Final Exam 5 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following transactions are NOT exempt from the penny stock disclosure rules?
QID: 1892563Mark For Review
A
Transactions with established customers
B
Transactions that are not recommended by the broker-dealer
C
Transactions with institutional accredited investors
D
Tranasctions by a broker-dealer whose commissions and markups from penny stocks do not exceed 5% of its total commissions and markups

A

Transactions with established customers

Securities sold in the following transactions are NOT subject to the penny stock disclosure rules.
Transactions with an institutional accredited investor
Private placements
Transactions with the issuer, officers, directors, general partners, or 5% owners
Transactions that are not recommended by the broker-dealer
Transactions by a broker-dealer whose commissions and markups from penny stocks do not exceed 5% of its total commissions and markups
While transactions with established customers are exempt from the account approval requirements, they are not exempt from the penny stock disclosure rules.

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2
Q

If the auction for auction rate securities fails, the current holder will:
QID: 1892591Mark For Review
A
Receive the par value of the securities
B
Continue to hold the securities and the interest rate will be set to the maximum rate allowed in the plan documents
C
Continue to hold the securities and the interest rate will be set to the minimum rate allowed in the plan documents
D
Continue to hold the securities and the interest rate will be set to a rate of zero

A

Continue to hold the securities and the interest rate will be set to the maximum rate allowed in the plan documents

A failed auction occurs when there are an insufficient number of bids to cover the amount of auction rate securities being sold. If this happens, the holders will continue to hold the securities and the interest rate will be set to the maximum rate allowed in the plan documents. This rate is normally higher than the rate that would have cleared a successful auction

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3
Q
An investor purchased $100,000 face value of a 12% municipal bond that matures December 1, 2041. The transaction settles on August 1. The investor owes accrued interest of:
QID: 1892536Mark For Review
A
$200
B
$800
C   
$2,000
D
$8,000
A

$2,000

The bonds purchased by the investor will generate yearly interest of $12,000 ($100,000 par multiplied by 12%). The fact that the bonds mature on December 1, 2041 indicates that interest payments are made every December 1 and June 1. The investor will owe 60 days of accrued interest (from June 1, the last coupon, up to but not including the settlement date of August 1). Since the yearly interest is $12,000, accrued interest would be $2,000 (60/360 x $12,000)

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4
Q
An investor buys 200 shares of TDX at $20 per share. TDX declares a 10% stock dividend. The investor's cost basis per share for tax purposes would be:
QID: 1892510Mark For Review
A
$18.00
B   
$18.18
C   
$22.00
D
$40.00
A

$18.18

An investor’s cost basis must be adjusted downward upon receiving additional shares when a stock dividend is paid. In this example, the investor receives 20 additional shares (10% x 200). The investor’s new cost basis per share would be found by dividing the initial cost of $4,000 by the total number of shares now owned (220). This equals a cost basis per share of $18.18.

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5
Q
A high net worth investor who's seeking safety of principal will MOST likely invest in:
QID: 1892496Mark For Review
A
Corporate convertible bonds
B
Non-investment-grade corporate bonds
C   
An investment-grade corporate bond fund
D   
A variable annuity
A

An investment-grade corporate bond fund

Safety of principal refers to a customer’s desire to preserve or retain the initial amount of the investment over its life.

The higher a bond’s rating, the greater the likelihood the investor will achieve safety of principal. An investment-grade corporate bond fund offers more safety of principal than non-investment-grade and convertible corporate bonds.

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6
Q

descriptions regarding the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)

B
It was developed to explain the behavior of security prices
C
It provides a mechanism to assess risk and return
D
It is based on the efficient market theory and assumes investors act rationally

A

Yes

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7
Q
Aglet International, Inc. has pretax income of $2,000,000. In addition, it received dividends of $100,000 from the common stock of a corporation in which it had a 10% interest. If the corporation pays a 34% tax rate, what is its total tax liability?
QID: 1892493Mark For Review
A
$680,000
B
$686,800
C   
$697,000
D   
$714,000
A

$697,000

If a corporation owns less than 20% of the distributing company, the corporation is required to pay tax on 50% of the dividends it receives on stock that it owns (remaining 50% is excluded). The company would need to add $50,000 (50% of $100,000) to its taxable income. The total taxable income, therefore, is $2,050,000. The tax liability is $697,000 ($2,050,000 times 34% tax rate). If the corporation owned at least 20% of the distributing company, only 35% of the dividends would be taxable (65% is excluded).

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8
Q
A bond secured by other bonds and securities is referred to as a:
QID: 1892592Mark For Review
A
Collateralized mortgage obligation
B   
Guaranteed bond
C
Mortgage bond
D   
Collateral trust bond
A

Collateral trust bond

A bond issued by a corporation that is secured by other bonds and securities is called a collateral trust bond. A CMO is backed by mortgages that were purchased from banks and other lenders who originated loans to homeowners.

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9
Q

Which of the following situations BEST describes acting in a net basis capacity?
QID: 1892599Mark For Review
A
Prior to filling a customer’s buy order, a dealer buys stock into inventory and resells it to the client at the same price
B
Prior to filling a customer’s buy order, a dealer buys stock into inventory and resells it to the customer at a higher price
C
A dealer sells stock from inventory to a client and charges a markup
D
A broker-dealer sells stock to a client at the same price, without earning a markup or commission

A

Prior to filling a customer’s buy order, a dealer buys stock into inventory and resells it to the customer at a higher price

In a net basis transaction, a dealer holding a customer order to buy, acquires the stock on a principal basis and executes the customer’s order at a different price than the dealer’s acquisition price. If the dealer executes the transaction at the same price and charges the customer a markup, the capacity is disclosed on a riskless principal basis. The markup in a riskless principal transaction must be disclosed.

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10
Q

Private label mortgage-backed securities are issued by which of the following entities?
QID: 1892570Mark For Review
A
The Federal National Mortgage Association
B
Real estate investment trusts
C
The Government National Mortgage Association
D
Financial institutions

A

Financial institutions

Mortgage-backed securities are also issued by financial institutions such as commercial banks, investment banks, and home builders. These securities are referred to as private label MBS and may contain some agency securities, however, they typically contain other types of mortgage loans that are not agency securities. A private label MBS is not an obligation of the U.S. government or any GSE and its credit rating is assigned by an independent credit agency. A private label MBS has a higher degree of credit risk and is generally not given a AAA rating.

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11
Q
Which of the following parties states that a municipality may legally issue bonds?
QID: 1892534Mark For Review
A
FINRA
B   
The MSRB
C
The SEC
D   
The issuer's bond counsel
A

The issuer’s bond counsel

The issuer’s bond counsel writes the legal opinion. It states that the interest is exempt from federal taxation and that the issue is valid and legal. Prior to giving an opinion as to the validity and tax exemption of the issue, the issuer’s bond counsel examines all federal, state, and local legislation to be sure that the issue meets all requirements. Neither the MSRB, the SEC, nor any other regulatory agency states that a municipality may legally issue bonds.

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12
Q
A customer sells two LRR March 40 puts at 10 and sells two LRR March 40 calls at 5. At expiration, if LRR is trading at $28 and the puts are exercised, while the calls expire, the customer will realize a:
QID: 1892518Mark For Review
A   
Profit of $600
B   
Profit of $900
C
Loss of $400
D
Loss of $900
A

Profit of $600

This customer has created a short straddle. With a strike price of 40 and a combined premium of 15 (10 on the puts and 5 on the calls), the breakeven points are 55 and 25 (40 + 15 and 40 - 15). In other words, the customer can afford having the stock moving 15 points above or below 40 and not lose any money. Remember, the seller (writer) of the straddle expects stability (little or no market movement). However, if the stock declines to 28 and action is taken, this is 3 points above the breakeven point of 25. Therefore, the investors profit is 300 x 2 contracts = $600.

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13
Q

For a new municipal issue, which of the following choices is the responsibility of the underwriting syndicate?
QID: 1892481Mark For Review
A
To file the official statement with the SEC
B
To submit the final official statement to FINRA
C
To hire the bond counsel that provides the legal opinion
D
To submit the official statement to the MSRB’s EMMA system

A

To submit the official statement to the MSRB’s EMMA system

Municipal securities are exempt from the registration and filing requirements of the SEC. However, the underwriting syndicate must submit the official statement to the MSRB’s Electronic Municipal Market Access (EMMA) system and must also provide the official statement to customers. It is the responsibility of the issuer to hire the bond counsel.

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14
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning registered nontraded real estate investment trusts (REITs)?
QID: 1892573Mark For Review
A
They offer investors the same amount of liquidity as exchange-traded REITs
B
They are required to distribute the same percentage of taxable income as exchange-traded REITs
C
They are not required to make periodic disclosures that are required of exchange-traded REITs
D
They are suitable for the same investors as exchange-traded REITs

A

They are required to distribute the same percentage of taxable income as exchange-traded REITs

Most REITs are traded on an exchange, such as the NYSE, and offer investors a high degree of liquidity. Nontraded REITs do not have their shares listed on an exchange and offer very limited liquidity, similar to limited partnerships. They would not be suitable for investors seeking liquidity. Both invest in various types of real estate and are subject to the same tax consequences (90% distribution on taxable income). Since they are both registered, they are required to make the same disclosures to investors.

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15
Q
An individual purchases two BP (British pound) 150 calls @ 7.50. The contract size is 10,000 BP. The total cost for the contracts is:
QID: 1892530Mark For Review
A   
$15,000.00
B
$7,500.00
C   
$1,500.00
D
$750.00
A

$1,500.00

British pound option premiums are quoted in cents per unit. To convert to dollars, the decimal point must be moved two places to the left. The total cost is calculated by multiplying the contract size (10,000) by the premium expressed in dollars ($0.0750), yielding $750.00 per contract. Since the individual purchased two contracts, the total cost is $1,500.00.

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16
Q

All of the following are characteristics of sponsored ADRs,

B
They're created with cooperation from the foreign issuer.
C
They pay dividends in U.S. dollars.
D
They're liquid securities.
A

Yes

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17
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning a customer who purchases an out-of-state original issue discount (OID) general obligation bond?
QID: 1892504Mark For Review
A
Each year the customer will pay both federal and state income tax
B
Each year the customer will pay only federal income tax
C
Each year the customer will pay only state and local income tax
D
The customer will not pay any tax

A

Each year the customer will pay only state and local income tax

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18
Q

An advertisement for municipal securities states the following:
“15-year 10% tax-free bond priced to yield 12% to maturity. Call us now for more details.”

According to MSRB rules, this advertisement should also state that:

QID: 1892477Mark For Review
A
The tax-free return is actually greater than 12% if the bond is held to maturity
B
A portion of the yield to maturity is taxable if the bond is held to maturity, making the after-tax return between 10% and 12%
C
The tax-free return is actually less than 10% if the bond is held to maturity
D
A principal approved the advertisement

A

A portion of the yield to maturity is taxable if the bond is held to maturity, making the after-tax return between 10% and 12%

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19
Q

Treasury arbitrage restrictions generally prohibit issuers of municipal securities from:
QID: 1892544Mark For Review
A
Selling municipal securities with coupon rates that are lower than Treasury securities
B
Selling municipal securities with coupon rates that are higher than Treasury securities
C
Investing bond proceeds in higher-yielding Treasury securities
D
Investing bond proceeds in lower-yielding Treasury securities

A

Investing bond proceeds in higher-yielding Treasury securities

Because of the tax exemption allowed on municipal bond interest, municipalities are normally able to issue bonds with coupon rates below those of Treasury securities. This presents an excellent arbitrage opportunity. A municipality can borrow at a low rate of interest and invest the money in higher-yielding risk-free Treasury securities. Congress has enacted laws, known as Treasury arbitrage restrictions, that prevent state and local governments from misusing the tax exemption.

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20
Q
Which of the following is considered a TRACE-eligible security?
QID: 1892497Mark For Review
A   
A U.S. government bond
B
A municipal bond
C
A foreign government bond
D   
Common stock
A

A U.S. government bond

TRACE-eligible securities include U.S. dollar denominated foreign and U.S. corporate bonds, debt securities issued by the U.S. government and U.S. government-sponsored enterprises (GSE). Foreign government securities, municipal securities and corporate money-market instruments are not TRACE-eligible.

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21
Q
Regular-way settlement for equity options is normally completed within:
QID: 1892491Mark For Review
A
One calendar day after the trade date
B   
One business day after the trade date
C
Two calendar days after the trade date
D   
Two business days after the trade date
A

One business day after the trade date

Regular-way settlement for options is generally completed within one business day from the trade date, or (T + 1).

22
Q

TUV Sep 5.00 puts trade on the CBOE. With the approval of its shareholders, TUV Corporation will reduce its outstanding shares by a factor of 20, which has the effect of increasing its market price 20-fold. What effect will this have on the TUV Sep 5.00 put?
QID: 1892522Mark For Review
A
The TUV option will be closed out
B
Investors who previously owned 1 TUV Sep 5.00 put will now own 1 TUV Sep 100 put
C
Investors who previously owned 20 TUV Sep 5.00 puts will now own 1 TUV Sep 100 put
D
Investors who previously owned 1 TUV Sep 5.00 put contract will now own 20 TUV Sep 5.00 puts

A

Investors who previously owned 1 TUV Sep 5.00 put will now own 1 TUV Sep 100 put

TUV Corporation has executed a reverse stock split. When a corporation’s stock has a reverse or forward stock split, all associated options contracts are adjusted. When a reverse stock split occurs, the number of shares underlying each option will be reduced and the strike price will increase. In the case of a 1-for-20 reverse split, the number of shares underlying the contracts will be reduced to 5 (100 / 20), and the strike price will be increased by the inverse of the split ($5 x 20 = $100). The contract’s aggregate exercise price will remain the same after the adjustment. The number of contracts does not change with a reverse split.

23
Q
Which of the following items is NOT included in an income statement?
QID: 1892560Mark For Review
A
Operating expenses
B   
Revenue
C
Interest expense
D   
Dividends payable
A

Dividends payable

The income statement of a company includes its sales (revenues), less its operating expenses, less interest paid on its debt, which equals earnings before taxes. Taxes are then deducted to determine its net income, from which dividends may be declared. The income statement also includes non-recurring events such as the closing of a business or extraordinary items. The entry of dividends payable is found on a company’s balance sheet.

24
Q
MSRB rules state that subject or nominal quotes may be given for:
QID: 1892517Mark For Review
A
Revenue bonds only
B
General obligation bonds only
C   
Informational purposes
D   
Municipal notes only
A

Informational purposes

MSRB rules state that a dealer who does not wish to buy or sell securities based on a quote given, must identify the quote as a subject or nominal quote. Such quotes can be given for informational purposes only.

25
Q

Which of the following description best defines the term duration?
QID: 1892532Mark For Review
A
A measure of a fixed-income security’s relative interest-rate risk
B
A measure of a fixed-income portfolio’s average yield
C
The period before a fixed-income security will be called
D
The measure of volatility that compares an equity security to the S&P 500 Index

A

A measure of a fixed-income security’s relative interest-rate risk

Duration measures price sensitivity for fixed-income securities given changes in interest rates. For example, a bond with a seven-year duration would experience a 7% change in price for every 1% change in market interest rates.

26
Q
All of the following information is found in a municipal revenue bond resolution, EXCEPT:
QID: 1892483Mark For Review
A
Restrictions on the sale of additional bonds
B   
Rate covenants
C
Sinking-fund provisions
D   
The yields to maturity of the bonds
A

The yields to maturity of the bonds

The indenture or resolution is basically the contract between the issuer and the bondholder. It will specify the rights of the bondholders and the provisions to protect the bondholders’ interest. One of the provisions included is a rate covenant in which the issuer pledges to charge rates that are sufficient to cover expenses and debt service. An additional bonds test is included that sets requirements that must be met before additional bonds can be issued. The method of funding and the operation of the sinking fund (used to retire some bonds prior to maturity) are also included. Another important provision is flow of funds, which states how the income generated by the project will be used.

27
Q
When a stock is at its resistance price, a technical analyst will most likely say that it is:
QID: 1892555Mark For Review
A   
Overbought
B
Oversold
C
Inverted
D
Upward sloping
A

Overbought

A stock is overbought at its resistance level and oversold at its support level.

28
Q
A customer buys 100 shares of a fund and pays the market price plus a commission. The investor has bought:
QID: 1892533Mark For Review
A   
ETF shares
B   
Open-end investment company shares
C
Fixed-load fund shares
D
A Commissionable Trust Fund (CTF)
A

ETF shares

An Exchange Traded Fund (ETF) lists its shares in the secondary market and is purchased in the same manner as a common stock. The buyer pays the market price plus a commission. An open-end investment company (mutual fund) is distributed in the primary market only. Generally, it is purchased at its net asset value plus a sales charge. If there is no sales charge, it would be a no-load fund. Fixed-load fund shares and Commissionable Trust Funds (CTFs) are terms used to describe other types of open-end investment companies.

29
Q

Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE concerning bank-qualified municipal bonds?
To qualify, the municipality may only issue up to $10,000,000 every six months
To qualify, the municipality may only issue up to $10,000,000 annually
Commercial banks may receive a 70% tax deduction of the interest costs
Commercial banks may receive an 80% tax deduction of the interest costs
QID: 1892503Mark For Review
A
I and III
B
I and IV
C
II and III
D
II and IV

A

II and IV

Bank-qualified bonds are issued by small municipalities and, to qualify, a municipality may only issue up to $10,000,000 annually. This is done to encourage commercial banks to invest in locally issued municipal securities. Commercial banks that purchase this type of security are permitted to deduct 80% of the interest cost paid to depositors on the funds used to purchase the bonds.

30
Q
According to technical analysis, a head and shoulders top formation indicates a trend that is:
QID: 1892515Mark For Review
A   
Bearish
B
Bullish
C
Neutral
D
Highly unpredictable
A

Bearish

31
Q
A customer, who is going on vacation, enters a GTC order to buy a stock. The order is executed. The customer tells the registered representative that he wants the stock but will not return in time to pay for the security by the payment date. The customer states he will send in a check a few days late. The registered representative should:
QID: 1892567Mark For Review
A   
Cancel the trade
B
Pay for the stock himself with a principal's approval
C
Transfer the order to a margin account
D   
Request an extension
A

Request an extension

The customer has indicated that he wants to purchase the stock but will not be able to pay for it in time because he will be on vacation. The order was a good-until-cancelled (GTC) order, so the customer did not know if and when the order would be executed. The reason for the late payment is due to the customer being on vacation. This is a valid reason, and the registered representative should request an extension.

32
Q
A corporation is issuing 5,000,000 shares of stock at a public offering price of $13 per share. The manager of the underwriting syndicate receives $0.15 per share. The syndicate members' compensation is $0.65 per share for each share they sell. The selling group's concession is $0.40 per share for each share they sell. The syndicate is allocated 4,000,000 shares and the selling group is allocated 1,000,000 shares. When the issue is completely sold, the managing underwriter's fee will total:
QID: 1892499Mark For Review
A
$150,000
B   
$600,000
C   
$750,000
D
$2,600,000
A

$750,000

The syndicate manager receives $0.15 for every share. The manager will receive, in total, $750,000 (5,000,000 shares x $0.15 per share).

33
Q

A mutual fund shareholder is NOT required to report which of the following events for tax purposes?
QID: 1892553Mark For Review
A
Receiving a dividend that is subsequently reinvested in the fund at the net asset value
B
Appreciation in the value of the shares
C
Exchanging shares of one fund for another fund within the same family of funds
D
Receiving a capital gains distribution that was not reinvested in the fund

A

Appreciation in the value of the shares

Dividends and capital gains distributions are taxable to the investor regardless of whether they are reinvested in the fund. Exchanging shares for another fund within the same family of funds must also be reported on the investor’s tax return since shares of one fund are being sold to buy shares in another fund. Appreciation in the value of fund shares is not taxable until the shares are sold to establish a capital gain.

34
Q
A primary offering of securities is being made for a company listed on the NYSE. Prospectuses must be delivered:
QID: 1892595Mark For Review
A   
Only on purchases made at the public offering price
B   
For 25 days after the deal has closed
C
For 40 days after the deal has closed
D
For 90 days after the deal has closed
A

Only on purchases made at the public offering price

A primary offering of securities for a company that is already exchange-listed requires that prospectuses be delivered only on purchases, at the public offering price (POP). There is no aftermarket delivery requirement.

35
Q
An individual who's concerned about the alternative minimum tax may find it most suitable to invest in:
QID: 1892495Mark For Review
A   
Public use municipal bond
B
Private use municipal bonds
C   
Public and private use municipal bonds
D
Taxable municipal bonds
A

Public use municipal bond

The alternative minimum tax (AMT) is a method of calculating a return to ensure that wealthy taxpayers pay at least a minimum amount of tax. When calculating the AMT, certain income and deductions are considered tax preference items and become taxable and non-deductible. Private use (activity) municipal bond interest is considered a tax preference item. In order to avoid interest on a municipal bond becoming taxable under the AMT, an investor should purchase a public purpose (use) municipal bond.

36
Q
Which of the following will not influence the calculation of fully diluted earnings per share?
QID: 1892512Mark For Review
A
Convertible bonds
B
Rights
C
Warrants
D   
Call options
A

Call options

Convertible bonds, convertible preferred stock, warrants, and rights are convertible into additional shares of an issuer’s stock. Fully diluted EPS assumes that all convertible securities have been converted into additional shares of common stock. The exercise of call options doesn’t result in the creation of additional shares of common stock.

37
Q
The dated date of a municipal bond is January 1, 2014. The first coupon date is August 1, 2014. The first coupon will represent how many months of interest?
QID: 1892548Mark For Review
A
5 months
B   
6 months
C   
7 months
D
Cannot be determined
A

7 months

The first coupon will be paid in 7 months. This is known as an odd (in this case, long) first coupon payment. The interest will begin to accrue from the dated date but will be paid on the first coupon date.

38
Q
If the NAV of the Greenwich Fund is 90% of its offer price, this must be a(n):
QID: 1892585Mark For Review
A
Management company
B
Unit investment trust
C   
Open-end fund
D   
Closed-end fund
A

Closed-end fund

Open- and closed-end funds are types of management companies. The NAV could be below the offer price for both of these funds, but the situation referred to could not occur in an open-end fund. For an open-end fund, the NAV must be at least 91.5% of the offer price, because the maximum sales charge is 8.5%.

39
Q

A trader at your firm executes an order for a corporate bond. The trade must be reported to the:
QID: 1892508Mark For Review
A
Trade Reporting Facility (TRF)
B
OTC Reporting Facility (ORF)
C
Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine (TRACE)
D
Real-Time Transaction Reporting System (RTRS)

A

Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine (TRACE)

The Trade Reporting and Compliance Engine is a reporting system that was created to provide greater transparency in the bond market. The Trade Reporting Facility is the reporting system for stocks listed on Nasdaq. The OTC Reporting Facility is a reporting system for non-Nasdaq or OTC equity securities, which are quoted on the OTCBB or in the OTC Pink Market (Pink Sheets). The Real-Time Transaction Reporting System is the reporting system for municipal bonds.

40
Q

A registered representative (RR) has changed broker-dealers. The RR is in the process of implementing the Automated Customer Account Transfer Service (ACATS) for all of the clients he has done business with over the past five years. The previous employer may NOT take which of the following actions?
QID: 1892551Mark For Review
A
Attempt to convince the clients to remain with the firm
B
Refuse to transfer positions in proprietary mutual funds
C
Accept an order from a client to liquidate her entire account
D
Execute the balance of a partially executed GTC order in a validated account

A

Execute the balance of a partially executed GTC order in a validated account

There is always tension when an RR leaves a firm. The representative considers the clients to be his, while the former employer thinks the clients belong to the firm. Once the carrying firm (the prior employer) receives written transfer instructions, it must cancel all open orders and freeze the account. It may not accept new orders or complete a partially executed order. The carrying firm may take exception to the transfer instructions only for specific reasons, such as no record of the account exists, incomplete transfer instructions, or improperly signed documents. The former employer may attempt to convince clients to remain with the firm and, in some cases, may refuse to transfer certain positions that are proprietary. Firm-specific or proprietary products, such as mutual funds or annuities, are considered nontransferable assets. Accepting an order from a client to liquidate her entire account is complicated. Clients may call the firm and ask for a liquidation assuming ACATS has not yet been implemented.

41
Q
An inverse equity exchange-traded fund (ETF) is most similar to which of the following?
QID: 1892519Mark For Review
A   
A straddle
B
Buying on margin
C
An equity mutual fund
D   
Selling short
A

Selling short

An equity inverse ETF is designed to deliver the opposite of the performance of an index or other benchmark. Similarly, a customer who sells short is anticipating a decline in the price of equity securities. For example, an inverse ETF that is based on the DJIA seeks to deliver the opposite performance of that index. Therefore, if the DJIA rises by 1%, an inverse ETF should decrease by 1%; conversely, if the DJIA falls by 1%, the inverse ETF should increase by 1%.

42
Q
Which TWO of the following statements are TRUE regarding a variable life policy?
Death benefits are calculated monthly
Death benefits are calculated annually
Policy loans are taxable
Policy loans are charged interest
QID: 1892605Mark For Review
A
I and III
B
I and IV
C   
II and III
D   
II and IV
A

II and IV

The death benefits, which vary with the performance of the separate account, are calculated annually. Should an investor choose to take a loan against the accumulated value, interest would be charged.

43
Q
Wireless Communications is offering 2,000,000 common shares (par value $.10) at $15. Which TWO of the following choices describe the financial impact on the company?
An increase in paid-in capital
A reduction in the long-term debt ratio
A reduction in liquidity
An increase in fixed assets by $30,000,000
QID: 1892529Mark For Review
A   
I and II
B   
I and IV
C
II and III
D
III and IV
A

I and II

The company will receive cash from the sale of the stock, so liquidity will increase. The common stock account and the paid-in capital account, which are part of stockholders’ equity, will also increase. The long-term debt ratio will fall as the equity capital rises and, since the company is raising cash, current assets will increase. Finally, fixed assets will be unchanged.

44
Q
On a when-issued municipal bond transaction, the interim confirmation will show the:
QID: 1892574Mark For Review
A   
Settlement date
B
Final money amount
C
Accrued interest amount
D   
Capacity in which the broker-dealer acted
A

Capacity in which the broker-dealer acted

A bond trades when-issued (WI) when a final settlement date has not been established. The term when-issued covers the period of a new issue of municipal securities from the original date of sale by the issuer to the delivery of securities to the underwriter. Without a settlement date, accrued interest cannot be calculated and, therefore, the final money amount cannot be calculated. The broker-dealer must disclose the capacity (principal or agent) in which it acted.

45
Q

A customer owns a municipal bond that has been escrowed to maturity. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
QID: 1892564Mark For Review
A
The issuer has deposited money in an escrow account that will contain U.S. government securities used to pay off the municipal bonds at maturity
B
The issuer has deposited money in an escrow account that will contain U.S. government securities used to pay off the municipal bonds prior to maturity
C
The issuer has deposited money in an escrow account that will contain other municipal bonds used to pay off the municipal bonds at maturity
D
The issuer has deposited money in an escrow account containing U.S. government securities that will create a tax liability for the municipal bondholder at maturity

A

The issuer has deposited money in an escrow account that will contain U.S. government securities used to pay off the municipal bonds at maturity

When interest rates fall, a municipality may want to engage in advance refunding. In this case, the municipality will sell a new issue with the proceeds of the sale going into an escrow account containing U.S. government securities. Since the municipal bond has been escrowed to maturity, the U.S. government securities would be purchased with a maturity date that coincides with the maturity date of the municipal bonds.

46
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE concerning VIX options?
QID: 1892539Mark For Review
A
An investor will buy VIX puts if he expects an increase in the volatility of the S&P 500 Index
B
An investor will buy VIX calls if he expects the S&P 500 Index to fall
C
An investor will buy VIX calls as a hedge if he expects the S&P 500 Index to fall
D
VIX options can be used if an investor expects an increase or decrease in the volatility of the S&P 500 Index

A

An investor will buy VIX puts if he expects an increase in the volatility of the S&P 500 Index

The VIX (volatility index) measures the implied volatility of S&P 500 options. Although implied volatility is calculated using S&P 500 options, the VIX actually predicts how much the S&P 500 index will fluctuate in the next 30 days. Because the VIX is a way to predict market declines, some investors call the VIX the fear index. The implied volatility of options, as well as the VIX itself, will increase when the S&P Index decreases in value (i.e., an inverse relationship). Investors can buy VIX calls to hedge against a downturn in the S&P 500.

47
Q
A Treasury bond with a par value of $1,000 has a quote of 95.15. The dollar value of this T-bond is:
QID: 1892581Mark For Review
A
$955.00
B   
$954.68
C
$956.50
D   
$951.50
A

$954.68

48
Q
The BG mutual fund has an NAV of $11.72 and a maximum offering price of $12.67. Based on these details, what's the maximum sales charge for the BG fund's shares?
QID: 1892528Mark For Review
A
7%
B   
7 1/2%
C   
8 1/2%
D
9%
A

7 1/2%

Under SRO requirements, the maximum sales charge for mutual fund shares is 8.5%; however, as long as they don’t exceed this percentage, funds can set their own maximum. Since this question indicates that the fund’s NAV is $11.72 and it has a maximum offering price of $12.67, the maximum sales charge is calculated by determining the $0.95 difference between these two values ($12.67 - $11.72) and dividing by the maximum offering price of $12.67. Therefore, the maximum sales charge for shares of the BG fund is 7 1/2% ($0.95 divided by $12.67).

49
Q

An investor has purchased a Bristol County Public Power System revenue bond. Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning this investment?
QID: 1892488Mark For Review
A
Earnings from the bond are exempt from federal, state, and local taxes
B
Payment of principal and interest is ultimately the responsibility of Bristol County
C
If the power system declares bankruptcy, the bonds will go into default
D
The assets of the power system secure the bond

A

If the power system declares bankruptcy, the bonds will go into default

50
Q

A market maker, holding a customer buy order, purchases 6,000 shares of a Nasdaq security for $26.25 from another broker-dealer. The customer is charged a price of $26.35 and no disclosure of markup or commission appears on the confirmation. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
QID: 1892473Mark For Review
A
The broker-dealer responsible for sending the confirmation has violated Nasdaq rules
B
This is acceptable if the capacity of the broker-dealer is as riskless principal
C
This is acceptable if the broker-dealer has executed a net transaction
D
The broker-dealer responsible for sending the confirmation has violated SEC rules

A

This is acceptable if the broker-dealer has executed a net transaction

In a net basis transaction, a dealer holding a customer order to buy, acquires the stock on a principal basis and executes the customer order at a different price than the dealer’s acquisition price. The dealer profits by charging a different price for the securities, rather than charging a markup. Industry rules place disclosure and consent requirements on dealers executing net basis trades with customers. Only the price of $26.35 would be reported on the client’s confirmation.