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Lt. questions > Haz Mat > Flashcards

Haz Mat Flashcards

0
Q

At a haz-mat incident, Where should the access control point for the exclusion zone be established?

A

At the periphery of the exclusion zone and contamination reduction zone to control the flow of personnel into the exclusion zone

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1
Q

At a haz-mat incident, Red barrier tape is used to identify which zone?

A

The exclusion zone

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2
Q

At a haz-mat incident, In what zone does all decontamination occur?

A

Contamination reduction zone

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3
Q

At a haz-mat incident, Where is the contamination control line?

A

It is the boundary between the contamination reduction zone and the support zone

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4
Q

At a haz-mat incident, What color barrier tape is used to identify the contamination zone?

A

Yellow

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5
Q

T or F… Emergency personnel have separate decontamination areas than civilians?

A

True. Members may be operating on a limited supply of air

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6
Q

Who can authorize the use of the APRs?

They can only be used after?

A

The IC.

The air contaminant has been identified.
The oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%
The concentration has been measured
The filter cartridge is specific for the material
Air monitoring is on-going

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7
Q

At a haz-mat incident, who is responsible for initial hazard assessment?

A

First due ladder

Team one

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8
Q

At a haz-mat incident, who is responsible for controlling access to the site and for establishing the initial exclusion zone?

A

Second due ladder team two

In conjunction with second arriving engine

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9
Q

At a haz-mat incident, The first arriving ladder company team one is responsible for?

A

Entering the exclusion zone and trying to identify the product

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10
Q

At a haz-mat incident, The first due ladder team two is responsible for?

A

Back up for team one. Use ERG to identify product and hazards

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11
Q

At a haz-mat incident, 2nd ladder team one is responsible for ?

A

assisting first ladder with site assessment, back up or information resources

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12
Q

At a haz-mat incident, The second ladder team two is responsible for?

A

Establishing the initial exclusion zone using red barrier tape, utility rope, traffic cones, etc

Remain outside exclusion zone

Work with second engine

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13
Q

At a haz-mat incident, The responsibility of the first due engine?

A

Water supply, stretch a fog line

Don’t put into operation until ordered by IC after initial assessment

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14
Q

At a haz-mat incident, Can the first due engine perform CFRD duties?

A

Yes, if necessary

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15
Q

Responsibility of the second due engine at a haz-mat incident ?

A

Coordinates with second ladder to control access to the site

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16
Q

At a haz-mat incident, Responsibility of the third due engine ?

A

CFRD duties

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17
Q

Using START patients are triaged into one of four categories, a black tag (deceased) would mean?

A

Patients have no ventilations present after one attempt to reposition the airway

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18
Q

Using START patients are triaged into one of four categories, a red tag (immediate) would mean?

A

Patients have ventilations present after repositioning airway, have respiratory rate greater than 30 breaths per min, have absent radial pulse or are unable to follow simple commands

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19
Q

Using START patients are triaged into one of four categories, a yellow tag (delayed) would mean?

A

Patients have a respiratory rate less than 30 breaths per minute, radial pulse is present, is able to follow simple commands, but has injury that does not fit into either the immediate or minor categories.

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20
Q

Using START patients are triaged into one of four categories, a green tag (minor) would mean?

A

Patients are walking wounded

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21
Q

At a haz-mat incident, Where is the safe refuge area located?

A

In the contamination reduction zone for safe refuge of people from the hot zone prior to being decontaminated

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22
Q

At a haz-mat incident, Where is the casualty collection point located?

A

In the support zone for the medical branch to triage and treat decontaminated victims

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23
Q

In the NFPA 704 diamond, it is split up into 4 diamond shapes, the blue diamond represents what kind of hazard?

A 
Health hazard- blue section
4 deadly
3 extreme danger
2 hazardous
1 slightly hazardous
0 normal material
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24
Q

In the NFPA 704 diamond, it is split up into 4 diamond shapes, the red diamond represents what kind of hazard?

A 
Flammability hazard - red
4 flash point below 73 degrees
3 flash point below 100 degrees
2 flash point above 100 degrees- 200 degrees
1 above 200 degrees
0 will not burn
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25
Q

In the NFPA 704 diamond, it is split up into 4 diamond shapes, the yellow diamond represents what kind of hazard?

A 
Reactivity- yellow
4 May detonate
3 shock and heat may detonate
2 violent chemical change 
1 unstable if heated
0 stable
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26
Q

In the NFPA 704 diamond, it is split up into 4 diamond shapes, the white diamond represents what kind of hazard?

A

Special information

Ex. ( OX- oxidizer. COR- corrosive)

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27
Q

At a biological agent release, how far should the exclusion zone extent from the initial point of release?

A

At least 300 feet in all directions

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28
Q

How far should HTs or cell phones be kept from an explosive device?

How far- apparatus, post, marine radios?

A

150 ft

300ft

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29
Q

What level of radiation causes the rad 50 to alarm?

A

1 mR/hr

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30
Q

What is the maximum range of detection of the rad 50?

A

50 mR/hr

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31
Q

What is the FDNYs radiological action level?

A

1 mR/hr

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32
Q

Where should the hotline be established at a radiological incident?

A

The hotline defining the hot zone should be established at a rate of 2 mR/hr

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33
Q

Where is the warm zone located at a radiological emergency?

A

It is a small defined location used for decontamination or safe refuge area. It does no encircle hot zone

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34
Q

When is the battery changed on the rad50?

A

It is to be changed every three months

A spare battery is to be kept with the meter

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35
Q

What type of radiation does the ultra radiac detect?

A

Gamma and x-ray

Rate and dose

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36
Q

Is water spray effective in dispersing LP gas vapor?

A

Yes

Tac&P haz1

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37
Q

DOT hazardous classification numbers

1?

A

Explosives

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38
Q

DOT hazardous classification numbers

2?

A

Compressed gases

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39
Q

DOT hazardous classification numbers

3?

A

Flammable liquids

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40
Q

DOT hazardous classification numbers

4?

A

Flammable solids

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41
Q

DOT hazardous classification numbers

5?

A

Oxidizers

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42
Q

DOT hazardous classification numbers

6?

A

Poisons

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43
Q

DOT hazardous classification numbers

7?

A

Radioactive material

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44
Q

DOT hazardous classification numbers

8?

A

Corrosives

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45
Q

DOT hazardous classification numbers

9?

A

Miscellaneous dangerous shit

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46
Q

What are the 5 ways a chemical can gain entry into your body?

A 
Inhalation
Skin contact
Ingestion
Puncture/ wound
Eyes
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47
Q

Who is responsible for hazardous material identification at a hazmat incident?

A

Identification should be the initial action taken by the first units to arrive.

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48
Q

T or F? Gently wet down asbestos material using a fog or spray stream to minimize the amount of fibers that become airborne

A

True

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49
Q

T or F. CO is slightly lighter than air.

A

True

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50
Q

At what CO level must you evacuate a occupied area?

A

100 ppm or greater

Inform occupants of potentially lethal levels.
Can be re occupied when at 9ppm or below.

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51
Q

If one member of a CPC entry team goes down for an unknown reason, what must the other member do?

A

He must leave the area and ensure the backup team is notified of the need for an immediate rescue.

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52
Q

What is the single most important action associated with effective decontamination of a victim?

A

Removal of contaminated clothing from the victim

53
Q

When setting up emergency Mass Decon with a water spray, it is recommended that two 2 1/2” lines with a Aquastream nozzle be operated opposite each other at ___ to ____psi, and ____to ____feet apart.

A

50-80

25’-30’

Care must be taken to avoid pushing contaminates across to opposing nozzle team.

54
Q

When performing emergency mass Decon with two pumpers, how far apart are the two parallel pumpers positioned?

A

25’ apart

50-80psi

55
Q

T or F ? a CIDS card is mandatory for a USPS facility that has a bio-detection system.

A

True

56
Q

What signal is transmitted for a confirmed BDS activation?

A

10-80

57
Q

Should units operating on the initial alarm do a primary search of the USPS facility upon a BDS activation, even if there is no immediate life hazard?

A

No.

Only for immediate life hazard.
Otherwise it’s haz-mat technicians in proper PPE

First arriving units report to “initial emergency response meeting point”

58
Q

What is the shelf life of the APR’s CBRN CAP 1 canister when it is stored in its vacuum sealed container?

A

7 yrs

59
Q

What type of toxic gas is associated with a almond odor?

A

Hydrogen cyanide

Tb SCBA add3

60
Q

What type of toxic gas is associated with a musty hay smell?

A

Phosgene

61
Q

What type of toxic gas is associated with a fruity odor?

A

Acetaldehyde

Tb SCBA add3

62
Q

When does the warning alarm go off on the EDSCBA?

A

When the is 60 mins of operational time remaining

Tb scba add 4

63
Q

What are the hazardous materials shipping documents for trucks called?

A

Bill of lading

64
Q

What are the hazardous materials shipping documents for rail cars called?

A

Waybill

65
Q

What are the hazardous materials shipping documents for ships and barges called?

A

Cargo manifest

66
Q

What are the hazardous materials shipping documents for airplanes called?

A

Air bill

67
Q

At a haz-mat incident, where should the safe refuge area be located?

A

In the contamination reduction zone

It is for people who have been removed from the hazardous area before decontamination

68
Q

At a haz-mat incident, where is the casualty collection point located?

A

It is an area established In the support zone

It is where medical branch personel triage decontaminated victims

69
Q

At a haz-mat incident, what is the responsibility of the first ladder chauffeur and where does he operate?

A

He places the apparatus out of hazard area for site access control, and establishes physical barriers.

He stays with the rig

70
Q

At a haz-mat incident, who is responsible overpacking exposed equipment?

A

Decontamination team

71
Q

At a large scale hazardous materials incident, when should below ground or interior operations be initiated?

A

Not until adequate resources are on-scene

72
Q

If a biological release was at what time of the day will it have a greater impact?

A

Dawn, dusk, or during the night. Cooler air temperatures keeps the cloud closer to the ground.

73
Q

What are the 4 types of chemical agents of concern to first responders?

A

Nerve, blister, blood, and choking agents

74
Q

What type of chemical agent is mustard gas?
What odor does it have?
Immediate symptoms?

A

Blister agent

Garlic

No, several hours

75
Q

What type of chemical agent is:
lewisite?
Odor?
Immediate symptoms?

A

Blister

Odor of geraniums

Yes

76
Q

What type of chemical agent is:
Hydrogen cyanide?
Odor?
Immediate symptoms?

A

Blood agent
Burnt almonds
Yes( gasping for air)

77
Q

What type of chemical agent is: cyanogen chloride
Distinct odor?
Delayed or immediate symptoms?

A

Blood agent
Burnt almonds
Immediate

78
Q

What type of chemical agent is: chlorine
Distinct odor?
Delayed or immediate symptoms?

A

Choking
Bleach odor
Immediate

79
Q

What type of chemical agent is: sarin
Distinct odor?
Delayed or immediate symptoms?

A

Nerve
No odor
Vapor- seconds, liquid- min to hours.

80
Q

What type of chemical agent is: phosgene
Distinct odor?
Delayed or immediate symptoms?

A

Choking
Musty hay
Immediate

81
Q

What type of chemical agent is: vx
Distinct odor?
Delayed or immediate symptoms?

A

Nerve
No odor
Seconds for gas, mins to hrs for liquid

82
Q

What type of chemical agent has a fruity odor?

A

Nerve agents

83
Q

What type of chemical agents have the odor of burnt almonds?

A

Blood agents

84
Q

What type of chemical agent has the odor of garlic or geraniums?

A

Blister agents

85
Q

What type of chemical agents have an odor of bleach or musty hay?

A

Choking agents

86
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, can members enter a subway where visible persons are unresponsive?

A

No

Transmit info to IC and retreat immediately

87
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, where conditions are such that the first due ladder can perform a hazard assessment of the area, and they find a dispersal device that is still operational, they should…?

A

Immediately retreat to be decontaminated

Bunker gear is not satisfactory against the concentrations that will be present around a still operating dispersal device.

88
Q

When performing hazard assessment in the exclusion zone, members in bunker gear should only go as far as…?

A

The furthest live victim

89
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, the first arriving ladder team one consists of :

A

Officer and two members

90
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, if live victims can be seen or heard, the entry team shall.?

A 
Perform initial hazard assessment 
Try to identify source
Relay info to IC
Direct victims to SRA
Mark route for CPC entry/ rescue teams
Remove barriers for civilian evacuation
91
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, what is the responsibility of the first ladder team 2-back up?

A

Back up for team 1

Direct evacuation

Communications relay with IC until relieved by first CPC ladder.

92
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, what is the responsibility of the first due ladder chauffeur ?

A

Apparatus placement for site access control

Assist with communications relay

93
Q

What are some responsibilities of the second due ladder at a chemical release in a subway?

Where will they operate?

A

Site access control
Establish contamination reduction zone
Direct and move victims from SRA to gross Decon area.

Operate outside exclusion zone

94
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, the second ladder team 1 will …?

A

Direct ambulatory victims to gross Decon area

Assist non-ambulatory using stokes stretcher

95
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, the second ladder team 2 will…?

A

Define exclusion zone with red barrier tape
Establish contamination reduction zone
Establish contamination reduction corridor

96
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, what are some responsibilities of the second due ladder chauffeur?

A

Position apparatus as a barrier and out of hazard area.

Establish physical barriers using apparatus, barrier tape, traffic cones.

Assist team 1or 2 as needed

97
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, what are some of the responsibilities of the first due engine?

A

Remain outside.
Connect to hydrant near access/egress point of first ladder company.
Provide emergency gross Decon for victims.
Provide IC with estimate of victims.

98
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, who’s responsibility is it to assist in the removal of non-ambulatory victims and give the IC an estimate of the number of removals necessary and their location?

A

The rescue company

99
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, should a CPC member remove a victim that doesn’t respond to painful stimulus?

Deceased victims?

A

They should leave the victim in place and proceed to the next victim.

Deceased victims should be left in place.

100
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, Who may perform noxious stimulus triage?

A

Any CPC level trained member

101
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, what is the job of the HMTU?

A

Assist air monitoring.
Adjust exclusion zone based on meter readings
Assist in rescue of non-ambulatory victims.

HMTU officer is Haz-mat branch director until relieved by HM1 or HM chief

102
Q

At a chemical release in a subway, what is the job of the CPC companies?

A

Establish a CPC fast unit for the entry teams

Assist in rescue of victims

103
Q

CPC ladder companies should only operate in the exclusion zone when …?

A

Technician companies are monitoring the environment

104
Q

With which type of chemical agent do victims exhibit SLUDGEMs?

A

Nerve agents (organophosphates)

105
Q

What kind of explosive detonates at a rate of less than 3000 ft/sec?

A

Low explosive

106
Q

What kind of explosive detonates at a rate of greater than 3000 ft/sec?

A

High explosives

107
Q

In general, shock initiates high explosives with______, and flame initiates low explosives with ______.

A

Detonators

Primers

108
Q

When can the FDNY operate in the warm zone at an active shooter incident?

A

When requested by PD for life safety

Must be approved by deputy in consultation with a staff chief.

109
Q

A radiological INCIDENT would be described as…?

A

A situation where meter readings are above background from a legitimate source and the source has NOT been released from its container.

110
Q

T or F?

Initial operations for victim rescue and fire suppression should not be impeded for rates in the mR/hr range?

A

True

111
Q

Units responding to an improvised nuclear device (IND) should not enter the area of detonation for at least ____mins post-detonation.

A

15

112
Q

At what level should civilians in a surrounding building be evacuated at a radiological emergency?

A

5 rem

10 rem for special groups, prison res, nursing homes, non-ambulatory hospital patients

113
Q

What is the max radiological dose for a first responder for general operations at a radiological emergency?

A

5 Rem

114
Q

What is the max radiological dose for a first responder for protection of major property at a radiological emergency?

A

10 Rem

115
Q

What is the max radiological dose for a first responder for life saving or protection of large populations at a radiological emergency?

A

25 Rem

116
Q

What is the max radiological dose for a first responder for life saving for a catastrophic event?

A

50 Rem

117
Q

At what level will the Rad 50 alarm?

A

1 mR/hr

118
Q

At what level is the hot line established at a radiological emergency?

A

2 mR/hr

119
Q

What is the transport index for radioactive packages?

A

The maximum level of radiation in mR/hr at one meter from the package

(Should not exceed 10 mR/hr)
(The total TI of a vehicles shipment should not exceed 50 mR/hr)

120
Q

When turning on the Rad alert 50, how long until it can show a complete reading on the LCD?

How long when operating will a change be indicated on the LCD?

A

One minute

One minute

121
Q

Where are the potassium iodide (KI) tablets stored on the rig?

A

In the glovebox

122
Q

Who is required to wear the ultra-radiac at all times when out of quarters?

When is it cleared?

A

The officer

Beginning of each tour

123
Q

Ultra-radiac low rate alarm level?

A

2 mR/hr

124
Q

Ultra-radiac high rate alarm level?

A

50R/hr

125
Q

Ultra-radiac low dose alarm level?

A

5 R

126
Q

Ultra-radiac high dose alarm level?

A

12 R

127
Q

A blinking “b” on the Ultra-radiac means..?

Blinking “BAT” on top left corner of screen means?

A

Batteries need to be replaced, not functioning.

Batteries have 10 hours or less of useful life on them.

Blank screen, batteries dead

128
Q

When are members who are assigned a co meter required to wear/ turn on the meter.?

When is it checked?

A

Whenever they are out of quarters

At the start of each tour turn meter on and allow it to self test. Make sure sensor port is not blocked

129
Q

What color is weaponized anthrax?

A

Gray or brown

130
Q

Who establishes the contamination reduction corridor at a chemical attack in a subway?

A

Second ladder team two

131
Q

How often is the battery on the rad50 replaced?

A

9v

Quarterly

Lt. questions (12 decks)

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