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GP VOPPS Flashcards

1
Q

Contraindications of breast feeding.

A
  1. HIV when alternative feeding is suitable.
  2. Human T-cell leukaemia virus.
  3. Active TB while mother is still infectious.
  4. Illicit drug use.
  5. Some medications.
  6. Galactosaemia.
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2
Q
  1. HIV when alternative feeding is suitable.
  2. Human T-cell leukaemia virus.
  3. Active TB while mother is still infectious.
  4. Illicit drug use.
  5. Some medications.
  6. Galactosaemia.
A
  1. Contraindications of breast feeding.
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3
Q

Predisposing factors for mastitis.

A
  1. Cracked nipples
  2. Milk stasis.
  3. Sources of staph infection
  4. Past history of mastitis
  5. Depressed immune system
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4
Q

Treatment for mastitis.

A
  1. Keep the breast drained
  2. Antibiotics
  3. Analgesia/ anti-inflammatory agents
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5
Q

Antibiotic options/ regimes for mastitis.

A
  1. Dicloxicillin 500 mg QID
  2. Cephalexin 500 mg QID
  3. Clindamycin 450 mg QID
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6
Q

NHMRC - Infant feeding guidelines.

A
  1. Exclusive breastfeeding for around 6 months.
  2. Continued breastfeeding with solids for 12 months
  3. Continue breastfeeding for as long as mother and infant desire.
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7
Q

Murtagh’s diagnostic strategy for Acute Abdominal Pain: Diagnostic Probability in Adults.

A
  1. Acute gastroenteritis.
  2. Acute appendicitis.
  3. Mittleschmirtz/ dysmenorrhoea
  4. IBS
  5. Biliary colic/ renal colic
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8
Q

Murtagh’s diagnostic strategy for Acute Abdominal Pain: Diagnostic Probability in Children.

A
  1. Gastroenteritis.
  2. Infant colic.
  3. Mesenteric adentitis.
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9
Q

Murtagh’s diagnostic strategy for Acute Abdominal Pain: RED FLAG CONDITIONS in Children.

A
  1. Intussusception
  2. Acute appendicitis
  3. Bowel obstruction.
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10
Q

Whats the rash?

Rash features:

  1. Pale pink
  2. Maculopapular rash, usually confined to the trunk.
  3. Often fades within 48 hours.
A
  1. Viral exantha (fourth disease)
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11
Q

Whats the rash?

Rash features:

  1. Starts as bright macular rash on face with circumoral pallor.
  2. Then becomes maculopapular rash on limbs.
  3. Prodromal symptoms 2 - 5 days prior to rash onset.
A
  1. Erythema infectiousum (slapped cheek disease, or fifth disease)
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12
Q

Whats the rash?

Rash features:

  1. Sudden high fever, falling after 3 days.
  2. Rash after fever falls.
  3. Blanching erythematous rash on trunk and limbs.
A
  1. Roseola (sixth disease)
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13
Q

Whats the rash?

Rash features:

  1. Fever, headache, malaise, and sore throat 1 - 2 days prior to onset of rash.
  2. Macules that progress to vesicles.
  3. Present on palms, soles, and buccal mucosa.
  4. May appear on limbs, buttocks, and genitalia.
A
  1. Hand, foot, and mouth disease.
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14
Q

Whats the rash?

Rash features:

  1. Pruritic erythematous maculopapular rash with centripetal distribution.
  2. “Cropping” of vesicle, papules, and crusting lesions.
A
  1. Chickenpox.
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15
Q

Whats the rash?

Rash features:

  1. Blotchy erythematous maculopapular rash.
  2. Rash starts behind ears, spreading to face, then trunk, then limbs.
  3. Koplick spots (white spots on buccal mucosa)
  4. 3 C’s; coryza, conjunctivtis, and cough
A
  1. Measles
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16
Q

Whats the rash?

Rash features:

  1. Pale pink maculopapular rash, worse on sun exposed areas.
  2. Rash starts at face and neck, and spreads to extremities.
  3. Brief duration, with mild systemic symptoms.
A
  1. Rubella
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17
Q

Whats the rash?

Rash features:

  1. Gingivostomatitis
  2. May have vesicular lesion on face and conjunctivae
A
  1. Herpes simplex virus
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18
Q

Rash causative agent: Viral exantha (fourth disease)

A
  1. Various, especially enteroviruses.
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19
Q

Rash causative agent: Erythema infectiousum (slapped cheek disease, fifth disease)

A
  1. Parvovirus B19
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20
Q

Rash causative agent: Roseola (sixth disease)

A
  1. Human herpes virus 6
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21
Q

Rash causative agent: Hand, foot, and mouth disease.

A
  1. Enterovirus, usually coxsackie virus.
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22
Q

Rash causative agent: Chickenpox

A
  1. Varicella zoster virus
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23
Q

Rash causative agent: Measles

A
  1. RNA paramyxovirus
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24
Q

Rash causative agent: Rubella

A
  1. Togavirus
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25
Q

Rash causative agent: Herpes simplex virus

A
  1. Herpes simplex virus.
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26
Q

Whats the rash?

Rash Features:
1. Vesicopustular crusted lesions or bullous lesions.

A
  1. Impetigo
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27
Q

Whats the rash?

Rash Features:

  1. Prodrome: malaise, sore throat, fever, vomiting.
  2. Punctate erythematous blancing rash (boiled lobster)
  3. Texture of sandpaper
  4. Starts on neck, rapidly becomes generalised.
  5. Prominent in skin folds.
  6. Absent/ sparse on face, palms, and soles.
A
  1. Scarlet fever.
28
Q

Whats the rash?

Rash features:
1. Non-blanching petechial/ purpuric rash.

A
  1. Meningococcal septicaemia
29
Q

Whats the rash?

Rash Features:
1. Fever lasting 5 days or more plus at least 4 of the following:
a) polymorphous rash
b) bilateral conjunctivae injection
c) mucus membrane changes (strawberry
tongue)
d) palm/ sole erythema, desquamation or
oedema
e) cervical lymphadenopathy

A
  1. Kawasaki disease
30
Q

Rash causative agent: Impetigo

A
  1. Staph aereus

2. Strep pyogenes

31
Q

Rash causative agent: Scarlet fever

A
  1. Group A Strep
32
Q

Rash causative agent: Meningococcal septicaemia

A
  1. Neisseria meningitidis
33
Q

Rash causative agent: Kawasaki disease

A
  1. Systemic vasculitis
34
Q

National Immunisation Schedule: Birth

A
  1. HBV

2. TB (ATSI)

35
Q

National Immunisation Schedule: 2 and 4 months

A
  1. Diptheria
  2. Tetanus
  3. Pertussis
  4. HBV
  5. Poliomylitis
  6. Hib
  7. Pneumococcal
  8. Rotavirus
36
Q

National Immunisation Schedule: 12 months

A
  1. Measles, mumps, rubella
  2. Meningococcal
  3. Pneumococcal
  4. HAV (ATSI)
37
Q

National Immunisation Schedule: 18 months

A
  1. Measles, mumps, rubella, varicella
  2. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis
  3. Hib
  4. HAV (ATSI)
38
Q

National Immunisation Schedule: 4 years

A
  1. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis
  2. Poliomyelitis
  3. Pneumococcal (Medically at risk)
39
Q

National Immunisation Schedule: 6 months

A
  1. Diphtheria
  2. Tetanus
  3. Pertussis
  4. HBV
  5. Poliomyelitis
  6. Hib
  7. Pneumococcal (ATSI)
40
Q

National Immunisation Schedule: 12 - 13 years.

A
  1. HPV

2. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis

41
Q

National Immunisation Schedule: 14 - 16 years.

A
  1. Meningococcal
42
Q

National Immunisation Schedule: Pregnant women

A
  1. Pertussis

2. Influenza

43
Q

National Immunisation Schedule: 70 - 79 years

A
  1. Shingles - herpes zoster
44
Q

National Immunisation Schedule: Adult Pneumococcal

A
  1. 15 - 49 year old ATSI with medical risks
  2. 50 years and over ATSI
  3. 65 years and over general population
45
Q

Red Flags for NEW ONSET headache.

A
  1. Seizure but not epileptic
  2. Pregnant or post-partum
  3. Anticoagulants
  4. Amphetamine or cocaine use
  5. > 50 years
  6. Young and obese
  7. History of cancer or immunodeficiency
46
Q

General Red Flags for headache.

A
  1. Head injury
  2. Woken from sleep
  3. Neurovegtative symptoms
  4. Fever or vomiting
  5. Neck stiffness
  6. Worsened by cough/ physical activity.
  7. Abrupt onset
  8. Progressive worsening
47
Q

What’s the PV discharge?

Features:

  1. Offensive odour
  2. Dysuria
  3. Vulval itch with erythema
  4. Copious bubbly discharge
  5. Strawberry cervix
A
  1. Trichomoniasis.
48
Q

What’s the PV discharge?

Features:

  1. Thick, white, ‘cottage cheese’
  2. Non-offensive odour
  3. Vulval itch, oedema, erythema
  4. Skin fissures, satellite lesions
  5. Terminal dysuria
  6. Superficial dyspareunia
A
  1. Candidiasis
49
Q

What’s the PV discharge?

Features:

  1. Thin, grey/ white watery discharge.
  2. Fishy odour
  3. Discharge coats vestibule/ vagina
A
  1. Bacterial Vaginosis
50
Q

GP Management of Trichomoniasis.

A
  1. High vaginal swab for PCR
  2. Either: Metronidazole or Tinidazole
  3. No sexual contact for 7 days after treatment
  4. Current sexual partner requires treatment.
51
Q

GP Management of Bacterial Vaginosis.

A
  1. High vaginal swab for M/C/S
  2. No treatment if asymptomatic.
  3. Metronidazole or clindamycin before gynaecological procedures or if symptomatic.
52
Q

GP Management of Candidiasis.

A
  1. No treatment if asymptomatic (may be normal flora)

2. If symptomatic; clotrimazole or fluconazole creams

53
Q

Non pharmacological management of menopause.

A
  1. Diet
  2. Exercise
  3. Relaxation
  4. Reduce smoking
  5. Reduce caffeine
  6. Reduce alcohol
  7. Pelvic floor exercises.
54
Q

HRT oestrogen only option.

A
  1. Recommended in women post-hysterectomy
  2. No history of endometriosis
  3. Must be taken continuously
55
Q

HRT combined oestrogen and progesterone option.

A
  1. Given to women with a uterus.

1. Either continuously or cyclic

56
Q

Alternative options to HRT.

A
  1. Lifestyle changes.
  2. Tibolone
  3. Testosterone (in very low libido)
  4. SSRI and venlafaxine
  5. Complementary (naturals)
57
Q

First choice antibiotics for UTI.

A
  1. Trimethoprim

2. Cephalexin

58
Q

Combined oral contraceptives: MOA.

A
  1. Inhibits ovulation.
  2. Reduces receptivity of endometrium to implantation.
  3. Thickens cervical mucus to form barrier to sperm.
59
Q

Combined oral contraceptives: Protection from pregnancy.

A
  1. Best started on 1st day of period.
  2. Protected immediately if commenced on any of the first 5 ‘active’ days of the cycle.
  3. Otherwise protected following 7 active pills.
60
Q

Progesterone only contraceptives: MOA

A
  1. Acts on hypothalamus and suppresses pituitary LH surge.
  2. May inhibit ovulation.
  3. Thickens cervical mucus to form barrier to sperm.
  4. Reduces receptivity of endometrium to implantation.
61
Q

First choice antibiotics for TYPICAL community acquired pneumonia.

A

Either:
1. Amoxycillin
OR
2. Doxycycline

62
Q

First choice antibiotic for otitis media.

A
  1. Amoxycillin
63
Q

Adhesive capsultitis (frozen shoulder).

A
  1. Second most common shoulder disorder.
  2. Characterised by pain in 3 phases.
    a) Painful phase
    b) Stiffening phase
    c) Resolution
  3. Loss of motion in all planes to variable degrees
64
Q

Rotator cuff tear.

A
  1. Most common shoulder disorder.

2. Decreased ROM with relative full passive ROM.

65
Q

Laboratory tests for diagnosis of diabetes.

A
  1. FBG
  2. RBG
  3. OGTT
  4. HbA1c
66
Q

Diagnosis identified by screening: FBG or RBG

A
  1. FBG > 7.0
  2. RBG > 11.1
  3. Confirmed if same the next day.
67
Q

Diagnosis identified by screening: HbA1c

A
  1. > 6.5% on 2 x separate occasions

GP (7 decks)

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