Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing Funds > GU, Bladder > Flashcards

GU, Bladder Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Pharmacology flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Adult Health flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards
1
Q

what assessment techniques are you going to use for the Gentialia and reproductive tract?

A

inspection and palpation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

do you need to understand cultural sensitivity for a genitle exam?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what should you ask the patient during a routine head to toe assessment for a GU GR exam?

A

if they’ve had any s/s of problems
thorough history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

t/f: internal exam is done by physicians and APRNs except for cervical dilation in OB?

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

whats important to remember culturally about GU GR exams?

A

embarrassed to have this assessment done,
some cultures dont openly discuss these issues
some women may not allow male to examine them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what position is this?

A

dorsal recumbent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what position is this?

A

lithotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what precautions do you use for a GU and GR exam?

A

standard precautions (wear clean gloves)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what do you need to do before touching patient?

A

explain procedure and tell them what youre going to do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what will you need to retract on a female patient?

A

labial folds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

should be dry or moist, usually symmetrial, may become atrophied in older age

A

labia majora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what should the mucous membranes appear like?

A

dark pink moist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

should be intact, pink in color, located above the vaginal orifice.

A

urethral orfice (urethral meatus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what should you do before you inspect a male patient?

A

have them void first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is hypospadias?

A

a displaced urethral meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which testicle is normally lower?

A

the left testicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

is a painless enlargement of one tests and a small hard palpable lump the size of a pea on the front or side

A

testicular cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

is located on either side of the vertebral column behind the peritoneum and against the dep muscle of the back

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

this organ sits behind the symphysis pubis

A

bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how long is the female urethra?

A

1 to 1.5 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how long is the male urethra?

A

7 to 8 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when can children voluntarily control urination?

A

18 to 24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

nocturnal enuresis is?

A

bedwetting that doesnt wake child at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

t/f: Older adults may have decrease in bladder capacity and increased bladder irritability and frequency of contractions. Ability to hold urine decreases.

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

chronic illness, mobility, cognition, and manual dexterity issues put you at an increased risk for?

A

UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how can diabetes affect the bladder?

A

can cause overactivity of bladder or decrease bladder emptying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how can arthritis/Parkinson’s disease affect toileting?

A

less timely access to toilet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how does a spinal injury affect urination?

A

loss of urine control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what does an enlarged prostate cause with urination?

A

urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

do diuretics change color of urie?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is phenazopyridine?

A

a diuretic that changes urine color to orangge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how do anticholinergics affect the bladder?

A

inhibits bladder contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how do sedatives affect the bladder?

A

reduce ability to recognize/act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what can cystoscopy cause?

A

trauma
transient dysuria
hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

suddenly inability to void when bladder is full or overfull

A

acute retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

bladder does not empty completely during voiding and urine is held in the bladder

A

chronic retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

one of the most common types of healthcare associated infection.

A

urinary tract infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

upper UTI affects?

A

kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Lower UTI affects?

A

bladder and urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

pyelonephritis

A

severe upper UTI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

urosepsis

A

life-threatening blood infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

symptoms of UTI

A

burning/pain with urination (dysuria)
urgency (immediate/strong urge to void)
frequency
incontinence (involuntary loss of urine)
tenderness
foul smelling
cloudy urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

transient incontinence

A

caused by medical conditions

acute confusion
UTI
acute urinary retention
medications, excessive output
mobility issues
depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

is transient incontinence treatable or reversible?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

obstacle or disability makes it hard for you to reach or use a toilet in time to urinate

causes from outside urinary tract. (sensory or cognitive impairments, altered mobility, environmental barriers [no assistance to bathroom available, pathway to bathroom not clear, tight clothing, incontinence briefs)

A

functional incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

can urinate but cannot completely empty the urine from their bladders

overdistention of bladder or poor bladder emptying (distended bladder on palpation, high postresidual volume (PVR = amount of urine left in the bladder after voiding and is measured with a bladder scanner [portable ultrasound] or straight catheterization), frequency, involuntary leakage of small amounts of urine, nocturia [awakened from sleep because of urge to void]

A

Chronic urine retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

when physical movement or activity — such as coughing, laughing, sneezing, running or heavy lifting — puts pressure on your bladder, causing you to leak urine.

Urethra can’t stay closed d/t increased intraabdominal pressure, weakened urinary sphincter (childbirth trauma or prostatectomy) or pelvic floor muscles

A

stress incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

leakage of small amounts of urine when coughing, laughing, sneezing, exercise, walking, standing up from chair) is due to?

A

stress incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

when you have a strong, sudden need to urinate that is difficult to delay.

strong sense of urgency r/t overactive bladder (involuntary contractions of the bladder) = (strong urge, frequency, nocturia, trouble or inability to hold urine once urge occurs).

A

urgency incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

occurs when the bladder muscle contracts and urine leaks (often in large amounts) without any warning or urge

predictable intervals of loss of urine when bladder reaches a specific volume d/t spinal cord damage. (decreased or absent awareness of bladder, filling, urge to void, or leaking of urine. May not completely empty bladder

A

reflex incontinence

51
Q

puts you at risk for developing autonomic dysreflexia (life-threatening condition causing elevated blood pressure, heart rate, and diaphoresis)

A

reflex incontinence

52
Q

are for patients who have either had their bladder removed (cystectomy) for significant bladder dysfunction

A

urinary diversions

53
Q

the patient must catheterize the pouch 4 to 6 x per day (permanent).

A

continent urinary reservoir

54
Q

is placed in the same position as the bladder and the patient can void through the urethra using the Valsalva technique. (permanent)

A

orthotopic neobladder

55
Q

pt has no sensation or control over the flow of urine. Requires a drainage bag that is changed every 4-6 days and switched to a bedside drainage bag at night. Permanent.

A

ureterostomy

56
Q

tubes are inserted into the kidneys at the renal pelvis, through the skin, and urine drains into bags. Temporary.

A

nephrostomy

57
Q

what are some symptoms of urinary alterations? (4)

A

urgency
dysuria
frequency
nocturia

58
Q

decreased urine output in relation to fluid intake.

A

oliguria

59
Q

all pts with indwelling catheters need to have the _______ _______assessed for damage from the catheter or infection (inflammation or discharge).

A

urinary meatus

60
Q

Pulling on the catheter can cause damage to the ______ ______ or the catheter can even erode through the ______ ______ in severe cases.

A

urinary meatus

61
Q

how many times a day should you assess the perineal skin?

A

at least once, more if incontinent

62
Q

can indicate fluid imbalance, kidney dysfunction, or decreased blood volume.

A

change in urine output volume

63
Q

If urine output is less than ___ mL/hour for ___consecutive hours or have excessive urine output, they need to be further assessed and this needs to be reported to the provider.

A

30 mL/hour for 2 consecutive hrs

64
Q

what do you immediately need to assess for with urine output of less than 30 mL/hour?

A

blood loss

65
Q

If a pt has not voided for ____-_____ hours and has had fluid intake, they should be assessed for urinary retention.

A

3-6 hours

66
Q

dark red could be bleeding from ?

A

kidney or ureters

67
Q

bright red is from?

A

bladder or urethra

68
Q

Foul odor indicates what for urine?

A

UTI

69
Q

Use a sterile specimen cup. May be collected by the pt if they are able to, after receiving instructions on cleaning and collection technique

A

clean-voided or midstream (culture and sensitivity)

70
Q

May require urine collected at certain time of the day or over a specified time period (2, 12, or 24 hrs).

A

timed urine samples

71
Q

measures the concentration of particles in the urine

A

specific gravity

72
Q

the higher the specific gravity value, the more _____ it is

A

concentrated

73
Q

high specific gravity indicates?

A

dehydration
reduced renal blood flow
increase in ADH

74
Q

low specific gravity can indicate?

A

overhydration
early renal disease
inadequate ADH secretion

75
Q

indicates trauma or disease Can also be caused from urethral catheters or surgery of lower urinary tract.

A

RBC elevation

76
Q

may be present with poorly controlled diabetes, dehydration, starvation, or excessive aspirin ingestion.

A

high ketones

77
Q

indicate renal disease.

A

casts

78
Q

indicate risk of renal calculi development (kidney stones) or patients with gout may have high uric acid levels

A

crystals

79
Q

what is the normal speciic gravity range?

A

1.005 to 1.030

80
Q

are proteins suppose to be in urine?

A

no, should normally be negative?

81
Q

WBC count in urine normal range?

A

< 5/hpf

82
Q

RBC normally present in urine?

A

RBC <5/hpf

83
Q

normal pH range in urine

A

4.5 to 8

84
Q

ketones should be ?

A

negative

85
Q

glucose should be?

A

negative

86
Q

casts and crystals should be ?

A

negative

87
Q

Abdominal roentgenogram

A

is an x-ray of the abdomen to visualize the structures of the lower urinary tract.

88
Q

used to identify anatomical abnormalities.
Assess for allergies to contrast dye (iodine). The patient will be NPO (nothing by mouth). After, encourage fluids and assess for allergic reaction.

A

Ct of the abdomen and pelvis

89
Q

intravenous injection of contrast media (iodine based) then taking a series of x-ray films to actively observe the passage of urine through the urinary tract.
Assess for allergies to contrast media (iodine) and dehydration. After assess for allergic reaction, encourage fluids, and assess urine output. <30 mL/hr = contrast induced nephropathy.

A

IVP intravenous pyelogram

90
Q

provides imaging of the kidney, ureters and bladder to identify abnormalities and estimate the volume of urine in the bladder.
Pt may be instructed to either void before procedure or have a full bladder. Check your orders to confirm.
Do not schedule within 24 hrs of an IVP procedure.

A

ultrasound of renal bladder

91
Q

introduction of a cystoscope through the urethra for direct visualization, specimen collection, and treatment of the bladder and urethra.
Different levels of anesthesia may be used.
Follow any bowel cleansing orders.
Pt may be ordered to drink fluids before the procedure.
Inform them that urine may be pink tinged afterward and to report s/s of UTI.

A

cystoscopy

92
Q

for a patient with normal heart and renal function with no intake restrictions how much water should they be encouraged to drink?

A

2300 mL

93
Q

what catheter is this?

A

straight catheter

94
Q
A

indwelling retentioin catheter

95
Q
A

triple lumen catheter

96
Q

_______ _______ is used to measure PVR when ultrasound or bladder scanner is unavailable, or to manage chronic urinary retention.

A

intermittent catheterization

97
Q

has a single lumen and is used for intermittent catheterization. Usually made of rubber or polyvinyl chloride (PVC).

A

straight catheter

98
Q

have a double lumen with one lumen for the urine to drain and one to inflate the balloon that holds it in place. Made of latex or silicone.
Make sure to ask the patient about any latex allergies (many people who are allergic to bananas are also allergic to latex) before selecting the catheter.

A

indwelling catheter

99
Q

have a triple lumen. One for the urine, one to inflate the balloon, and one for instilling medication in the bladder.

A

continuous bladder irrigation catheters

100
Q

has a curved tip to maneuver past an enlarged prostate that is pressing into the urethra. Special training is needed to use this type.

A

A Coude’-tip catheter

101
Q

adult women french size?

A

10-12

102
Q

most adult men french size?

A

12-14

103
Q

children french size?

A

8-10

104
Q

french size for infants?

A

5-6

105
Q

Sometimes larger Fr. is needed, such as when there is __________ a that could develop clots and cause blockage.

A

hematuria

106
Q

For ___________, change the catheter every 4 to 6 weeks.

A

long term catheterization

107
Q

If catheter is not draining what should you first check for?

A

kinks or occlusions in tubing

108
Q

t/f: irrigation increases risk of CAUTI ?

A

YES IT DOES

109
Q

when should you drain the bag?

A

when half full or before transferring patient or activity

110
Q

programs should be in place that provide continuing education on catheter care.

A

Quality improvement programs

111
Q

how long should you monitor time, and amount of each void after catheter removal?

A

1-2 days

112
Q

a urinary drainage tube that is surgically inserted into the bladder through the abdominal wall above the symphysis pubis. See above pictures.
Placed when there is a urethral blockage or when long-term catheters cause irritation or discomfort.
May be suture to the skin, secured with an adhesive material, or retained in the bladder with a balloon, like with an indwelling catheter.
Same care that is required for an indwelling catheter, with new dry dressings applied per facility policy. Assess for signs of inflammation or the growth of overgranulation tissue.

A

suprapubic catheterization

113
Q

condom catheter or penile sheath. A soft, pliable condom-like sheath that fits over the penis, containing urine.
Most made of silicone, but some still made of latex. Check for allergies before applying. Comes in different sizes.
Held in place with an adhesive on the inner lining and may be attached to a leg bag or beside bag.
Suitable for incontinent male patients who have complete and spontaneous bladder emptying.
Associated with decreased risk of UTI.

A

external catheter

114
Q

are used to treat urinary urgency

A

antimuscarinics

115
Q

Adverse effects are constipation, dry mouth, and blurred vision. (cant see, spit, shit, piss)

A

antimuscarinics

116
Q

can also treat urgency. Blood pressure needs to monitored for increases.

A

mirabegron

117
Q

can help treat stress incontinence in postmenopausal women.

A

vaginal estrogen

118
Q

can treat urinary retention.

A

bethanechol

119
Q

relax smooth muscles to relax smooth muscle in men with obstruction caused by enlarged prostate.

A

tamsulosin and silodosin

120
Q

can shrink the prostate.

A

finasteride and dutasteride

121
Q

may also be prescribed to reduce pain associated with UTI. This medication turns the urine orange.

A

phenazopyridine

122
Q

that is for female incontinence. It is placed externally between the labia and buttocks and pulls the urine away from the skin and into a cannister. Best used with patients who are in a seated position, reclined, or lying on their side.

A

PureWick device

123
Q
A

PureWick device

124
Q

what are safety guidelines for catheter and urinary nursing skills?

A

surgical and medical asepsis
identify latex, iodine allergies

Nursing Funds (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions