Greenlight 2 Flashcards

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1
Q
A registered representative is provided with the following financial information concerning a company: Debt of $225 million, par value of the common stock $40 million, paid-in capital of $70 million, and retained earnings of $750 million. The debt-to-equity ratio is:
QID: 1893486Mark For Review
A
21%
B   
26%
C
74%
D
79%
A

B
26%

The debt-to-equity is found by dividing the dollar amount of debt (bonds) by the dollar amount of shareholder equity (common stock + paid-in capital + retained earnings). The debt-to-equity ratio is 26% ($225 million / [the par value of the common stock is $40 million + paid-in capital of $70 million + retained earnings of $750 million = $860 million]). The debt-to-equity ratio is used to analyze the capital structure of a company.

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2
Q

All of the following actions may create a taxable event, EXCEPT?
QID: 1893462Mark For Review
A
An investor liquidates her mutual fund shares and reinvests the proceeds in a different fund in the same family
B
A dividend is paid but the investor forgoes the cash and chooses to reinvest the funds in additional shares of the same fund
C
An individual receives the death benefit from her father’s variable annuity
D
Rolling the funds of one annuity into another annuity

A

Rolling the funds of one annuity into another annuity

Switching from one mutual fund to another in the same family is considered by the IRS to be a sale of an existing asset and a new purchase. This would generate a taxable event. Reinvestments in the same fund are still taxable but add to a client’s cost basis. An annuity death benefit may generate a taxable event for the recipient if she receives an amount above the contributions put into the contract by the deceased. Section 1035 of the IRS code does allow the transferring of assets from one annuity contract into another annuity contract without tax liability.

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3
Q
An investor buys a 5% municipal bond at 102 1/2. The bond has a yield-to-maturity of 4 1/2%. If the investor holds the bond to maturity, he will have a loss for tax purposes of:
QID: 1893404Mark For Review
A   
0
B
$25
C   
$50
D
$100
A

0

The IRS requires that a premium paid for a municipal bond be amortized over the life of the bond. At maturity, the investor will have an adjusted cost (after amortization) of par ($1,000). Since this is the amount received at maturity, there is no loss for tax purposes.

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4
Q

Which of the following statements about a closed-end investment company is TRUE?
QID: 1893492Mark For Review
A
It is continuously issuing new shares
B
It may be redeemed by the issuing investment company
C
It is traded in the open market at its current market price
D
It may only issue common stock

A

It is traded in the open market at its current market price

The only true statement regarding a closed-end investment company is that it is traded in the open market at its current market price. All of the other statements apply to an open-end investment company.

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5
Q

All of the following statements are TRUE as far as call option writers are concerned, EXCEPT:
QID: 1893402Mark For Review
A
All profitable closing transactions are taxed as capital gains
B
Premiums received from unexercised options are treated as capital gains
C
All unprofitable closing transactions are allowed as an ordinary loss deduction from income
D
The dollar amount of the premium received is deducted from the cost price of the underlying security to determine the covered call writer’s breakeven point

A

All unprofitable closing transactions are allowed as an ordinary loss deduction from income

All of the statements concerning call option writers are true except all unprofitable closing transactions are allowed as an ordinary loss deduction from income. This is not true because they are subject to the maximum $3,000 capital loss restrictions

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6
Q
For investors who own agency-backed CMOs, which of the following risks are LEAST important in a rising interest-rate environment?
QID: 1893414Mark For Review
A   
Prepayment risk and credit risk
B
Extension risk and credit risk
C   
Prepayment risk and interest-rate risk
D
Extension risk and interest-rate risk
A

Prepayment risk and credit risk

Prepayment risk is associated with a falling (not rising) interest-rate environment in which mortgage holders refinance or repay their mortgages at a faster rate. Therefore, the holder of a CMO receives a larger portion of the principal earlier than anticipated and is forced to reinvest at lower rates. Many CMOs are created from government agency mortgage-backed securities (MBS), which have a minimal amount of credit risk. However, for CMOs that are constructed without this backing, credit risk is a greater concern. As is true for most fixed-income securities, CMOs carry interest-rate risk. Extension risk, which is the opposite of prepayment risk, is prevalent when interest rates are rising and the CMO holders receive a smaller portion of their principal back. As a result, the LEAST important factors in a rising interest rate environment are prepayment risk and credit risk.

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7
Q

From the issuer’s perspective, when comparing serial bonds to term bonds, serial bonds have:
QID: 1893451Mark For Review
A
Declining interest payments and declining principal amounts
B
Increasing interest payments and increasing principal amounts
C
Stable interest payments and stable principal amounts
D
Stable interest payments and declining principal payments

A

Declining interest payments and declining principal amounts

Serial bonds have several (a series of) maturity dates with a lower amount of debt outstanding as time goes by. Each series of bonds will have declining interest payments and declining principal amounts. In comparison, term bonds have one maturity date (i.e., the entire principal balance is paid on one date) and have stable interest payments.

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8
Q
An auction rate security is a type of investment that has the interest rate or dividend rate reset periodically. The term net clearing rate refers to the:
QID: 1893429Mark For Review
A
Average rate of all submitted bids
B
Highest rate to match supply and demand
C   
Lowest rate to match supply and demand
D
Lowest rate of all submitted bids
A

Lowest rate to match supply and demand

Based on submitted bids from holders and prospective buyers, the net clearing rate set by the auction agent will be the lowest rate that matches supply and demand. After the deadline for submission of orders, the auction agent assembles all the orders from lowest to highest bid and determines the net clearing rate. The net clearing rate is the lowest rate bid sufficient to cover all the securities exposed for sale.

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9
Q
A customer bought an 8% debenture at a 7.20 basis. If the bonds are currently trading 15 basis points higher:
QID: 1893441Mark For Review
A   
The customer's yield to maturity has increased to 7.35%
B
The bond's coupon has increased to 8.15%
C   
The bond's market price has decreased
D
The investment has not been affected
A

The bond’s market price has decreased

When the customer bought the bond, he established a yield to maturity of 7.20%. A 7.20 basis is used to quote a bond that is offered at a price equivalent to a YTM of 7.20%. This will remain the same over the life of his investment. The coupon rate was established when the bonds were issued and will never change. However, when yields in the market increase, the market price of outstanding bonds decreases. The bond is now trading at a price equivalent to a YTM of 7.35%.

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10
Q
An investor purchases a $100,000 face value municipal bond with a 5-year maturity at 105. After two years, the bond is sold at 95. For tax purposes, the investor has a(n):
QID: 1893502Mark For Review
A
$2,000 loss
B
$4,000 loss
A   
$8,000 loss
D   
$10,000 loss
A

$8,000 loss

When a municipal bond is purchased at a premium, the bond’s premium must be amortized to find an adjusted cost basis. If the bond is sold above the adjusted cost basis, the result is a capital gain. If the bond is sold below the adjusted cost basis, the result is a capital loss. If the bond is held to maturity, there is neither a loss nor a gain for tax purposes. This is because the adjusted basis would equal the par value after the premium is amortized.

This bond is purchased at $105,000 with a 5-year maturity. The premium of $5,000 ($105,000 - $100,000 = $5,000) must be amortized over a 5-year period ($5,000 divided by 5 years equals $1,000 per year). Therefore, each year the original cost of the bond is reduced by $1,000.

If the bond is sold after 2 years, the adjusted cost basis is $103,000 ($105,000 - $2,000 = $103,000). Since the bond is sold at $95,000, there is a capital loss of $8,000 ($103,000 - $95,000).

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11
Q

XYZ Corporation’s common stock has the same beta as ABC Company’s common stock. However, XYZ stock, on average, produces better returns than ABC. Which of the following statements explains this difference?
QID: 1893467Mark For Review
A
XYZ stock has a higher alpha than ABC stock
B
ABC stock is more liquid than XYZ stock
C
XYZ Corporation is more highly leveraged than ABC Company
D
ABC Company has a smaller market capitalization than XYZ Corporation

A

XYZ stock has a higher alpha than ABC stock

While a stock’s beta measures its performance as it relates to the overall market, alpha measures that part of a stock’s return that is independent of the market. It is influenced by factors that are unique to that company and its industry group.

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12
Q

An RR’s client has recently finalized her divorce. For the RR to be able to change the name on her account to her maiden name, the client MUST provide:
QID: 1893455Mark For Review
A
Her reissued driver’s license with her updated name
B
A document that shows her residential address and maiden name
C
A credit card with her maiden name
D
Her divorce decree

A

Her divorce decree

In order to change the account to her maiden name, the client must provide a court or government issued document. The only acceptable document listed is a divorce decree. A reissued driver’s license is not acceptable due to the risk of fraud. Other acceptable documents include:
Marriage certificate
Passport
Government-issued ID (e.g., a Social Security card or certification of naturalization)

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13
Q

An investor has purchased a general obligation bond. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning this investment?
QID: 1893387Mark For Review
A
Earnings from the bond are subject to federal taxes.
B
Payment of principal and interest is ultimately the responsibility of the issuing municipality.
C
If the revenue project that’s operated by the municipality goes bankrupt, the bonds will go into default.
D
The assets of the municipality are used to secure the bond.

A

Payment of principal and interest is ultimately the responsibility of the issuing municipality.

For a general obligation bond (a type of municipal bond), the interest is exempt from federal income tax. In addition, a general obligation bond is backed by the taxing authority of the issuer and the issuer’s general promise to repay the debt.

In this example, only the taxes that are collected by the municipality are used to back the bonds. If the municipality cannot produce enough tax dollars to pay the bond’s interest and/or principal, there will be a default.

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14
Q
A client’s market order to sell is executed at $21.35; however, the client is told that it was executed at $21.85. In this case, the customer will:
QID: 1893493Mark For Review
A   
Cancel and rebill the original order
B
Receive $21.85
C   
Receive $21.35
D
File a complaint
A

Receive $21.35

When a market order is executed, the customer is responsible for the actual execution price, regardless of how it has been reported. If the order was reported to have been executed at one price, but was executed at another price that’s either higher or lower, the actual execution price must be accepted.

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15
Q

A customer buys a premium bond that is callable. Which of the following is LEAST beneficial for the customer?
QID: 1893392Mark For Review
A
The bond is called at its par value in five years
B
The bond is called at its par value in ten years
C
The bond is called at its par value in fifteen years
D
The bond is called at its par value in twenty years

A

The bond is called at its par value in five years

If the bonds are called in five years at par, the premium paid for the bond will be amortized over the shortest period. This results in the investor realizing a lower yield than if the bond were called after a longer period. It is important to note that rules require a firm to disclose to a customer the lowest possible yield that the customer can realize. On a premium bond (as in this example), the lowest yield will result from the bond being called at par in the shortest period.

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16
Q
Property in Boca Raton, Florida is assessed at 10 million dollars. If the millage rate is 7, what is the property tax?
QID: 1893410Mark For Review
A
$70
B   
$700
C
$7,000
D   
$70,000
A

$70,000

A mill (.001) is $1 per $1,000 of assessed value. Multiply .007 times $10,000,000. This will equal a property tax of $70,000.

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17
Q

A small company would like to raise capital through a private placement in order to expand its operations. As an investment banking representative working on the deal, you would be LEAST likely to target which of the following investors when offering these securities?
QID: 1893381Mark For Review
A
Hedge funds
B
Existing shareholders who are also employees of the company
C
Individual investors with a net worth exceeding $1,000,000
D
Senior executives at the company

A

Existing shareholders who are also employees of the company

A private placement would least likely appeal to the employees of the company. Under Regulation D, a private placement may be offered to an unlimited number of accredited investors but only 35 nonaccredited investors. Hedge funds and individual investors with a net worth exceeding $1,000,000 are considered accredited investors. Senior executives at the company are more likely to be accredited investors than employees of the company due to the income and net worth requirements of Regulation D. The fact that they are existing shareholders would not change that status since the company may have given or allowed the purchase of its stock to employees regardless of the income and net worth.

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18
Q
A long margin account with a market value of $20,000 and a debit balance of $12,000 is considered:
QID: 1893506Mark For Review
A
Below minimum maintenance
B
Subject to a margin call
B   
Restricted
D   
To have excess equity
A

Restricted

Equity is the difference between long market value and debit balance, i.e., $20,000 - $12,000 = $8,000. If equity is less than 50% of market value, the account is considered restricted, but does not need to be rectified. Since $8,000 ÷ $20,000 = 40%, equity is 40% of market value.

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19
Q

A security that has been delisted by the NYSE or Nasdaq:
QID: 1893466Mark For Review
A
May be quoted on the OTC Bulletin Board
B
Automatically is eligible for listing on any other national securities exchange
C
May not be quoted by any broker-dealer
D
May only be quoted by a broker-dealer if the issuer receives prior SEC approval

A

May be quoted on the OTC Bulletin Board

A company that fails to meet the maintenance requirements of securities listed on the NYSE or Nasdaq will become delisted. When this occurs, the company may be quoted (but not listed) on the OTC Bulletin Board or the OTC Pink Market, Inc. (the electronic Pink Sheets). Quotes on the OTCBB or the OTC Pink Market by broker-dealers are permitted without prior approval from the SEC.

20
Q
A customer purchases $15,000 in convertible bonds (15 bonds at $1,000 par). The Federal Reserve Board margin requirement is 50% and the customer deposits $7,500. If the bonds increase in value to 108 ($16,200), how much excess equity will the customer have in the account?
QID: 1893448Mark For Review
A
$300
B   
$600
C   
$1,200
D
$8,700
A

$600

If the bonds increase in value to $16,200, the equity in the account will be $8,700 (market value of $16,200 - $7,500 debit balance). The initial FRB requirement on $16,200 market value is $8,100 (50% x $16,200). Since there is $8,700 of equity, there is $600 of excess ($8,700 equity - $8,100 requirement).

21
Q

A broker-dealer executing a net basis transaction is required to:
QID: 1893377Mark For Review
A
Disclose the markup on the customer’s confirmation
B
Disclose the markup to a customer, prior to the execution of the transaction
C
Disclose the markup verbally to customers, following execution of the transaction
D
Provide a confirmation, but is not required to disclose compensation

A

Provide a confirmation, but is not required to disclose compensation

When executing trades on a net basis, the dealer’s markup or markdown is not disclosed to the customer. In a net basis transaction, a dealer holding a customer order to buy, acquires the stock on a principal basis and executes the customer order at a different price than the dealer’s acquisition price. If the dealer executes the transaction at the same price and charges the customer a markup, the capacity is disclosed as riskless principal. The markup in a riskless principal transaction must be disclosed.

22
Q
The initial FRB margin requirement is 50%. A customer purchases 1,000 shares of Depaul Corporation stock at $70 per share and makes the necessary deposit. If the stock increases in value to $78 per share and later declines to $67 a share, how much SMA would the customer have in the account?
QID: 1893427Mark For Review
A
0
B   
$4,000
C
$8,000
D   
$16,000
A

$4,000

First, determine the amount of the debit balance. If the customer purchased $70,000 worth of stock at a 50% margin requirement and deposited $35,000, the debit balance is $35,000 ($70,000 market value - $35,000 margin requirement = $35,000 debit balance).

Depaul increased to $78 per share, making the market value $78,000. The equity increases to $43,000. The excess equity (SMA) is found by subtracting the FRB-required equity of $39,000 (50% of $78,000) from the actual equity in the account, $43,000. The SMA is, therefore, $4,000. The SMA remains in the account until it is used. The SMA balance will never decrease because of market movements. Securities held in a margin account that increases in value can create excess equity (SMA). However, if these securities later decline in value, this will not decrease SMA.

23
Q
A stock index call option is exercised. The writer must:
QID: 1893409Mark For Review
A   
Deliver cash
B
Deliver the underlying index
C   
Purchase the underlying index
D
Close out his position
A

Deliver cash

When an index option is exercised, the writer must pay the buyer the in-the-money amount of the option in cash

24
Q
A customer contacts a registered representative with information he found on a financial Web site. The 52-week range of a company is $233.82 - $442.40. The EPS is $8.60 and the current market price is $245.90. What is the company's price/earnings ratio?
QID: 1893378Mark For Review
A
27.2
B   
28.6
C
39.3
D
51.4
A

28.6

The price/earnings ratio is found by dividing the current market price of $245.90 by the earnings per share of$8.60. This equals a price/earnings ratio of 28.6 ($245.90 / $8.60). The 52- week range of the company is not relevant in calculating the price/earnings ratio.

25
Q
An investor purchases $200,000 of an inverse ETF. If the underlying index appreciates by 10% on the first day, but then depreciates by 5% on the second day, the value of the investment will be:
QID: 1893421Mark For Review
A   
$189,000
B
$190,000
C
$210,000
D   
$209,000
A

$189,000

26
Q
You are seeking information on insider purchases. Which of the following filings would be the BEST source for such information?
QID: 1893436Mark For Review
A   
Form 4
B
Form 144
C
Form 13F
D
Schedule 13D
A

Form 4

Form 4 is filed by any insider of a corporation who buys or sells shares of his company. The form must be filed no later than the second business day following the transaction. Form 3 is filed when a person initially becomes an insider.

27
Q

Joseph Carlyle is a customer of a municipal securities firm. Based on his existing account documentation, he is clearly unsuitable for securities with a speculative credit rating. However, he has entered an order to purchase a bond that is rated BB by Standard and Poor’s. His representative, Bob Thomas, has communicated to him that this transaction is not in his best interest based on the information that the firm has on file. Regarding this situation, which of the following statements is TRUE?
QID: 1893471Mark For Review
A
Bob should process the order because a BB rating is not speculative
B
Bob should process the order because MSRB rules allow the order to be filled if the representative explains to Joseph that the trade is unsuitable
C
Bob should process the order because registered representative are not fiduciaries and, therefore, must always do what the customer says
D
Bob should not process the order because MSRB rules prohibit the processing of a clearly unsuitable transaction

A

Bob should process the order because MSRB rules allow the order to be filled if the representative explains to Joseph that the trade is unsuitable

According to recent interpretations of the MSRB’s suitability rule, Bob should process the customer’s order as long as he takes the time to explain to Mr. Carlyle why he believes the investment is unsuitable for him.

28
Q

An elderly client of an RR seems disoriented, confused, and possibly experiencing dementia. What’s the best course of action for the RR to take?
QID: 1893470Mark For Review
A
Place a temporary hold on the customer’s account
B
Recommend for the customer to arrange a meeting with her trusted contact person
C
Recommend for the customer to bring an accountant or attorney to a meeting
D
Contact the firm’s chief compliance officer and arrange a meeting with the client

A

Recommend for the customer to arrange a meeting with her trusted contact person

29
Q
Eliminating a bond issuer's responsibility to pay back bondholders from an offering, and also relieving their obligation to bondholder's rights, is referred to as:
QID: 1893408Mark For Review
A   
Defeasance
B
Refunding
C
A sinking fund
D
A put provision
A

Defeasance

When a bond is prerefunded, (advance refunded), the proceeds from a new bond offering are invested and the securities are placed in escrow. If these funds will be used only to retire the outstanding issue, that issue is considered to be defeased. The responsibility to pay the interest and principal on the outstanding issue is now of the escrow account. In addition the bondholder’s rights as described in the indenture agreement from the prerefunded issue, are eliminated.

30
Q

An investor owning a reverse convertible security will receive less than her original principal at maturity under which of the following situations?
QID: 1893444Mark For Review
A
The price of the underlying asset is below the knock-in price
B
The price of the underlying asset is above the knock-in price
C
Current interest rates are below the coupon rate of the security
D
Current interest rates are above the coupon rate of the security

A

The price of the underlying asset is below the knock-in price

Reverse convertible securities are short-term notes issued by banks and broker-dealers that usually pay a coupon rate above prevailing market rates. They are considered structured products because, in addition to the coupon rate, the investor may be required to purchase shares of an underlying asset at a fixed price. The underlying asset may be an equity security unrelated to the issuer, or a basket of stock, or an index. The issuer agrees to pay this higher coupon rate since it has an option to sell a security to the investor if the price of the security falls below a specified value known as the knock-in level. At maturity, if the price of the underlying asset stays above the knock-in level, the investor will receive the high coupon and the full return of her principal (the most beneficial option). At maturity, if the underlying asset is below the knock-in level, the investor will be obligated to purchase shares of the underlying asset at a fixed price. The price of this asset may have depreciated below the knock-in level and the investor may receive substantially less than the original principal.

31
Q

If a CMO has a PSA of 150, which of the following events most likely has occurred?
QID: 1893375Mark For Review
A
Interest rates have increased
B
Interest rates have decreased
C
The credit rating of the issuer has been lowered
D
There has been an increase in the secondary market trading of the securities

A

Interest rates have decreased

The PSA Model is used for CMOs and estimates the speed of prepayments as measured against a benchmark. A PSA of 100 assumes that the prepayment speed will remain stable, while a PSA greater than 100 assumes faster prepayments. Conversely, a PSA that is less than 100 indicates slower-than-normal prepayment speed. If interest rates decline, homeowners often refinance and prepayments of mortgages increase. The credit rating or trading activity does not influence the PSA Model.

32
Q

The OTC Bulletin Board (OTCBB) is BEST defined as:
QID: 1893389Mark For Review
A
A quotation system for securities that are not listed on either the NYSE or Nasdaq
B
An exchange for securities that are not listed on either the NYSE or Nasdaq
C
An execution system for securities that are not listed on either the NYSE or Nasdaq
D
A quotation system for securities that are listed on the NYSE or Nasdaq and traded in the OTC market

A

A quotation system for securities that are not listed on either the NYSE or Nasdaq

The OTC Bulletin Board (OTCBB) is a quotation system for securities that are not listed on either the NYSE or Nasdaq. The OTCBB has no listing requirements and it’s not an exchange. The system doesn’t provide the execution services; instead, the equity traders from broker-dealers can either contact the dealer that has provided the quote by telephone or through a proprietary electronic delivery system. The companies whose stock is quoted on the OTCBB either don’t meet the requirements for listing on an exchange or they’ve been delisted from an exchange. A similar system is the Pink Marketplace. The third market refers to exchange-listed securities that are traded over-the-counter or away from traditional exchanges.

33
Q
A client is trying to ascertain the best investment for his child's college education. His child is currently two years old. Which of the following investments might be MOST appropriate?
QID: 1893496Mark For Review
A
Inflation protected bond funds
B   
Balanced funds
C
High yield funds
D   
Growth funds
A

Growth funds

34
Q

A high put/call ratio would MOST likely be associated with a(n):
QID: 1893457Mark For Review
A
Bullish indicator
B
Bearish indicator
C
Indicator that the market will trade within a narrow range
D
Indicator that the trading volume will be increasing

A

Bullish indicator

The put/call ratio is a technical market indicator and is found by dividing the volume of all put transactions by the volume of all call transactions on a daily basis. Technical analysts view the put/call ratio as a contrarian indicator. The higher the ratio, the more oversold the market, and the higher the probability that the market will reverse course and turn bullish. The opposite is true for a low put/call ratio, which is viewed as a bearish indicator.

35
Q
A company in Japan will be importing California wines. The company must pay in U.S. dollars and is, therefore, concerned that the U.S. dollar will appreciate in value. To provide protection in the event that the U.S. dollar does appreciate, the company can buy:
QID: 1893380Mark For Review
A
U.S. dollar calls
B   
U.S. dollar puts
C
Yen calls
D   
Yen puts
A

Yen puts

If the U.S. dollar appreciates, the value of the yen declines. Therefore, the company should buy puts on the yen. The company cannot buy U.S. dollar calls since there are no options on the U.S. dollar (trading on an options exchange in the United States). If the expectation is that the U.S. dollar will decline, the company could buy yen calls.

36
Q

A member firm is required to indicate which of the following items on a purchase confirmation sent to a customer?
QID: 1893490Mark For Review
A
Whether the member firm prepares research reports on the security
B
Whether the broker-dealer has an investment banking relationship with the issuer
C
The firm’s lack of membership in SIPC
D
If the member firm acted as a market maker, the amount of profit earned on the transaction

A

The firm’s lack of membership in SIPC

Broker-dealers are required to indicate on a confirmation to a customer whether they acted in an agency or principal capacity. If the member acted in an agency capacity, it must disclose or offer to disclose the name of the other party to the transaction. In addition, the broker-dealer must disclose the amount of commission charged. Market makers who act in a dealer capacity generally are not required to disclose the amount of profit that they earn on a transaction. There is no requirement to disclose whether the firm prepares research reports on the security or if there is an investment banking relationship. A firm typically must disclose that it is not a member of the Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC), or that the broker or dealer clearing or carrying the customer account is not a member of SIPC.

37
Q
An investor purchases a zero-coupon municipal bond that matures in 15 years, but it is callable in five years at 102. If the bond is called, the investor will receive:
QID: 1893373Mark For Review
A
Par value
B   
102% of the par value
C
102% of the original cost
D   
102% of the compound accreted value
A

102% of the compound accreted value

The key to this question is in realizing that the basis of a zero-coupon or original issue discount (OID) bond must be accreted (upwardly adjusted) on an annual basis. After the first year’s accretion, the bond’s original cost is no longer of importance. Also, any reference to the bond’s par value will only become valid if the bond reaches maturity and the investor receives the par amount. Therefore, in this question, it is important to note that any reference to a call premium is based on the bond’s compound accreted value. If this bond is called, the investor will receive 102% of the compound accreted value, which is equal to the original value of the bond plus the annual accretion (interest earned, but not received) to date. However, if the bond was not an OID bond and was called, the investor would receive 102% of par ($1,020).

38
Q

All of the following documents must be accompanied or preceded by an OCC risk disclosure document, EXCEPT:
QID: 1893435Mark For Review
A
Options research reports
D
A standardized options worksheet discussing straddles
C
Options advertising that appears in the newspaper
D
Options sales materials discussing projections

A

Options advertising that appears in the newspaper

Options advertising is a type of retail communication, which must make the offer to send the OCC risk disclosure document upon the customer’s request. Options retail communications must be approved by a registered options principal (ROP) prior to use. Options-related retail communications that discuss projections, must be approved by a ROP prior to use and preceded or accompanied by a risk disclosure document.

39
Q

The manager of a new issue municipal syndicate wants to allocate securities in a different manner than specified in the syndicate agreement. He may do this if he:
QID: 1893395Mark For Review
A
Notifies the SEC
B
Amends the syndicate agreement
C
Is prepared to justify the change to the syndicate members
D
Assumes any losses incurred by the syndicate members

A

Is prepared to justify the change to the syndicate members

The syndicate manager is permitted to change the priority of orders if, in his opinion, it is in the syndicate’s best interest. He must be able to justify the change to the syndicate members.

40
Q
A customer purchases a municipal bond with 25 years remaining to maturity. The bond has been prerefunded to its first call date. The issue is callable in 7 years at 108, declining to par in 14 years. It also has a sinking fund call provision that begins in 17 years at par. For confirmation purposes, the bond should be priced to the:
QID: 1893445Mark For Review
A   
First call date
B
First par call
C
Sinking fund date
D   
Final maturity date
A

First call date

When a bond is prerefunded, the only applicable date is the first call feature. Therefore, the bond must be priced to the first call date.

41
Q

A 28-year old individual has income of $60,000 per year, has outstanding college loans, and recently inherited $100,000. If the individual is worried about taxes and wants to know how best to invest the inheritance, his registered representative should recommend:
QID: 1893428Mark For Review
A
Putting the money in a 529 plan and using it to pay back the loans
B
Putting the money in a tax-exempt municipal bond fund
C
Putting the money in a money market fund
D
Putting the money in an IRA

A

Putting the money in a tax-exempt municipal bond fund

Although putting the inheritance into a tax-exempt municipal bond fund will not provide any immediate tax benefits, the income generated by the interest payments from the bonds in the portfolio are federally tax-free. Putting the money into a 529 plan offers no immediate deductions and only allows for a one-time payment of up to $10,000 to pay for student loans. Also, unless the balance of the money is used to pay for qualifying education expenses, earnings will be taxed and subject to a 10% IRS penalty. Putting money into a traditional IRA will provide a maximum deductible annual contribution of $6,000, which is far less than what he’s able to invest. Investing the money in a money market fund offers safety, but no tax benefits.

42
Q
An analysis of a revenue bond issue normally addresses the:
QID: 1893433Mark For Review
A
Per capita debt of the municipality
B   
Per capita income of the municipality
C
Assessed valuations of the municipality
D   
Debt service coverage ratio
A

Debt service coverage ratio

The debt service coverage ratio indicates the number of times pledged revenues cover interest and principal payments due on a bond. This is important for the analysis of a revenue bond, which is backed by a revenue producing facility. The other choices are important for the analysis of a general obligation bond, which is backed by the full faith, credit, and taxing power of the issuing municipality.

43
Q
All of the following are fixed by the exchange on which an option contract trades, EXCEPT the:
QID: 1893474Mark For Review
A
Strike price
B
Expiration date
C   
Premium
D   
Contract size
A

Premium

The premium for an option is not fixed by the exchange on which the option trades. The premium is determined by supply and demand on the floor of the exchange.

44
Q
ABC Corporation has issued $100,000,000 worth of bonds at a $1,000 par value. The effect of the issuance of the bonds is:
An increase in working capital
An increase in total liabilities
No change in total assets
An increase in stockholders' equity
QID: 1893412Mark For Review
A   
I and II only
B   
I and III only
C
II and III only
D
II and IV only
A

I and II only

Working capital equals current assets minus current liabilities. The cash received from the sale increases current assets. The bonds are not a current liability. Therefore, working capital increases. There is an increase in current assets from the cash received on the sale of the bonds, therefore, increasing total assets. The long-term liabilities of the company will increase because of the amount of debt incurred. There will be no increase or decrease in stockholders’ equity as the money received will be exactly offset by the amount of money owed.

45
Q
Which of the following persons establishes positions in secondary market municipal bonds for a broker-dealer?
QID: 1893413Mark For Review
A   
Underwriter
B   
Trader
C
Agent
D
Principal
A

Trader

A trader is responsible for positioning (carrying inventory) secondary market municipal bonds. An underwriter is involved in the distribution of new issues.

46
Q

Which of the following choices BEST describes a municipal security that is referred to as a certificate of participation (COP)?
QID: 1893443Mark For Review
A
A type of bond that is backed by a special tax
B
A type of bond that is typically created to fund a project for a corporation
C
A type of bond that is typically created through a lease agreement
D
A type of bond that is based on payments from residential mortgages

A

A type of bond that is typically created through a lease agreement

A certificate of participation (COP) is a lease financing agreement which is typically issued in the form of a tax-exempt or municipal revenue bond. COPs have traditionally been used as a method of monetizing existing surplus real estate. This financing technique provides long-term funding through a lease that does not legally constitute a loan, thereby eliminating the need for a public referendum or vote.