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Google Forms Flashcards

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1
Q

The following are 3 impression-management rules to use in a psychological resume except

a. Relevant information
b. Unusual information
c. Positive information
d. Realistic information

A

d. Realistic information

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2
Q

A field of study concentrating on the interaction between humans and machines.

a. Human factors
b. Ergonomics
c. Human engineering
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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3
Q

Also called “ honesty test” which tells an employer the probability that an applicant would steal money or merchandise.

a. Integrity Test
b. Honesty Test
c. Discrete Test
d. Psychological Test

A

a. Integrity Test

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4
Q

Jeff’s work was checked by their supervisor for his first month. Later, he was already tasked to check his own work, choose his breaktime and other duties where he was more in control. This is an example of:

a. Job Enlargement
b. Job Rotation
c. Job Enrichment
d. Job Knowledge

A

c. Job Enrichment

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5
Q

You are the HR Staff assigned to evaluate the resume of a person applying
as Physical Education Teacher for Elementary Students. You agree that the
following are the applicant’s job competency EXCEPT:

a. able to sing, dance and draw
b. a graduate of BSED major in MAPEH
c. loves to deal with children
d. Proficient in MS Office and Adobe Photoshop

A

d. Proficient in MS Office and Adobe Photoshop

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6
Q

Nikee was hired as a Social Welfare Aide at a day care center but had a case of child abuse in the center the following month. The HR found out that he has previous similar administrative cases. Which of the following was committed?

a. Inefficient employee selection
b. Negligent Hiring
c. Hiring Lapses
d. Impudence

A

b. Negligent Hiring

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7
Q

The focus of personnel psychology is on selecting and evaluating employees. Organizational psychology, on the other hand, analyzes employee behavior within the context of an organization.

a. Only the first statement is
correct.
b. Only the second statement is correct.
c. Both statements are correct.
d. Both statements are incorrect

A

c. Both statements are correct.

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8
Q

Arnaldo tells his secretary that she must sleep with him to keep her job and be promoted. This is a case of

a. hostile environment
b. sexual harassment
c. pro quo quid
d. quid pro quo

A

d. quid pro quo

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9
Q

Ginger went to Jollibee and bought a bucket of chicken. She noticed that the bucket was printed with text indicating that they were looking for manager trainees. This unique approach to recruitment is known as

a. blind-box
b. point-of-purchase method
c. executive search firm
d. printed ads

A

b. point-of-purchase method

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10
Q

The applicant is being asked about his values and personality. This type of question is an example of

a. past-focused questions
b. situational questions
c. future-focused questions
d. organizational-fit questions

A

d. organizational-fit questions

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11
Q

Exposure and response prevention therapy works most effectively for this disorder:

A. Generalized anxiety disorder
B. Specific phobia
C. Panic disorder
D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

A

D. Obsessive-compulsive disorder

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12
Q

Patients with this
personality disorder exude a
sense of entitlement with the expectation of special favors but without assuming reciprocal responsibilities:

A. Antisocial
B. Borderline
C. Narcissistic
D. Paranoid

A

C. Narcissistic

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13
Q

What is the most common defense mechanism in patients with paranoid personality disorder?

A. Regression
B. Repression
C. Denial
D. Projection

A

D. Projection

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14
Q

Which anxiety disorder is characterized by persistent unwanted thoughts and ritualistic behaviors used to alleviate tension?

a. Phobias
b. Posttraumatic stress disorder
c. Obsessive compulsive
disorder
d. Generalized anxiety disorder

A

c. Obsessive compulsive
disorder

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15
Q

What is the primary difference between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa?

a. Amount of food consumed
b. Weight loss requirement
c. Weight loss methods
d. Severity of cognition distortion

A

b. Weight loss requirement

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16
Q

Free floating anxiety is associated with
a. PTSD
b. OCD
c. GAD
d. STRESS

A

c. GAD

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17
Q

This disorder is formerly known as hypochondriasis

a. Somatic symptom disorder
b. Illness anxiety disorder
c. Conversion disorder
d. Factitious disorder

A

b. Illness anxiety disorder

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18
Q

The following are also called psychotic symptoms except

a. Hallucination
b. Illusion
c. Delusion
d. None of the above

A

b. Illusion

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19
Q

An immediate emotional reaction to current danger characterized by strong escapist action tendencies, and often, a surge in the sympathetic branch of the
autonomic nervous system is called

a. Anxiety
b. Fear
c. Panic
d. Affect

A

b. Fear

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20
Q

Recurrent pulling out of one’s hair, resulting in hair loss despite repeated attempts to decrease or stop hair pulling is a hallmark feature of __

a. Trichotillomania
b. Excoriation
c. Alopecia
d. OCD

A

a. Trichotillomania

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21
Q

Forming hypothesis is a key development in which cognitive developmental stage?

a. Sensorimotor stage
b. Pre-operational stage
c. Concrete operational stage
d. Formal operational stage

A

d. Formal operational stage

22
Q

Language development happens because of reinforced unintentional verbal utterance is likely said by

a. Skinner
b. Chomsky
c. Bandura
d. Freud

A

a. Skinner

23
Q

Dr. Smartypants designs a research study in which she recruits a group of 60-year- olds, a group of 70-year-olds, and a group of 80-year-olds and interviews them about their health status every 5
years over time. What kind of study has she done?

a. Longitudinal
b. Cross-sectional
c. Sequential
d. Time-lag

A

c. Sequential

24
Q

Some of these influences are largely beyond a person’s control and may present rare opportunities or severe
challenges that the person perceives as turning points.

a. Normative influences
b. Nonnormative influences
c. Nonnormative history-graded influences
d. Non-hereditary influences

A

b. Nonnormative influences

25
Q

Roselle just graduated senior high school. When her friends asked her about her
plans for college, she answered, “I don’t know, and I don’t care.”

a. Identity achievement
b. Identity foreclosure
c. Identity moratorium
d. Identity diffusion

A

d. Identity diffusion

26
Q

These are unusual events that have a major impact on individual lives because they disturb the expected sequence of the life cycle.

a. Nonnormative influences
b. Normative age-graded
c. Normative history-graded
d. Nonnormative history-graded

A

a. Nonnormative influences

27
Q

This perspective on human development views human development as shaped by unconscious forces that motivate human
behavior.

a. Cognitive
b. Psychoanalytic
c. Evolutionary/sociobiological
d. Contextual

A

b. Psychoanalytic

28
Q

The current view of developmentalists that important changes occur throughout the entire human lifespan

A. multicultural perspective
B. lifespan perspective
C. biopsychosocial perspective
D. maturation

A

B. lifespan perspective

29
Q

The child might see an orange and say “apple” because both objects are round. This is known as

A. accommodation
B. assimilation
C. behavior modelling
D. centration

A

B. assimilation

30
Q

Vincent gets upset when his mother leaves her for a few hours but is not really reassured when she returns. He wants to be hugged yet rejects physical contact. His attachment pattern is:

A. Secured
B. Avoidant
C. Ambivalent
D. Disorganized

A

C. Ambivalent

31
Q

Which among the following is not one of the patterns of quality of attachment using the strange situation methodology?

a. Normal symbiosis
b. Secure attachment
c. Disorganized attachment
d. Anxious-avoidant

A

a. Normal symbiosis

32
Q
  1. Pattern of change in mental abilities, such as learning, attention, memory, language, thinking, reasoning, and creativity

a. Physical development
b. Cognitive development
c. Psychological development
d. Mental development

A

b. Cognitive development

33
Q

According to Marcia’s identity development theory, what are the 2 factors to consider?

a. Identity and role confusion.
b. Crisis and commitment
c. Dreams and passion
d. Plans and action

A

b. Crisis and commitment

34
Q

A war veteran experiences extreme fear whenever he hears the sound of fireworks because it is similar to the sound of explosions he heard during the war. This shows:

a. Stimulus discrimination
b. Stimulus generalization
c. Extinction
d. Higher-order conditioning

A

b. Stimulus generalization

35
Q

If a pregnant mother has deficiency with this vitamin, her child is at risk for having anencephaly and spina bifida.

a. Vit D
b. Vit A
c. Zinc
d. Folic Acid

A

d. Folic Acid

36
Q

What is the function of the Moro reflex?

a. It may have helped infants
cling to their mother.
b. Allows child to take in nutrients; protects against choking.
c. Help babies find the nipple for
nursing.
d. Assist the baby move from danger in water and survive until a caregiver can come to its rescue

A

a. It may have helped infants
cling to their mother.

37
Q

Which among the following is not an assumption of the lifespan perspective of development?

a. Development is a life-long
process.
b. Development is explained by the gain-stability-loss model.
c. Development is affected my multiple interacting forces.
d. Development is highly plastic.

A

b. Development is explained by the gain-stability-loss model.

38
Q

This is Piaget’s term for the mode of learning where in people use what they know to understand things around them.

a. Assimilation
b. Accommodation
c. Schema
d. Centration

A

a. Assimilation

39
Q

Which of the following is parallel to Freud’s oral stage?

a. Trust vs. Mistrust
b. Preoperational stage
c. Conventional stage
d. Early childhood

A

a. Trust vs. Mistrust

40
Q

At what stage of development is experience more influential in development according to John Locke?

a. Childhood
b. Adulthood
c. Adolescence
d. Senescence

A

a. Childhood

41
Q

Positively skewed distribution of test scores would mean that your test was probably _____ for your test takers.

a. too easy
b. too hard
c. either A or B
d. just right

A

b. too hard

42
Q

Willow recently got a score of 120 on a 150-item exam. His score is good enough to outrank 30 out of 40 students in his class. With this information, what is the percentile rank of Willow’s score?

a. 75th
b. 80th
c. 85th
d. 90th

A

a. 75th

43
Q

A parametric statistical test used to look for differences in scores of two different groups.

a. T-test Independent Means
b. T-test Dependent Means
c. ANOVA One-way
d. ANOVA Repeated Measures

A

a. T-test Independent Means

44
Q

What are the three properties of scales?

a. Mean, median, mode
b. Magnitude, equal interval, absolute zero
c. Raw score, distribution, frequency
d. Skewness, kurtosis, curve

A

b. Magnitude, equal interval, absolute zero

45
Q

The following classification of tests are under the measures of ability except

a. Aptitude test
b. Personality test
c. Achievement test
d. Intelligence Test

A

b. Personality test

46
Q

These are scores represented by an extremely atypical point located at a relatively long distance from the rest of the coordinate points in a scatterplot

a. Outliers
b. Outsiders
c. Outsources
d. Outpointers

A

a. Outliers

47
Q

In daily practice, the following people are in charge of administering, grading, and interpreting tests correctly:

a. Test developers
b. Test users
c. Test takers
d. All of them

A

b. Test users

48
Q

Each member of the university volleyball team has a number assigned to them. This use of numbers is best described as

a. Nominal Level
b. Ordinal Level
c. Interval Level
d. Ratio Level

A

a. Nominal Level

49
Q

Rafaela splits the test that she constructed into two equal parts. She splits it into middle, then correlate the parts. What might be her mistake?

a. She splits the test into middle.
b. She did not adjust the half-test reliability.
c. She splits the test into three parts.
d. She correlates the parts.

A

a. She splits the test into middle.

50
Q

The following are measures of internal consistency EXCEPT for:

A. Spearman rho
B. McDonald’s ω
C. Cronbach’s alpha
D. Split-half

A

A. Spearman rho

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