Final Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

When interest rates are fluctuating, which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the movement of short-term rates compared to long-term rates?
QID: 1891961Mark For Review
A
Short-term rates fluctuate more sharply than long-term rates.
B
Long-term rates fluctuate more sharply than short-term rates.
C
Both long- and short-term rates fluctuate equally.
D
There is no relationship between the fluctuations in long-term and short-term rates.

A

Short-term rates fluctuate more sharply than long-term rates.

When interest rates are fluctuating, short-term rates will fluctuate more sharply than long-term rates. However, in terms of prices, when interest rates are fluctuating, long-term bond prices are affected more than short-term bond prices.

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2
Q

A research analyst at a broker-dealer is preparing a research report recommending ABC common stock. Which of the following situations need not be disclosed?
QID: 1892066Mark For Review
A
ABC Corp is an investment banking client of the broker-dealer
B
The broker-dealer has a 1% or greater beneficial ownership in ABC common stock
C
The broker-dealer has a 1% or greater beneficial ownership in ABC nonconvertible bonds
D
The broker-dealer makes a market in ABC common stock

A

The broker-dealer has a 1% or greater beneficial ownership in ABC nonconvertible bonds

The broker-dealer is required to make certain disclosures in its research reports, such as whether the firm has an investment banking relationship or makes a market in the common stock of ABC. It must also disclose its ownership in a subject security if the ownership is equal to or greater than 1% beneficial ownership in common equity. Since nonconvertible debt is not considered common equity, disclosure is not required.

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3
Q

A client with an options account takes the following position: Long GHI Nov 65 puts and Short GHI Nov 55 puts. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding this position?
QID: 1892040Mark For Review
A
This position subjects the client to unlimited risk.
B
This position will be profitable if the market price of the security declines.
C
This position will be profitable if the market price of the security increases in value.
D
This position will only be profitable if the market price of the stock is trading between 55 and 65.

A

This position will be profitable if the market price of the security declines.

This position is referred to as a debit put spread. It’s a debit because the cost to purchase a put with a higher strike price will be more than the amount received for selling a put with a lower strike price. The investor will make money if the stock declines (bearish) in value since the long put will be exercised first (it has a higher strike price and thereby more intrinsic value). The fact that the premiums are not given is irrelevant since the cost of a put with the higher strike price will always be more valuable that a put with a lower strike price (if given the same expiration month). The position may be profitable if the stock price was trading between 65 and 55, but will also be profitable if the stock is trading below 55.

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4
Q

A customer sells 1,000 shares of stock and asks for the actual time of the execution. For a branch office manager, what is the appropriate action?
QID: 1891952Mark For Review
A
To state that the firm is able to provide this information on written request
B
To state that it is impossible to know the time of the trade
C
To send the customer a copy of the order ticket
D
To indicate that the customer should contact the equity trading desk

A

To state that the firm is able to provide this information on written request

According to the SEC’s confirmation rules, a broker-dealer must automatically disclose the time of execution or indicate that the time of execution is able to be furnished on written request by a customer.

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5
Q
An investor purchased stock at $50 per share and the stock is now trading between $75 and $77. The investor doesn’t want to eliminate the position unless the stock drops significantly. Which of the following orders is the MOST suitable for her to place?
QID: 1892005Mark For Review
A
Buy limit at $70
B   
Sell limit at $70
C
Sell stop at $75
D   
Sell stop at $70
A

Sell stop at $70

Although the customer has a significant unrealized gain, there’s still the possibility that it could trend higher. If the investor wants to protect a portion of the gain, he should enter a sell stop order, which will become a market order if the stop price is hit or traded through. Entering a sell stop at $70 will serve this purpose. If he enters the sell stop at $75, it may very easily be triggered by a small decrease in the stock’s price, thereby eliminating his position. For that reason, the sell stop at $70 is a better choice. A sell limit order is one that’s entered above the market price (i.e., not at $70). The customer is looking for an order that will result in selling his stock in the event that it declines significantly; therefore, a buy order is of no benefit.

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6
Q
An investor must pay accrued interest for a secondary market purchase of:
QID: 1892025Mark For Review
A
Zero-coupon bonds
B   
Series EE savings bonds
C   
Tax anticipation notes
D
Treasury bills
A

Tax anticipation notes

Zero-coupon bonds and Treasury bills are original issue discount securities and trade without accrued interest. While Series EE bonds are also OID securities, they do not trade in the secondary market. Tax anticipation notes (TANs) are typically interest-bearing securities and trade with accrued interest.

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7
Q

An investor wants to buy a foreign stock that’s trading at $540 per share and paying a $12.50 annual dividend. The investor’s registered representative instead suggests purchasing an ADR which represents 10% of the value of the foreign stock. If the customer commits to buying 500 shares, what’s his cost basis and his first semiannual dividend from the ADR?
QID: 1892049Mark For Review
A
Cost basis of $270,000 and $6,250 in semiannual dividends
B
Cost basis of $27,000 and $625 in semiannual dividends
C
Cost basis of $270,000 and $3,125 in semiannual dividends
D
Cost basis of $27,000 and $312.50 in semiannual dividends

A

Cost basis of $27,000 and $312.50 in semiannual dividends

The ADR represents 10% of the foreign stock’s value. As a result, the ADR per share value is $54 ($540 x 10%) and the annual dividend is $1.25 ($12.50 x 10%). If the customer purchases 500 shares of the ADR, the total investment will equal $27,000 (500 x $54) and the total annual dividend will be $625 (500 x $1.25). However, since the question asks about the semiannual dividend, the customer will receive $312.50 of dividends ($625 ÷ 2). Many foreign stocks and ADRs pay semiannual dividends rather than quarterly dividends.

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8
Q
Mr. Jones purchases 100 shares of IBM at $116 per share and writes an IBM June 115 call option at 5. Mr. Jones' breakeven point is:
QID: 1892014Mark For Review
A
110
B   
111
C
120
D   
121
A

111

The writer of a covered call will have a breakeven point equal to the purchase price of the stock (116) less the premium received (5). Therefore, his breakeven point is $111 ($116 - $5 = $111).

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9
Q

A client has established the following position:
Long 1 DEF May 50 call at 2
Short 1 DEF May 40 call at 6

In which of the following situations will the client have the maximum potential profit?

QID: 1891974Mark For Review
A
If the market price of the stock is trading above 48
B
If both options contracts expired unexercised
C
If the market price of the stock is trading below 52
D
If both option contracts are exercised

A

If both options contracts expired unexercised

This position is referred to as a credit call spread. It’s a credit because the client received more for the short call with the lower strike price than what was paid for the call with the higher strike price. If both calls expire unexercised, the client will keep the net premium (the maximum gain). This will occur If DEF remains at or below $40 per share, since neither call will be exercised. If the stock price is trading below 44 (the breakeven point), the client may have a profit, but the maximum profit is realized if both options expired unexercised.

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10
Q
The term that defines an arrangement in which an investment manager receives research or brokerage services in exchange for placing orders through that broker-dealer is called:
QID: 1891947Mark For Review
A
Trading ahead of research
B   
Front-running
C
Hard dollars
D   
Soft-dollars
A

Soft-dollars

It is a means of paying brokerage firms for their services through trade commissions. The key here is that the services that the adviser receives as part of a soft-dollar arrangement must benefit its customer. Hard dollars would be the practice of paying for the services separately. For example, paying for research and commissions.

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11
Q
Which of the following transactions would NOT take place on an exchange?
QID: 1891954Mark For Review
A
The sale of an options contract
B   
The purchase of a municipal bond
C   
The short selling of an equity security
D
The purchase of an exchange-traded fund
A

The purchase of a municipal bond

The SEC definition of an exchange is a marketplace that brings buyers and sellers together. An exchange may be a physical location such as the NYSE or a purely electronic system such as Nasdaq. Most exchanges trade equities (common and preferred stock, closed-end or exchange-traded funds), equity derivatives (options, rights, and warrants). Some exchanges will also trade corporate debt. Most corporate debt and other types of fixed-income or debt securities (i.e., municipal bonds) are not traded on an exchange, but traded directly between broker-dealers.

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12
Q
A company, which has investors with registration rights, has recently conducted an initial public offering. Typically, how long must these investors wait to sell their shares after the IPO?
QID: 1892017Mark For Review
A   
One year
B   
180 days
C
Two years
D
Three years
A

180 days

A lock-up agreement dictates the amount of time that pre-IPO investors, such as private placement buyers (private equity investors) and other insiders, typically must wait to sell their shares once the company has gone public. Although a lock-up agreement will generally expire six months (180 days) following the closing of the company’s IPO, there’s no statutory time limit. The lock-up is designed to prohibit management and venture capitalists that initially funded the company from immediately liquidating their shares once the issue goes public. The shares will then be sold under a Rule 144 exemption. Registration rights allow, but don’t require, these holders to sell their shares along with the company when it conducts the IPO.

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13
Q
A customer wants to purchase a security that invests primarily in private companies that have difficulty raising capital in public markets. Which of of the following investments would you recommend?
QID: 1892048Mark For Review
A
A real estate investment trust (REIT)
B
A collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO)
C
A direct participation program (DPP)
D   
A business development company (BDC)
A

A business development company (BDC)

A business development company (BDC) raises capital by selling securities to investors and is similar in structure to a closed-end investment company. A BDC will use the money it raises to invest mostly in private companies, small and developing businesses, and financially troubled companies that have difficulty raising capital in public markets. The objective is to help these companies by providing funding when they may not be able to raise capital for themselves. Most BDCs trade on an exchange and, therefore, provide an investor with liquidity and, since they are structured as regulated investment companies, they are not taxed if they distribute at least 90% of their income to investors. Most have an investment objective of providing current income and capital appreciation, and will invest their funds in both debt (e.g., loans, subordinated and mezzanine financing) and equity of private small and middle-market companies. Since some of the funds are invested in the equity of nonpublic companies, a customer purchase of a BDC is similar to buying a publicly traded investment in a private equity firm.

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14
Q

An accumulation unit in a variable annuity contract is:
QID: 1892044Mark For Review
A
An accounting measure that’s used to determine the contract owner’s interest in the separate account
B
An accounting measure that’s used to determine payments to the owner of the variable annuity
C
The same as a shareholder’s ownership interest in a mutual fund
D
The same as the insurance company’s profit from the separate account

A

An accounting measure that’s used to determine the contract owner’s interest in the separate account

An accumulation unit in a variable annuity contract is an accounting measure that’s used to determine the contract owner’s interest in the separate account. The separate account is the portfolio in which the customer’s contributions are invested. Some separate accounts consist of several subaccounts that each have different objectives and portfolios.

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15
Q
Which CMO tranche provides the greatest safety of principal?
QID: 1892010Mark For Review
A   
The A tranche
B
The Z tranche
C
The companion tranche
D
The floating rate tranche
A

The A tranche

Tranche A (the fast-pay tranche) is the first to receive principal, while the Z tranche only receives payments after all of the other tranches are paid. The companion or support tranche is considered a very volatile tranche. A floating rate tranche simply adjusts its interest rate based on an index

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16
Q

If a New York resident is subject to the AMT and is considering the following bonds that have similar yields, which bond is MOST suitable?
QID: 1891937Mark For Review
A
A Buffalo, NY bond that’s subject to the AMT
B
A triple exempt bond that’s subject to the AMT
C
An Albany, NY bond that’s not subject to the AMT
D
A corporate bond

A

An Albany, NY bond that’s not subject to the AMT

Municipal bonds that are subject to the alternative minimum tax (AMT) will no longer offer federally tax-free interest to individuals who are subject to the AMT. As a result, the Albany, NY bond that’s not subject to the AMT will provide federally tax-exempt interest. Since the yields are similar on each of these bonds, the Albany bond will provide a better yield than the corporate bond due to the corporate bond interest being subject to both federal and state tax.

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17
Q

Which of the following securities is NOT guaranteed by the U.S. government?
QID: 1892033Mark For Review
A
Treasury notes
B
Treasury bills
C
Government National Mortgage Association (Ginnie Mae) certificates
D
Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae) bonds

A

Federal National Mortgage Association (Fannie Mae) bonds

Of the choices given, the only obligations that are not guaranteed by the U.S. government are FNMA (Fannie Mae) bonds. FNMA was created as a government-chartered private corporation. It borrows funds and uses the proceeds to purchase conventional residential mortgages. Although FNMA can borrow funds from the U.S. government, the securities it issues are not directly backed by the U.S. government.

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18
Q
A municipal bond that was issued at par is purchased by an individual in the secondary market at a price of 90. What is the tax consequence if the bond is held to maturity?
QID: 1891997Mark For Review
A   
$100 capital gain
B
$100 capital loss
C
$100 tax-free interest
D   
$100 ordinary income
A

$100 ordinary income

An investor purchasing a secondary market discount municipal bond will have ordinary income if the bond is held to maturity. Since the bond was purchased at 90 ($900) and held to maturity when the investor receives par ($1,000), the investor will have a $100 gain, which is reported as ordinary income.

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19
Q
Which of the following Moody's ratings is the most speculative in the investment-grade category?
QID: 1892018Mark For Review
A
Aa
B
A
C   
Baa
D   
Ba
A

Baa
The top-4 ratings in both Moody’s and S&P are investment grade. The top-4 ratings are:

Moody's 
Aaa
Aa
A
Baa
S&P
AAA
AA
A
BBB

If the question had asked for the most speculative, then Ba would be the answer.

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20
Q

When analyzing a mutual fund’s expenses, an analyst does NOT consider:
QID: 1891963Mark For Review
A
The management fees charged by the investment adviser
B
The fees charged by the fund’s custodian
C
The fund’s expense ratio
D
The sales load charged to buy fund shares

A

The sales load charged to buy fund shares

When analyzing a mutual fund’s expenses, an analyst is concerned about the amount of expenses as compared to the amount of money managed by the fund. This comparison is made by calculating the fund’s expense ratio (operating expenses divided by total net assets). The operating expenses include management fees (which is usually the largest expense) and the fee paid to the fund’s custodian. Total net assets are the fund’s assets minus liabilities. Sales charges are not considered expenses of the fund.

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21
Q
An MIG rating applies to a(n):
QID: 1891951Mark For Review
A
Convertible bond
B
Prerefunded utility bond
C
ADR
D   
BAN
A

BAN

MIG (Moody’s Investment Grade) ratings apply to municipal notes. A BAN (bond anticipation note) is the only municipal note listed.

22
Q
A customer buys two bonds, both have a par value of $1,000, and she pays 103 5/8 for each bond. The bonds are callable at 105. If the customer's bonds are called, she will receive:
QID: 1891999Mark For Review
A
$2,000
B   
$2,100
C   
$2,072.50
D
$1,050
A

$2,100

If the bonds are called the investor will receive 105% of the par value for each bond. $1,000 x 105% = $1,050; however, this is multiplied by two bonds for a total of $2,100.

23
Q
The determination of when the NAV of a mutual fund is calculated, is stipulated by:
QID: 1891994Mark For Review
A
FINRA
B
The SEC
C   
The board of directors
D   
The prospectus
A

The prospectus

The net asset value of a mutual fund is calculated whenever stipulated in the fund’s prospectus. Most funds calculate daily, at the end of the day’s trading.

24
Q

A bond swap is done for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT to:
QID: 1892063Mark For Review
A
Increase the overall yield of the bond portfolio
B
Increase the current income of a bond portfolio
C
Establish a tax loss to offset income
D
Take advantage of a large amount of accrued interest

A

Take advantage of a large amount of accrued interest

A bond swap occurs for all of the reasons given except to take advantage of accrued interest. The amount of accrued interest is not a factor in a municipal bond purchase or sale.

25
Q
A corporation has issued a bond with a 5% coupon that is convertible into common stock at $40. The bond is selling currently trading at par and the stock is selling at $39.00. If the bond increased in value by 20 points, what is parity of the stock?
QID: 1891962Mark For Review
A   
$25.00
B
$30.00
C
$40.60
D   
$48.00
A

$48.00

If the bond increased by 20 points over its par value of $1,000, it would be selling for $1,200. The parity price for the stock is found by dividing the market value of the bond ($1,200) by the conversion ratio of 25 ($1,000 or par value ÷ $40). This is equal to $48 ($1,200 ÷ 25 = $48). The current price of the stock is not relevant.

26
Q
XYZ Corporation has issued $50 million 7% bonds at a premium. The bonds have a current yield of 6% and a yield to maturity of 5%. An investor purchasing $1,000,000 face value of bonds at the offering will receive a yearly income of:
QID: 1892028Mark For Review
A
$35,000
B
$50,000
C   
$60,000
D   
$70,000
A

$70,000

An owner of the bonds will receive 7% of the par value yearly regardless of the cost. In this example, the investor purchased $1,000,000 face value of bonds and will, therefore, receive $70,000 (7% of $1,000,000 = $70,000) in yearly income.

27
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding separate accounts and general accounts?
QID: 1892038Mark For Review
A
Both types of accounts are registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940.
B
Both types of accounts pay a guaranteed minimum return.
C
The subaccounts of a variable annuity may include both types of accounts.
D
General accounts hold bonds, while separate accounts hold equities.

A

The subaccounts of a variable annuity may include both types of accounts.

A variable annuity may allow an investor to allocate funds between several subaccounts. One of these accounts may be the general account of the insurance company, which offers a minimum guaranteed rate of return. The other subaccounts may consist of various accounts, each with a different portfolio and investment objective. Some subaccounts hold equities, some hold bonds, and some actually may hold both. The return on a subaccount is not guaranteed; therefore, the purchaser assumes the investment risk. Only separate accounts are registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940.

28
Q
Harriet purchased 1,000 shares of the Overseas Growth Fund several years ago for $9 per share. The shares are now worth $22.50 each. Harriet gives the shares to her nephew Bob as a college graduation present. What is Bob's cost basis for the shares?
QID: 1892036Mark For Review
A
0
B   
$9
C   
$22.50
D
The NAV on the day Bob sells the shares
A

$9

In general, the cost basis of gifted shares is equal to the donor’s basis at the time of the gift. In this case, Harriet’s basis is $9 per share, so this becomes Bob’s basis as well.
Note that the rule related to inherited shares is different. The basis of inherited shares is generally the value of the shares at the time of the decedent’s death.

29
Q
Accrued interest on new municipal bonds is calculated from the:
QID: 1892057Mark For Review
A
Purchase date
B
Settlement date
C   
Dated date
D   
Last interest payment
A

Dated date

Interest on new municipal bonds is calculated from the dated date, which is the date from which interest starts to accrue on a municipal bond.

30
Q
XYZ Corporation has a 6 1/2% convertible bond outstanding that is convertible into 40 shares of common stock. The bond is currently selling in the market at 85 ($850) and the common stock is selling at 21. The XYZ Corporation is offering its existing bondholders a new straight (nonconvertible) bond paying 6 1/2% that matures at the same time as the convertible bond. The effect of the successful completion of the proposal would be to:
Reduce interest costs
Reduce potential dilution
Have no effect on interest costs
Increase dilution
QID: 1892059Mark For Review
A
I and III
B
I and IV
C   
II and III
D
III and IV
A

II and III

Prior to the refunding, if all of the bonds were converted into common stock, outstanding shares would increase causing earnings per share to decrease (dilute). The effect of the successful completion of the proposal (refunding) would be to reduce potential dilution because the conversion provision is being eliminated. There would be no reduction in interest costs since the new bonds are paying the same rate of interest as the old bonds (6 1/2%).

31
Q
While saving for her retirement, a variable annuity owner investing $1,000 per month will buy a:
QID: 1891957Mark For Review
A
Fixed number of annuity units
B   
Fixed number of accumulation units
C
Varying number of annuity units
D   
Varying number of accumulation units
A

Varying number of accumulation units

When investors purchase a variable annuity contract, they are purchasing accumulation units. Once a contract has been annuitized, distributions are made by liquidating annuity units. Since the value of the subaccounts will fluctuate, a client investing $1,000 per month will purchase a different number of accumulation units with each purchase.

32
Q
All of the following factors are of importance with regard to debt structure when analyzing a municipal bond, EXCEPT:
QID: 1891993Mark For Review
A
Total bonded debt
B
Total direct debt
C   
Overlapping debt
D   
Matured debt
A

Matured debt

Matured debt is debt of the municipality that is no longer outstanding and, therefore, is not included in analyzing the debt structure of a municipal bond. Total bonded debt is all of the general obligation debt issued by a municipality, regardless of its purpose. Total direct debt is the sum of the total debt and any unfunded debt (i.e., short-term notes) of a municipality. Overlapping debt is that portion of the debt of other government units for which residents of a particular municipality are responsible, such as services or facilities shared by several municipalities.

33
Q

An investment banking principal has received a letter from a customer complaining about a recent new issue that declined substantially on its first day of trading. The client purchased the shares based on a recommendation by an associated person of the firm. The customer contends that the recommendation was unsuitable. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
QID: 1892065Mark For Review
A
The firm must keep a copy of the complaint for six years
B
The principal must review the complaint and submit a written response to the customer
C
A memo must be prepared describing any action taken in response to the complaint
D
The firm must enter promptly into arbitration (or mediation) with the customer to determine whether a reimbursement is warranted

A

A memo must be prepared describing any action taken in response to the complaint

All written complaints must be reviewed by a principal and must be kept in a file, along with a memo describing any action taken in response to the complaint. There is no requirement to respond to the client in writing or to enter into arbitration or mediation. Under FINRA rules, records of complaints must be kept for a minimum of four years.

34
Q

A customer who purchases shares of an exchange-traded fund (ETF) may be extended credit by a broker-dealer:
QID: 1892046Mark For Review
A
If the position has been held for at least 10 days
B
If the position has been held for at least 30 days
C
Immediately
D
Under no circumstances

A

Immediately

In this question, the client is purchasing shares of an ETF. ETF shares trade on an exchange and are not considered new issues; therefore, credit may be extended immediately. Some investment company securities, such as mutual fund shares, are marginable under Reg. T. However, since mutual fund shares are considered new issues, the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 prevents a broker-dealer from extending credit on them for at least 30 days. Once the mutual fund shares have been held for 30 days, they may be used as collateral for a loan in a margin account.

35
Q

Which TWO of the following choices are characteristics of reverse convertible securities?
The coupon rate is usually above prevailing market rates
The coupon rate is usually below prevailing market rates
The investor may have an obligation to purchase shares of an equity security
The investor may have the right to sell shares of an equity security
QID: 1892061Mark For Review
A
I and III
B
I and IV
C
II and III
D
II and IV

A

I and III

Reverse convertible securities are short-term notes issued by banks and broker-dealers that usually pay a coupon rate above prevailing market rates. They are considered structured products because, in addition to the coupon rate, the investor may be required to purchase shares of an underlying asset at a fixed price. The underlying asset may be an equity security unrelated to the issuer, or a basket of stock, or an index. The issuer agrees to pay this higher coupon rate since it has an option to sell a security to the investor if the price of the security falls below a specified value known as the knock-in level. If the price of the underlying asset stays above the knock-in level, the investor will receive the high coupon and the full return of his principal. If the underlying asset falls below the knock-in level, the investor will be obligated to purchase shares of the underlying asset at a fixed price. The price of this asset may have depreciated below the knock-in level and the investor may receive substantially less than the original principal.

36
Q
The Dow Jones Industrial Average is considered an index of:
QID: 1891983Mark For Review
A   
Value stocks
B
Growth stocks
C   
Large-capitalized stocks
D
NYSE stocks only
A

Large-capitalized stocks

The Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA) is considered one of the most widely quoted measurements of the U.S. equity market. The 30 stocks that comprise the Index are among the largest and most widely held companies in the U.S. The DJIA as well as the S&P 500 Index include companies that are referred to as large-cap. Most, but not all of the stocks, are listed on the NYSE.

37
Q
Which inventory evaluation method shows the greater profit in a period of rising costs?
QID: 1891966Mark For Review
A   
FIFO
B   
LIFO
C
Depletion
D
Depreciation
A

FIFO

The first-in, first-out (FIFO) method of valuing inventories uses the cost of the first item purchased. The last-in, first-out (LIFO) method uses the cost of the last item purchased. In a period of rising prices, the FIFO method, because of the lower cost basis, results in an increase in inventory profits.

38
Q
The securities that are deposited in an escrow account for an advance refunding of a municipal bond are:
QID: 1892002Mark For Review
A
Revenue bonds
B   
General obligation bonds
C
Federal agency bonds
D   
Treasury bonds
A

Treasury bonds

Only Treasury obligations are acceptable securities as escrow when a municipal bond is being advance refunded.

39
Q
An individual purchased stock for $10,000 and has written calls against the stock over a two-year period. She received premiums totaling $1,500 in the first year and $2,000 in the second year, with all of the options expiring. What’s her total cost basis on the stock after the second year?
QID: 1892041Mark For Review
A
$8,500
B   
$10,000
C   
$6,500
D
$3,500
A

$10,000

When covered calls expire (as in this question), the premium will be realized as a short-term capital gain and the cost basis for the stock will generally remain the same. If the options were closed out prior to expiration, the result is either a capital gain or loss based on the difference in premiums. If an option was exercised, the premium would be added to the option’s strike price to determine the sales proceeds and the gain/loss would be either short-term or long-term based on how long the stock had been held prior to its sale.

Keep in mind, to find the breakeven point on a covered call, the premium received is subtracted from the cost to purchase the stock.

40
Q
A woman with a low income has saved $5,000 to invest for her young son's college education. Which of the following investments would be the MOST appropriate?
QID: 1892037Mark For Review
A
T-bills
B
Municipal bonds
C   
Zero-coupon bonds
D   
A real estate limited partnership
A

Zero-coupon bonds

Since the woman has a low income, municipal bonds and limited partnerships would not be of benefit. Since the son is young, a long-term investment would be most appropriate.

41
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT a feature of GNMA pass-through certificates?
QID: 1892013Mark For Review
A
They are backed by the U.S. government
B
Interest is subject to federal tax but is exempt from state tax
C
Interest and principal payments are made on a monthly basis
D
Pools consist of fixed-rate residential mortgages

A

Interest is subject to federal tax but is exempt from state tax

The Government National Mortgage Association (Ginnie Mae) is an agency of the United States government. It guarantees a pool of mortgages purchased by investors through Ginnie Mae pass-through certificates. These instruments pay interest and principal monthly at a stated rate on the remaining principal. The repayment of principal and interest is guaranteed by the United States government. Ginnie Mae pass-through certificates are purchased in $25,000 minimums. Interest received from Ginnie Mae pass-through certificates is subject to federal, state, and local taxes.

42
Q
A fundamental analyst is NOT interested in which TWO of the following metrics?
Short interest
The P/E ratio
Trading volume
EPS
A   
I and III
B   
I and IV
C
II and III
D
II and IV
A

I and III

Short interest and trading volume are technical indicators. EPS and the P/E ratio are fundamental indicators.

43
Q

Which of the following factors is NOT used in determining the value of an annuity unit?
QID: 1891984Mark For Review
A
The assumed interest rate
B
The value of the separate account
C
Income distributions from securities held in the separate account that are reinvested
D
Capital gain distributions from securities held in the separate account that are reinvested

A

The assumed interest rate

The assumed interest rate (AIR) is used to determine the subsequent payments made to the annuitant. The value of the annuity unit is determined by the value of the separate account, including all reinvested distributions.

44
Q
XYZ Corporation earned $4 per share and paid out $2 per share in dividends. XYZ Corporation is selling at $56 in the market. The price/earnings ratio of XYZ Corporation is:
QID: 1891955Mark For Review
A
2 to 1
B
9.3 to 1
C   
14 to 1
D   
28 to 1
A

14 to 1

The price/earnings ratio is computed by dividing the market price of $56 by the earnings per share of $4. This equals a price/earnings ratio of 14 to 1 ($56 divided by $4 equals 14).

45
Q

Which of the following is NOT TRUE of private label CMOs?
QID: 1892007Mark For Review
A
They are subject to less credit risk than agency CMOs
B
They may be issued by investment banking firms
C
They typically do not carry a AAA rating
D
They are not considered obligations of the U.S. government

A

They are subject to less credit risk than agency CMOs

Private label mortgage-backed securities are issued by financial institutions such as commercial banks, investment banks, and home builders and they contain some agency securities. However, a private label MBS typically contains other types of mortgage loans that are not agency securities. A private label MBS is not an obligation of the U.S. government or any GSE and its credit rating is assigned by an independent credit agency. A private label MBS has higher credit risk and is generally not given a AAA rating.

46
Q
XYZ convertible debentures are convertible into 20 shares of XYZ Corporation common stock. If the bonds were selling in the market at $960, what would the common stock need to be selling for to be on parity?
QID: 1891936Mark For Review
A   
$19.20
B
$20
C   
$48
D
$50
A

$48

To find the stock’s parity price, divide the current market price of the bond ($960) by the conversion rate (ratio) which is given as 20 shares. This equals $48.

47
Q

Two similar companies issue bonds at the same time. One company issues convertible bonds and the other issues nonconvertible bonds. Which two of the following statements are TRUE?
The convertible bonds will probably offer a higher coupon rate.
The convertible bonds will probably offer a lower coupon rate.
The convertible bonds will probably have a higher current yield.
The nonconvertible bonds will probably have a higher yield to maturity.
QID: 1891950Mark For Review
A
I and III
B
I and IV
C
II and III
D
II and IV

A

II and IV

Convertible bonds normally have a lower coupon rate than nonconvertible securities. The convertible bonds pay less interest and offer lower yields because the convertible feature gives individuals the ability to become stockholders at their discretion. Since the issuer is giving bondholders this advantage, it can offer a lower coupon rate.

48
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE of industrial development revenue bonds?
QID: 1892054Mark For Review
A
They are issued by local municipal governments
B
They may be used to finance the construction of commercial property that will be used by private corporations
C
Their credit rating is determined by an analysis of the municipal government issuing the bonds
D
Interest is paid from rents received from private corporations

A

Their credit rating is determined by an analysis of the municipal government issuing the bonds

Industrial development revenue bonds are issued by local municipal governments to build factories or other commercial properties. The plant or property is leased by the municipality to a corporation. The interest on the bonds is paid from the lease rental payments made by the corporation. The credit rating of the bond is based on the credit rating of the corporation and not on an analysis of the credit rating of the municipal government issuing the bonds.

49
Q
As it relates to convertible bonds, which of the following provides an arbitrage opportunity?
QID: 1891971Mark For Review
A   
Stock trading at a discount to parity.
B   
Stock trading at a premium to parity.
C
Stock trading at parity.
D
Bond trading at a premium to parity.
A

Stock trading at a premium to parity.

Parity exists when a convertible security is trading at a price that’s equal to the total value of the stock into which it’s convertible. If the stock is trading at a premium to the parity price, the bond can be converted into the stock and then sold at the higher price. This results in an arbitrage opportunity. Conversely, if the stock is trading at or below the parity price, nothing can be gained through conversion. Finally, if the convertible bond is trading at a premium to parity, there’s no reason to convert it into the stock.

50
Q
An investor's goal is to buy a security that establishes a fixed return, for a long period, with no reinvestment risk. Which of the following securities BEST suits the investor's needs?
QID: 1891946Mark For Review
A
Treasury bonds
B
Common stock
C
Highly rated corporate bonds
D   
Treasury STRIPS
A

Treasury STRIPS

The typical yield-to-maturity calculation assumes that each interest payment is reinvested at the same yield. There is no guarantee that the investor could reinvest at the same yield (reinvestment risk). Treasury STRIPS are zero-coupon bonds (long-term). Interest is automatically reinvested and compounded at the same yield and reinvestment risk is avoided.

51
Q

In a Delivery Versus Payment (DVP) and Receive Versus Payment (RVP) account, which of the following is required?
QID: 1892026Mark For Review
A
Settlement to occur on a regular-way basis
B
Approval by FINRA to open the account
C
A form identifying the third-party agent for the client
D
Physical delivery of securities

A

A form identifying the third-party agent for the client

In order to use DVP or RVP as a means of settlement, the broker-dealer must be notified of the identity of the third-party bank or institution that’s being used to provide delivery of securities or funds. These forms of settlement are generally used by institutions through book-entry settlement. Delivery and payment can be made as late as 35 days after the trade date.

52
Q
Which TWO of the following option recommendations are suitable for a sophisticated investor who expects the overall market to fall but is bullish on mining stocks?
Buying narrow-based index calls
Buying narrow-based index puts
Buying broad-based index calls
Buying broad-based index puts
QID: 1892043Mark For Review
A
I and III
B   
I and IV
C
II and III
D   
II and IV
A

I and IV

Since the investor is bullish on mining stocks, buying narrow-based index calls on mining stocks is appropriate. Since the investor expects the overall market to fall, buying broad-based index puts is appropriate.