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2020 Phase 3a (DB) > harder paeds from quesmed > Flashcards

harder paeds from quesmed Flashcards

1
Q

what is reye’s syndrome?

A

taking aspirin in viral illness - reye’s

liver damage and encephalopathy

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2
Q

what would you see on ECG of wolff-parkinson-white?

A 
delta waves (at start of qrs complex) 
associated with supraventricular tachy
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3
Q

what does congenital rubella cause?

A

cataracts
deafness
PDA
aqueduct stenosis - hydrocephalus

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4
Q

what is nephrotic syndrome symptoms

A

oedema
proteinuria
hypoalbuminaemia

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5
Q

what is commonest cause of nephrotic in kids

A

minimal change disease

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6
Q

how is minimal change disease treated

A

pred

fluid restriction, reduced salt

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7
Q

how does duodenal atresia present?

A

vomiting in 1st week of life since birth,

no passage of meconium?

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8
Q

how does duodenal atresia look on xray

A

double bubble sign

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9
Q

how is duodenal atresia treated?

A

duodenoduodenostomy?

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10
Q

how much bolus fluid in DKA?

A

10ml/kg

20ml/kg in all others

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11
Q

how is sickle crisis treated?

A

analgesia (morphine) and fluids

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12
Q

how is reflux nephropathy assessed?

A

mcug

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13
Q

how is renal scarring assessed?

A

dmsa

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14
Q

what dose of benpen for meningitis?

A

1.2mg IM

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15
Q

how are seizures stopped in status?

A

buccal midaz
then iv lorazepam
then phenytoin

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16
Q

what infections might turner syndrome get frequently?

A

otitis media

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17
Q

what are some features associated with turner?

A

koilonychia

low posterior hairline

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18
Q

how long are scarlet fever infectious?

A

24 hours after abx dose

phenoxymethylpenicillin (aka penicillin V)

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19
Q

what determines degree of cyanosis in tet fallot?

A

degree of pulm stenosis

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20
Q

how does ASD murmur sound?

A

ejection systolic and split S2 fixed!!

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21
Q

when would you give antibiotics in paeds uro?

A

reflux nephropathy

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22
Q

how is orbital cellulitis investigated?

A

CT Orbit

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23
Q

what does congenital parvovirus cause?

A

HYDROPS FETALIS

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24
Q

how does down’s syndrome happen at cellular level?

A

meiotic non-disjunction

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25
Q

what are some more features of down’s?

A

duodenal atresia

AV septal defect

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26
Q

what tone is found in cerebral palsy

A

hypertonia

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27
Q

what is scissor walking assiociated with

A

cerebral palsy

spastic diplegia

28
Q

when would lumbar puncture be contraindicated?/

A

raised ICP - if papilloedema/bradycardia/hypertension

extensive/spreading purpura

29
Q

what does holosystolic murmur indicate?

A

eisenmenger’s
eisenmenger’s is a cyanotic condition

heard over lower left sternal edge

30
Q

is eisenmenger’s cyanotic

A

yes

31
Q

describe eisenmenger’s pathophys

A

long standing left to right shunt causes pulm hypertension causes reversal of shunt to right to left causing cyanosis

32
Q

how is haemorrhagic disease of newborn prevented?

A

vitamin K

33
Q

how might haemorrhagic disease newborn present

A

jaundice, bruising,

intracranial haemorrhage

34
Q

how does rolandic epilepsy present?

A

occurs during sleep mostly
centrotemporal spikes on EEG
grow out by puberty usually

35
Q

what does eeg of rolandic look like?

A

centrotemporal spikes

36
Q

what is most common bone cancer in children?

A

osteosarcoma

37
Q

how does osteosarcoma look on xray?

A

new bone growth
sunburnt periosteum

full body CT to look for mets

38
Q

how is osteosarcoma managed?

A

neo-adjuvant chemo

surgical and reconstruction

39
Q

what type of hypersensitivity is asthma?

A

type 1 (allergic reactions too)

40
Q

how does VSD murmur sound?

A

pansystolic 2/6 murmur

41
Q

how does aplastic crisis present?

A

pancytopaenia in absence of splenomegaly

in sickle cell, precipitated by parvovirus (slapped cheek)

42
Q

what causes bronchiolitis obliterans?

A

adenovirus!!!!

43
Q

which herpesvirus causes chickenpox?

A

HHV3 (VZV)

44
Q

how does goodpasture’s syndrome present?

A

haematuria

45
Q

how does neonatal hypothyroidism present?

A

hypotonia
macroglossia
reduced feeding
constipation

46
Q

what causes inflammation of synovial membrane?

A

transient synovitis

47
Q

what electrolyte abnormality can bronchiolitis cause?

A

hyponatraemia and seizures

48
Q

how does typhoid present?

A

indian subcontinent/indonesia?????
fever and abdo pain
from contaminated food???

49
Q

how is typhoid treated?

A

ceftriaxone if indian subcontinent

ciprofloxacin if travelled elsewhere

50
Q

how are tet fallot spells managed?

A

phenylephrine last lines

- vasoconstrictor

51
Q

what does coxsackie B cause?

A

myocarditis

52
Q

what is the tetrad of symptoms for HSP?

A

arthralgia
abdo pain
rash
glomerulonephritis

53
Q

if untreated which cancer can coeliac cause?

A

lymphoma - EATL (T cell lymphoma)

small bowel adenocarcinoma

54
Q

when would MMR vaccine be contraindicated

A

immunocompromised as is live attenuated

55
Q

how is sinus headache treated?

A

with Abx

56
Q

how is bacterial sepsis tested for?

A

precalcitonin not lactate!

57
Q

what is waterhouse friedrichsen syndrome?

A

due to meningococcal septicaemia

adrenal haemorrhage

58
Q

what are the symptoms of waterhouse fried?

A

hypoglycaemia
dehydration
others idk

59
Q

what type of vasculitis is HSP?

A

small vessel vasculitis

60
Q

what do you need to monitor in neonates who are on high flow oxygen

A

retina - free radicals in the oxygen can cause retinopathy of prematurity

61
Q

which antibodies in SLE can cause congenital heart block?

A

anti-Ro and anti La - congenital heart block

62
Q

Potter syndrome

A

oligohydramnios causes

  • clubbed feet
  • parrot beak nose
  • recessed chin
  • low set cartilage-deficient ears
  • prominent epicanthal folds
  • dry loose skin
  • pulmonary hypoplasia can be due to oligohydramnios
63
Q

is haemolytic uraemic syndrome notifiable?

A

yes

64
Q

what are the symptoms of haemolytic uraemic syndrome?

A
  1. jaundice
  2. renal failure - oliguria
  3. thrombocytopaenia
65
Q

how is haemolytic uraemic syndrome treated?

A

supportive

antihypertensives and dialysis

66
Q

what type of diabetes can cause transposition?

A

t1/2 dm

not gestational

2020 Phase 3a (DB) (20 decks)

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