Greenlight 1 Flashcards

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1
Q
A doctor receives an inheritance of $250,000. She is concerned how this may affect her tax situation. The doctor inquires about where she should park the money while she obtains professional tax advice. Which of the following recommendations is the MOST appropriate?
QID: 1893318Mark For Review
A
A short-term municipal bond fund
B   
A money-market account
C   
A municipal money-market mutual fund
D
A U.S. government inflation-protected bond fund
A

A municipal money-market mutual fund

However, this question also has an extra dimension to it. The person in this question is a doctor, which implies a high income level. Furthermore, she is inheriting a large sum of money and expressly states she is worried about taxes. These are trigger phrases, which means you should be looking for something that provides some tax relief. In this case, the municipal money-market mutual fund is the BEST answer. It provides both the safety of principal and tax relief the doctor needs. The tax relief comes from the short-term municipal (federally tax-free) securities in the account. The money-market account, only offers principal safety.`

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2
Q

Which choice BEST describes The Bond Buyer’s Revenue Bond Index?
QID: 1893288Mark For Review
A
Average yield on a list of bonds with 30-year maturities
B
Average yield on a list of 11 bonds
C
Average yield on a list of 20 bonds
D
Average yield on a list of new revenue issues

A

Average yield on a list of bonds with 30-year maturities

The Bond Buyer publishes different indexes. They include:
The 20-Bond Index – The average yield to maturity on a particular day of 20 specific GO bonds with 20-year maturities

The 11-Bond Index – The average yield to maturity on a particular day of 11 of the 20 specific GO bonds from the 20-Bond Index

The Revenue Bond Index (Revdex) – The average yield to maturity on a particular day of 25 specific revenue bonds with 30-year maturities

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3
Q

Structured products are typically comprised of two components including:
QID: 1893362Mark For Review
A
A fixed-income note and common stock
B
A fixed-income note and a derivative product
C
A fixed-income note and a fixed-equity contract
D
Two different types of derivative products

A

A fixed-income note and a derivative product

A structured product is typically built around a fixed-income instrument and a derivative product. The note pays a specified rate of interest to the investor at defined intervals. The derivative component establishes the amount of payment at maturity.

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4
Q

A municipality is issuing 40,000 bonds at a public offering price of $1,000. The manager of the underwriting syndicate receives $1.50 per bond. The total takedown is $6.50 per bond and the selling concession is $4.00 per bond.
Assume the entire issue is sold with the selling group distributing 20,000 of the bonds sold. Calculate the amount of compensation the syndicate will receive for its risk on selling group sales.

QID: 1893300Mark For Review
A   
$2.50 per bond for a total of $50,000
B
$2.50 per bond for a total of $100,000
C
$4.00 per bond for a total of $80,000
D   
$4.00 per bond for a total of $160,000
A

$2.50 per bond for a total of $50,000

The members of the syndicate receive $2.50 per bond for their risk. This is the total takedown of $6.50 minus the selling concession of $4.00. Since the selling group sold 20,000 bonds, the syndicate will receive $50,000 for its risk on those bonds ($2.50 per bond on 20,000 bonds).

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5
Q
Which method of calculating taxes on an investment typically offers an investor the lowest amount of tax on a capital gain when shares of stock are sold?
QID: 1893322Mark For Review
A   
Specific identification
B
First in, first out (FIFO)
C   
Last in, first out (LIFO)
D
Average cost
A

Specific identification

The IRS only recognizes two methods for calculating gains or losses on stock transactions—FIFO and specific identification (versus the purchase of). Many brokerage firms may allow alternative methods, such as LIFO, which is a variation of specific identification. Average cost may only be used for sales of mutual fund shares. Although LIFO could offer a lower gain if the price of a security was rising, that gain may be considered short-term and taxed at a higher rate. Therefore, the specific identification method is the best choice for an investor who’s seeking the lowest amount of tax.

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6
Q
A customer is considering the purchase of a bond fund in hopes of profiting from appreciation in the bond market. The customer is LEAST likely to receive a capital gain distribution if:
The bonds in the portfolio have short maturities
The bonds in the portfolio have long maturities
Interest rates are rising
Interest rates are falling
QID: 1893352Mark For Review
A   
I and III only
B   
I and IV only
C
II and III only
D
II and IV only
A

I and III only

A bond fund investor is MOST likely to receive a capital gain distribution when bonds are appreciating substantially in value. This would occur if interest rates were falling. When rates fall, long-term bonds appreciate more than short-term bonds. Therefore, the investor is LEAST likely to receive a capital gain distribution if rates are rising and the portfolio contains short-term bonds.

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7
Q

The real interest rate is best defined as the:
QID: 1893304Mark For Review
A
Interest earned by an investor after taxes
B
Interest earned that is less than the rate of inflation
C
Interest earned that exceeds the inflation rate
D
Amount that LIBOR exceeds the fed funds rate

A

Interest earned that exceeds the inflation rate

The real interest rate received by an investor is the amount of interest received minus the inflation rate. If an investor is receiving a 10% interest rate when inflation is at 6%, the real interest rate received is 4% (10% - 6%).

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8
Q
A customer's margin account has a market value of $40,000 and a debit balance of $10,000. What value of securities may the broker-dealer rehypothecate?
QID: 1893323Mark For Review
A
$10,000
B   
$14,000
C
$26,000
D   
$40,000
A

$14,000

A broker-dealer may use a customer’s securities valued at 140% of the debit balance as collateral for the customer’s loan at a bank. Therefore, the amount is $14,000 ($10,000 debit balance x 140%).

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9
Q
An investor purchases stock at $21 and pays a $1.05 commission. The stock is later sold for $19, paying a $.95 commission. In order to determine a gain or loss, the investor will use proceeds of:
QID: 1893240Mark For Review
A   
$18.05
B
$19
C
$21
D   
$22.05
A

$18.05

In order to determine a gain or loss on an investment, you must determine the cost basis and the proceeds. The proceeds are equal to what the stock was sold for less any commission. In this example, the proceeds would be $18.05 = $19.00 - $.95.

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10
Q
Treasury bills are issued to mature in all the following time frames, EXCEPT:
QID: 1893245Mark For Review
A   
One month
B
Three months
C
Six months
D   
Nine months
A

Nine months

Treasury bills mature in one month, three months, six months, or twelve months. They do not have nine-month maturities at issuance.

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11
Q

A customer owns 1,000 shares of LRR preferred stock and the company is in the process of conducting a rights offering for its common stock. Under the terms of the rights offering, two rights are required to buy one new share and the subscription price is $25 (the stock’s current market price is $26.50). This customer would be entitled to which of the following?
QID: 1893363Mark For Review
A
1,000 shares if the customer pays $25 per share
B
500 shares if the customer pays $25 per share
C
500 shares if the customer pays $26.50 per share
D
No additional shares

A

No additional shares

As far as rights offerings are concerned, preferred stockholders do not have the right to subscribe to the offering. Instead, rights offerings are made available to common stockholders.

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12
Q
What information would an analyst be MOST concerned with when evaluating a revenue bond?
QID: 1893238Mark For Review
A   
The population growth of the municipality
B
Debt to assessed valuation
C   
A rate covenant
D
Property taxes
A

A rate covenant

An analyst would be most concerned with rate covenants. This is an agreement made by the municipal issuer to maintain rates high enough to cover maintenance and operating charges and to meet annual debt service requirements. The other terms are applicable to general obligation bonds.

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13
Q
A customer sells short 400 shares and the company declares a 10% stock dividend. When the customer covers the short position, the customer will be required to deliver:
QID: 1893252Mark For Review
A
40 shares
B
360 shares
C   
400 shares
D   
440 shares
A

440 shares

When a customer sells short, the brokerage firm borrows stock to deliver it to the buyer. All cash and stock dividends declared are the responsibility of the customer who sold the stock short. In this example, the company declares a 10% stock dividend. Therefore, a customer who sold short 400 shares will be required to deliver 440 shares (400 shares x 10% = 40 additional shares) when he covers the short sale.

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14
Q
An investor buys a 4.5% municipal bond at 103 1/4. The bond has a yield-to-maturity of 3 3/4%. If the investor holds the bond to maturity, he will have a loss for tax purposes of:
QID: 1893351Mark For Review
A   
0
B   
$25
C
$50
D
$100
A

0

The IRS requires that a premium paid for a municipal bond be amortized (written-off) over the life of the bond. At maturity, the investor will have an adjusted cost (after amortization) of par ($1,000). Since this is the amount received at maturity, there is no loss for tax purposes.

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15
Q
Which of the following CMOs has the MOST prepayment risk?
QID: 1893354Mark For Review
A
Sequential pay tranches
B   
Accrual or Z tranches
C
Planned amortization class (PAC) tranches
D   
Support or companion tranches
A

Support or companion tranches

The planned amortization class (PAC) is a type of CMO that is designed for more risk-averse investors and provides a predetermined schedule of principal repayment, as long as mortgage prepayment speeds are within a certain range. This greater predictability of maturity is accomplished by establishing a sinking-fund type of schedule. The PAC tranche has top priority and receives principal payments up to a specified amount. Any excess principal goes to a companion or support tranche that has lower priority. Holders of the companion tranche are generally compensated for this risk with higher yields.

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16
Q
Which of the following choices need NOT be preapproved by the firm?
QID: 1893291Mark For Review
A
Sales literature
B
Advertising
C   
A public appearance
D   
Research reports
A

A public appearance

Unscripted participation in live events is considered a public appearance and is not subject to preapproval or filing with FINRA. Advertising and sales literature is considered retail communication and needs approval by the firm. Research reports also require firm approval.

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17
Q
A client creates an opening sale in a LEAP and closes out the position 15 months later by buying back the option. The tax consequence is a:
QID: 1893280Mark For Review
A   
Short-term gain or loss
B   
Long-term gain or loss
C
Passive gain or loss
D
Gain or loss that may not offset other trading positions or ordinary income
A

Short-term gain or loss\

A LEAP is a long-term option that can have an expiration of up to 39 months. The client held the position for more than one year, but any gain or loss on a short position is treated as short-term. The IRS does not recognize a holding period on a short sale of a stock or an opening sale of an option. If the client created an opening purchase by buying a LEAP and held the position for 15 months before closing it out, the resulting gain or loss would be long-term.

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18
Q
A 1/2-point dealer's concession in a municipal bond equals:
QID: 1893247Mark For Review
A
$ .05 on a $1,000 par value bond
B   
$ .50 on a $1,000 par value bond
C   
$5.00 on a $1,000 par value bond
D
$50.00 on a $1,000 par value bond
A

$5.00 on a $1,000 par value bond

A 1/2-point dealer’s concession is the equivalent of 1/2 of 1% of the par value. This is the dollar equivalent of $5.00 on a $1,000 par value bond.

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19
Q
A corporation has $10,000,000 of a 5% preferred stock issue outstanding. If the corporation is able to replace the preferred stock with $10,000,000 of 5% subordinated debentures, what effect will it have on earnings per share (EPS)?
QID: 1893309Mark For Review
A   
EPS will increase
B   
EPS will decrease
C
EPS will remain the same
D
The effect cannot be determined
A

EPS will increase

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20
Q

Which of the following securities would you LEAST likely recommend to an investor requiring a fixed sum of funds to be received in 10 years?
QID: 1893305Mark For Review
A
A zero-coupon municipal bond
B
A high-yield corporate bond
C
Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs)
D
Treasury Inflation-Protected Securities (TIPS)

A

Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMOs)

The risk that an investor will receive her principal earlier than projected instead of at one time (i.e., prepayment risk) is the most important risk pertaining to mortgage-backed securities such as CMOs. Since the investor wants to receive a fixed amount of funds in 10 years, a CMO would be the least suitable of the securities listed.

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21
Q
If a Kingdom of Sweden Eurobond is purchased by a U.S. citizen, which TWO of the following statements are TRUE?
Interest is subject to income taxes
Interest is exempt from income taxes
Gains are subject to capital gains treatment
Gains are exempt from capital gains treatment
QID: 1893330Mark For Review
A   
I and III
B
I and IV
C   
II and III
D
II and IV
A

I and III

Eurobonds (bonds issued outside the country of the issuer) are subject to full taxation if purchased by a U.S. citizen. However, if foreign taxes are withheld on the interest, they may be claimed as a credit against U.S. tax liability.

22
Q

The following closed-end funds are listed in The Wall Street Journal.
Net Asset Value Market Price
American Fund 23.75 24.25
Bunker Hill Fund 21.85 21.50

A customer purchasing the Bunker Hill Fund at the current market price will pay:

QID: 1893246Mark For Review
A
$21.50 + a sales charge
B   
$21.50 + a commission
C
$21.85 + a sales charge
D   
$21.85 + a commission
A

$21.50 + a commission

Closed-end shares are exchange traded, they are purchased at their market price, not their net asset value (NAV). On the other hand, shares of open-ended companies (mutual funds) will trade for their NAV plus any applicable sales charges. The NAV + sales charge is considered to be a mutual fund’s public offering price (POP).

23
Q
If interest rates decline, which of the following securities is likely to have the greatest increase in market value?
QID: 1893265Mark For Review
A   
Short-term bonds
B
Intermediate-term bonds
C   
Long-term bonds
D
All bonds will experience the same change in market value
A

Long-term bonds

When interest rates decline, the bonds with the longest maturities will have the greatest price increase.

24
Q
RSR Corporation has earned $4 per share and has paid a 75 cent dividend per share. If the stock is selling at $38 a share, what is its price/earnings ratio?
QID: 1893263Mark For Review
A
2.02
B   
9.5
C   
12.6
D
50.7
A

9.5

The price/earnings ratio is found by dividing the market price of $38 by the earnings per share of $4. This equals a price/earnings ratio of 9.5 ($38 / $4). The amount of the dividend is not relevant in calculating the price/earnings ratio.

25
Q
An individual owns an ARF corporation 8% convertible debenture. The debenture is convertible at 20 and is currently selling in the market at 97 1/2. If ARF common stock is trading in the market at 18, at what price should the debenture sell to be at a 10% premium to parity with the common?
QID: 1893324Mark For Review
A
$900.00
B   
$965.25
C
$975.50
D   
$990.00
A

$990.00

Since the conversion price is $20 per share, the debenture can be converted into 50 shares ($1,000 par divided by $20 per share). If converted, the stock will have a total value of $900 (50 shares x $18 per share market price). To be at a 10% premium to parity, the debenture should be trading at $990 ($900 parity plus 10% of $900).

26
Q
If a customer is short RST call options, what other position would be considered when examining position limits?
QID: 1893365Mark For Review
A   
Long RST calls
B   
Long RST puts
C
Short RST puts
D
Long ABC puts
A

Long RST puts

If the customer is short RST calls, he anticipates that the market price of RST stock will decline. Since he is bearish on the stock, he could also be long puts on RST. This is considered on the same side of the market.

27
Q
Lunar Properties, Inc. announced that it will buy back stock next month. This means that Lunar Properties will be:
QID: 1893338Mark For Review
A   
Reducing its outstanding debt
B
Replacing debt securities with other debt securities
C
Reducing the outstanding preferred stock
D   
Reducing the outstanding common stock
A

Reducing the outstanding common stock

A stock buy-back is when a corporation repurchases stock it has previously issued. This transaction will decrease the number of shares outstanding and increase the amount of treasury stock. Refunding is when a company replaces old debt securities by selling new debt securities.

28
Q
A pension fund manager wants to protect the fund's diversified stock portfolio against a market downturn. To best meet this objective, he should write:
QID: 1893311Mark For Review
A
Yield-based calls
B   
Covered puts
C
Uncovered calls
D   
Index options
A

Index options

Index options will move with the market as a whole and, therefore, provide a better hedge than the other choices.

29
Q

Which TWO of the following choices are characteristics of GNMA pass-through certificates?
Interest and principal payments are received monthly
The investor will receive her principal back at maturity
Timely payment of interest and principal is guaranteed by the U.S. government
Interest is subject to federal tax but exempt from state and local tax
QID: 1893248Mark For Review
A
I and III
B
I and IV
C
II and III
D
II and IV

A

I and III

GNMA pass-through certificates are guaranteed by the U.S. government. Interest and principal payments are received monthly and, therefore, the investor will receive principal payments before, not at maturity. The interest is subject to federal, state, and local taxes.

30
Q

Which of the following items is NOT approved by a municipal securities principal?
QID: 1893242Mark For Review
A
A research report sent to a customer regarding municipal securities
B
Each account engaging in municipal securities transactions
C
All advertising relating to municipal securities
D
All orders to buy municipal bond funds

A

All orders to buy municipal bond funds

A municipal securities principal must promptly approve (i.e., initial) all transactions for municipal securities, except municipal bond funds because they are not defined as municipal securities. Municipal bond funds require approval by a different category of principal.
A municipal securities principal is also required to approve municipal advertising and the opening of each customer account related to municipal securities. Research reports are considered advertising.

31
Q

A member firm is required to send duplicate account statements to FINRA:
QID: 1893353Mark For Review
A
Under no circumstances
B
If the customer is an insider of a publicly traded company
C
If the customer is a principal of a member firm
D
If the customer is an employee of FINRA

A

If the customer is an employee of FINRA

A member firm is required to send duplicate account statements to FINRA when a customer of the firm is an employee of FINRA. The member firm would need written instructions from the employee of FINRA when opening an account in order to send the duplicate account statements.

32
Q

One of the major differences between an open-end and closed-end investment company is:
QID: 1893329Mark For Review
A
The composition of their portfolios
B
The types of securities that each may issue
C
The method of calculating net asset value
D
A closed-end investment company is exempt from new issue registration requirements

A

The types of securities that each may issue

Both open and closed-end investment companies must register when they issue securities. A major difference between open-end and closed-end investment companies is their capitalization (i.e., the types of securities they issue to raise money). Open-end companies, also referred to as mutual funds, may only issue common stock. However, closed-end companies may issue common stock, preferred stock, or bonds

33
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding closed-end investment companies?
QID: 1893290Mark For Review
A
The number of outstanding shares is constant
B
Shares are sold at the current market price
C
Shares may not sell below the current net asset value
D
Shares may be listed on the NYSE

A

Shares may not sell below the current net asset value

Closed-end investment companies are bought and sold in the same manner as common stocks. If a customer wants to sell a closed-end fund at the market, he will receive the current bid price (the market quote, not the net asset value). If a customer wants to buy a closed-end investment company at the market, he will buy it at the current offering or asked price. The market price of the shares can be at, above, or below the net asset value. Closed-end investment companies have only one issue of shares. Once sold, no new shares are issued. The amount of outstanding shares will remain constant. The shares may be listed on an exchange or trade in the OTC market.

34
Q
When comparing bonds rated Aaa to bonds rated Baa, with similar maturities and coupon rates, the lower-rated bonds will normally have which TWO of the following choices?
Lower market prices
Higher market prices
Lower yields
Higher yields
QID: 1893336Mark For Review
A
I and III
B   
I and IV
C
II and III
D   
II and IV
A

I and IV

As a bond’s quality (rating) increases, its risk decreases meaning a lower rate of return (yield) for the bond. Also, highly rated bonds tend to have a greater market price than lower-rated securities. Low-rated bonds tend to have lower market prices with higher yields to compensate investors for the risk involved in the investment.

35
Q
Which of the following securities will probably have the greatest fluctuation in price when interest rates move up or down?
QID: 1893301Mark For Review
A
Commercial paper
B   
Treasury bills
C
Treasury notes
D   
Treasury bonds
A

Treasury bonds

Treasury bonds have the longest maturity of the choices listed and will have the greatest fluctuation in price. Since they have the longest maturity, they will be exposed to the risks of the marketplace for the longest period.

36
Q

Foremost Corporation has declared a quarterly dividend of 25 cents payable to stockholders of record on Friday, December 1.
An owner of Foremost Corporation who sold the stock on November 30 for regular-way settlement:

QID: 1893310Mark For Review
A
Would be entitled to receive the dividend
B
Would not be entitled to receive the dividend
C
Would be entitled to receive the dividend only if the stock was delivered before the ex-dividend date
D
None of the above

A

Would be entitled to receive the dividend

The record date is given as December 1. The ex-dividend date is on the first business day preceding the record date. Therefore, anyone who owned Foremost Corporation and sold it on November 30 for regular-way settlement, is entitled to receive the dividend because the stock is selling ex-dividend (without the dividend) and the buyer is not entitled to the dividend.

37
Q
Who is responsible for certifying that a broker-dealer has compliance and supervisory procedures in place?
QID: 1893302Mark For Review
A   
The chief executive officer
B   
The chief compliance officer
C
The financial and operations principal
D
The general securities principal
A

The chief executive officer

The chief executive officer (or an equivalent officer) of the firm is required to certify annually that the firm has compliance and supervisory procedures in place.

38
Q
Which of the following ratios would be used by an analyst examining the capital structure of an industrial corporation?
QID: 1893274Mark For Review
A
The current ratio
B
The dividend payout ratio
C   
The price/earnings ratio
D   
The debt-to-equity ratio
A

The debt-to-equity ratio

The capital structure of a corporation is the dollar amount of the corporation’s capitalization (equity and debt securities). An analyst will, therefore, be interested in the debt-to-equity ratio. This is actually the ratio of those securities creating fixed charges (bonds plus preferred stock) to common stock.

39
Q
A member firm's response to a customer complaint may be:
QID: 1893244Mark For Review
A   
In written form only
B
In oral form only
C   
In either written or oral form
D
Unnecessary
A

In either written or oral form

40
Q
Confirmation statements must contain all of the following, EXCEPT the:
QID: 1893255Mark For Review
A
Date of the transaction
B   
Date on which the order was entered
C
Date of settlement
D   
Offer to disclose the name of the opposite party involved in the transaction
A

Date on which the order was entered

Transaction dates, settlement dates, and the offer to disclose the name of the contra-party in the transaction must be included on the confirmation statement. Although the date on which the order was entered is not required to be disclosed on the confirmation statement, it is included on the order ticket.

41
Q

An investor has annuitized a variable annuity and has realized that the payments he’s receiving are falling below market return. If the investor wants to reallocate a portion of the investment portfolio within the separate account, which of the following statements is TRUE regarding this situation?
QID: 1893243Mark For Review
A
The investor is permitted to change the allocation of the investments within the separate account.
B
The investor is not permitted to change the allocation of the investments within the separate account.
C
The investor can only change the allocation to a fixed-income portfolio.
D
The investor can only change the allocation to an equity growth portfolio.

A

The investor is permitted to change the allocation of the investments within the separate account.

Although some limitations may apply, the investor is permitted to reallocate their investments within the separate account. Keep in mind, both the decision to annuitize and the chosen settlement option are final.

42
Q
Duties of the designated market maker on the NYSE include which of the following responsibilities?
Maintaining a fair and orderly market in selected securities
Appointing floor brokers
Resolving trade imbalances
Arbitrating disputes between member firms
QID: 1893355Mark For Review
A   
I and II only
B   
I and III only
C
I, III, and IV only
D
I, II, III, and IV
A

I and III only

The responsibilities of the designated market maker include resolving trade imbalances, which may result from a temporary lack of supply or demand in a particular security. The DMM’s role also includes maintaining liquidity and a fair and orderly market. Floor brokers are not appointed by the DMM.

43
Q

A registered representative has learned that his broker-dealer is now able to offer a popular family of mutual funds in which one of his clients had recently expressed an interest. The RR would like to send an e-mail to the client notifying her that the funds are now available through his firm. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding this e-mail?
QID: 1893344Mark For Review
A
It is not covered by FINRA rules since it is electronic rather than hard-copy
B
It must be handled under the firm’s procedures for RR correspondence
C
It must be approved by a principal of the firm
D
This type of communication with customers is not permitted under any circumstances since it might be considered a prospectus

A

It must be handled under the firm’s procedures for RR correspondence

Under industry rules, electronic communications sent to 25 or fewer retail investors, such as text messaging and e-mail, are considered correspondence. FINRA does not require principal approval of correspondence prior to use, but firms are allowed to implement their own rules. FINRA merely requires a broker-dealer to create policies and procedures for handling both incoming and outgoing correspondence that is appropriate based on the nature of the firm’s business. Every RR must be familiar with their own firm’s policies regarding correspondence.

44
Q
What is meant by 4.50% less 3/4 for a municipal bond selling in the secondary market?
QID: 1893250Mark For Review
A
$1,000 bond at 4.50 yield less $0.75
B   
$1,000 bond at 4.50 yield less $7.50
C
$5,000 bond at 4.50 yield less $0.75
D
$5,000 bond at 4.50 yield less $7.75
A

$1,000 bond at 4.50 yield less $7.50

Quotes for serial municipal bonds are usually per $1,000 and on a yield-to-maturity basis. The less 3/4 represents the concession or discount offered to another dealer (3/4 point = $7.50).

45
Q

Foreign currency options use:
QID: 1893262Mark For Review
A
European style exercise with delivery in the foreign currency
B
European style exercise with U.S. dollar settlement
C
American style exercise with delivery in the foreign currency
D
American style exercise with U.S. dollar settlement

A

European style exercise with U.S. dollar settlement

Foreign currency options use European style exercise, which means that a buyer is only able to exercise her option on the day of expiration. Currency options also settle in U.S. dollars, rather than in the foreign currency. Investors who exercise currency options will receive U.S. dollars in an amount that is equal to the intrinsic value of their options on the day of exercise.

46
Q
Tactical asset allocation is a type of:
QID: 1893266Mark For Review
A
Buy-and-hold strategy
B
Systematic rebalancing strategy
C
Illegal scheme used to gather assets
D   
Active asset allocation
A

Active asset allocation

In tactical asset allocation, an investment adviser changes a portfolio’s asset mix in an attempt to time the market. This is considered an active asset allocation strategy. Buy-and-hold and systematic rebalancing are passive asset allocation strategies.

47
Q
An investor purchases 10 two-year ABC puts @ 12.25. The dollar amount the investor will pay is:
QID: 1893370Mark For Review
A
$122.50
B
$1,225.00
C   
$12,250.00
D
$122,500.00
A

$12,250.00

The cost of a long-term equity option is found by multiplying the premium quote by $100. The cost of 10 puts quoted at 12.25 is, therefore, $12,250 (12.25 x $100 x 10 = $12,250).

48
Q
If the equity in a long margin account is below 25%, how much cash can be withdrawn from the account?
QID: 1893346Mark For Review
A
25%
B
30%
C
50%
D   
None
A

None

49
Q
According to Regulation T, when purchasing an option contract the transaction must be paid for within:
QID: 1893334Mark For Review
A
1 business day
B
3 business days
C   
4 business days
D
7 business days
A

4 business days

50
Q
Which of the following securities are based on the credit rating of the issuer?
QID: 1893257Mark For Review
A
An exchange-traded fund (ETF)
B
A mutual fund that contains only non-investment-grade securities
C
A closed-end bond fund
D   
An exchange-traded note (ETN)
A

An exchange-traded note (ETN)

Exchange-traded notes (ETNs) are a type of unsecured debt security. ETNs carry issuer risk that is tied to the creditworthiness of the financial institution backing the note. If the issuer’s financial condition deteriorates, it can impact the value of the ETN negatively, regardless of how its underlying index performs. The credit rating of the securities included in a mutual fund, closed-end bond fund company, or ETF has an impact on these types of securities. These securities are not affected by the ratings of the company that is issuing the fund or ETF.

51
Q

Which of the following choices BEST describes the Bond Buyer’s Municipal Bond Index?
QID: 1893239Mark For Review
A
An indication of the average yield on 25 general obligation bonds with 30-year maturities
B
An indication of the average yield on 20 selected municipal revenue bonds with 20-year maturities
C
An estimate of the prices of 40 long-term municipal bonds
D
An indication of the average yield on 11 selected municipal revenue bonds with 20-year maturities

A

An estimate of the prices of 40 long-term municipal bonds

The Bond Buyer Municipal Bond Index provides an estimate of the prices of 40 recently issued, long-term general obligation and revenue bonds. Three other Bond Buyer indices provide an indication of the average yield on selected municipal bonds. The 25 Revenue Bond Index shows average yield on 25 revenue bonds with 30-year maturities, the 20 Bond Index shows average yield on 20 general obligation bonds with 20-year maturities, and the 11 Bond Index shows average yield on 11 general obligation bonds with 20-year maturities. These three choices each incorrectly described these other three Bond Buyer indices, which leaves the remaining choice as the correct answer.

52
Q
Which of the following annuities offers the shortest surrender period to avoid sales charges?
QID: 1893256Mark For Review
A   
L shares
B
C shares
C
A shares
D
B shares
A

L shares

Variable annuity L shares, also referred to as short surrender annuities, generally have surrender periods of three to four years, after which no sales charges apply. B shares, the normal annuity shares with contingent deferred sales charges (CDSC), typically have surrender periods of seven to eight years before sales charges disappear. A shares, are front-end loaded and C shares typically have associated 12b-1 fees.