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hammer20 Flashcards

1
Q

Which cancer is common in patients exposed to asbestos? What worsens the risk?

A

Bronchiogenic carcinoma.

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2
Q

What are CT findings in peritoneal mesothelioma?

A

Nodular peritoneal thickening with moderat to severe ascites

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3
Q

What is the presenation of vertebral osteomyelitis? What does evaluation include? What is the imaging modality of choice?

A

Fever, backpain and focal spinal tenderness. Evaluation includes blood culture and inflammatory markers (ESR and CRP). MRI

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4
Q

What is the main measure of association in case control studies?

A

Exposure odds ratio

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5
Q

What is the treatment for newborns with ABO incompatability?

A

Can develop neonatal jauncide, treat with phototherapy

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6
Q

Which seizure type has an aura? Which seizure types have automatisms?

A

Partial seizures. Complex parital seizures.

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7
Q

Which seizure type can have deja vu and No loss of consciousness?

A

Simple partial seizures

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8
Q

What is the presentation of peptic ulcer diseae?

A

Epigastric pain, nausea, early satiety in association with food. Melena which is a common cause of PUD.

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9
Q

What contraceptives are contraindicated in pregnancy? What are other contraindications to these meds? What is the best substitute?

A

All hormone containing contraceptives. Migraine, smoker, >160/100, history of thromboembolic disease, stroke, breast cancer, major surgery with immobilization. Copper IUD

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10
Q

What is the most reliable sign for vertebral osteomyelitis? What else is elevated? Best test?

A

Tenderness to gentle percussion. ESR and CPK. MRI. Suspect in drug users

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11
Q

What is the pathophysiology and presentation of lacunar strokes?

A

Microatheroma formation and lipohyalinosis in small penetrating arteries of teh brain. Pure motor hemiparesis since they often affect internal capsule.

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12
Q

What is a common sideeffect of methotrexate?

A

Macrocytic anemia, nausea, stomatitis, rash, hepatotoxicity, interstitial lung disease, alopecia and fever

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13
Q

What is the CSF findings of Viral encephalitits? Treatment?

A

Elevated white count with a lymphocytic predominance, normal glucose and elevated protein concentration. Start acyclovir

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14
Q

How is PEEP calculated? Plateau pressure?

A

PEEP is calculated with end expiratory hold maneuver. Plateay pressure is sum of elastic pressure and PEEP

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15
Q

What is teh criteria for diagnosing ADHD?

A

Inattention, impuslivity and hyperactivity in 2 or more settings

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16
Q

What should you administer with Thiamine in Wernicke patients?

A

Glucose

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17
Q

What medication is administered to bipolar patients who have renal dysfunction?

A

Valproate instead of Lithium

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18
Q

What is the management of patients with BPH?

A

Do urine culture and recal exam to assess for UTI and hematuria. Patients with life expectance > 10 years should have PSA.

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19
Q

What is the presentation of aplastic crisis in sickle cell patients?

A

Acute severe anemia (pallor, weakness, functional murmur), sudden drop in hemoglobin with a very low retic count (

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20
Q

What is the presentation and biopsy findings in HSP?

A

palpable purpura, arthralgias, abdominal pain and renal disease. IgA deposition in the mesangium

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21
Q

Which nerve is injured in midshaft fracture of humerus?

A

Radial nerve

22
Q

What is unique about ischemic hepatic injury?

A

Occurs in the setting of hypotension with massive increases in AST and ALT with MILDER associated increases in total bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase.

23
Q

What is the most common etiology of Mallory-Weiss teat?

A

Sudden increase in abdominal pressure from forceful weritching, Mucosal tear (longitudinal laceration) in esophagus or stomach, Risk factors are hiatal hernia and alcoholism.

24
Q

What are long term neurologic sequale associated with bacterial meningitis? Which portion of the brain is affected?

A

hearing loss, loss of cognitive function (2/2 neuronal loss in the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus), seizures, mental retardation, spasticiy

25
Q

What is the immediate treatment and long term treatment for panic attack?

A

Immediate - Benzodiazepine. Long term - SSRI/SNRI &/or cognitive behavioral therapy

26
Q

What are the LH levels in gonadotropin independent (peripheral) precocious puberty? What can cause it?

A

Low. Late onset non classic CAH (21 hydroxylase deficiency).

27
Q

What is the first test when you observe hypokalemia in a person taking diuretic?

A

Measure plasma renin activity and aldosterone concentration

28
Q

What are the clinical features in silent thyroditis? Diagnostic test findings?

A

Mild brief hyperthyroid phase, mildly enlarged gland, spontaneous recovery,. Positive TPO antibody, low radioiodine uptake.

29
Q

What is the presentation of Herpes Zoster opthalmicus?

A

Dendriform corneal ulcers and a vescular rash in the trigeminal distribution

30
Q

What are the most common causes of secondary digital clubbing?

A

Lung malignancies, CF, R-L cardiac shunts

31
Q

What is the presentation of ADPKD?

A

Multiple renal cysts and intermittent flank pain, hematuria, UTIs and nephrolithiasis

32
Q

What is the distinction between case control and retrospective cohort studies?

A

Case control determines outcome first and looks for associated risk factors. Retrospective cohort checks risk factors first then determines outcomes.

33
Q

What is the management of BPP 6/10? BPP 8/10? How often do gestational hypertensives require monitoring?

A

Repeat in 24 hours. Repeat in a week. Weekly BPPs starting at 32 weeks.

34
Q

What is the inheritance, clinical presentaiton, comorbidities and prognosis of myotonic muscular dystrophy?

A

AD expansion of CTG trinucleotide repat in DMPK gene on chromosome 19q 13.3 . Onset at age 12-30. Facial weakness, hand grip, myotonia, dysphagia.

35
Q

What is the comorbidities and prognosis of myotonic muscular dystrophy?

A

Arrhythmias, cataracts, balding, testicular atrophy/infertility. Death from respiratory or heart failure

36
Q

What is the comorbidities and prognosis of Duchenne vs Becker muscular dystrophy?

A

Duchenne - scoliosis, cardiomyopathy (death @ 20-30 from respiratory or HF)
Becker - cardiomyopathy (death @ 40-50 from HF)

37
Q

What is the common complication of glucocorticoid use in patients presenting with groin pain?

A

Osteonecrosis (avascular necrosis) of the femoral head.

38
Q

What is the management of patients with acute arterial occlusion?

A

Anticoagulation with IV heparin

39
Q

What is the management of patients with acute low back pain?

A

Moderate activity plus NSAIDS. Physical therapy is persistent pain (6-12 weeks or longer)

40
Q

What CD4 count for Toxoplasmosis? Treatment?

A

CD4

41
Q

What is the most common cause of health care associated infective endocarditis?

A

Staph infection

42
Q

What is the most common cause of community acquired infective endocarditis?

A

Streptococcal infection

43
Q

What is the most common cause of dental care associated infective endocarditis?

A

Viridians group strep (S mitis, S oralis, S mutans, S sanguinis, S milleri)

44
Q

What malignancy can hereditary hemochromatosis lead to?

A

Cirrhosis which can increase risk for hepatocellular carcinoma

45
Q

What are the symptoms and treatment for diabetic gastroparesis?

A

Anorexia, nausea ,vomiting, early satiety. Prokinetic agents (metoclopramide, erythromycin, cisapride)

46
Q

What is the presentation of congenital aromatase deficiency?

A

Prevents conversion of androgens to estrogens. It causes gestational maternal virilization and virilization of XX fetusus. Also high levels of FSH/LH

47
Q

What is the presentation of neonatal tetanus?

A

Infants born to unimunized mothers, frequently following umbilical stump infection. Neonates present with poor sucking and fatigue, followed by rigidity, spasms and opisthotonus

48
Q

When is endometrial biopsy indicated?

A
  1. Women > 45 and all post menopausal women,

2. women

49
Q

What organism causes CF before 20 years? after 20 year old?

A

Staph aureus. Pseudomonas.

50
Q

What is the etiology of plantar warts?

A

HPV infection. Can be painful when walking or standing.

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