 GPM. The friction loss in 2 1/2 inch hose at these flows is _____ per 100 feet of line. It would be far better to use two 2 1/2 inch hose lines for supply or a single LDH.

A. 15 psi.
B. 25 psi.
C. 35 psi.
D. 50 psi.

A

B. 25 psi.

95
Q

As a rule of thumb, a unit at a hydrant pumping to a unit at the fire should initially be set for about _____ . Under average conditions, this will provide the water and residual pressure required by the pumper at the fire.

A. 75 psi.
B. 100 psi.
C. 125 psi.
D. 150 psi.

A

B. 100 psi.

96
Q

A 3 inch line is almost as effective as _____ 2 1/2 inch lines in carrying water to a single point from a hydrant or pumper.

A. 2.
B. 3.
C. 3 1/2.
D. 6.

A

A. 2.

97
Q

A carrying capacity of an LDH versus a standard 2 1/2 inch firehose is striking. A 4 inch hose line delivers a volume of water approximately equal to _____ 2 1/2 inch hose lines at any given pressure or distance.

A. 2.
B. 3.
C. 3 1/2.
D. 6.

A

C. 3 1/2.

98
Q

A carrying capacity of an LDH versus a standard 2 1/2 inch firehose is striking. A 5 inch hose line delivers a volume of water approximately equal to _____ 2 1/2 inch hose lines.

A. 2.
B. 3.
C. 3 1/2.
D. 6.

A

D. 6.

99
Q

With units well-positioned and an adequate water supply assured, assured, the outcome at the fire ground is dependent, to a great extent, on the effectiveness of the initial attack.

1) A direct attack is when lines are taken into the building to get them to the seat of the fire.
2) An indirect attack is one in which fog streams are used to attack the fire from outside the building. The streams are directed through windows and doorways, toward the ceiling of the room or area that is on fire.

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & # 2 are true.
D. #1 & # 2 are false.

A

A. #1 is true.

________________________________

100
Q

Smooth-bore nozzles producing solid streams have greater reach and more water delivery capability than spray nozzles producing straight streams. The nozzle most often used on 2 1/2 inch attack lines is equipped with the 1 1/8 inch smooth-bore tip with a 265 GPM discharge rate at a nozzle pressure at 50 PSI and the 1 1/4 inch smooth-bore tip with a 325 GPM discharge rate at 50 PSI. Solid stream tips, require _____ the nozzle pressure of the 2 1/2 inch spray nozzle, in spite of their greater reach and water delivery.

A. Only half.
B. Only one quarter.
C. Twice.
D. Two thirds.

A

A. Only half.

101
Q

_____ nozzles have limited volume and reach. They are light, mobile, and easy to handle with a 125 GPM discharge.

A. 1 1/2 inch fog.
B. 1 3/4 inch fog.
C. 2 1/2 inch fog.
D. 2 1/2 inch solid stream with 1 1/8 or 1 1/4 inch tips.

A

A. 1 1/2 inch fog.

102
Q

_____ nozzles have increased volume and reach. They are light, mobile, and easy to handle with a 200 GPM discharge.

A. 1 1/2 inch fog.
B. 1 3/4 inch fog.
C. 2 1/2 inch fog.
D. 2 1/2 inch solid stream with 1 1/8 or 1 1/4 inch tips.

A

B. 1 3/4 inch fog.

103
Q

_____ nozzles have increased volume and reach. They are heavier, not so mobile, and not so easy to handle. They have a 250 GPM discharge.

A. 1 1/2 inch fog.
B. 1 3/4 inch fog.
C. 2 1/2 inch fog.
D. 2 1/2 inch solid stream with 1 1/8 or 1 1/4 inch tips.

A

C. 2 1/2 inch fog.

104
Q

_____ nozzles have the greatest volume and reach. They are the hardest handle, with discharge rates of 250 to 300 GPM.

A. 1 1/2 inch fog.
B. 1 3/4 inch fog.
C. 2 1/2 inch fog.
D. 2 1/2 inch solid stream with 1 1/8 or 1 1/4 inch tips.

A

D. 2 1/2 inch solid stream with 1 1/8 or 1 1/4 inch tips.

105
Q

Four types of fog nozzles are available and in use within the fire service. They are… the exception is:

A. Bent pipe.
B. Basic spray nozzle.
C. Constant gallonage spray nozzle.
D. Constant pressure (automatic) spray nozzle.
E. Constant/select gallonage spray nozzle.

A

A. Bent pipe. (FALSE)

106
Q

When two 1 1/2 inch lines are used for initial attack, the minimum backup line is a _____ line, with a solid stream nozzle.

A. 1 1/2 inch.
B. 1 3/4 inch.
C. 1 - 2 1/2 inch.
D. 2 - 2 1/2 inch.

A

C. 1 - 2 1/2 inch.

107
Q

Radiant heat moves away from the fire building in all directions.

1) The only way to protect exposures from radiant heat is to cool them by the application of water.
2) Radiant heat is affected by the wind.

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & # 2 are true.
D. #1 & # 2 are false.

A

A. #1 is true.

108
Q

The size and location of the fire and the wind conditions determine what actions are to be taken in covering exposures.

1) The structures or the materials nearest the fire must be covered, beginning first on the windward side of the fire.
2) It is a combination of convected and radiant heat that makes the windward side most dangerous.

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & # 2 are true.
D. #1 & # 2 are false.

A

D. #1 & # 2 are false.
________________________________
“leeward”

109
Q

Various sizes of solid stream tips are available for use with heavy stream devices. The most common are… the exception is:

A. 1 1/4 inch.
B. 1 1/2 inch.
C. 1 3/4 inch.
D. 2 inch.

A

A. 1 1/4 inch.

110
Q

Various sizes of smoothbore tips are available for use with master stream appliances. The most common are the 1 3/8, 1 1/2, 1 3/4, and 2 inch tips. These tips are all normally operated at a nozzle pressure of _____ .

A. 50 psi.
B. 80 psi.
C. 100 psi.
D. 105 psi.

A

B. 80 psi.

111
Q

The 1 3/8 inch smooth-bore tip will discharge _____ at 80 PSI nozzle pressure. If water is delivered at a less than sufficient rate, the stream tends to break up. This decreases the rate of the stream. If water supply is a problem, a smaller tip size should be used.

A. 500 GPM.
B. 600 GPM.
C. 800 GPM.
D. 1,000 GPM.

A

A. 500 GPM.

112
Q

The 1 1/2 inch smooth-bore tip will discharge _____ at 80 PSI nozzle pressure. If water is delivered at a less than sufficient rate, the stream tends to break up. This decreases the rate of the stream. If water supply is a problem, a smaller tip size should be used.

A. 500 GPM.
B. 600 GPM.
C. 800 GPM.
D. 1,000 GPM.

A

B. 600 GPM.

113
Q

The 1 3/4 inch smooth-bore tip will discharge _____ at 80 PSI nozzle pressure. If water is delivered at a less than sufficient rate, the stream tends to break up. This decreases the rate of the stream. If water supply is a problem, a smaller tip size should be used.

A. 500 GPM.
B. 600 GPM.
C. 800 GPM.
D. 1,000 GPM.

A

C. 800 GPM.

114
Q

The 2 inch smooth-bore tip will discharge _____ at 80 PSI nozzle pressure. If water is delivered at a less than sufficient rate, the stream tends to break up. This decreases the rate of the stream. If water supply is a problem, a smaller tip size should be used.

A. 500 GPM.
B. 600 GPM.
C. 800 GPM.
D. 1,000 GPM.

A

D. 1,000 GPM.

115
Q

A 1 1/4 inch tip can be used on a master steam appliance when there is not enough water volume to feed the larger tip sizes. Although generally considered an attack line (325 GPM at 50 psi), it will develop a fairly heavy stream with a flow of _____ at a nozzle pressure of 80 psi.

A. 300 GPM.
B. 350 GPM.
C. 400 GPM.
D. 450 GPM.

A

C. 400 GPM.

116
Q

Solid stream tips for heavy stream devices normally are operated at _____ .

A. 50 psi.
B. 60 psi.
C. 70 psi.
D. 80 psi.

A

D. 80 psi.

117
Q

Heavy stream devices operate at high flow rates which increase friction loss in supply lines and thus require higher pressures and increased waterflow from pumpers. The following setup is recommended to supply heavy stream devices.

1) Pumpers at the hydrants (or other water source) sending water to pumpers at the fire.
2) An adequate number of supply lines laid between pumpers and from the pumper at the fire to the heavy stream unit.
3) More than 100 feet of hose between the pumper at the fire and the heavy stream unit.

A. #1 & #2 are true.
B. #1 & #3 are true.
C. #2 & #3 are true.
D. All three are true.

A

A. #1 & #2 are true.

118
Q

To assure firefighting effectiveness, modern codes normally required at the water supply in a single riser system meet one of the following criteria:

1) A minimum flow of 250 GPM at a residual pressure of 100 PSI on the roof, or
2) A minimum pressure for Class II systems of 65 psi at the most remote connection following 100 GPM.

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.

A

B. #2 is true.

119
Q

It is important to remember that problems can arise with any standpipe water supply system. Water should be pumped into any standpipe system being used for firefighting, regardless of its water source. At least two lines should be connected into the system quickly.

1) The first line should be hooked into the right intake and charged to get water into the system quickly.
2) The second line should be connected to the left intake.

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.

A

D. #1 & #2 are false.
________________________________

1st line hooked into the LEFT.
2nd line hooked into the RIGHT.

120
Q

The engine company, on arrival at a fire in a sprinkler protected structure, should immediately hook two lines to the Siamese and prepare to pump into the system. If smoke or fire can be seen, pumping should begin immediately. The pump should initially be set to deliver water at about _____ .

A. 100 psi.
B. 125 psi.
C. 150 psi.
D. 175 psi.

A

C. 150 psi.

121
Q

A rapid intervention team (RIT) must be provided from the initial stages of an incident to its conclusion. The objective of the RIT is to have a fully equipped rescue team on site, in a ready-state, to immediately react and respond to rescue injured or trapped firefighters and civilians. If possible, the RIT should be a crew of _____ firefighters, one of whom must be an officer.

A. Five.
B. Four.
C. Three.
D. Two.

A

B. Four.

122
Q

The 2 1/2 inch attack line, when equipped with a spray nozzle operating at a nozzle pressure of 100 psi, or solid-bore nozzle with a 1 1/8 inch tip at nozzle pressure of 50 psi, will discharge at least _____ when operated properly.

A. 200 GPM.
B. 225 GPM.
C. 250 GPM.
D. 275 GPM.

A

C. 250 GPM.

123
Q

When properly designed, installed, maintain, and supported by the fire department, a sprinkler system can apply water directly to the fire in a more effective manner than can the fire department using manual fire suppression methods. Following department standard operating guidelines and NFPA 13E, And engine company, on arrival at a fire in a sprinkler protected structure, immediately should hook up to the Siamese connection and prepare to pump into the system. Books and publications on supplying sprinkler systems recommend a pumping pressure of _____ , but department prefire planning and guidelines may modify this figure.

A. 125 psi.
B. 150 psi.
C. 175 psi.
D. 200 psi.

A

B. 150 psi.

124
Q

Perhaps the most desirable hose lay is the forward lay from a hydrant to the fire, with immediate charging of the supply line to the pumper. Which of the following statements is an advantage of a forward lay?

A. The first arriving pumper and its entire crew go directly to the fire began firefighting operations.
B. There is a slight delay while the pumper stops and drops off a firefighter to dress the hydrant with the supply line.
C. There is a temporary loss of this firefighter, who must remain at the hydrant until the supply line is charged.
D. The engine company is self-sufficient in terms of water supply. The company is free to take up any position in the front, rear, or side of the burning structure and began operations with an uninterrupted water supply.

A

D. The engine company is self-sufficient in terms of water supply. The company is free to take up any position in the front, rear, or side of the burning structure and began operations with an uninterrupted water supply.

125
Q

Fire in a building that is part of a continuing complex of attached structures presents a more acute problem. The sides of all but the end buildings are hidden, and the first arriving company has a limited view of the situation. When the truck company is approaching the fire building from the same direction, the engine company should position itself:

A. In front of the fire building.
B. In the rear of the fire building.
C. Slightly past the front of the fire building.
D. Stop short before the front of the fire building.

A

C. Slightly past the front of the fire building.

126
Q

Training, experience, and size up on arrival at the fire scene will indicate what type of supply line should be used if an option is provided. As a rule, a pumper at a hydrant should initially began pumping to a unit at the fire at a pump pressure of _____. Under average conditions, this will provide the water and residual pressure required by the pumper at the fire.

A. 80 psi.
B. 100 psi.
C. 125 psi.
D. 150 psi.

A

B. 100 psi.

127
Q

Smoothbore nozzles producing solid streams have greater reach and more water delivery capability then spray nozzles producing straight streams. The nozzle most often used on 2 1/2 inch attack lines is equipped with the 1 1/8 inch smoothbore tip with a _____ discharge rate at a nozzle pressure of 50 psi.

A. 200 GPM.
B. 250 GPM.
C. 265 GPM.
D. 325 GPM.

A

C. 265 GPM.

128
Q

In the reverse lay, the pump lays firefighting hose lines from the fire to the hydrant. The pumper is then hooked up to the hydrant and when ready, pumping can begin. Which of the following answer choices is a disadvantage of the reverse lay?

A. The engine company is self-sufficient in terms of its own water supply.
B. This procedure does not get water onto the fire as fast as operations with pre-connected hose lines.
C. Pumpers are not positioned close to the fire and thus do not block the approach and operation of aerial ladder trucks or elevating platforms.
D. Later arriving engine companies may initially hook up to a pumper operating from a hydrant and, if required, lay additional lines to the fire.

A

B. This procedure does not get water onto the fire as fast as operations with pre-connected hose lines.

129
Q

The constant pressure (automatic) spray nozzle is an adjustable pattern spray nozzle in which the pressure remains relatively constant through a range of discharge rates. This nozzle is designed to maintain _____ at the tip regardless of flow.

A. 50 psi.
B. 75 psi.
C. 100 psi.
D. 150 psi.

A

C. 100 psi.

130
Q

Various sizes of smoothbore tips are available for use with master stream appliances. The most common are 1 3/8, 1 1/2, 1 3/4, and 2 inch tips. These tips are all normally operated at a nozzle pressure of 80 psi. The 1 3/4 inch tip will discharge:

A. 400 GPM.
B. 600 GPM.
C. 800 GPM.
D. 1000 GPM.

A

C. 800 GPM.

131
Q

Which of the following choices may be sufficient to back up two 1 3/4 inch lines on the same floor if the floor is divided into apartments, work areas or offices?

A. 1 - 1 3/4 inch hoseline.
B. 2 - 1 1/2 inch hoselines.
C. 2 - 1 3/4 inch hoselines.
D. 1 - 2 1/2 inch hoseline.

A

D. 1 - 2 1/2 inch hoseline.

132
Q

In many occupancies a wet standpipe system might be connected to more than one water source. This is usually done to ensure that water will be available when needed. If the water main system is insufficient or unavailable for a wet standpipe system, other sources must be used. _____ , for example, are used to boost the pressure in the primary supply, which is usually the water main system.

A. City water main system.
B. Gravity tank.
C. Pressure tank.
D. Pressure pump.

A

D. Pressure pump.

133
Q

The pump operator at a hydrant must continually monitor the pumpers residual pressure. This is especially important when several pumpers are drawing water from the same hydrant system. The residual pressure should not be allowed to drop below _____ except under extreme conditions. When it looks like this might happen, the pump operator must notify the proper officer immediately.

A. 0 psi.
B. 5 psi.
C. 10 psi.
D. 15 psi.

A

C. 10 psi.

134
Q

Apparatus positioning and coverage are often made part of a standard operating procedure. The company that is expected to arrive at the fire ground from its station first (the first due) is usually assigned to the front of the building. The position it takes there will depend on the building type. The second arriving engine is assigned to the rear. On arriving at a single-family detached dwelling, for instance, the first unit should proceed:

A. So that entrances to the building can be used in attacking the fire.
B. Just short of the front of the building, to allow room for the truck company responding from the same fire station.
C. Just passed the building. This permits the officer and crew to observe three sides of the building.
D. To the rear of the building since it’s usually easier to reach than the front of the building.

A

C. Just passed the building. This permits the officer and crew to observe three sides of the building.

135
Q

For the safest and most effective operations for interior firefighter where civilians or firefighters will be in the area, solid stream nozzles or fog nozzles should be used. The following statement is TRUE regarding effective stream operation.

A. Use fog nozzles on 1 1/2, 1 3/4, and 2 1/2 inch pre-connected lines.
B. Upon entering an area which is very hot and finding no fire, withdraw immediately and check the area above.
C. When attacking a basement fire down interior stairs, the fog stream should be used since it will generate steam and vent back up the stairway.
D. If fire shows at the top of the door as it is opened, the ceiling should be hit with a solid stream, cool it and control fire gases.

A

D. If fire shows at the top of the door as it is opened, the ceiling should be hit with a solid stream, cool it and control fire gases. (TRUE)
________________________________
A. Use “fog nozzles” on 1 1/2, 1 3/4, and 2 1/2 inch pre-connected lines. (FALSE - smooth-bore nozzles”)
B. Upon entering an area which is very hot and finding no fire, “withdraw immediately and check the area above”. (FALSE - “Check the area below, adjacent areas, walls, and ceilings and other vertical and horizontal voids for fire extension”)
C. When attacking a basement fire down interior stairs, the fog stream “should be” used since it will generate steam and vent back up the stairway. (FALSE - should NOT be”)

136
Q

Some guidelines for safe and effective stream operations are listed here… the exception is:

A. Use smoothbore nozzles on 1 3/4 and 2 1/2 inch pre-connected attack lines or adjust spray nozzles on the straight stream pattern.
B. Conduct a risk versus benefit analysis before entering a building.
C. Crack the nozzle to bleed the air out of the hoseline ahead of the water.
D. Before the door to a fire area is opened, all firefighters at the location should be positioned on the same side of the entrance and remain low.
E. Use a direct attack deliver water directly onto the fire.
F. Stay low when entering the fire area to let the heat and gases vent before moving in.
G. If fire shows at the top of the door as it is opened, the ceiling should be hit with a solid stream to cool it and control fire gases.
H. Do not open the nozzle until fire can be seen unless firefighter safety is involved. Water directed at smoke will make visibility and smoke conditions worse; a fog stream will greatly increase this problem. Remember that firefighters are much more tolerant of dry heat than they are of wet heat.
I. As the advance is made, the angle of the stream should be lowered and an attempt made to attack the main body of fire.
J. Sweep the floor with the stream to cool burning debris and hot surfaces. This will help to prevent burns to hands, knees, PPE, and the attack line as it is advanced.
K. When the main body of fire is knocked down, shut down the stream, and let the area “blow” (allow smoking gases to rise and vent). Listen for crackling sounds, and look for areas that “light up” so that extinguishment can be completed.
L. When the fire is knocked down, do not shut down the attack line. This will help control water damage and the weight of the water on the floor.

A

L. When the fire is knocked down, “do not shut down the attack line”. This will help control water damage and the weight of the water on the floor. (FALSE - “shut down the attack line”)

137
Q

A fire that requires the use of a standpipe system for water supply is most likely on a high floor and therefore some distance from apparatus. Before they can attack the fire, firefighters will have to carry all their equipment into the building, get it up to or near the fire door, and set up to use the standpipe outlets.The following statements are FALSE regarding standpipe operations… the exception is:

A. The first line into the building should be at least 200 feet long and a diameter dictated by the size and intensity of the fire.
B. Under no circumstances should firefighters use the hose found on the standpipe outlet.
C. Under no circumstances should firefighters use 2 1/2 inch attack lines since it is impractical to carry this heavy hose up to the fire floor.
D. If the standpipe outlets are located in the corridors, the attack should begin from an outlet on the fire floor.

A

B. Under no circumstances should firefighters use the hose found on the standpipe outlet. (TRUE)
________________________________
A. The first line into the building should be at least “200 feet” long and a diameter dictated by the size and intensity of the fire. (FALSE - “150 feet”)
C. “Under no circumstances should firefighters use 2 1/2 inch attack lines since it is impractical to carry this heavy hose up to the fire floor”. (FALSE - “2 1/2 inch attack lines should be used immediately if the situation warrants”)
D. If the standpipe outlets are located in the corridors, the attack should begin from “an outlet on the fire floor”. (FALSE - “a standpipe connection in the stairway”)

138
Q

The following statements are TRUE in regards to standpipe operations…
the exception is:

A. Firefighters always should be prepared to fight their way into the corridor from the stairwell; when a long corridor is completely involved, streams should be directed as far into the corridor as possible.
B. If smoke or fire is detected on the fire floor, hose lines should be stretched from a standpipe connection in the stairway and not from a standpipe connection in the corridor. The theory here is that a charged hose line should be in place before entering the corridor hallway.
C. If the fire is located some distance down the corridor from the stairway, the initial hookup can be made on the fire floor; however, this should not be attempted unless the firefighters are certain that the fire is confined to an area off the corridor or at least is some distance from their point of entry to the fire floor.
D. A hose connection located on the fire floor or on an intermediate landing should be used over the connection one floor below the fire floor so that there will be room to spread out the hoseline before it is charged.

A

D. A hose connection located “on the fire floor” or on an intermediate landing should be used over the connection “one floor below the fire floor” so that there will be room to spread out the hoseline before it is charged. (FALSE - “one floor below the fire floor” ; “on the fire floor”)

139
Q

The first laws, past in major cities, required standpipes in all buildings more than ____ feet high. This is probably because at the time these laws were passed, the ____ foot aerial ladder was normally the longest ladder available. Today standpipes are required in structures more than three stories in height.

A. 35.
B. 55.
C. 75.
D. 95.

A

C. 75 feet.

140
Q

1) Class I systems provide 2 1/2 inch hose connections at designated locations in the building for full-scale firefighting. These systems generally are intended for use by the fire department rather than fire brigades and building occupants.
2) Class II systems provide 1 1/2 inch hose connections at designated locations in the building for first-aid firefighting. These systems generally are intended for use by fire brigades and building occupants before the fire department arrives. This type of system is usually supplied with hose, a hose rack, and cabinet and a nozzle installed at each hose connection.
3) Class III systems are a combination of Class I and Class II systems. They can be used for full-scale and first-aid firefighting. Class I and Class II hose connections are provided with the system.

A. #1 & #2 are true.
B. #2 & #3 are true.
C. #1 & #3 are true.
D. All three are true.

A

D. All three are true.

141
Q

There are five types of standpipe systems. _____ systems have piping that is filled with water at all times and have an automatically available supply capable of supplying the water demand necessary for firefighting.

A. Automatic wet. 
B. Automatic dry.
C. Semiautomatic dry.
D. Manual dry. 
E. Manual wet.
A

A. Automatic wet.

142
Q

There are five types of standpipe systems. _____ systems have piping that normally is filled with pressurized air. These systems are arranged, through the use of a device such as a dry-pipe valve, to admit water automatically into system piping when a hose valve is opened. They are connected to an automatically available water supply that is capable of supplying the water demand necessary for firefighting.

A. Automatic wet. 
B. Automatic dry.
C. Semiautomatic dry.
D. Manual dry. 
E. Manual wet.
A

B. Automatic dry.

143
Q

There are five types of standpipe systems. _____ systems have piping that normally is filled with air that may or may not be pressurized. These systems are arranged through the use of devices such as a deluge valve to admit water into system piping when a remote actuation device located at a hose station, such as a pull station, is operated. They also have a pre-connected water supply that is capable of supplying the water demand necessary for firefighting.

A. Automatic wet. 
B. Automatic dry.
C. Semiautomatic dry.
D. Manual dry. 
E. Manual wet.
A

C. Semiautomatic dry.

144
Q

There are five types of standpipe systems. _____ systems have piping that normally is filled with air; these systems do not have a pre-connected water supply. A fire department connection (FDC) must be used to maintain supply water for firefighting.

A. Automatic wet. 
B. Automatic dry.
C. Semiautomatic dry.
D. Manual dry. 
E. Manual wet.
A

D. Manual dry.

145
Q

There are five types of standpipe systems. _____ systems have piping that normally is filled with water for the purpose of allowing leaks to be detected. The water supply for these systems typically is provided by a small connection to domestic water piping, and it is not capable of supplying firefighting water demands. A fire department connection (FDC) must be used to supply water manually for firefighting.

A. Automatic wet. 
B. Automatic dry.
C. Semiautomatic dry.
D. Manual dry. 
E. Manual wet.
A

E. Manual wet.

146
Q

A _____ system is a vertical pipe, or riser, running through or along the outside of a building. They are not equipped with interior lines for occupant use; only fire department pumpers can feed them. A building that is spread over a wide area may be equipped with two or more _____ systems, which may be completely separate. Engine company personnel must be familiar with each separate system; however, newer fire codes require them to be interconnected so that water pumped into any intake feeds all the risers.

A. Dry standpipe.
B. Wet standpipe.
C. Utility water line.
D. First alert.

A

A. Dry standpipe.

147
Q

An automatic wet standpipe system is connected to a water source and contains water at all times. The water must be under enough pressure to allow fire attack without aid from fire department pumpers.

1) NFPA 14 requires that a water supply for Class I and Class III systems be able to deliver a residual pressure of 100psi at the outlet of the top-most hose connection on each standpipe. This pressure must be available while flowing 250 GPM from each of the two topmost hose connections of the hydraulically most remote standpipe, plus 250 GPM from each additional standpipe up to the required maximum.
2) NFPA 14 requires that a water supply for a Class II system be capable of delivering 100 GPM for 30 minutes. It also must be strong enough to maintain a residual pressure of 65 psi at the outlet for the hydraulically most remote hose connection with 100 GPM flowing.
3) NFPA 14 was modified in the 1993 edition to increase the minimum outlet pressure for Class I and Class III outlets from 65 psi to 100 psi because of questions raised regarding the adequacy of a 65-psi minimum design pressure on automatic and semiautomatic standpipes.

A. #1 & #2 are true.
B. #2 & #3 are true.
C. #1 & #3 are true.
D. All three are true.

A

D. All three are true.

148
Q

NFPA 14 requires that a water supply for Class I and Class III systems be able to deliver a residual pressure of _____ at the outlet of the top-most hose connection on each standpipe. This pressure must be available while flowing 250 GPM from each of the two topmost hose connections of the hydraulically most remote standpipe, plus 250 GPM from each additional standpipe up to the required maximum.

A. 50 psi.
B. 65 psi.
C. 80 psi.
D. 100 psi.

A

D. 100 psi.

149
Q

NFPA 14 requires that a water supply for Class I and Class III systems be able to deliver a residual pressure of 100 psi at the outlet of the top-most hose connection on each standpipe. This pressure must be available while flowing _____ from each of the two topmost hose connections of the hydraulically most remote standpipe, plus 250 GPM from each additional standpipe up to the required maximum.

A. 150 GPM.
B. 200 GPM.
C. 250 GPM.
D. 300 GPM.
E. 350 GPM.
A

C. 250 GPM.

150
Q

NFPA 14 requires that a water supply for Class I and Class III systems be able to deliver a residual pressure of 100 psi at the outlet of the top-most hose connection on each standpipe. This pressure must be available while flowing 250 GPM from each of the two topmost hose connections of the hydraulically most remote standpipe, plus _____ from each additional standpipe up to the required maximum.

A. 150 GPM.
B. 200 GPM.
C. 250 GPM.
D. 300 GPM.
E. 350 GPM.
A

C. 250 GPM.

151
Q

NFPA 14 requires that a water supply for a Class II system be capable of delivering _____ for 30 minutes. It also must be strong enough to maintain a residual pressure of 65 psi at the outlet for the hydraulically most remote hose connection with _____ flowing.

A. 100 GPM.
B. 150 GPM.
C. 200 GPM.
D. 250 GPM.
E. 300 GPM.
A

A. 100 GPM.

152
Q

NFPA 14 requires that a water supply for a Class II system be capable of delivering 100 GPM for _____ . It also must be strong enough to maintain a residual pressure of 65 psi at the outlet for the hydraulically most remote hose connection with 100 GPM flowing.

A. 15 minutes.
B. 30 minutes.
C. 45 minutes.
D. 1 hour.

A

B. 30 minutes.

153
Q

NFPA 14 requires that a water supply for a Class II system be capable of delivering 100 GPM for 30 minutes. It also must be strong enough to maintain a residual pressure of _____ at the outlet for the hydraulically most remote hose connection with 100 GPM flowing.

A. 50 psi.
B. 65 psi.
C. 80 psi.
D. 100 psi.

A

B. 65 psi.

154
Q

NFPA 14 was modified in the 1993 edition to increase the minimum outlet pressure for Class I and Class III outlets from _____ to 100 psi because of questions raised regarding the adequacy of a _____ minimum design pressure on automatic and semiautomatic standpipes.

A. 50 psi.
B. 65 psi.
C. 80 psi.
D. 100 psi.

A

B. 65 psi.

155
Q

NFPA 14 was modified in the 1993 edition to increase the minimum outlet pressure for Class I and Class III outlets from 65 psi to _____ because of questions raised regarding the adequacy of a 65-psi minimum design pressure on automatic and semiautomatic standpipes.

A. 50 psi.
B. 65 psi.
C. 80 psi.
D. 100 psi.

A

D. 100 psi.

156
Q

NFPA 14 was modified in the _____ edition to increase the minimum outlet pressure for Class I and Class III outlets from 65 psi to 100 psi because of questions raised regarding the adequacy of a 65-psi minimum design pressure on automatic and semiautomatic standpipes.

A. 1992.
B. 1993.
C. 1994.
D. 1995.

A

B. 1993.

157
Q

When available, _____ are almost always used as a primary source of water. If it supplies enough pressure to satisfied code requirements, no other source will need to be used. A wet system, supplied by _____ , has become the most common arrangement in medium and high-rise apartment and office buildings.

A. Public waterworks systems.
B. Pressure pumps.
C. Gravity tanks.
D. Pressure tanks.

A

A. Public waterworks systems.

158
Q

If the public waterworks system is insufficient or on available for a wet standpipe system, other sources must be used. _____ , for example, are used to boost the pressure in the primary supply, which usually is the public waterworks system but could be a water tank.

A. Public waterworks systems.
B. Pressure pumps.
C. Gravity tanks.
D. Pressure tanks.

A

B. Pressure pumps.

159
Q

If the public waterworks system is insufficient or on available for a wet standpipe system, other sources must be used. _____ are an alternative system; they are mounted on the ground when supplying one- and two-story buildings or are mounted above ground in taller structures. They may hold as much as 100,000 gallons of water. Gravity supplies the pressure required in the standpipe system. A pump is used to fill the tank but not to aid in developing pressure.

A. Public waterworks systems.
B. Pressure pumps.
C. Gravity tanks.
D. Pressure tanks.

A

C. Gravity tanks.

160
Q

_____ generally are found only on smaller systems, where they supply house lines with water for initial attack by the occupants. They also may be used to augment other sources in case of failure to the main supply. They rarely exceed 3,000 gallons in capacity and can be located anywhere in the water supply system. The top third of the tank contains air under pressure, this assures sufficient water pressure while the tank is supplying water to the standpipe system.

A. Public waterworks systems.
B. Pressure pumps.
C. Gravity tanks.
D. Pressure tanks.

A

D. Pressure tanks.

161
Q

Post-indicator valve maybe found on wet standpipe systems. Two popular types are:

A. Gate and butterfly.
B. Butterfly and stem-and-yoke.
C. Stem-and-yoke and window.
D. Window and butterfly.

A

D. Window and butterfly.

Window type and butterfly type postindicator valves

162
Q

Fire department connections (FDCs) are required on all Class I and Class III systems. On manual standpipe systems, FDCs serve as the only water supply. On automatic and semiautomatic standpipe systems, they serve as auxiliary water supply. As a rule, most FDCs are provided with one _____ inlet for each 250 GPM of design flow rate.

A. 1 3/4 inch.
B. 2 1/2 inch.
C. 3 inch.
D. 4 inch.

A

B. 2 1/2 inch.

163
Q

Fire department connections (FDCs) are required on all Class I and Class III systems. On manual standpipe systems, FDCs serve as the only water supply. On automatic and semiautomatic standpipe systems, they serve as auxiliary water supply. As a rule, most FDCs are provided with one 2 1/2 inch inlet for each _____ of design flow rate.

A. 150 GPM.
B. 250 GPM.
C. 300 GPM.
D. 500 GPM.

A

B. 250 GPM.

164
Q

If the supply line cannot be connected to the damaged Siamese, water can be supplied to the system through the hoseline outlet on the first floor. The following statements are TRUE in regards to supplying water to damaged Siamese connections… the exception is:

A. First, the house line (on the first floor outlet) and any pressure reducing fittings must be removed, and suitable fittings must be installed.
B. Whenever possible, a 2 1/2 inch Siamese should be installed on the outlet with a double female adapter, and two supply lines should be used to deliver water to the outlet from the pumper.
C. If the location of the outlet prevents the use of a Siamese, a single supply line can be hooked up to the outlet with the double male adapter. The use of large diameter hose should also be considered.
D. For a wet system, the supply line to the outlet should be hooked up and charged before the outlet valve is opened. This will prevent water in the system from running back into the supply line and possibly impeding the operation.

A

C. If the location of the outlet prevents the use of a Siamese, a single supply line can be hooked up to the outlet with the “double male adapter”. The use of large diameter hose should also be considered. (FALSE - “double female adapter”)

165
Q

The best arrangement for supplying a standpipes system is to have the pumper positioned within _____ of the standpipe Siamese.

A. 50 feet.
B. 100 feet.
C. 150 feet.
D. 200 feet.

A

B. 100 feet.

166
Q

An elevator should never be taken to the fire floor or any floor above the fire. Fire department personnel should not be allowed to break this rule. Standard operating guidelines should state that firefighters using an elevator must stop _____ or more below the fire and then use the stairway to the fire floor.

A. One floor.
B. Two floors.
C. Three floors.
D. Four floors.

A

B. Two floors.

167
Q

If the elevator is taken to the fire floor, the firefighters in the elevator could be exposed to flames, excessive heat, or toxic gases when the doors open. When the location of the fire is difficult to judge or the fire is reported to be on a certain floor, firefighters can expect to be ordered off the elevator _____ floors below the suspected fire floor . This should be done even if smoke, heat, or flame-detecting devices are used to determine the fire floor.

A. 2.
B. 2 to 3.
C. 2 to 4.
D. 4.

A

C. 2 to 4. (floors below the fire floor)

168
Q

When properly designed, installed, maintained, and supported by the fire department, the sprinkler system can apply water directly to the fire in a more effective manner than can the fire department using manual fire suppression methods. Sprinkler systems have small nozzles, call heads, that are sensitive to heat. As long as enough pressure is available, each head will distribute water over an area of _____ or more in volume sufficient to control or extinguish most fires.

A. 25 ft.².
B. 50 ft.².
C. 100 ft.².
D. 200 ft.².

A

C. 100 ft.².

169
Q

There are four basic types of sprinkler systems… the exception is:

A. Wet-pipe system.
B. Dry-pipe system.
C. Preaction system.
D. Deluge system. 
E. Manual wet.
A

E. Manual wet. (False - standpipe type)

170
Q

In the _____ , the piping always is filled completely with water from the source to the heads. When a sufficient amount of heat is generated from a fire, water is discharged immediately from an activated sprinkler or sprinklers. This is the simplest and one of the least expensive types of system, requiring little in the way of special equipment; however, it cannot be used in unheated buildings or for exposure protection in areas where the temperature might go below freezing. Nevertheless, it is the most common type of sprinkler system.

A. Wet-pipe system.
B. Dry-pipe system.
C. Preaction system.
D. Deluge system.

A

A. Wet-pipe system.

171
Q

The _____ was developed for use in unheated areas where the piping in a wet system would freeze. The system contains water only from the source to a control valve. The piping from the valve to the heads contains compressed air. The air pressure, maintained by a compressor, holds the pipe valve closed. When a sprinkler head opens, air escapes from the lines. This reduces the pressure and trips the valve, which opens and allows water to flow into the sprinkler piping and then to the open head or heads. In unheated areas, the valve is enclosed in an insulated and heated closet or cabinet protected from freezing. The enclosure usually is small enough to allow protection with minimum heating and a large enough to permit entry for maintenance.

A. Wet-pipe system.
B. Dry-pipe system.
C. Preaction system.
D. Deluge system.

A

B. Dry-pipe system.

“Dry-pipe valve”

172
Q

When a dry system is activated, there is a lag between the time the head opens and the time water is applied to the fire. The _____ was devised to minimize this time lag by exhausting the compressed air before the head opens.

A. Wet-pipe system.
B. Dry-pipe system.
C. Preaction system.
D. Deluge system.

A

C. Preaction system.

173
Q

The _____ is a dry pipe system with the addition of air exhausters, if so equipped, controlled by a supplemental fire detection system. When the supplemental fire detection system is activated, the air exhausters, which are located at the dry-pipe valves, open and let the compressed air escape from the system. This allows water to flow into the sprinkler piping and to the heads and, in most cases, to be at the head when the temperature rises sufficiently to cause it to open. Some such systems have additional exhausters on the sprinkler piping to increase the speed of a release and water travel to the heads.

A. Wet-pipe system.
B. Dry-pipe system.
C. Preaction system.
D. Deluge system.

A

C. Preaction system.

174
Q

The _____ is designed to deliver large volumes of water quickly. It contains water only from the source to a control valve. The piping from the valve to the heads contain only room air, and the heads are open at all times. Complete control of the system is provided at the valve. Normally, compressed air keeps the valve closed. If there is a fire, the valve is activated by a supplemental fire detection system. The valve then opens and allows water to flow through the piping and out of all the heads simultaneously. This floods the entire area quickly, which is what the system is designed to do.

A. Wet-pipe system.
B. Dry-pipe system.
C. Preaction system.
D. Deluge system.

A

D. Deluge system.

175
Q

_____ usually are installed in high-hazard locations such as aircraft hangers, chemical plants, laboratories and transformer rooms, or other areas where fire might spread rapidly. These systems must have good water supplies in order to function effectively.

A. Wet-pipe system.
B. Dry-pipe system.
C. Preaction system.
D. Deluge system.

A

D. Deluge system.

176
Q

The following are TRUE according to NFPA 13E, “Recommended practice for fire department operations in properties protected by sprinkler and standpipe systems”, when arriving at a property protected by an automatic sprinkler system… the exception is:

A. An engine company should immediately should hook up to the Siamese connection and prepare to pump into the system.
B. Firefighters should check the system, including the main valves, sprinkler riser, and the fire pump, if so equipped, to ensure that all components are functioning properly.
C. An actual check of the fire pump is not needed.
D. During actual fire incident, a firefighter must be assigned to the main valve and fire pump to ensure a continued operation of the system.
E. The pump operator should wait for orders to begin pumping. Department standing operating guidelines should dictate initial pump pressure, but most publications recommend a pump and pressure of 150 psi.

A

C. An actual check of the fire pump is “not” needed. (FALSE - “is needed”)

177
Q

The following statements are TRUE in regards to water supply for sprinkler systems… the exception is:

A. Not every sprinkler system is required to be equipped with a fire department intake.
B. An engine company, on arrival at a fire in a sprinkler protected structure, immediately should hook up to the Siamese connection and prepare to pump into the system.
C. After pumping begins, the pump operator must monitor the discharge pressure carefully.
D. During the fire, a check must be made to ensure that an adequate water supply is available to support the sprinkler system.
E. Sprinkler systems are as effective for exposure protection as they are for fire control, provided that they are supplied with enough water.
F. Shutting down the system prematurely is a common mistake made when automatic sprinklers are in operation.
G. After the fires extinguished, the sprinkler system should be shut off. A firefighter, however, should remain at the control valve to quickly return the system to service if necessary.
H. If possible, the sprinkler system should be restored to service before firefighters leave the building.

A

A. “Not every sprinkler system is required to be equipped” with a fire department intake. (FALSE - “Every sprinkler system MUST be equipped”)

178
Q

In the straight lay uncharged line operation, a supply line is laid from the hydrant to the fire, but the line is left uncharged at the hydrant. Which of the following statements is an advantage of this hose lay?

A. The positioning of engine companies is restricted.
B. At least two companies must arrive at the fire ground in quick succession if this procedure is to be efficient.
C. After laying the supply line at the hydrant, the entire first crew proceeds the fire scene to fight the fire.
D. If the second engine arrives in the same direction as the first, there is a delay in getting the second crew to the fire.

A

C. After laying the supply line at the hydrant, the entire first crew proceeds the fire scene to fight the fire.

179
Q

Fire in residential properties, from single-family homes to large apartment houses, always include the possibility of a rescue problem. This possibility is much greater and the problem perhaps more acute:

A. During the late morning hours when occupants are preparing to leave for the day.
B. During the afternoon hours when residents return home from work tired.
C. During the evening hours when occupants are likely out for the evening.
D. During night when most people are at home and sleep.

A

D. During night when most people are at home and sleep.

180
Q

Use of fog streams inside a building should be restricted to unoccupied confined areas such as the attic. The _____ produces a combination of reach and fog pattern. Increasing the angle to produce a wider pattern gives the firefighter more protection, but decreases the reach of the stream, diminishes firefighting effectiveness.

A. Straight stream.
B. 30° angle.
C. 45° angle.
D. 60° angle.

A

B. 30° angle.

181
Q

In many occupancies, a wet standpipe system might be connected to more than one water source. When available, a _____ is almost always used as a primary source of water.

A. Gravity tanks.
B. Pressure tanks.
C. Built in fire pump.
D. City water main system.

A

D. City water main system.

182
Q

The engine company must be well-trained. It should be equipped and staffed to carry out all the objectives of the firefighting operation. These objectives, which have evolved over the years of firefighting experience, form the basis for any attack plans. The first objective is to rescue victims, the next objective is:

A. Overhaul the fireground.
B. Confine the fire.
C. Protect exposures.
D. Extinguish the fire.

A
D. Extinguish the fire.
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
1. Life safety
2. Extinguishment
3. Property conservation
183
Q

Fire in a building that is part of a continuing complex of attached structures present a more acute problem. The sides of all but the end buildings are hidden, and the first arriving company has a limited view of the situation. When the truck company is approaching the fire building from the same direction, the engine company should position itself:

A. In front of the fire building.
B. In the rear of the fire building.
C. Slightly past the front of the fire building.
D. Stop short before the front of the fire building.

A

C. Slightly past the front of the fire building.

184
Q

A/an _____ attack is one in which fog streams are used to attack the fire from outside the fire building. The streams are directed through windows and doorways, toward the ceiling of the room or area that is on fire.

A. Overhead.
B. Direct.
C. Circular.
D. Indirect.

A

D. Indirect.

185
Q

Heavy stream devices operate at high flow-rates which increase friction loss in supply lines and thus require higher pressures and increased water flow from pumpers. It is important that friction losses be minimized and that pumpers be used most efficiently. The following setup is recommended to supply heavy stream devices… the exception is:

A. Pumpers at the hydrants sending water to pumpers at the fire.
B. Pumpers at the hydrants pumping at full throttle and maximum discharge pressure.
C. An adequate number of supply lines laid between pumpers and from the pumper at the fire to the heavy stream unit.
D. No more than 100 feet of hose between the pumper at the fire and the heavy stream unit.

A

B. Pumpers at the hydrants pumping at full throttle and maximum discharge pressure. (FALSE)

186
Q

The ____ has a water delivery capacity which is absolutely necessary for attacking large, intense fires.

A. 1 - 1 1/2” line.
B. 1 - 1 3/4” line.
C. 1 - 2 1/2” line.
D. 2 - 1 1/2” lines.

A

C. 1 - 2 1/2” line.

187
Q

There are four possible sources of water at the fireground. When _____ is the only way to assure water supply, prefire planning is a must.

A. Water main systems.
B. Drafting sources.
C. Booster tanks.
D. Tankers.

A

B. Drafting sources.

188
Q

For the safest and most effective operations for interior firefighting where civilians or firefighters will be in the area, solid stream nozzles or _____ should be used.

A. Fog nozzle set solid stream.
B. Constant flow nozzle.
C. Fog nozzle set to fog.
D. Fog nozzle set to more than 30°.

A

A. Fog nozzle set solid stream.

189
Q

The term “exposure fire” is applied to the outside exposure; such as a fire is regarded as one that spreads from one structure to another or from one independent part of the building to another, such as across a court or between the wings of a building. _____ that deters fire from spreading between buildings or stacked materials are the greatest deterrents to exposure fires and are of great assistance to firefighters when there are several outside fires.

A. Present weather, especially winds.
B. Availability and combustibility of fuel.
C. Unpierced firewalls and space.
D. Size of the firefighting force.

A

C. Unpierced firewalls and space.

190
Q

Through training and experience, engine company personnel must acquire knowledge, skill and judgment in performing the nine basic operations of engine companies. Which of the following operation is one of the basic operations of engine companies?

A. Forcible entry.
B. Salvage.
C. Tactical use of protective systems.
D. Utility control.

A

C. Tactical use of protective systems.

191
Q

Through training and experience, engine company personnel must acquire knowledge, skill and judgment in performing the nine basic operations of engine companies. The nine basic operations of engine companies are… the exception is:

A. Performing search and rescue operations. 
B. Establishing a water supply. 
C. Use of initial attack lines. 
D. Use of backup lines. 
E. Protecting exposures. 
F. Use of master stream appliances.
G. Tactical use of protective systems. 
H. Utility control. 
I. Property conservation. 
J. Performing overhaul operations.
A

H. Utility control. (FALSE - Ladder company operation)

192
Q

A thorough, planned search should be conducted at every fire. Moreover, all firefighters, no matter what type of company to which they are assigned, should be able to conduct a search if needed. The following statements are FALSE regarding searches… the exception is:

A. If someone engaged in the search turns left on the top of the stairs and moves down the hallway, they should keep their right shoulder against the wall.
B. One effective method to indicate that a room has been searched is to place a piece of light furniture in the doorway.
C. Everyone engaged in the search should not carry tools such as a fire axe or halligan tool.
D. Rooms that the fire has entered should also be searched, if at all possible. Then, the door should be left open, and a light piece of furniture should be placed in the doorway.

A

B. One effective method to indicate that a room has been searched is to place a piece of light furniture in the doorway.

193
Q

According to EOC: Indicating that a room has been searched should always be used so that there is no duplication of effort, at least in the initial search operation. Effective methods include:

1) Place a piece of light furniture in the doorway (such as a chair, footstool, end table, lamp table, etc.). The piece should be set on its side so the legs are pointing out the room.
2) Placing tags or straps on the doors or doorknobs of inspected rooms, apartments, and offices.

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.

A

C. #1 & #2 are true.

ECO note difference in Truck Company book

194
Q

When two 1 1/2 inch lines are used for initial attack, the minimum back up line is a:

A. One additional 1 1/2” line.
B. Two additional 1 1/2” lines.
C. One 2 1/2” line.
D. One 1 3/4” line.

A

D. One 1 3/4” line.

195
Q

The engine company, on arrival at a fire in a sprinkler protected structure, should immediately hook two lines to the Siamese and prepare to pump into the system. If smoke or fire can be seen, pumping should begin immediately with the pump set to deliver water at about _____ .

A. 100 psi.
B. 125 psi.
C. 150 psi.
D. 175 psi.

A

C. 150 psi.

196
Q

Convection is the travel of heat through the motion of heated matter; that is; through the motion of smoke, hot air, heated gases produced by the fire, and flying embers. The following statements are FALSE regarding convection… the exception is:

A. Convection is the main reason for ventilation requirements in fire department operations.
B. Convected heat creates the most severe area of exposure; this area must be protected first.
C. Within the confines of a building, convected heat quickly raises the temperature of the air and combustible material both near and - if the building layout permits - at quite some distance from the fire.
D. Convected heat by itself does not cause great physical distress to the firefighter.

A

A. Convection is the main reason for ventilation requirements in fire department operations. (TRUE)

197
Q

Radiation is a travel of heat through space; no material substance is required. Following statements are FALSE regarding radiant heat… the exception is:

A. Proper ventilation is of great help against concentrations of radiant heat.
B. Venting will remove the radiant heat, thereby lessening the chance of rapid spread and flashover.
C. The radiant heat must be counteracted by firefighters through proper application of water on the seat of the fire.
D. Radiant heat does not cause great physical stress to the firefighter.

A

C. The radiant heat must be counteracted by firefighters through proper application of water on the seat of the fire. (TRUE)

198
Q

Three factors influence the movement of water at fires… the exception is:

A. Personnel.
B. Water source.
C. Pumper.
D. Hose.

A

A. Personnel. (FALSE)

199
Q

There are four possible sources of water at the fire ground… the exception is:

A. Water main systems.
B. Static water sources.
C. Apparatus water tanks. 
D. Mobile water supply apparatus. 
E. Residential garden hose lines.
A

E. Residential garden hose lines. (FALSE)

200
Q

_____ is the pressure of the hydrant water at rest, that is, with a hydrant open to the pump and no water flowing through the pump.

A. Static pressure.
B. Residual pressure.
C. Flowing pressure.
D. Remaining pressure.

A

A. Static pressure.

201
Q

_____ is the pressure in the hydrant with water flowing from a hydrant through the pump.

A. Static pressure.
B. Residual pressure.
C. Flowing pressure.
D. Remaining pressure.

A

B. Residual pressure.

202
Q

A compound gauge is used to measure the static pressure with the hydrant charged the pumper and all discharge gates closed and the residual pressure with at least one discharge gate open and the proper pressure being pumped to the attack line. The difference in the reading allows the pump operator to estimate how many more attack lines can be supplied by the water main system. A drop of about 5% from the static pressure to the residual pressure indicates that:

A. Three equal parts equivalent to the amount being delivered can be supplied by the water main system.
B. Two or more equal parts equivalent to the amount being delivered can be supplied by the water main system.
C. Only one more equal part equivalent to the amount being delivered can be supplied by the water main system.
D. The water main system can not supply any more additional lines.

A

A. Three equal parts equivalent to the amount being delivered can be supplied by the water main system.

203
Q

A compound gauge is used to measure the static pressure with the hydrant charged the pumper and all discharge gates closed and the residual pressure with at least one discharge gate open and the proper pressure being pumped to the attack line. The difference in the reading allows the pump operator to estimate how many more attack lines can be supplied by the water main system. A drop of about 10% from the static pressure to the residual pressure indicates that:

A. Three equal parts equivalent to the amount being delivered can be supplied by the water main system.
B. Two or more equal parts equivalent to the amount being delivered can be supplied by the water main system.
C. Only one more equal part equivalent to the amount being delivered can be supplied by the water main system.
D. The water main system can not supply any more additional lines.

A

B. Two or more equal parts equivalent to the amount being delivered can be supplied by the water main system.

204
Q

A compound gauge is used to measure the static pressure with the hydrant charged the pumper and all discharge gates closed and the residual pressure with at least one discharge gate open and the proper pressure being pumped to the attack line. The difference in the reading allows the pump operator to estimate how many more attack lines can be supplied by the water main system. A drop of about 20% from the static pressure to the residual pressure indicates that:

A. Three equal parts equivalent to the amount being delivered can be supplied by the water main system.
B. Two or more equal parts equivalent to the amount being delivered can be supplied by the water main system.
C. Only one more equal part equivalent to the amount being delivered can be supplied by the water main system.
D. The water main system can not supply any more additional lines.

A

C. Only one more equal part equivalent to the amount being delivered can be supplied by the water main system.

205
Q

Two main types of mobile water supply apparatus are tankers and tenders:

1) Vehicles carrying 1000 gallons of water or more with a fire pump are generally referred to as tankers. Pumper-tankers have a standard fire pump and a large water tank. This type of pumper should be used for fire attack or pumping water from the water source to pumpers on the fire ground. It should not be used to shuttle water from a water source to the fire ground.
2) Vehicles carrying 1000 gallons of water or more without a fire pump or using a small PTO-driven pump are called tenders. These vehicles are specifically used to carry water to a fire.

A. #1 is true.
B. #2 is true.
C. #1 & #2 are true.
D. #1 & #2 are false.

A

C. #1 & #2 are true.

206
Q

The engine itself should be equipped with a pump having a pump capacity of at least _____ and a booster tank that carries at least _____ of water. These are absolute minimums for the general operation of engine companies.

A. 500 GPM, 250 gallons.
B. 750 GPM, 500 gallons.
C. 1000 GPM, 500 gallons.
D. 750 GPM, 300 gallons.

A

D. 750 GPM, 300 gallons.

207
Q

The flow rate of which the pump manufacturer certifies compliance of the pump when it is new is known as rated capacity. The pumping system provided must be capable of delivering the following:

1) ____% of rated capacity at 150 psi net pump pressure.
2) ____% of rated capacity at 200 psi net pump pressure.
3) ____% of rated capacity at 250 psi net pump pressure.

A

1) 100%
2) 70%
3) 50%

208
Q

The flow rate of which the pump manufacturer certifies compliance of the pump when it is new is known as rated capacity. The pumping system provided must be capable of delivering the following:

1) 100% of rated capacity at ____ psi net pump pressure.
2) 70% of rated capacity at ____ psi net pump pressure.
3) 50% of rated capacity at ____ psi net pump pressure.

A

1) 150 psi
2) 200 psi
3) 250 psi

209
Q

Although a pumper can deliver more than its rated capacity under certain conditions, there is a limit to how far it can be pushed. This limit may be imposed either by pump speed or true pump capacity, depending on the situation. The pump must not be operated above _____ of its rated peak speed for any length of time. If it is, the engine, drive train, or pump may be damaged.

A. 50%.
B. 70%.
C. 80%.
D. 100%.

A

C. 80%.

210
Q

In the reverse lay, the engine lays fire fighting lines from the fire to the hydrant. It is then hooked up to the hydrant with a soft sleeve to charge these lines. The following are advantages of the reverse lay… the exception is:

A. Hydrants close to the fire are not tied up with supply lines.
B. This procedure does not get water onto the fire as fast as operations with preconnected lines.
C. Later arriving units may initially hook up to a pumper already operating from a hydrant and, if required, may lay additional lines to their own hydrants.
D. Pumpers are not positioned close to the fire, and thus do not block the approach and operation of truck companies.

A

B. This procedure does not get water onto the fire as fast as operations with preconnected lines.

211
Q

What will the flow rate be in a 2 1/2 inch hose, longer than 400 feet, used as a supply line?

A. 250 to 300 GPM.
B. 350 to 400 GPM.
C. 450 to 500 GPM.
D. 550 to 600 GPM.

A

B. 350 to 400 GPM.
________________________________
A 2 1/2 inch supply line should note be used to deliver “much” more than 350 GPM.

212
Q

When two 1 3/4” lines are used for initial attack; they should be backed up by:

A. One 1 3/4” line.
B. One 2 1/2” line.
C. Deck gun.
D. Two 1 3/4” lines.

A

B. One 2 1/2” line.

213
Q

Excessively long lays, those exceeding about 1000 feet, usually require _____ to counteract the effect of friction loss.

A. Increased discharge pressure.
B. Multiple parallel line operations.
C. Relay operations.
D. Larger volume pumper.

A

C. Relay operations. (Initially set at a pump pressure of 150 psi)

214
Q

Static pressure is the pressure of a hydrant water at rest; that is: with the hydrant open to the pump and no water flowing through the pump. Residual pressure is the pressure in the hydrant with water flowing from the hydrant through the pump. If the difference between static pressure and residual pressure is about 5%, how many more equivalent lines can be supplied?

A. 3.
B. 2.
C. 1.
D. 0.

A

A. 3.

215
Q

Static pressure is the pressure of a hydrant water at rest; that is: with the hydrant open to the pump and no water flowing through the pump. Residual pressure is the pressure in the hydrant with water flowing from the hydrant through the pump. If the difference between static pressure and residual pressure is about 10%, how many more equivalent lines can be supplied?

A. 3.
B. 2.
C. 1.
D. 0.

A

B. 2.

216
Q

Static pressure is the pressure of a hydrant water at rest; that is: with the hydrant open to the pump and no water flowing through the pump. Residual pressure is the pressure in the hydrant with water flowing from the hydrant through the pump. If the difference between static pressure and residual pressure is about 20% how many more equivalent lines can be supplied?

A. 3.
B. 2.
C. 1.
D. 0.

A

C. 1.

217
Q

The size and location of the fire and the wind conditions determine what actions are to be taken in covering exposures. The _____ side is the most dangerous exposure.

A. Front.
B. Rear.
C. Windward.
D. Leeward.

A

D. Leeward.

218
Q

The main purpose of overhaul is to:

A. Leave the structure in as safe a condition as possible.
B. Clean up the premises.
C. Promote good public relations.
D. Teardown what remains of the building.

A

A. Leave the structure in as safe a condition as possible.

219
Q

Backup lines are the engine company’s first line of defense. They are, as their name suggests, lines to be used when initial attack lines cannot quickly control the fire. Backup lines should be positioned; of the following statements, the most correct position for a backup line is:

A. At the rear of the building.
B. Close to, and set up to cover the same area as, the initial attack lines.
C. Protecting an exposure.
D. Attacking the fire at another position.

A

B. Close to, and set up to cover the same area as, the initial attack lines.

220
Q

Friction loss in most heavy stream devices is _____ which must be added to the engine pressure.

A. 10 - 15 PSI.
B. 15 - 20 PSI.
C. 20 - 25 PSI.
D. 25 - 30 PSI.

A

C. 20 - 25 PSI.

221
Q

The best arrangement for supplying a standpipe system is to have the pumper positioned within _____ feet of the standpipe Siamese.

A. 20 feet.
B. 25 feet.
C. 50 feet.
D. 100 feet.

A

D. 100 feet.

222
Q

Solid stream tips for heavy stream devices normally are operated at _____ .

A. 50 psi pressure
B. 60 psi pressure.
C. 70 psi pressure.
D. 80 psi pressure.

A

D. 80 psi pressure.