GREENSTEP Practice Exam I

Question 1

Which of the following relates to the intent of Feature 88, Biophilia I Qualitative?

a) Quantify the number of natural patterns within the project
b) Track the quantity of natural
elements incorporated into the design
c) Align design with the Living Building Challenge imperative for biophilic environments
d) Ensure biophilia is considered at each design phase of the project

Answer 1

d) Ensure biophilia is considered at each design phase of the project

This feature is modeled after the Living Building Challenge and requires creating a biophilic framework that tracks biophilia at each design phase of the project.

Question 2

Which of the following are required for WELL Recertification?

a) Performance testing for all new WELL Features
b) Performance testing for ALL Features, old and new
c) No performance testing is required for recertification
d) Performance testing for Preconditions only

Answer 2

b) Performance testing for ALL Features, old and new

To receive recertification, performance testing is required for previously earned Features as well as for newly pursued Features.

Question 3

Under Feature 68, Physical Activity Spaces,
spaces with 10 regular occupants must provide which of the following:

a) Dedicated exercise space of a certain size
b) Professional Exercise classes offered on a regular basis
c) Discounted gym memberships
d) Access to outdoor spaces

Answer 3

a) Dedicated exercise space of a certain size

Dedicated exercise spaces of at least 18.6 m2 (200ft2) plus 0.1 m3 (1 ft3) per regular building occupant, up to maximum of 370m2 (4,000 ft2), must be provided.

Question 4

Which harmful chemicals are addressed as a Precondition? (Choose 3)

a) Perfluorinated compounds
b) Phthalates
c) Halogenated flame retardants
d) Polychlorinated biphenyls
e) Diesel Fuel
f) Radon
g) Ozone

Answer 4

d) Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)
f) Radon
g) Ozone

Feature 11 Fundamental Material Safety is a Precondition that addresses lead, asbestos, polychlorinated biphenyl abatement and mercury. Feature 01 Air Quality Standards is a Precondition that addresses formaldehyde, VOCs, PMs, carbon monoxide, ozone, and radon. The remaining answers are addressed by Optimizations, such as Feature 24, Combustion Minimization and Feature 25, Toxic Material reduction.

Question 5

According to the WELL Guide, which of the following
removes organic contaminants such as PCBs, benzene
and styrene?

a) Reverse osmosis
b) Ultraviolet sanitation
c) Activated carbon filters
d) Clay filters
e) Dual-distillation

Answer 5

c) Activated carbon filters

According to Feature 32, Organic Contaminants, activated carbon are effective in removing organic contaminants such as PCBs, benzene, and styrene.

Question 6

Which WELL Features are modeled in part after the Living Building Challenge as mentioned in the WELL Guide? (Choose 2)

a) Feature 85, Integrative Design
b) Feature 87, Beauty and Design I
c) Feature 88, Biophilia I – Qualitative
d) Feature 92, Building Health Policy
e) Feature 97, Material Transparency

Answer 6

b) Feature 87, Beauty and Design I
c) Feature 88, Biophilia I – Qualitative

Both Feature 87 and 88 reference Living Building Challenge.

Feature 97 is modeled more after LEED Version 4.

Question 7

Under Feature 42, Food Contamination, if raw meat is prepared or stored on site, cold storage spaces must contain which of the following? (Choose 2)

a) At least one removable, cleanable drawer or container located at the bottom of the unit, designated and labeled for storing raw foods
b) Separate drawers or sealed liners separating pork, fish, meat and poultry
c) A visual display of holding temperatures to ensure accurate representation of storage temperatures
d) Stainless steel drawers to minimize bacterial build-up
e) A humidity - monitoring device that keeps humidity levels under 60% to reduce mold and bacteria growth

Answer 7

a) At least one removable, cleanable drawer or container located at the bottom of the unit, designated and labeled for storing raw foods
c) A visual display of holding temperatures to ensure accurate representation of storage temperatures

Feature 42, Food Contamination, states that if raw meat is prepared or stored on site, cold storage spaces must contain the following: at least one removable, cleanable drawer or container located at the bottom of the unit designated and labeled for storing raw floors (uncooked meat, fish, poultry) AND a visual display of holding temperatures to ensure accurate representation of storage temperatures.

Question 8

What are some health risk factors associated with loud or repetitive exterior noise in urban areas? (Choose 3)

a) Integumental disruption
b) Respiratory or lung disorders
c) Stroke or heart attack
d) Diabetes
e) Myopia
f) Hypertension
g) Cancer

Answer 8

c) Stroke or heart attack
d) Diabetes
f) Hypertension

According the Feature 74, Exterior Noise Intrusion, individuals exposed to traffic noise have a higher risk for diabetes, stroke and heart attack, and those exposed to road traffic and aircraft noises have a higher risk for hypertension.

Question 9

The term “turbidity” relates to which of the following with respect to the WELL Building Standard?

a) Air only
b) Water only
c) Water and air
d) Ventilation
e) None of the above

Answer 9

b) Water only

(Along with total coliforms) serves as an indicator for the possible presence of harmful contaminants in water.

Question 10

Under Visual Lighting Design, Visual Acuity for Focus, if ambient light is below 300 lux (28 fc), which of the following must be implemented?

a) Daylighting controls within 15 feet of any windows
b) Automatic window shades must be provided for at least 75% of the windows (by area)
c) Task lights must be provided with 300 to 500 lux upon request
d) The visual light transmittance (VLT) of any window film should be greater than 0.8
e) 75% of regular occupants must be seated within 25 feet of an external window

Answer 10

c) Task lights must be provided with 300 to 500 lux upon request

Under Visual Lighting Design, Visual Acuity for Focus, if ambient light is below 300 lux (28 fc), task lights must be provided with 300 to 500 lux upon request.

Question 11

In order to achieve Platinum Certification for both the WELL Building Standard and WELL Pilot Standards, ___ percent of applicable Optimizations must be achieved.

a) 70%
b) 75%
c) 80%
d) 85%

Answer 11

c) 80%

As described in the WELL Building Standard, in order to achieve Platinum Certification for both the WELL Building Standard and WELL Pilot Standards, 80% of applicable Optimizations must be achieved. Gold can be achieved if 40% of applicable Optimizations are met.

Question 12

A new office building is 30,000 m² and includes 10,000 m² of open space surrounding the building. There are 250 full time occupants. How much space must be allocated for a garden or greenhouse to meet the requirements of Food Production?

a) 10 m²
b) 25 m²
c) 50 m²
d) 30 m²
e) 100 m²

Answer 12

b) 25 m²

As described in the GreenStep Study Guide, Feature 51, Food Production, requires a space of at least 0.1 m2 (1 ft2) per occupant be allocated for either a garden and/or a greenhouse. 0.1 m2 multiplied by 250 occupants=25.

Question 13

Which of the strategies below would meet the requirements of Feature 38, Fruits and Vegetables? (Choose 3)

a) At least two varieties of non-fried vegetables offered on a daily basis
b) At least 45% of available options are fruit and/or non-fried vegetables
c) A salad bar located along the entire perimeter of the cafe
d) Fruits displayed at the cash register
e) A salad bar positioned away from the walls, allowing 360° access

Answer 13

a) At least two varieties of non-fried vegetables offered on a daily basis
d) Fruits displayed at the cash register
e) A salad bar positioned away from the walls, allowing 360° access

Feature 38 Fruits & Vegetables, lists several different requirements of foods sold or distributed on a daily basis: the selection must include at least two varieties of fruits and at least two varieties of non-fried vegetables; at least 50% available options must be fruits and/or non-fried vegetables; the salad bar should allow 360 degree access; fruits and vegetables are made visually apparent; vegetable dishes are placed at the beginning of the food service line; and finally fruits or fruit dishes are placed at the checkout location.

Question 14

Feature 23, Advanced Air Purification, addresses carbon filtration (Part 1), air sanitization (Part 2) and ___________ (Part 3).

a) Air Flow Rate Testing
b) System Replacement
c) Air Quality Maintenance
d) Combustion Gas Minimization
e) ASHRAE 52.2

Answer 14

c) Air Quality Maintenance

Question 15

Exposure to small amounts of lead and mercury through drinking water has been linked to which of the following? (Choose 3)

a) Kidney problems
b) Type 2 diabetes
c) High blood pressure
d) Developmental delays in learning abilities in children
e) Seizures
f) Strokes

Answer 15

a) Kidney problems
c) High blood pressure
d) Developmental delays in learning abilities in children

According to Feature 31, Inorganic Contaminants, exposure to even minute amounts of certain metals such as lead and mercury through drinking water has been linked to developmental delays and deficits in learning disabilities in children as well as high blood pressure and kidney problems in adults.

Question 16

Which of the following would meet the requirements of a Feature in the WELL Building Standard?

a) Breakfast meeting serving whole grain croissants that contain neither partially-hydrogenated oil nor 20 grams of sugar
b) Company-sponsored dinner that includes labels for the following food allergies: peanuts, fish, shellfish, soy, eggs, wheat, tree nuts, gluten
c) Morning meeting with plain bagels
d) Picnic party serving juices with no more than 35 grams of sugar per container

Answer 16

a) Breakfast meeting serving whole grain croissants that contain neither partially-hydrogenated oil nor 20 grams of sugar

Feature 39, Processed Foods, restricts the use of refined ingredients. Some of the requirements include no beverages with more than 30 grams of sugar, no single-serving, non-beverage food item containing more than 30g of sugar, and a while grain as the primary ingredient of any foods where a grain flour is the primary ingredient by weight

Question 17

The stakeholder charrette must include, at a minimum, the owner, architects, engineers, and

a) WELL Assessor
b) lighting designer
c) facilities management team
d) biophilia expert

Answer 17

c) facilities management team

Under Feature 85, Integrative Design, the stakeholder charrette must include at a minimum the owner, architects, engineers, and facilities management team.

Question 18

What documentation is required for Feature 86, Post-Occupancy Surveys?

a) Survey results reported within 90 days
b) A letter of assurance from the facilities
manager
c) A letter of assurance from the owner
d) An annotated policy document

Answer 18

d) An annotated policy document

Feature 86, Post-Occupancy Surveys, requires an annotated policy document as part of the documentation.

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT eligible for WELL Certification?

a) A new build-out
b) A commercial interiors office renovation
c) An existing building
d) A residential home

Answer 19

d) A residential home

Residential homes are not currently eligible for WELL Certification.

Question 20

What documentation is required for Feature 43, Artificial Ingredients, Part 1 Artificial Substance Labeling?

a) A narrative
b) An annotated operations schedule
c) A visual inspection
d) A signed letter of assurance from the owner

Answer 20

b) An annotated operations schedule

Documenting Feature 43, Artificial Ingredients, requires an annotated operations schedule as well as an on-site “Spot Check,” which differs from a Visual Inspection. A visual inspection implies that it is the primary means of verification; whereas a spot check implies that the assessor will be doing a quick check onsite to confirm what was already verified though another form of documentation.

Question 21

Which of the following would provide improved acoustic comfort under Feature 81, Sound Barriers?

a) Absorptive surfaces such as wall panels
b) Doors with a hollow core
c) Materials with low Noise Isolation Class (NIC)
d) Air gaps in wall construction

Answer 21

a) Absorptive surfaces such as wall panels

Feature 81, Sound Barriers, addresses three parts: Wall Construction Specifications, Doorway Specifications and Wall Construction Methodology. As part of the feature requirements, projects are encouraged to use materials with a materials with a high Noise Isolation Class (NIC), doors with a non-hollow core, and to reduce air gaps in wall construction. Absorptive materials such as wall panels help to increase NIC.

Question 22

Exposure to pesticides, fertilizers, and herbicides has been linked most strongly to what body system?

a) Immune System
b) Reproductive System
c) Integumentary System
d) Muscular System
e) Skeletal System

Answer 22

b) Reproductive System

According to Feature 33, Agricultural Contaminants, exposure to pesticides, herbicides and fertilizers may negatively impact the following body systems: cardiovascular, digestive, endocrine, nervous, reproductive and urinary. Long-term exposure to glyphosate, a widely used herbicide, may lead to kidney problems and reproductive difficulties.

Question 23

High-touch surfaces such as countertops, bathroom fixtures, handles, light switches and elevator buttons must be cleaned with a UV cleaning device that has an output of at least _________.

a) 2 mW/cm2
b) 4 mW/cm2
c) 5 mW/cm2
d) 8 mW/cm2
e) 10 mW/cm2

Answer 23

b) 4 mW/cm2

As described in Feature 27, Antimicrobial Activity for Surfaces, high-touch surfaces such as countertops, bathroom fixtures, handles, light switches and elevator buttons must be cleaned with a UV cleaning device that has an output of at least 4 mW/cm2.

Question 24

Which standards relate to air leakage testing within the WELL system? (Choose 2)

a) ASHRAE Guideline 0-2005
b) ASHRAE Guideline 43.3 2015
c) ASHRAE Guideline 53 2011
d) The National Institute of Building Sciences (NIBS) Guideline
e) The National Protocol for Air Leakage Testing

Answer 24

a) ASHRAE Guideline 0-2005
d) The National Institute of Building Sciences (NIBS) Guideline

Feature 14, Air Infiltration Management, requires envelop commissioning in accordance with ASHRAE Guideline 0-2005 and the National Institute of Building Sciences (NIBS) Guideline 2-2012 (for new construction or structural renovation).

Question 25

Independent of the portion of the building controlled by the owner, ___ percent of the building must adhere to the requirements of Core and Shell.

a) 85%
b) 90%
c) 95%
d) 100%

Answer 25

d) 100%

Independent of the portion of the building controlled by the owner, 100% of the building must adhere to the requirements of Core and Shell.

Question 26

Which one of the following would meet the requirements for Feature 73, Ergonomics: Visual
and Physical AND Feature 71, Active Furnishings?

a) At least 30% of workstations have some form of adjustable height desk
b) All employees have access to a workstation ergonomics audit by an ergonomics consultant
c) At least 30% of workstations have treadmill desks with adjustable seat heights
d) At least 60% of workstations have adjustable height standing desks
e) All computer screens are adjustable in terms of height and distance from the user

Answer 26

d) At least 60% of workstations have adjustable height standing desks

Under Feature 71, Part 1: Active Furnishings, projects must provide either treadmill desk, bicycle desks and/or portable desk pedal or stepper machines for 3% of employees. Under Feature 71, Part 2: Prevalent Standing Desks, at least 60% of workstations must feature some type of adjustable height standing desks. Under Feature 73, Ergonomics: Visual and Physical, at least 30% of workstations must have some form of adjustable height desks. Providing at least 60% of workstations with some form of adjustable height desks is a strategy that would qualify for both Features.

Question 27

Which Feature is subject to performance testing?

a) Feature 05, Air Filtration
b) Feature 21, Displacement Ventilation
c) Feature 32, Organic Contaminants
d) Feature 43, Artificial Ingredients

Answer 27

c) Feature 32, Organic Contaminants

Of the Features listed, only Feature 32, Organic Contaminants, requires performance testing.

Question 28

The American College of Sports Medicine recommends that all healthy adults engage in at least “ “ of moderate-intensity aerobic activity “ “ per week, and muscle strengthening activities as least “ “ days per week.

a) 15 minutes; 4 days per weeks; 2 days per week
b) 30 minutes; 5 days per weeks; 2 days per week
c) 45 minutes; 3 days per weeks; 2 days per week
d) 1 hour; 2 days per weeks; 2 days per week
e) 45 minutes; 4 days per weeks; 1 days per week

Answer 28

b) 30 minutes; 5 days per weeks; 2 days per week

The American College of Sports Medicine recommends that all healthy adults engage in at least “ 30 “ minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity “ 5 “ per week, and muscle strengthening activities as least “ 2 “ days per week.

Question 29

Which of the following would have the biggest effect on improving employee alertness?

a) Maximize daylight exposure and provide space with 3000K LED lighting
b) Maximize daylight exposure and provide space with 3500K LED lighting
c) Maximize daylight exposure and provide space with 4000K fluorescent lighting
d) Maximize daylight exposure and provide space with 5500K LED lighting

Answer 29

d) Maximize daylight exposure and provide space with 5500K LED lighting.

Color temperature is a way to describe the light appearance provided by a light bulb (lamp). It is measured in degrees of Kelvin (K) on a scale from 1,000 to 10,000. Kelvin temperatures for commercial and residential applications typically fall somewhere on the scale of 2000K to 6500K. A light bulb’s (lamps) color temperature lets us know whet the look and feel of the light produced will be. At the lower end of the scale, from 2000K to 3000K the light produced is called “warm white” and ranges from the orange to yellow-white in appearance. Color temperature between 3100K and 4500K are referred to as “cool white” or “bright white”. Light bulbs (lamps) within this range will emit a more neutral white light and may event have a lightly blue tint. Above 4500K brings us into the “daylight” color temperature of light. Light bulbs (lamps_ with color temperatures of 4500K and above will give off a blue-white light that mimics daylight, thus promoting alertness.

Question 30

Use of a radiant temperature system enhances thermal comfort by _____.

a) Controlling relative humidity levels within the range of 35-45%
b) Separating the ventilation systems from the heating and cooling elements
c) Supplying air from low velocity levels at or near the floor level
d) Improving ventilation effectiveness
e) None of the above

Answer 30

b) Separating the ventilation systems from the heating and cooling elements.

As described in Feature 83, Radiant Thermal Comfort, the benefits of a radiant temperature system include saved floor space, lower dust transportation and increased thermal comfort through the separation of temperature controls and fresh air supply.

Question 31

Which represents the STC specifications for wall construction under Feature 81, Sound Barriers? (Choose 2)

a) Enclosed offices must have a minimum STC of 40 when sound masking system is present
b) Enclosed offices must have a minimum STC of 45 when sound masking system is present
c) Conference rooms must have a minimum STC of 45 on walls adjoining offices or conference rooms
d) Conference rooms must have a minimum STC of 53 on walls adjoining offices or conference rooms

Answer 31

a) Enclosed offices must have a minimum STC of 40 when sound masking system is present
d) Conference rooms must have a minimum STC of 53 on walls adjoining offices or conference rooms

As described in the GreenStep Study Guide, enclosed offices must have a minimum STC of 40 when a sound masking system is present, or minimum STC of 45 when no sound masking system is used. Conference rooms and teleconference rooms must have a minimum STC of 45 when no sound masking system is used. Conference rooms and teleconference rooms must have a minimum STC of 53 on walls adjoining private offices, conference rooms or other teleconference rooms.

Question 32

The project team for a new building has met all of the Preconditions for the WELL Building Standard. Which one of the following could they consider as an Optimization?

a) Feature 54, Circadian Light Design
b) Feature 73, Ergonomics: Visual and Physical
c) Feature 75, Internally Generated Noise
d) Feature 81, Sound Barriers
e) Feature 87, Beauty and Design I

Answer 32

d) Feature 81, Sound Barriers

One tips for remembering which Features are Preconditions as opposed to Optimizations is to memorize the “cutoff” between the two for each of he seven concept categories. For example, in the Comfort section, all Features numbered 77 and higher are Optimizations, including Feature 81, Sound Barriers. In the Light category, all Features 56 and higher are Optimizations (with the exception of Core and Shell projects). In the Mind category, all Features 89 and higher are Optimizations.

Question 33

Which is the definition of reverberation time?

a) The length of time for a sound to decay to 0 dB (inaudible)
b) The length of time for a sound to decay by 60dB from its original level
c) The length of time for a sound to decay by 50% from its original level
d) The length of time for a reflected sound to travel 10 m

Answer 33

b) The length of time for a sound to decay by 60dB from its original level

As described in Feature 78, Reverberation Time, reverberations time (RT60) is a metric that describes the length of time for a sound to decay by 60dB from its original level.

Question 34

In Feature 17, Direct Source Ventilation, to isolate indoor pollution sources, which of the following spaces would NOT need to have all air exhausted so that it is expelled rather than recirculated? (Choose 3)

a) Chemical storage units
b) Loading docks
c) Server rooms
d) Bathrooms
e) Printing & copying rooms
f) Cooking areas

Answer 34

b) Loading docks
c) Server rooms
f) Cooking areas

Feature 17, Direct Source Ventilation addresses air pollution from indoor spaces including chemical storage units, bathrooms, printing and copy rooms.

Question 35

Which of the following items will be most useful to the project team when evaluating an existing building for a new WELL project?

a) Gaps between current building and WELL requirements
b) Site Remediation Report
c) Site Assessment
d) Other WELL projects within the building and the Optimizations they were able to achieve

Answer 35

a) Gaps between current building and WELL requirements

When evaluating an existing building for WELL, a ‘gap analysis’ showing the gap between the current building and WELL requirements will be useful in evaluating whether WELL is possible.

Question 36

Which Feature encourages employees to move workstations within unassigned areas whenever the new area is better suited to their comfort needs at the time?

a) Feature 57, Low-Glare Workstation Design
b) Feature 76, Thermal Comfort
c) Feature 82, Individual Thermal Comfort Control
d) Feature 101, Innovation Feature I

Answer 36

c) Feature 82, Individual Thermal Comfort Control

Requires 50% free address for open offices spaces to allow occupants to select a work space with a desired temperature.

Question 37

Feature 85, Integrative Design, requires which of the following? (Choose 3)

a) Having the project team perform a values assessment
b) Descriptions on how the project will meet at least two of the following features: celebration of culture, integration of public art, celebration of spirit and place
c) Touring the building as a group
d) Discussing how building operations will support adherence to WELL
e) A guide available to all occupants describing the WELL Building Standard

Answer 37

a) Having the project team perform a values assessment
c) Touring the building as a group
d) Discussing how building operations will support adherence to WELL

Feature 85, Integrative Design, requires several strategies including performing a values assessment and alignment exercise within the team to inform any project goals as well as strategies to meet occupant expectations. Upon construction completion, it requires that the designers, owners, managers, and facilities staff must tour the building as a group and discuss how building operations will support adherence to the WELL Building Standard.

Question 38

Which of the following is the most important zeitgeber?

a) Proper diet and nutrition
b) Waking early
c) Daily exercise
d) Getting enough night-time sleep
e) The 24-hour light-dark cycle

Answer 38

e) The 24-hour light-dark cycle

The body responds to a number of zeitgerbers - the external cues that align physiological functions to the solar day in this cycle. Light (the 24-hour light-dark cycle) is the most important of these zeitgerbers, keeping the body’s internal clocks synchronized in a process known as circadian photentrainment.

Question 39

Which is the part of the eye that facilitates peripheral vision and vision in dim lighting conditions with peak sensitivity to green-blue light?

a) Rods
b) Cones
c) Intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells
d) Cornea
e) None of the above

Answer 39

a) Rods

Rods facilitate peripheral vision in dim lighting conditions with peak sensitivity to green-blue light. Cones facilitate daytime vision and color perception.

Question 40

The New and Existing Building typology requires a minimum of ___ percent of the total floor area is occupied by of the building owner and is operated by the same management.

a) 75%
b) 80%
c) 85%
d) 90%

Answer 40

d) 90%

As described in the GreenStep Study Guide and the WELL Building Standard, the New and Existing Building typology requires a minimum of 90% of the total floor area is occupied by the building of the building owner and is operated by the same management.

Question 41

Which of the following individuals may NOT be the WELL AP serving as the WELL Project
Administrator?

a) Owner
b) USGBC staff
c) Architect
d) WELL Assessor

Answer 41

d) WELL Assessor

The WELL Assessor is responsible for reviewing the documentation to ensure compliance. It is a conflict of interest for the WELL Assessor to be the WELL Project Administrator. For example, if the USGBC were pursuing WELL Certification for their offices in Washington DC, a USGBC staffer would likely serve as the WELL Project Administrator, helping take the project through the WELL Certification process. Since the GBCI (Green Building Certification Institute) certifies WELL projects (not the USGBC), this would not be a conflict of interest.

Question 42

According to the WELL guide, in regards to pests and dust mites, which of the following can trigger asthma and allergic reactions?

a) Feces only
b) Their Feces and saliva only
c) Their bodies, feces and saliva
d) Their bodies and feces only

Answer 42

c) Their bodies, feces and saliva

As described under Feature 22, Pest Control, unhygienic conditions lead to the presence of pests and dust mites, which are common sources of indoor allergens, which can trigger asthma and allergic reactions in susceptible individuals.

Question 43

Exposure to polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) via drinking water is NOT closely associated with which of the following?

a) Cancer
b) Skin and airway irritation
c) Nervous system difficulties
d) Immune deficiencies

Answer 43

b) Skin and airway irritation

according to the WELL Guide, exposure to polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) via drinking water is associated with cancer, nervous system difficulties and immune deficiencies.

Question 44

In order to achieve Silver Certification for the WELL Building Standard, ___ percent of applicable Optimizations must be achieved.

a) 0%
b) 5%
c) 10%
d) 15%

Answer 44

a) 0%

As described in the WELL Building Standard, in order to achieve Silver Certification for the WELL Building Standard, none of the applicable Organization must be achieved.

Question 45

An architect is interested in incorporating biophilic design into a building seeking WELL Certification for New and Existing Interiors, and has chosen to include interior plants in the design as part of the Mind Concept. What related Air Feature is most relevant for the architect to take into account?

a) Feature 06, Microbe and Mold Control
b) Feature 10, Pesticide Use
c) Feature 22, Pest Control
d) Feature 23, Advanced Air Purification

Answer 45

b) Feature 10, Pesticide Use

Feature 06, Microbe and Mold Control focuses primarily on managing mold and bacteria on cooling coils. Feature 22, Pest Control focuses primarily on properly storing and sealing food items. Feature 23, Advanced Air Purification requires ultraviolet sanitizers to irradiate bacteria, viruses and mold-spores present in recirculating air. Feature 10, Pesticide Management requires a pesticide and herbicide management plan that encompasses indoor and outdoor plants; therefore, this is the best choice.

Question 46

In addition to Letters of Assurance from the architect and other team members as well as General Documents such as lighting and mechanical drawings, WELL also requires Annotated Documents to document various features. What are the three main types of annotated documents?

a) Design drawings, building operating plan, and mechanical systems narrative
b) Construction drawings, mechanical schedules, and policy documents
c) Design drawings, operation schedules, and policy documents
d) Architectural drawings, equipment submittals, and balancing reports

Answer 46

c) Design drawings, operation schedules, and policy documents

Annotated documents refer to existing project documents that are marked up to provide additional information to indicate how WELL features

Question 47

What type of lighting should be designed in an office training room in order to consistently promote high levels of attention and alertness during the day?

a) Daylight supplemented by 3500K electric lighting
with a CRI of 96
b) Daylight supplemented by 6500K electric lighting
with a CRI of 60
c) 4000K electric lighting only with a CRI of 87
d) Daylight only

Answer 47

b) Daylight supplemented by 6500K electric lighting
with a CRI of 60

Spaces that will be used during the day as well as during the night require electric lighting in addition to daylight. In general, lighting with temperature values in the range of 5000K to 6500K is encouraged as it more closely resembles daylight and promotes alertness. Color Rendering Index (CRI) affects color saturating (not temperature) and is relatively independent of alertness according to WELL.

Question 48

Which of the following represents the cleaning requirements of dispensers that provide water for human consumption?

a) Daily for mouthpieces, weekly for outlet screens and aerators
b) Daily for mouthpieces, months for outlet screens and aerators
c) Weekly for mouthpieces, monthly for outlet screens and aerators
d) Weekly for mouthpieces, quarterly for outlet screens and aerators
e) Daily for mouthpieces, quarterly for outlet screens and aerators

Answer 48

e) Daily for mouthpieces, quarterly for outlet screens and aerators

As described in the WELL guide in regards to cleaning dispensers that provide water for human consumption, dispensers must be cleaned daily for mouthpieces and quarterly for outlet screens and aerators.

Question 49

Which of the following Features is a Precondition?

a) Feature 11, Fundamental Material Safety
b) Feature 66, Structured Fitness Opportunities
c) Feature 81, Sound Barriers
d) Feature 95, Stress and Addiction Treatment

Answer 49

a) Feature 11, Fundamental Material Safety

Of the features listed only, Feature 11, Fundamental Material Safety is a Precondition.

Question 50

Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation, ultraviolet sanitization and ultraviolet light are addressed by which of the following features? (Choose 3)

a) Microbe and Mold Control
b) Air Filtration
c) Cleaning Protocol
d) Advanced Air Purification
e) Fundamental Material Safety
f) Antimicrobial Activity for Surfaces
g) Moisture Management

Answer 50

a) Microbe and Mold Control
d) Advanced Air Purification
f) Antimicrobial Activity for Surfaces

As outlined in the GreenStep Study Guide, Feature 06, Microbe and Mold Control utilizes ultraviolet germicidal irradiation, Feature 23, Advanced Air Purification utilizes ultraviolet sanitizers, and Feature 27, Antimicrobial Activity for Surfaces utilizes ultraviolet light.

Question 51

Carbon filters remove which of the following?

a) VOCs only
b) Ozone only
c) VOCs and ozone
d) None of the above

Answer 51

c) VOCs and ozone

Under Feature 23, Advanced Air Purification, carbon filters remove VOCs and ozone.

Question 52

What documentation is required for Feature 05, Air Filtration to verify that filters have been properly maintained?

a) A letter of assurance from the MEP engineer
b) An annotated document from the MEP engineer
c) A visual inspection from the contractor
d) A spot check from the contractor

Answer 52

a) A letter of assurance from the MEP engineer

Feature 05, Air Filtration requires Letters of Assurance from the MEP Engineer as well as an Operations Schedule, presumably from the facilities team. Answer ‘b’ could also be considered correct, but since it describes an ‘annotated document’ instead of specifically referencing the Operations Schedule, it is not the best choice.

Question 53

Which Precondition applies to Core and Shell as well as New and Existing Building projects?

a) Feature 64, Interior Fitness Circulation
b) Feature 65, Activity Incentive Programs
c) Feature 66, Structured Fitness Opportunities
d) Feature 67, Exterior Active Design

Answer 53

a) Feature 64, Interior Fitness Circulation

When studying for the exam, it is useful to memorize the cutoff number that separates Optimizations from Preconditions for each section. In the Fitness section, Feature 64 is the only Precondition that applies to New and Existing Buildings and Core and Shell projects. Feature 65 applies to New and Existing Buildings, but not Core and Shell buildings since there are no occupants for Core and Shell projects.

Question 54

A project team is pursuing WELL Certification on a new building located in a region with high levels of fine particulate matter in the ambient air. What filtration type should the building have in the outdoor ventilation system to comply with the WELL Standard?

a) Carbon
b) UVG
c) Reverse osmosis
d) MERV 13

Answer 54

d) MERV 13

According to Feature 05, Air Filtration, carbon filters are designed to absorb volatile pollutants and remove the largest particles, while media filters (such as MERV 13) are meant to address smaller particles.

Question 55

When designing the interior of an open office to meet the WELL Building Standard, plans should _____.

a) Exclude all noisy equipment
b) Not consider reverberation times
c) Include the location from which traffic noise may originate
d) Create separate spaces for all noisy equipment

Answer 55

d) Create separate spaces for all noisy equipment

Feature 81, Sound Barriers aim to increase acoustic comfort by reducing sound transmission from adjacent spaces. Creating a separate space for noisy equipment would help increase acoustic comfort.

Question 56

According to the WELL Building Standard, which strategy must be used to reduce VOCs in buildings while simultaneously recirculating indoor air?

a) Implement shared outdoor air system
b) Ultraviolet germicidal radiation
c) Install activated carbon filters in the main air ducts
d) Operable Windows
e) MERV 13 Filters or greater

Answer 56

c) Install activated carbon filters in the main air ducts

As described under Feature 23, Advanced Air Purification, installing activated carbon filters in the main air ducts reduces VOCs in the indoor air. Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation and photocatalytic oxidation also treat recirculated air, but they don’t specifically target VOCs.

Question 57

Feature 62, Daylight Modeling describes minimum levels of natural lighting in spaces, while placing a cap on inappropriately high levels of sunlight. For an office that is 100 square meters, how many square meters of the space can be over 1,000 lux for 250 hours per year and still comply with the requirements of this feature?

a) 10 square meters
b) 20 square meters
c) 30 square meters
d) 40 square meters
e) 50 square meters

Answer 57

a) 10 square meters

Feature 62, Daylight Modeling sets limits on inappropriately high levels of daylight, requiring that annual sunlight exposure is achieved for no more than 10% of regularly occupied space. In other words, no more than 10% of the area can receive more than 1000 Lux for 250 hours each year. 10% of 100 square meters is 10.

Question 58

Which of the following Features in the Comfort Concept would be most applicable for possible synergies with Feature 89, Adaptable Spaces?

a) Feature 81, Sound Barriers, Feature 82, Individual Thermal Comfort, and Feature 75, Internally Generated Noise
b) Feature 73, Ergonomics: Visual and Physical
c) Feature 81, Sound Barriers
d) Feature 81, Sound Barriers and Feature 82, Individual Thermal Comfort

Answer 58

a) Feature 81, Sound Barriers, Feature 82, Individual Thermal Comfort, and Feature 75, Internally Generated Noise

Feature 89, Adaptable Spaces addresses Noise Criteria as well as designated collaboration zones and spaces utilization. Features 81, Sound Barriers and Feature 75, Internally Generated Noise also address noise while Feature 82, Individual Thermal Comfort addresses space utilization.

Question 59

What are three strategies used to meet Optimization Feature 23, Advanced Air Purification, for new and existing buildings? (Choose 3)

a) Activated carbon filters
b) MERV 13 Filters
c) Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation
d) Records of air filtration/sanitization maintenance
e) Compliance with ASHRAE 62.1

Answer 59

a) Activated carbon filters
c) Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation
d) Records of air filtration/sanitization maintenance

Feature 23, Advanced Purification addresses three parts: carbon filtration, air sanitization and air quality maintenance. Within these three parts, strategies include activated carbon filters, ultraviolet germicidal irradiation and records of air filtration/sanitization maintenance.

Question 60

Which of the following WELL Features below requires a performance test to be conducted on-site by the WELL Assessor?

a) Feature 18, Air Quality Monitoring and Feedback
b) Feature 21, Displacement Ventilation
c) Feature 24, Combustion Minimization
d) Feature 75, Internally Generated Noise
e) Feature 81, Sound Barriers

Answer 60

d) Feature 75, Internally Generated Noise

Of the Features listed, only Feature 75, Internally Generated Noise requires a performance test on site. The other Features require Letters of Assurance and/or Spot Checks.

Question 61

Which outdoor air measurements would discourage occupants from opening windows? (Choose 3)

a) Ozone levels exceed 51 ppb
b) PM10 levels of 50μg/m3
c) Temperature of 8°C above or below set indoor temperature
d) Relative humidity below 60%
e) Carbon dioxide levels exceed the given thresholds

Answer 61

a) Ozone levels exceed 51 ppb
b) PM10 levels of 50μg/m3
c) Temperature of 8°C above or below set indoor temperature

Feature 19, Operable Windows, Part 2: Outdoor Air Measurement requires occupants to be alerted if either (i) Ozone levels exceed 51 ppb, (ii) PM10 levels of 50μg/m3, or (iii) temperature is 8°C above or below set indoor temperature.

Question 62

Which represent general types of verification for WELL Features? (Choose 3)

a) Letters of Assurance
b) Credit Forms
c) Annotated Documents
d) On-Site Checks
e) Alternative Adherence Paths
f) Material Safety and Data Sheets

Answer 62

a) Letters of Assurance
c) Annotated Documents
d) On-Site Checks

The three general types of verification for WELL features include Letters of Assurance, Annotated Documents and On-Site Checks.

Question 63

Of the following types of building uses, which may the WELL Building Standard v.1 be applied to? (Select the correct two answers)

a) Commercial
b) Residential
c) Industrial
d) Institutional

Answer 63

a) Commercial
d) Institutional

As described in the WELL Building Standard, the WELL Building Standard v.1 may be applied to 2 types of building uses: 1) Commercial and 2) New and Existing Interiors, for WELL Certification. Future refinements will address the specific requirements of multifamily residences, retail and restaurants, sports facilities and convention centers, schools and healthcare facilities. Projects representing these building sectors are invited to join the ongoing pilot program.

Question 64

Which of the following processes keeps the body’s internal clocks
synchronized?

a) Zeitgeber
b) Circadian photoentrainment
c) Light-response mechanism
d) Photosensitive rhythms
e) None of the above

Answer 64

b) Circadian photoentrainment

Circadian photoentrainment is the process that keeps the body’s internal clocks synchronized as described in the Background section of the Light Concept.

Question 65

According to the WELL Guide, what is the definition of obese?

a) BMI over 20
b) BMI over 25
c) BMI over 30
d) BMI over 35
e) BMI over 40

Answer 65

c) BMI over 30

According to the WELL Guide in the Background section of the Nourishment concept, a Body Mass Index of over 30 is considered overweight.

Question 66

When sanding existing paint off of old walls, which of the following is a neurotoxin that the contractors and owners must remediate as part of Feature 11, Fundamental Material Safety?

a) Lead
b) Asbestos
c) Particulate matter
d) Mercury
e) Styrene

Answer 66

a) Lead

Exposure to lead can have neurotoxic effects, even at low levels, and in early development is associates with negative effects on memory, IQ, learning, and behavior.

Question 67

According to the WELL Guide, exposure to which of the following may lead to mesothelioma?

a) Lead
b) Asbestos
c) Mold
d) Atrazine
e) Glyphosate
f) PCBs
g) Halogenated Flame Retardants

Answer 67

b) Asbestos

As indicated by Feature 11, Fundamental Material Safety,
exposure to asbestos can lead to mesothelioma.

Question 68

What is the minimum visual transmittance (VT) for glazing located below 2.1 m (7 ft) or lower from the floor?

a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 50%
d) 60%

Answer 68

c) 50%

Feature 63, Daylighting Fenestration requires that all glazing located higher than 2.1 m (7ft) from the floor (Daylight Glass) must have a VT if 60% or more. All glazing located 2.1m (7ft) of lower from the floor (Vision Glass) must have a visual light transmittance of 50% or more.

Question 69

According to the WELL Building Standard, lack of physical activity can increase the odds of having a stroke by _____?

a) 10-15%
b) 10-20%
c) 15-20%
d) 20-30%
e) 25-35%

Answer 69

d) 20-30%

According to the WELL Guide, lack of physical activity can increase the odds of having a stroke by 20-30%

Question 70

What are the requirements regarding Lease Depth with respect to WELL?

a) The depth of the floor plate must be no more than 200 feet
b) The depth of the floor plate must be no more than 150 feet
c) The depth of the floor plate must be less than twice the length of the floor plate
d) The depth of the floor plate must be less than three times the length of the floor
plate
e) 75% of regularly occupied areas must be within 25 feet of a view window

Answer 70

e) 75% of regularly occupied areas must be within 25 feet of a view window

Under feature 61, Right to Light, Part 1: Lease Depth requires that 75% of the area of all regularly occupied spaces be within 7.5 m (25 ft2) of view windows)

Question 71

Feature 23, Advanced Air Purification requires which of the following documentation?

a) Records of air filtration/sanitization maintenance
b) Signature from the contractor
c) Signature from the building owner
d) Plans showing location, make and model numbers of equipment used

Answer 71

a) Records of air filtration/sanitization maintenance

Feature 23, Advanced Purification under the Air Quality Maintenance part, requires records of air filtration/sanitization maintenance, including evidence that the filter and/or sanitizer has been properly maintained as per the manufacturer’s recommendations.

Question 72

Which of the following lamps would most likely have the greatest positive effect on the body’s circadian cycle, if they are all equal visual brightness?

a) A 6200 K white fluorescent lamp (CRI 60)
b) A red LED
c) An incandescent lamp with a CRI of 85
d) An incandescent lamp with a CRI of 90

Answer 72

a) A 6200 K white fluorescent lamp (CRI 60)

Lights with a temperature range between 5000K and 6500K have the greatest effect on the body’s circadian cycle (during the day) since it most closely resembles natural daylight and promotes alertness. Color Rendering Index (CRI) does not have an effect on the circadian rhythm according to WELL. On a side note, we do not agree with the working of this question sine daylight lamps only have a positive effect on our body’s circadian rhythm during the day; during the evening, they could have a negative effect. The wording of the question is intentional to best reflect the actual exam.

Question 73

Which is NOT a requirement of Processed Foods, Part 1: Refined Ingredient Restrictions? (Choose 4)

a) No beverage with more than 30g of sugar per container is sold or distributed through catering services, vending machines or pantries.
b) In beverage vending machines and on food service menus, at least 50% of slots or listings are products that have 15g of sugar or less per 240 mL serving
c) No individually sold, single-serving, non-beverage food items contain more than 30g of sugar
d) In any foods where a grain flour is the primary ingredient by weight, a whole grain must be the primary ingredient
e) No partially hydrogenated oil

Answer 73

e) No partially hydrogenated oil

This is a tricky question. Partially hydrogenated oil is banned under Feature 39, Processed Foods, Part 2: Trans Fat Ban, not under Part 1: Refined Ingredient Restrictions.

Question 74

What is the requirement of Feature 27, Antimicrobial Activity for Surfaces?

a) Utilize vacuum cleaners with HEPA filters
b) Clean surfaces with a UV device that has an output of at least 4 mW/cm2
c) Clean surfaces with mops, rags, and dusters that consist of microfiber with a denier of 1.0
or less
d) Utilize floor scrubbers that incorporate water-based solvents

Answer 74

b) Clean surfaces with a UV device that has an output of at least 4 mW/cm2

Feature 27, Antimicrobial Activity for Surfaces requires that high-touch surfaces such as kitchen countertops, bathroom sinks, handles, and doorknobs, must be cleaned with a UV cleaning device that has an output of at least 4 mW/cm2.

Question 75

A celebration of place counts towards which WELL Building Feature?

a) Feature 85, Integrative Design
b) Feature 87, Beauty and Design I
c) Feature 89, Adaptable Spaces
d) Feature 101, Innovation I
e) Feature 102, Innovation II

Answer 75

b) Feature 87, Beauty and Design I

As described in the GreenStep Study Guide, Feature 87, Beauty and Design I, requires that the project contain features intended for all of the following: human delight, celebration of place, and meaningful integration of public art.

Question 76

According to Feature 81, Sound Barriers, which of the following reduce air gaps and limit sound transmission for interior walls? (Choose 3)

a) Properly sealing all acoustically rated partitions at the top and bottom tracks
b) Using non-hollow cores
c) Dual pane glazing
d) Staggering all gypsum boards
e) Packing and sealing all penetrations through the wall

Answer 76

a) Properly sealing all acoustically rated partitions at the top and bottom tracks
d) Staggering all gypsum boards
e) Packing and sealing all penetrations through the wall

Under Feature 81, Sound Barriers, Part 3: Wall Construction Methodology, all interior walls enclosing regularly occupied spaces are constructed for optimal performance by reducing air gaps and limiting sound transmission through the following: properly sealing all acoustically rated partitions at the top and bottom tracks, staggering all gypsum board seems, and packing and sealing all penetrations through the wall.

Question 77

Under Feature 81, Sound Barriers, enclosed offices must meet a minimum STC of _____ when no sound masking system is present; conference rooms must meet a minimum STC of _____ on walls adjoining private offices and conference rooms.

a) 35; 40
b) 40; 45
c) 40; 53
d) 45; 53

Answer 77

d) 45; 53

As described in the GreenSteop Study Guide, enclosed offices must have a minimum STC of 40 when a sound masking system is present, or minimum STC of 45 when no sound masking system is used. Conference rooms and teleconference rooms must have a minimum STC of 53 on walls adjoining private offices, conference rooms or other teleconference rooms.

Question 78

Health literacy is defined by the Institute of Medicine as being “the degree to which individuals can obtain, process, and understand the basic health information and services they need to _____.

a) Exercise regularly, eat healthy and get proper sleep
b) Understand the principles of basic nutrition and exercise
c) Lead a healthy lifestyle
d) Educate their community
e) Make appropriate health decisions

Answer 78

e) Make appropriate health decisions

Health literacy is defined by the institute of medicine’s report as being “the degree to which individuals have the capacity to obtain, process, and understand basic health information and services needed to make appropriate health decisions.” More recent definitions focus on specific skills needed to navigate the health care system and the importance of clear communication between health care providers and their patients.

Question 79

Which are the main photoreceptors for daytime vision, located on the retina of the human eye?

a) Rods
b) Cone cells
c) Intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells
d) Cornea
e) None of the above

Answer 79

b) Cone cells

Cone cells are the main photoreceptors for daytime vision, located in the retina of the human eye.

Question 80

What does ipRGC stand for?

a) Intracellular photosensitive retina gland cells
b) Intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells
c) Intracellular photosensitive retinal growth cells
d) Intracellular photosensitive retinal gambus cells
e) None of the above

Answer 80

b) Intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells

Question 81

An architect is designing a new office space for a technology company. The client is very engaged in the process and has chosen interior finishes that meet their aesthetic preferences. Unfortunately, the selected finishes do not meet the specific requirements of Feature 97, Material Transparency. What could the architect do to ensure that the requirements of Feature 97 are met while also meeting the desires of the client?

a) Search for another third-party product certification that might apply to the finishes that the client has selected
b) Eliminate 50% of all finishes that do not have a Declare Label or HPD
c) Find similar finishes to the ones preferred bu the client so that at least 50% (as measured by cost) have a Declare Label or HPD
d) Submit a Non-Compliance Statement explaining why the project is unable to meet the Feature’s Optimization requirement.

Answer 81

c) Find similar finishes to the ones preferred by the client so that at least 50% (as measured by cost) have a Declare Label or HPD.

According to Feature 97, Materials Transparency, Part 1: Material Information, at least 50% (as measured by cost) of interior finishes and finish materials, furnishings (including workstations) and built-in furniture must possess some combination of the following material descriptions: a Declare Label, a Health Product Declaration and/or any method accepted in USGBC’s LEED v4 MR credit: Building Product Disclosure and Optimization - Material Ingredients, Option 1: material ingredient reporting.

Question 82

Achievement of which of the following Optimization Features requires a policy document?

a) Feature 66, Structured Fitness Activities
b) Feature 68, Physical Activity Spaces
c) Feature 69, Active Transportation Support
d) Feature 71, Active Furnishings
e) Feature 73, Ergonomics Visual and Physical

Answer 82

a) Feature 66, Structured Fitness Activities

Feature 66, Structured Fitness Activities requires an onsite fitness training program offered once a month as well as fitness education offered at least once every 3 months; it also requires a policy document as verification. Feature 68, Physical Activity Spaces requires an architectural drawing and annotated map. Feature 69, Active Transportation Support requires a letter of assurance and spot check. Feature 71, Active Furnishings requires a letter of assurance and spot check. Feature 73, Ergonomics: Visual and Physical requires a letter of assurance and a spot check.

Question 83

What is the Standard limit for VOCs in furniture and furnishings that will satisfy the requirements for Feature 04, VOC Reduction?

a) 95% (by weigh only) of ANSI/BIFMA e3-2011
b) 95% (by cost) of ANSI/BIFMA e3-2011
c) 95% (by volume only) of ANSI/BIFMA e3-2011
d) 95% (by weight or volume) of ANSI/BIFMA e3-2011

Answer 83

b) 95% (by cost) of ANSI/BIFMA e3-2011

Feature 04, VOC Reduction, Part 5: Furniture and Furnishings states that the VOC content of at least 95% (by cost) of all newly purchased furniture and furnishings within the project scope must meet all limits set by ANSI/BIFMA e3-2011 Furniture Sustainability Standards.

Question 84

According to the WELL Guide, exposure to even minute amounts of “ X “ and “ X “ has been linked to “ X “ and “ X” in adults.

a) Benzene; atrazine; high blood pressure; kidney problems
b) Lead; mercury; high blood pressure; kidney problems
c) Chlorine; chloramine; digestive issues; kidney problems

Answer 84

b) Lead; mercury; high blood pressure; kidney problems

According to Feature 31, Inorganic Contaminants, exposure to even minute amounts of certain metals such as lead and mercury through drinking water has been linked to developmental delays and deficits in learning abilities in children as well as high blood pressure and kidney problems in adults.

Question 85

Which of the following are Preconditions for New and Existing Interiors Projects? (Choose 3)

a) Feature 14, Air infiltration management
b) Feature 35, Periodic Water Quality Testing
c) Feature 45, Food Advertising
d) Feature 57, Low-Glare Workstation Design
e) Feature 65, Activity Incentive Programs
f) Feature 77, Olfactory Comfort
g) Feature 87, Beauty and Design I

Answer 85

c) Feature 45, Food Advertising
e) Feature 65, Activity Incentive Programs
g) Feature 87, Beauty and Design I

For the WELL exams, it’s important to know which Features are Preconditions vs Optimizations. The easiest way to remember is to memorize the number relating to the last Pre-Condition in each section. For the example, the last Precondition in each section typically corresponds with the following numbers: Air-12; Water-34; Nourishment-45; Light-56; Fitness-65; Comfort-76, Mind-88.

Question 86

Who is responsible for drafting the Letter of Assurance under Feature 37, Drinking Water Promotion to verify drinking water access?

a) Architect
b) Tenant and building engineer
c) Property manager and water balancer
d) Plumbing contractor and commissioning agent

Answer 86

a) Architect

Under Feature 37, Drinking Water Promotion, the Architect is responsible for drafting the Letter of Assurance to document Part 2: Dinking Water Access. This information is provided in the Appendix of the WELL Building Standard; however, we do not recommend trying to memorize all of the documentation requirements listed in the Appendix as it would be way too much information. If you know the requirements and strategies associated with each Feature, then you should be able to select who would likely be responsible for documenting each Feature.

Question 87

How many features in the WELL standards address some form of flare control

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
e) 4

Answer 87

e) 4

There are four features in the Light concept that address glare control: Feature 55, Electric Light Glare Control; Feature 56, Solar Glare Control; Feature 57, Low-Glare Workstation; and Feature 60, Automated Shading and Dimming Controls.

Question 88

Which would meet the requirements of Feature 37, Drinking Water Promotion?

a) Test water quality semi-annually for dissolved metals
b) Install a water dispenser every 30 m (100ft) within the space
c) Zero plastic water bottles in the space
d) Install reverse osmosis water filters on all water fountains
e) Install carbon filters on all water fountains

Answer 88

b) Install a water dispenser every 30 m (100ft) within the space

Feature 37, Drinking Water Promotion requires limits on dissolved metals as well as water dispenser installed every 30 meters within the space. In regards to dissolved metals, they do not need to be tested semi-annually.

Question 89

What documentation is required for Feature 71, Active Furnishings?

a) The designer must prepare annotated architectural drawings
b) The designer must submit a letter of assurance
c) The WELL assessor will perform a visual inspection
d) The WELL assessor will perform a spot check

Answer 89

d) The WELL assessor will perform a spot check

Feature 71, Active Furnishings requires that the Owner submit a Letter of Assurance and the WELL Assessor perform a Spot Check. A visual inspection implies that it is the primary means of verification; whereas a spot check implies that the assessor will be doing a quick check onsite to confirm what was already verified through another form of documentation.

Question 90

Which features specifically address PM10 within the WELL system (Choose 3)

a) Operable Windows
b) Air Quality Standards
c) Combustion Minimization
d) Direct Source Ventilation
e) Air Filtration
f) Increased Ventilation

Answer 90

a) Operable Windows
b) Air Quality Standards
e) Air Filtration

Feature 19, Operable Windows, Feature 01, Air Quality Standards and Feature 05, air Filtration all specifically address PM10. PM10 is particulate matter with a mean aerodynamic diameter of 10 μg.

Question 91

According to the WELL Guide, which of the following is true?

a) Just 2 hours of moderate-intensity physical activity per week can reduce the overall mortality rate by nearly 10%
b) Just 2.5 hours of moderate-intensity physical activity per week can reduce the overall mortality rate by nearly 20%
c) Just 1.5 hours of moderate-intensity physical activity per week can reduce the overall, mortality risk by nearly 15%
d) Just 3 hours of moderate-intensity physical activity per week can reduce the overall mortality risk nearly 25%
e) Just 2 hours of moderate-intensity physical activity per week can reduce the overall mortality risk by nearly 25%

Answer 91

b) Just 2.5 hours of moderate-intensity physical activity per week can reduce the overall mortality rate by nearly 20%

According to Feature 65, Activity Incentive Programs, just 2.5 hours of moderate-intensity physical activity per week can reduce the overall mortality risk by nearly 20%.

Question 92

An office space includes floor to ceiling windows that provide 100 lux of daylight (melanopic ratio 1.10) for at least four hours per day for 75% of workstations. Which of the following is true in regards to Feature 54, Circadian Design?

a) The project cannot use the bay window in its lighting models because they do not provide light for 100% if workstations
b) The project cannot use the skylights in its lighting models because they do not provide light for 100% of workstations
c) The project can meet the Circadian Lighting Feature if it also provides workstations with 350 lux from a 3000K fluorescent source (melanopic ratio 0.45)
d) The project can meet the Circadian Lighting Feature if it also provides workstations with 200 lux from a 4800K LED source melanopic ratio 0.6)

Answer 92

c) The project can meet the Circadian Lighting Feature if it also provides workstations with 350 lux from a 3000K fluorescent source (melanopic ratio 0.45)

Feature 54, Circadian Light Design promotes lighting environments for circadian health. It uses Equivalent Melanopic Lux (EML) as a unit of measurement. The Equivalent Melanopic Lux is a measure of light’s effects on the circadian cycle and determines how interior lighting can support the circadian funition. Light sources with a higher blue component (“cooler” lights with an appearance closer to daylight) will produce more equivalent melanopic lux for a given visual lux output. To calculate EML, multiply the visual lux (L) by a specific ‘melanopic ratio’ (R) for a given light source. As an example, 20 lux from a source with a melanopic ratio of 0.6 would produce an EML of 120 (200x0.6). In the case of the correct answer, 350 lux from a light source with a melanopic ratio of 0.45 would equal 157.5 EML. Feature 54, Circadian Light Design requires an EML of at least 250 for 75% or more of workstations for at least 4 hours per day. Given that the office receives 100 lux of daylight with a melanopic ratio of 1. (EML=110), answer “c” is correct because it provides the minimum 200 EML required (110+157.5).

Question 93

Which is associated with heart failure, hypertension, coronary heart disease, and colorectal and breast cancers? (Choose 2)

a) High intake of red meat
b) High intake of processed meat
c) Low fruit consumption
d) Low vegetable consumption
e) Poor water quality
f) Air pollution

Answer 93

a) High intake of red meat
b) High intake of processed meat

According to the WELL Guide, high intake of red and processed meat is associated with heart failure, hypertension, coronary heart disease, and colorectal and breast cancers.

Question 94

Feature 42, Food Contamination requires which of the following?

a) All employees wash hands before returning to work
b) All employees wear gloves when handling raw meat
c) Separation of raw foods from prepared foods in preparation and storage areas
d) All vegetables and fruits must be washed before being stored in the same location
e) Temperature in all refrigerators containing raw meat are kept below 50 degrees Farenheit (10 degrees Celsius)

Answer 94

c) Separation of raw foods from prepared foods in preparation and storage areas

Feature 42, Food Contamination requires the separation of raw foods from prepared foods in preparation and storage areas to reduce the risk of pathogen cross-contamination.

Question 95

What documentation is required for Feature 36, Water Treatment in order to verify ongoing optimal water quality?

a) Results from monthly water testing
b) Results from quarterly testing
c) Three years of annual record keeping and maintenance logs per the manufacturer’s requirements, provided to IWBI
d) Monthly record keeping along with the preventative maintenance plan

Answer 95

c) Three years of annual record keeping and maintenance logs per the manufacturer’s requirements, provided to IWBI

Under Feature 36, Water Treatment, Part 4: Water Quality Maintenance, to verify that the selected filtration/sanitization system chosen continues to operate as designed, projects must annually provide IWBI with record-keeping for a minimum of 3 years, including evidence that the filter and/or sanitizer has been properly maintained as per the manufacturer’s recommendations.

Question 96

Which one of the following Features has cross-over with Feature 88 Biophilia I - Qualitative, Part 1, Nature Incorporation?

a) Feature 08, Healthy Entrance
b) Feature 20, Outdoor Air Systems
c) Feature 61, Right to Light
d) Feature 76, Thermal Comfort

Answer 96

c) Feature 61, Right to Light

Feature 88, Biophilia and Feature 61, Right to Light both focus on natural lighting in the space.

Question 97

Which type of filter is required to filter particles under Feature 05, Air Filtration?

a) MERV 8
b) MERV 13
c) MERV 15
d) None of the above

Answer 97

b) MERV 13

MERV 13 (or higher) media filters must be used in the ventilation system to meet the requirements for Feature 05, Air Filtration.

Question 98

Which of the following must be monitored in the outdoor air when operable windows are used? (Choose 4)

a) Humidity
b) PM10
c) PM2.5
d) Temperature
e) Ozone
f) Carbon Dioxide

Answer 98

a) Humidity
b) PM10
d) Temperature
e) Ozone

As described in the GreenStep Study Guide under Feature 19, Operable Windows, the following must be monitored: ozone, PM10, temperature and humidity.

Question 99

The WELL Building Standard aims to help address the global burden of mental-health illnesses and substance use disorders which account for approximately how many disability-adjusted life years (DALYs)

a) 8.0 million
b) 8.6 million
c) 175 million
d) 184 million

Answer 99

d) 184 million

The global burden of mental health illness is significant. According to the WELL Guide, in 2010, mental illnesses and substance use disorders accounted for nearly 184 million disability-adjusted life years (DALYs), 8.6 million years of life lost to premature mortality (YLL) and over 175 million years lived with disability (YLD) worldwide.

Question 100

Which term represents the location of the main mammalian 24-hour circadian clock

a) The suprachiasmatic nucleus
b) The intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells
c) The cornea
d) Rods
e) Cones

Answer 100

a) The suprachiasmatic nucleus

The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is a tiny region of the brain in the hypothalamus. It is responsible for controlling circadian rhythms. The neuronal and hormonal activities it generates regulate many different body functions in a 24-hour cycle. Destruction of the SCN results in the complete absence of a regular sleep-wake rhythm. The SCN (“rods” and “cones”) that are use for the conventional vision. But the retina also contains specializing ganglion cells that are directly photosensitive, and project directly to the SCN, where they help in the entrainment (synchronization) of this master circadian clock.