Final Exam 7 Flashcards

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1
Q

When determining whether a customer is suitable to invest in a direct participation program, which of the following is NOT required?
QID: 1892862Mark For Review
A
The customer is or will be in an appropriate financial position that will enable him to realize the tax benefits which are a significant aspect of the program.
B
The customer is or will be in an appropriate financial position that will enable him to benefit from passive losses which are significant aspect of the program.
C
The customer has a net worth that’s sufficient to sustain the risks inherent in the program, including lack of liquidity.
D
The customer has a net worth that’s sufficient to sustain the risks inherent in the program, including the loss of investment.

A

The customer is or will be in an appropriate financial position that will enable him to benefit from passive losses which are significant aspect of the program.

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2
Q

A person who has been granted power of attorney over a customer’s account contacts the RR and indicates that she wants to start receiving the trade confirmations. For the RR, what is the BEST action to take?
QID: 1892769Mark For Review
A
Contact the customer and receive written approval to send the confirms to the person who has power of attorney, but do not send copies to the customer
B
Contact the customer and receive written approval to send the confirms to the person who has power of attorney and provide duplicate copies to the customer
C
Follow the instructions that are given by the person who has power of attorney
D
Follow the instructions that are given by the person who has power of attorney as long as the authorization is in writing

A

Contact the customer and receive written approval to send the confirms to the person who has power of attorney and provide duplicate copies to the customer

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3
Q
A broker-dealer that is an MSRB member firm sells bonds to one of its customers. If the broker-dealer is a member of the syndicate, the firm is entitled to the:
QID: 1892842Mark For Review
A
Takedown less the concession
B
Additional takedown plus the management fee
C   
Total takedown less the management fee
D   
Total takedown
A

Total takedown

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4
Q
A municipal bond with an 8% coupon and eight years to maturity is purchased for 106. If the bond is sold six years later, what will be its cost basis?
QID: 1892815Mark For Review
A
100
B   
101.50
C
104.50
D
106
A

101.50

When a bond is purchased at a premium (above par value), the premium must be amortized (reduced) over its life. The premium in this example is six points, which must be amortized over its 8-year life. It must be amortized 3/4 point each year (6 points divided by 8 years to maturity). After six years, it will be reduced by 4 1/2 points (3/4 x 6). Its cost basis will, therefore, be 101 1/2 (106 original cost - 4 1/2 points amortized premium).

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5
Q
A GNMA pass-through is quoted 98.10 to 98.18. This quote represents a spread per $1,000 face value of:
QID: 1892873Mark For Review
A
$0.08
B
$0.80
C   
$2.50
D   
$8.00
A

$2.50

GNMA pass-through certificates (as well as T-notes and T-bonds) are quoted in 32nds of a point. The spread of .08 represents 8/32 or 1/4 (.25) of a point. One point (1%) for a bond is equal to $10 ($1,000 x 1%); therefore, 1/4 of a point is equal to $2.50 per $1,000.

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6
Q
The proceeds of the sale of a municipal bond issue are invested in U.S. government securities that are sufficient to cover interest, principal, and call premiums on an outstanding bond issue. The outstanding bonds are called:
QID: 1892844Mark For Review
A
Structured notes
B
Double-barreled bonds
C   
Guaranteed bonds
D   
Prerefunded bonds
A

Prerefunded bonds

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7
Q
ABC Corporation has net income of $6,000,000. It had $1,000,000 in interest expense and is in the 34% tax bracket. ABC has 500,000 shares of common stock and 10,000 shares of 10% preferred stock ($100 par value) outstanding. What are the earnings per share for ABC?
QID: 1892869Mark For Review
A
$6.40
B
$7.72
C   
$10.91
D   
$11.80
A

$11.80

Since the question gives ABC Corporation’s net income, interest and taxes have already been deducted. Earnings per share is equal to net income minus the preferred dividend divided by the number of common shares outstanding. ($6,000,000 net income - $100,000 preferred dividend) divided by 500,000 shares outstanding = $11.80 earnings per share.

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8
Q

To be considered a regulated investment company, a mutual fund must:
QID: 1892830Mark For Review
A
Distribute a minimum amount of its net investment income to shareholders
B
Pay tax on all net investment income prior to making distributions to shareholders
C
Retain all net investment income to avoid paying tax
D
Distribute all of its net investment income to shareholders

A

Distribute a minimum amount of its net investment income to shareholders

To qualify as a regulated investment company, the company must distribute a minimum of 90% of its investment income to its shareholders. Meeting this requirement allows the investment company to pass on distributions to shareholders without the company having to first pay taxes on the income distributed.

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9
Q
If a portfolio manager is rebalancing a client's assets on a quarterly basis, this would be considered:
QID: 1892798Mark For Review
A
Too aggressive
B   
A strategic asset allocation strategy
C   
A tactical asset allocation strategy
D
Churning
A

A strategic asset allocation strategy

A strategic asset allocation strategy may include the periodic rebalancing of the portfolio on a monthly, quarterly or annual basis in order to keep the original asset allocation intact. A tactical asset allocation strategy is more dynamic and attempts to exploit inefficiencies in the markets by rebalancing the portfolio frequently in response to changes in economic and market conditions.

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10
Q

If a member firm brokers a customer purchase of a security, the member firm must disclose:
The amount of commission charged on the transaction
Either the name of the person who sold the security or the fact that such information will be furnished on request
Either the time when the transaction took place or the fact that such information will be furnished on request
The fact that the member acted as broker for the selling party, if that is the case
QID: 1892828Mark For Review
A
I only
B
I, II, and III only
C
I, II, III, and IV
D
None of the above

A

I, II, III, and IV

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11
Q

Before accepting a delivery versus payment (DVP) order from a customer, a broker-dealer must:
QID: 1892799Mark For Review
A
Notify FINRA
B
Obtain the name of the customer’s agent from the customer
C
Receive approval of the trade from the contrabroker
D
Notify the appropriate banking regulator

A

Obtain the name of the customer’s agent from the customer

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12
Q

An individual who’s interested in putting aside funds for retirement, opens an account and purchases a variable annuity. Two months later, the customer contacts his RR because he’s concerned that the variable annuity may not be the best product. During the discussion, the RR explains the surrender fees and, as a result, the customer states that he wants to transfer the variable annuity to another broker-dealer. What’s the BEST course of action for the RR to take?
QID: 1892748Mark For Review
A
Fill out a 1035 exchange form and purchase a new variable annuity prior to transferring the account.
B
Fill out the necessary forms to transfer the account to the other broker-dealer.
C
Discuss the situation with a principal of her firm to ensure that a suitable recommendation was made.
D
Refuse to transfer the account to a new broker-dealer.

A

Fill out the necessary forms to transfer the account to the other broker-dealer.

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13
Q
The taxing power of an issuer of a limited tax bond is limited to a specified:
QID: 1892855Mark For Review
A
Minimum rate
B   
Maximum rate
C   
Tax source
D
Collateral
A

Maximum rate

The taxing power of an issuer of a limited tax bond is limited to a specified maximum rate. A special tax bond is a type of revenue bond backed by a specific tax source, such as an excise tax on gasoline.

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14
Q
During a period of stable interest rates, which bond has the most potential to show a significant change in price?
QID: 1892834Mark For Review
A   
A 7%, 30-year U.S. Treasury Bond
B
An 8%, 5-year high-grade corporate bond
C
A 6%, 6-month Revenue Anticipation Note
D   
A 7 1/2%, 10-year convertible subordinated debenture
A

A 7 1/2%, 10-year convertible subordinated debenture

The key to this question is to recognize that if interest rates are stable, then most bond prices will experience little movement. However, to identify the bond that is still expected to fluctuate the most, find the answer that is the most unique. In this question, the convertible debenture may still experience a significant change in price based on the changing value of the underlying equity (i.e., the security into which the bond may be converted). For example, if the value of the underlying stock increases, the value of the bond will also increase to keep the bond’s price in the vicinity of conversion parity. Parity is achieved when the value of the bond is equal to the value of the common stock which is able to be obtained at conversion.

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15
Q

Which of the following statements concerning a fund of funds is TRUE?
QID: 1892861Mark For Review
A
These products typically offer superior investment returns.
B
These products typically offer lower-than-average expense ratios.
C
These products are exempt from SEC registration.
D
These products are designed to increase diversification.

A

These products are designed to increase diversification.

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16
Q
If a mutual fund changes or adds a portfolio manager, the greatest effect would be on the fund's:
QID: 1892807Mark For Review
A
Expense ratio
B   
Alpha
C
Rating
D   
Beta
A

Alpha

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17
Q

A revenue bond is backed by a pledge of net revenues. This indicates that:
QID: 1892838Mark For Review
A
All revenues are pledged to pay debt service on the bonds
B
Net revenues are pledged to pay operating and maintenance expenses
C
The first use of net revenues is to pay the debt service on the bonds
D
The issuer guarantees that net revenues from the facility will be sufficient to pay debt service on the bond

A

The first use of net revenues is to pay the debt service on the bonds

The issue requires that operation and maintenance expenses are paid first from gross revenues. Gross revenues minus operating and maintenance expenses leaves net revenues. Debt service (also called bond service) would then be the first item paid from net revenues.

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18
Q

When buying listed put options compared to selling the underlying stock short, which of the following choices is NOT an advantage?
QID: 1892792Mark For Review
A
Buying a put requires a smaller capital commitment
B
Buying a put has a smaller dollar loss potential than selling the stock short
C
The put has a time value beyond any intrinsic value that gradually dissipates
D
Buying a put is not subject to Regulation SHO

A

The put has a time value beyond any intrinsic value that gradually dissipates

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19
Q
When doing a municipal bond swap, which of the following items is NOT a factor when trying to avoid the wash sale rule?
QID: 1892784Mark For Review
A   
The issuer
B
Maturity date
C   
The rating
D
The coupon
A

The rating

If a security is sold at a loss, and within 30 days (prior to and after the sale), substantially the same security is purchased, the IRS, considers it a wash sale and will disallow the loss. To avoid purchasing a security that the IRS will consider substantially the same as the security sold, you should purchase bonds either by a different issuer or with a different coupon or maturity. The rating of the bonds would not be a factor.

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20
Q

A broker-dealer is preparing a client’s monthly statement and realizes that, due to market volatility, the account shows a significant decline in value. The market has corrected itself and the account values have appreciated significantly. The firm would like to delay sending the statement in order to reflect the appreciated value. This practice is:
QID: 1892829Mark For Review
A
Not permitted because the broker-dealer is withholding sending the monthly statement
B
Not permitted unless the client is notified
C
Permitted since statements are normally sent quarterly
D
Permitted since it will provide the client with a more accurate portfolio valuation

A

Not permitted because the broker-dealer is withholding sending the monthly statement

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21
Q
A corporation's earnings per share on its common stock, after paying preferred dividends of $3.00 per share, is $5.00 per share. The corporation also paid a dividend of $2.00 per share on the common stock. The dividend payout ratio is:
QID: 1892800Mark For Review
A
25%
B   
40%
C
60%
D
100%
A

40%

Since the earnings per share on the common stock is given, the $3.00 preferred dividend can be disregarded. To find the dividend payout ratio, divide the yearly dividend on the common stock ($2.00) by the earnings per share on the common stock ($5.00). This equals a dividend payout ratio of 40%.

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22
Q

Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE concerning the characteristics of preferred stock?
The securities do not have a fixed maturity date
The price of these securities is more volatile than common stock
The dividend will be paid annually
The price will fluctuate based primarily on changes in interest rates
QID: 1892856Mark For Review
A
I and III
B
I and IV
C
II and III
D
II and IV

A

I and IV

23
Q
Your client owns a portfolio of blue-chip equity securities and would like to increase the overall rate of return through the use of options. The most conservative strategy to achieve this objective is to:
QID: 1892805Mark For Review
A   
Write covered calls
B   
Buy calls
C
Write covered puts
D
Buy puts
A

Write covered calls

24
Q

When a registered representative makes a recommendation to a customer involving a leveraged exchange-traded fund (ETF), he will consider which TWO of the following factors to be MOST important?
The security may be recommended to at least some investors
The security may be able to produce a profit over a long period
The security may be able to be sold quickly
The security may be a good investment for a specific customer
QID: 1892755Mark For Review
A
I and III
B
I and IV
C
II and III
D
II and IV

A

I and IV

25
Q
If a company declares a cash dividend, which of the following is TRUE?
QID: 1892866Mark For Review
A
Shareholders' equity increases
B   
Shareholders' equity decreases
C   
Current assets decrease
D
Current assets increase
A

Shareholders’ equity decreases

26
Q
A mutual fund that invests primarily in small-cap and micro-cap stocks is most likely to have a beta that's:
QID: 1892877Mark For Review
A
Equal to 1
B   
Less than 1
C   
Greater than 1
D
Negative
A

Greater than 1

27
Q

Which of the following issuers is able to seek a registration exemption under Regulation A?
QID: 1892801Mark For Review
A
An issuer that’s offering an aggregate of $16 million of common stock, which includes $7.5 million being sold on behalf of existing shareholders.
B
An issuer that’s offering an aggregate of $19 million of common stock, which includes $6.75 million being sold on behalf of existing shareholders.
C
An issuer that’s offering an aggregate of $75 million of common stock, which includes $25 million being sold on behalf of existing shareholders.
D
An issuer that’s offering an aggregate of $45 million of common stock, which includes $12.5 million being sold on behalf of existing shareholders.

A

An issuer that’s offering an aggregate of $45 million of common stock, which includes $12.5 million being sold on behalf of existing shareholders.

Under the Regulation A exemption, there are two tiers which represent the maximum amount of the offering. Under Tier 1, the maximum offering size is an aggregate of $20 million, of which no more than $6 million of the offering may be sold on behalf of existing shareholders (i.e., 30% of the offering). Under Tier 2, the maximum offering size is an aggregate of $75 million, of which no more than $22.5 million of the offering being sold on behalf of existing shareholders (i.e.,30% of the offering). The only issuer that’s able to take advantage of the Regulation A exemption is the issuer conducting an aggregate offering of $45 million, of which only $12.5 million is on behalf of its selling shareholders. in this case, $12.5 million is approximately 28% of the offering size (i.e., not more than 30%).

28
Q

An article in The Wall Street Journal states that yields on Treasury bills have declined in the past month to 4.58% from 4.61%. This indicates that:
QID: 1892811Mark For Review
A
Buyers of new bills paid more than buyers paid the previous month
B
Buyers of new bills paid less than buyers paid the previous month
C
Interest rates are increasing
D
Buyers of new bills purchased the bills above par

A

Buyers of new bills paid more than buyers paid the previous month

Treasury bills are purchased at a discount from the dollar amount on its face. The larger the discount, the higher the discounted yield to maturity. In this example, the discounted yield to maturity has gone down to 4.58% from 4.61% from the previous month. This indicates that buyers of new bills paid more for the Treasury bills (meaning the discount was less) than buyers paid the previous month.

29
Q
An investor buys an 8% municipal bond in the secondary market at a 10.00 basis. If the bond is held to maturity, the investor's after-tax return will be:
QID: 1892777Mark For Review
A   
8%
B   
Between 8% and 10%
C
10%
D
Greater than 10%
A

Between 8% and 10%

Since the yield (10%) is higher than the coupon (8%), the bond was purchased at a discount. Since the bond was purchased in the secondary market at a discount, the interest on the bond is exempt from federal taxation but the discount will represent ordinary income at maturity. Since the investor must pay federal income tax on the ordinary income, the after-tax return will be between 8% and 10%.

30
Q
A registered representative receives a sell order from his customer. When he submits the order, he accidentally transposes two of the digits in the account number and the order is processed under the wrong account. This problem is rectified:
QID: 1892863Mark For Review
A   
By the branch office manager
B
With a purchase of the security out of the wrong account
C   
By placing the order in an error file
D
By the registered representative
A

By the branch office manager

The branch office manager will rectify this error by correcting the account number and crediting the sale in the proper account. The order is not placed in the error file since it was properly executed, but in the wrong account. The registered representative doesn’t rectify these types of problems. The wrong account will not be responsible for anything related to the incorrect order.

31
Q
What term is used when a company sells stock to the public above par value?
QID: 1892745Mark For Review
A
Earned surplus
B   
Capital surplus
C
Retained earnings
D
Shareholders' equity
A

Capital surplus

32
Q
An investor has a $5 million position in long-term Treasury bonds. Which of the following types of risk is the investor's greatest concern?
QID: 1892750Mark For Review
A
Liquidity risk
B   
Inflationary risk
C   
Credit risk
D
Prepayment risk
A

Inflationary risk

33
Q
An issuer currently has an S&P AA rating. If the ratings service notifies the firm that it has been downgraded by one notch, its new rating would be:
QID: 1892822Mark For Review
A   
AA-
B   
A
C
BBB
D
BBB+
A

AA-

34
Q
What type of options will be used to hedge a portfolio of computer stocks?
QID: 1892774Mark For Review
A
Interest-rate options
B   
Narrow-based index options
C
Broad-based index options
D
Yield-based options
A

Narrow-based index options

35
Q
The breadth of the market is indicated best by the:
QID: 1892766Mark For Review
A
Put-call ratio
B   
Advance-decline figures
C   
Dow Jones Industrial Average
D
Short interest ratio
A

Advance-decline figures

Advance-decline information indicates the number of stocks that increased versus the number of stocks that decreased during a particular trading day. When used in conjunction with stock averages or indexes, the advance-decline figures will show whether a market movement has breadth (i.e., whether it is broad-based or just limited to the stocks in the index or average).

36
Q
When a client buys a bond above par, the confirmations must indicate the:
QID: 1892791Mark For Review
A
Rating
B
Contraparty
C   
Lower of yield to call or yield to maturity
D   
Catastrophe call provisions
A

Lower of yield to call or yield to maturity

37
Q
An investor purchases a PRT Oct 45 call @ 3. When PRT is selling at 51, the investor exercises the call. The investor has a:
QID: 1892758Mark For Review
A   
$300 gain
B
$600 gain
C
$5,100 gain
D   
Cost basis of 48
A

Cost basis of 48

Since the question does not say that the investor sold the stock after exercising the call, it is not possible to calculate a profit or loss. The investor exercised the call and, therefore, purchased 100 shares of stock at a cost of 48 (45 strike price + 3 premium).

38
Q

A dealer will NOT consider which of the following factors when determining the markup on a transaction?
QID: 1892763Mark For Review
A
The dollar amount involved in the transaction
B
The availability of the securities
C
Expenses incurred in doing the trade
D
The 5% markup policy if the transaction involves a municipal bond

A

The 5% markup policy if the transaction involves a municipal bond

All of the choices listed need to be considered except the 5% markup policy. This is due to the fact that municipal bond transactions are exempt from the 5% policy. MSRB rules require a broker-dealer to obtain a price that’s fair and reasonable based on prevailing market conditions.

39
Q
A municipal bond pays interest on February 1 and August 1. A customer purchasing the bond on Monday, April 30 will need to pay the seller the purchase price plus accrued interest for:
QID: 1892765Mark For Review
A   
90 days
B   
91 days
C
93 days
D
96 days
A

91 days

40
Q

Which of the following investors would be LEAST suitable for an oil and gas direct participation program (DPP)?
QID: 1892773Mark For Review
A
An investor in the highest federal tax bracket
B
A retired investor who is in the highest federal tax bracket
C
An investor who is concerned about the alternative minimum tax
D
An investor who recently inherited $5,000,000

A

An investor who is concerned about the alternative minimum tax

An investment in an oil and gas limited partnership may have excess depletion and depreciation as well as excess intangible drilling costs. These are tax preference items and may result in an investor being subject to the alternative minimum tax (AMT). The other investors may or may not be suitable for an oil and gas DPP. It would depend on many other factors. However, an investor concerned about the AMT would not want to invest in a security that normally has tax preference items.

41
Q
Which of the following terms is used when pricing an entire issue of municipal bonds on a yield-to-call basis?
QID: 1892768Mark For Review
A   
Sinking fund
B
Catastrophe
C
Optional
D   
Mandatory in-whole
A

Mandatory in-whole

Municipal bonds may be called based on various scenarios. They may be called based on funds being held in a sinking fund, as a result of an extraordinary or catastrophe situation, as an optional decision made by the issuer for all or part of an offering, or due to mandatory, in-whole call provisions in the offering. Yield-to-call will be used when bonds are subject to mandatory in-whole calls and are priced at a premium.

42
Q
An investor purchases 1 XYZ October 40 put when the market price of XYZ is $41 per share, and pays a premium of $3. What is the maximum profit the investor can have?
QID: 1892808Mark For Review
A
$300
B   
$3,700
C
$3,800
D   
Unlimited
A

$3,700

43
Q
An investor owns convertible preferred stock that was originally purchased at $106. The stock is convertible at $25 and has a current market price of $112. If the common stock is currently trading at $27.75 and the investor decides to convert the preferred stock into common stock, the cost basis per share for the newly acquired common stock is:
QID: 1892756Mark For Review
A
$27.75
B
$27.50
C   
$26.50
D   
$28.00
A

$26.50

To determine the cost basis of the common stock, the first step is to calculate the conversion ratio (i.e., the number of common shares to be received if the preferred stock is converted). The formula for calculating conversion ratio is the par value of the preferred stock ($100) divided by the conversion price ($25). As a result, four shares of common stock are received if the preferred stock is converted into common stock. The cost basis of the newly acquired common shares is found by dividing the original purchase price of the preferred stock ($106) by the number of shares received (4) ($106 ÷ 4 = $26.50). Any future gains or losses on the sale of the common stock will be calculated by using the basis of $26.50.

44
Q

An exercise limit is the maximum number of options contracts that a customer may exercise in a five-consecutive-business-day period for each:
QID: 1892850Mark For Review
A
Account that she maintains at each brokerage firm
B
Underlying stock on each side of the market
C
Series of options in an underlying stock
D
Underlying stock on the long side of the market only

A

Underlying stock on each side of the market

Exercise limits relate to the maximum number of contracts that an individual may exercise during a five-business-day period for each underlying stock on each side of the market. Exercise and position limits apply cumulatively to all accounts that a customer maintains at all brokerage firms, not for each account at each firm.

45
Q
An investor with an investment objective of tax-exempt income will need access to the funds in four months. An RR should NOT recommend which of the following municipal securities?
QID: 1892788Mark For Review
A   
A variable-rate demand obligation (VRDO)
B   
An auction-rate security (ARS)
C
A tax-anticipation note (TAN)
D
A bond anticipation note (BAN)
A

An auction-rate security (ARS)

A VRDO and an ARS are both long-term securities with short-term trading features. A VRDO has a put feature that permits the holder to sell the securities back to the issuer or third party. An auction rate security (ARS) does not have this feature and, if the auction fails, the investor may not have immediate access to his funds. TANs and BANs are short-term municipal notes and, if their maturities extend four months, these securities can easily be sold in the secondary market.

46
Q
An investor selling a combination will profit if the price of the underlying security is:
QID: 1892778Mark For Review
A
Rising
B
Falling
C   
Volatile
D   
Neutral
A

Neutral

47
Q
On Tuesday, June 16, an investor purchases for regular-way settlement, $20,000 face value of 8% municipal bonds that mature on November 1, 2035. What is the dollar amount of accrued interest that the investor is required to pay?
QID: 1892833Mark For Review
A
$75.55
B   
$208.88
C
$213.33
D
$1008.88
A

$208.88

With the maturity falling on November 1, the other interest payment date would be May 1. The trade on Tuesday, June 16, would settle on Thursday, June 18. Accrued interest on municipal bonds is calculated on a 30/360 day basis resulting in 30 days for the month of May and 17 days for June, (up to but not including settlement), for a total of 47 days. The amount of interest paid is calculated based on the following Accrued Interest formula.
Accrued Interest = (Principal x Rate x Days of Interest) / 360

= ($20,000 x 8% x 47) / 360

= $208.88

48
Q

According to SRO rules, an email message complaining about excessive commissions sent to an RR’s personal electronic device:
QID: 1892827Mark For Review
A
Does not constitute an official complaint since the electronic device is not an official broker-dealer contact channel and its use for business is typically prohibited
B
Is a complaint and must be maintained by the broker-dealer
C
Is a complaint and must be forwarded to the appropriate SRO
D
Must be followed up within 10 business days by a written document from the client to be considered an official complaint

A

Is a complaint and must be maintained by the broker-dealer

49
Q
A 75-year-old client is looking for a high level of income for his retirement fund. He wishes to maintain a balance between income and safety of principal. Which of the following funds would MOST likely meet this requirement?
QID: 1892783Mark For Review
A
A high yield fund
B   
A high grade fund
C
A balanced fund
D   
A GNMA fund
A

A GNMA fund

50
Q
Regarding ETFs, which of the following statements is TRUE?
QID: 1892803Mark For Review
A
ETFs are considered hedge funds by the SEC.
B
ETFs may only hold equity positions.
C
ETFs grow tax-deferred.
D   
Typically, ETFs may be sold short.
A

Typically, ETFs may be sold short.

51
Q

A bank sells its credit card receivables to a trust. If the trust creates a bond backed by these receivables:
QID: 1892813Mark For Review
A
This is an asset-backed security
B
This is a collateral trust bond
C
The bank is responsible for paying back the credit card receivables
D
This type of security is backed by the FDIC

A

This is an asset-backed security

Securities that are secured by mortgages, car loans, and credit card receivables are called asset-backed securities.

52
Q
A corporation is about to go public. Its shares will be quoted on the OTCBB. A broker-dealer selling the securities in the aftermarket is required to deliver a prospectus to purchasers for how many days following the effective date of registration?
QID: 1892804Mark For Review
A
25
B
40
C   
90
D
120
A

90

A dealer selling securities in the secondary market must provide prospectuses to customers if new securities of that class were recently sold by the issuer under a registration statement. Prospectuses must be delivered for 40 days after the effective date in the case of issuers with publicly traded securities already outstanding, or 90 days for IPOs. There are two exceptions.
If an issuer was subject to the reporting requirements of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 prior to the filing of the registration statement, there is no aftermarket prospectus delivery requirement for dealers.
If the issuer was not a reporting company prior to filing, but will be listed on an exchange including Nasdaq as of the effective date, the requirement applies for 25 days.
The main purpose of this rule is to provide investors with information concerning an issue of securities. If the issuer was already a reporting company, information is readily available to the public through the SEC's EDGAR system.
53
Q

A margin disclosure document would NOT include which of the following statements?
QID: 1892853Mark For Review
A
You can lose more funds than you deposit in the margin account.
B
The firm can sell your securities without contacting you.
C
The firm can increase the house maintenance without advance written notice.
D
The firm can change the method of calculating interest charges without advance written notice.

A

The firm can change the method of calculating interest charges without advance written notice.