Glossary Terms Flashcards

1
Q

A time management strategy that allows you to arrange your daily tasks according to priority.

A

A-B-C Method

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2
Q

An unethical ticketing practice in which clients buy two round-trip discount tickets for less than the cost of one round-trip ticket at full fare, thus circumventing certain restrictions on the discount tickets by rearranging departures and returns.

A

Back-to-Back Ticketing

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3
Q

Organizations that sell travel agent identification cards to the general public, under the guise of bona fide employment in the travel industry, promoting access to travel industry discounts.

A

Card Mills

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4
Q

An unethical reservations practice of booking two reservations for an individual at the same time.

A

Doublebooking

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5
Q

Moral principles of right conduct.

A

Ethics

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6
Q

An unethical ticketing practice in which clients buy a less expensive ticket with a connection then actually end their trip at the connecting city.

A

Hidden-City Ticketing

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7
Q

An occupation requiring a specialized body of knowledge.

A

Profession

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8
Q

The term commonly used to describe people who earn their living by practicing some skill or engaging in some activity that requires expertise.

A

Professional

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9
Q

The quality demonstrated by professionals who possess the skills and knowledge to perform their jobs with expertise and who are committed to the standards of the occupation and to the interests of the client.

A

Professionalism

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10
Q

Files that remind you to do something, to assist with time management.

A

Tickler Files

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11
Q

A record of what you do and how long it takes you to do it, to assist with time management.

A

Time Log

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12
Q

The products or services that you offer your customers. This is the reason you are in business.

A

Core Service

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13
Q

The person from outside the business who comes to the business to buy the products or services offered.

A

External Customer

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14
Q

A small group of customers gathered together with a trained moderator to discuss a particular issue.

A

Focus Group

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15
Q

Anyone inside the organization who depends on you in order to get their job done.

A

Internal Customer

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16
Q

Brief opportunities that occur during a customer encounter when you have a chance to leave a lasting impression with that customer.

A

Moments of Truth

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17
Q

Upgrading or converting the client to a more expensive or inclusive version of a product or service, for example, an outside rather than an inside cruise stateroom.

A

Upselling

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18
Q

Service that exceeds the expectations of your customer and enhances the perceived value of doing business with you or the company you represent.

A

Value-Added Service

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19
Q

Listening technique used to show customers that you value what they are saying.

A

Acknowledge

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20
Q

The positive results provided by travel products, as perceived by the customer.

A

Benefits

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21
Q

Listening technique used to get more information about your customers’ needs.

A

Clarify

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22
Q

Successfully lead a customer to a buying decision.

A

Close the Sale

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23
Q

Questions that invite precise, brief answers, usually in the form of “Yes” or “No,” such as “Have you been to this destination before?”

A

Closed Questions

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24
Q

Listening technique used to check your understanding of the customer’s needs.

A

Confirm

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25
Q

Offering extra products and services that go beyond a core product, such as a rental car with an air ticket.

A

Cross-Selling

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26
Q

The sales approach in which salespeople act as consultants whose knowledge, skill, and motivation will lead buyers to purchase decisions that best suit their needs.

A

Customer-Focused Selling

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27
Q

The inherent characteristics of a travel product.

A

Features

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28
Q

Specialized terminology used by people who share a similar profession, such as travel.

A

Jargon

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29
Q

The initial point of contact that directs you to new prospects.

A

Lead

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30
Q

Questions that encourage people to talk, such as “What did you have in mind?” or “How have you enjoyed traveling in the past?”

A

Open Questions

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31
Q

Travel providers that have negotiated extra commission rates with your agency based on attainment of sales objectives.

A

Preferred Suppliers

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32
Q

Asking questions to delve deeper for more information.

A

Probing

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33
Q

The process of finding new customers or identifying prospective purchasers.

A

Prospecting

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34
Q

The process of asking thoughtful questions and listening for key responses to determine the customer’s travel needs.

A

Qualifying

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35
Q

A series of inter-related steps that describes the sales process.

A

Sales Cycle

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36
Q

The sales technique that requires skilled sales professionals to adapt the steps of the sales cycle appropriately to both satisfy the customer’s needs and keep the process moving toward a buying decision.

A

Situational Selling

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37
Q

The technique of asking questions like “How does that sound?” or “Will that work for you?” throughout the sales process in an attempt to gain your customers’ agreement and moving them closer to the close of the sale.

A

Trial Closing

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38
Q

Upgrading or converting the client to a more expensive or inclusive version of a product or service, for example, an outside rather than an inside cruise stateroom.

A

Upselling

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39
Q

The relationship between price paid and performance received or benefits perceived.

A

Value

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40
Q

Additional services or products that support or enhance the travel experience to make it more convenient for the customer.

A

Value-Added

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41
Q

A set of divergent aims, methods, and behaviors.

A

Conflict

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42
Q

Doing right things.

A

Effective

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43
Q

Doing things right.

A

Efficient

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44
Q

Statements of specific, measurable results to be achieved in accomplishing the objectives.

A

Goals

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45
Q

One who influences others to achieve a vision.

A

Leader

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46
Q

The reason or purpose why an organization, department, or project team exists.

A

Mission

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47
Q

A supportive system of sharing information and services among people and groups with common interests.

A

Network

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48
Q

A structured approach, without much discussion, that narrows a list of options, resulting in the selection of one or more choices.

A

Nominal Voting Technique

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49
Q

Broad statements of a desired future condition based on what needs to be achieved.

A

Objectives

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50
Q

An analysis tool used for separating the few significant factors from the insignificant many.

A

Pareto Chart

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51
Q

Descriptions of specific tasks required to accomplish goals.

A

Strategies

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52
Q

The interaction of two or more people or teams so that their combined results are greater than the sum of their individual efforts.

A

Synergy

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53
Q

Work assigned or taken on as part of one’s responsibilities.

A

Tasks

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54
Q

Any group that is committed and organized to work together to achieve a common purpose.

A

Team

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55
Q

The general direction in which something tends to move.

A

Trend

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56
Q

A deeply held set of beliefs that guide organizational behavior.

A

Values

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57
Q

Listening that occurs when a person takes the responsibility to understand something, without any prejudgment, by inviting the communication to continue.

A

Active Listening

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58
Q

The way people act.

A

Behaviors

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59
Q

Time that is under your control and is needed to work on important goals.

A

Discretionary Time

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60
Q

Describes a person who is doing things right.

A

Efficient

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61
Q

Describes a person who is doing the right things.

A

Effective

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62
Q

Planning, organizing, directing, and following up.

A

Functions of Management

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63
Q

Occurs when the sender and receiver of a message have a common understanding of the message sent.

A

Good Communication

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64
Q

States that 80 percent of the work gets done in 20 percent of the time.

A

Pareto Principle

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65
Q

States that work expands to fill the time available for its accomplishment.

A

Parkinson’s Law

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66
Q

A predetermined course of action.

A

Planning

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67
Q

Deciding when to do things.

A

Scheduling

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68
Q

Playing back, in your own words, all the major points that have been covered.

A

Summarizing

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69
Q

A category of travel that consists of a group of people who share a common hobby, interest, or activity, or who are united through regular participation in shared outings. Often it is treated as a subcategory of leisure travel.

A

Affinity Group Travel

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70
Q

A person whose life is centered on varied interests. There people are outgoing, confident, and curious. Also sometimes called a venturer.

A

Allocentric

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71
Q

A category of travel that consists of travel services provided to a business for an employee who is traveling to conduct the business of the firm.

A

Business Travel

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72
Q

The science of understanding why people make buying decisions.

A

Buyer Psychology

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73
Q

A method of classification or grouping people with similar characteristics together. Demographic measurements include age, sex, income, and employment.

A

Demographics

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74
Q

Travel that is undertaken because the traveler chooses to do so.

A

Discretionary Travel

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75
Q

Travel that is undertaken by travel counselors to learn about a destination or travel product.

A

Familiarization Trips

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76
Q

Travel offered by companies in order to reward employees for their accomplishments.

A

Incentive Travel

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77
Q

Travel bought by individuals or groups for pleasure.

A

Leisure Travel

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78
Q

Travel that is undertaken to attend an organized event or meeting.

A

Meeting Travel

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79
Q

A person who travels in order to break from the routine, and to strike a healthy balance between work and play.

A

Mid-Centric

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80
Q

Travel in which the traveler has no choice about dates or destination.

A

Non-Discretionary Travel

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81
Q

A person whose thoughts are centered on the small, everyday problems of the self. This type of person is inhibited and unadventurous, and values familiarity and comfort in travel. Also sometimes called a dependable or an authentic.

A

Psychocentric

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82
Q

A method of classification or grouping people with similar characteristics together. Psychographic characteristics include values, beliefs, and lifestyle.

A

Psychographics

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83
Q

The bank with the relationship with the merchant. The bank acquires—or accumulates—the credit card purchase slips for processing into the payment system.

A

Acquiring Bank

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84
Q

An additional security feature that indicates that the person presenting the card also knows personal information about the cardholder, such as the home billing address for that card.

A

Address Verification System (AVS)

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85
Q

A list provided by a company detailing the employees who are approved to travel using the company’s payment arrangements.

A

Approved-to-Travel List

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86
Q

The last copy of an airline ticket.

A

Auditor’s Coupon

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87
Q

The indication from the credit card company that the card is in good standing and has not been reported stolen and that the amount is not over the credit limit.

A

Authorization Code

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88
Q

A three-digit security number in italics is imprinted in the signature panel for MasterCard, VISA and Discover. The American Express card number is printed on the face of the card and contains four digits. It is generated with a mathematical algorithm to match only the account number of that card. When someone is able to give this number, it proves that he or she has the card in hand.

A

Card Validation Code

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89
Q

An amount that is charged back through the system to the merchant. Generally, the bank notifies the merchant with a debit memo, which deducts the amount of the transaction from the merchant’s account.

A

Chargeback

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90
Q

The computer system used to make reservations; either the general system used for airlines or a particular system used by the agency.

A

Computer Reservation System (CRS)

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91
Q

A plastic card issued by a bank or credit card company to its client with an account number specific to that client. The bank or credit card company promises to pay for the purchases made by the client with that card, provided the merchant verifies that the card is in good standing.

A

Credit Card

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92
Q

Associations (such as MasterCard and VISA) comprising all member banks (both acquiring and issuing banks). The association authorizes, clears, and settles credit card transactions. The association also is responsible for supporting the card trademarks, including legal, marketing, security, technical, and administrative efforts.

A

Credit Card Associations

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93
Q

A document that reverses a charge made by a client.

A

Credit Voucher

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94
Q

A global standard in which credit cards carry computer chips that cut down on counterfeiting.

A

EMV

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95
Q

An act or statement that attempts to deceive, trick, or cheat.

A

Fraud

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96
Q

The bank with the relationship with the customer. It “fronts” money for purchases immediately back to the acquiring bank and then to the merchant, and subsequently collects the money from the customer.

A

Issuing Bank

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97
Q

The acquiring and issuing banks involved in credit card associations.

A

Member Banks

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98
Q

A number punched into the system when a debit card is presented for payment to prove that the person using the card is the rightful cardholder.

A

Personal Identification Number (PIN)

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99
Q

An electronic terminal connected via modem to the credit card association; used most often in retail establishments to obtain authorizations.

A

Point-of-Sale Terminal (POS)

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100
Q

The person listed on the account as allowed to make purchases with that credit card.

A

Rightful Cardholder

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101
Q

A report made to the credit card companies, generally weekly, about that week’s credit card transactions.

A

Sales Report

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102
Q

A hard-copy paper charge form detailing the sale.

A

Sales Slip

103
Q

A special small character on the front of a credit card, stylized to show that the card belongs to the issuing company.

A

Security Character

104
Q

A permanent record of a person’s signature or an imprint of a person’s credit card, which proves that the card belongs to that person.

A

Signature-on-File or Card-Imprint-on-File

105
Q

When a credit card is swiped through an electronic point-of-sale terminal.

A

Swipe

106
Q

A program created by MasterCard to identify fraud-prone merchant categories or specific merchants that are likely to commit fraud. Other credit card companies have similar systems.

A

System to Avoid Fraud Effectively (SAFE)

107
Q

A type of routing in which the beginning and ending point of the itinerary is the same.

A

Circle Trip

108
Q

A narrated sightseeing event that takes place wholly within the city limits (standard length of time: one-half day or full day). It includes transportation (usually motorcoach), services of a local guide, fees/admissions to local attractions, and meals if applicable.

A

City Sightseeing Tour

109
Q

A narrated sightseeing event that takes place outside of the city limits, with a return to the originating point (excursions can be one-half day or up to several days in length). It includes transportation (usually motorcoach), services of a local guide, fees/admissions to local attractions, and meals if applicable.

A

Excursion

110
Q

A tour for which the travel professional books all elements of the tour and designs a unique and individualized itinerary for an independent client.

A

FIT (Foreign/Fully Independent Traveler)

111
Q

A type of routing that allows the client to stay in one “home base” for a period of time, while taking day trips and excursions. Similar to the hub-and-spoke system of the airlines.

A

Hub-and-Spoke

112
Q

The logical, interesting, and sequential planning of all the elements of a trip — transportation, accommodations, sightseeing, visits to attractions, meals, and so forth.

A

Itinerary

113
Q

A type of routing in which the arrival and final departure cities are different.

A

Open-Jaw

114
Q

All components of a tour itinerary, including transportation segments, accommodations, and activities.

A

Tour Elements

115
Q

Type of resort that includes accommodations, meals, entertainment, and a majority of on-site activities for a single price

A

All-Inclusive Resort

116
Q

The positive qualities of a travel product, as perceived by the customer

A

Benefits

117
Q

The inherent characteristics of a travel product

A

Features

118
Q

Basic questions beginning with “Who,” “What,” “Where,” “When,” and “Why” that are often used to pre-qualify clients

A

Five “W”s

119
Q

All of the activities that drive customers into your agency

A

Marketing

120
Q

The process of asking some basic initial questions to assess the buying characteristics of your client

A

Pre-Qualifying

121
Q

The actual cost of the vacation - the invoice amount

A

Price

122
Q

The process of identifying your clients’ needs by asking thoughtful questions and listening for key responses

A

Qualifying

123
Q

Generic brochures that allow you to send a customized message to prospective clients

A

Shells

124
Q

A sanction or approval from a legitimate source other than the salesperson

A

Third-Party Endorsement

125
Q

The strategy of testing your client’s readiness to buy

A

Trial Closing

126
Q

The relationship between the price your customers pay and the benefits they receive

A

Value

127
Q

Coverage provides cash payment for accidental loss of life or limb while traveling.

A

Accidental death and dismemberment insurance

128
Q

Coverage that reimburses for the purchase of essential items, such as toiletries and items needed until baggage is recovered if baggage is delayed more than a certain number of hours.

A

Baggage delay

129
Q

Coverage that reimburses for expenses incurred due to theft, damage, or the mysterious disappearance of personal property.

A

Baggage loss

130
Q

Coverage that reimburses the cost of damage to, or theft of, a rental car.

A

Collision loss/damage

131
Q

Coverage that pays for transportation ordered by a doctor to the nearest adequate medical facility (a facility nearest to the insured’s location that can handle the condition). Pays up to the policy limit for a special medical escort if recommended in writing by a doctor. Medical repatriation helps cover costs for returning home once the insured is able.

A

Emergency medical transportation

132
Q

The reasonable and necessary cost of treatment for injury or sickness—provided by a medical doctor, dentist, or professional nurse on an emergency or urgent basis—that is actually incurred by the insured (e.g., if the insured needs a prescription when he or she gets the flu).

A

Medical/dental expense

133
Q

An injury, illness of the clients (or that of a family member or traveling companion) that existed during a defined time frame before the date the client bought the insurance and paid a deposit for the trip.

A

Pre-existing condition

134
Q

Coverage that pays 100 percent of cost to the covered benefit amount. (That is, the travel insurance company pays first. There is no need to file with another carrier such as a medical or homeowner’s insurance company, airlines, and so on.) No deductible or copayment is required.

A

Primary coverage

135
Q

Insurance coverage and assistance services that safeguard the consumer before, during, and the trip.

A

Travel Protection

136
Q

Coverage that protects the insured’s financial investment if his or her trip is canceled or interrupted for covered, unforeseen reasons such as a medical condition, bad weather, unannounced labor disputes, termination of employment (only some companies), or financial default.

A

Trip cancellation/trip interruption

137
Q

Coverage that reimburses up to policy limits each day for reasonable additional accommodations and travel expenses, such as meals, taxis, and so on, when client is delayed more than a certain number of hours.

A

Trip delay

138
Q

A program from the United States Tour Operators Association that covers travelers’ deposits and payments for up to $1 million in the event that a USTOA active member company declares bankruptcy

A

USTOA’s $1 Million Travelers Assistance Plan

139
Q

An endorsement or recommendation from a third party

A

Testimonial

140
Q

A method of grouping people together according to difficult to measure factors such as values, beliefs, and lifestyle

A

Psychographics

141
Q

Gaining many little agreements that lead up to the major agreement

A

Pre-closing

142
Q

Prepaid, prearranged travel programs that include accommodations and other components such as transfers, rental cars, sightseeing excursions, meals, and/or admissions to attractions; may also include air transportation

A

Foreign Independent Tours (FITs)

143
Q

Independent vacation packages that include air transportation, accommodations, and a rental car

A

Fly/Drive

144
Q

An inherent characteristic of a product or service

A

Feature

145
Q

Short (one-hour, half-day, or full-day) tours of a limited area, such as a city sightseeing tour

A

Excursions

146
Q

A prearranged journey to one or more destinations that typically includes transportation, accommodations, sightseeing, and other components—plus the services of a professional tour director or escort from arrival at the first destination to departure at the final stop on the itinerary

A

Escorted Vacation

147
Q

A method of classifying people based on measurable factors such as age, sex, income, and employment

A

Demographics

148
Q

Keeping detailed records of clients’ demographic and psychographic data to segment the market and target qualified prospects

A

Database Marketing

149
Q

Questions that lead your client to the notion of escorted vacation travel

A

Assertive Questions

150
Q

The side of a mountain facing the wind.

A

Windward

151
Q

The portion of the earth including North and South America, Greenland, plus all adjacent islands and Hawaii.

A

Western Hemisphere

152
Q

Mountains that have openings from which heated solid, liquid, and gaseous matters are ejected. Three types are: dormant (can erupt again), active, and extinct.

A

Volcanoes

153
Q

A line of latitude that lies at 23.5 degrees south of the equator, which in combination with the Tropic of Cancer defines the tropical climatic region.

A

Tropic of Capricorn

154
Q

A line of latitude that lies at 23.5 degrees north of the equator, which in combination with the Tropic of Capricorn defines the tropical climatic region.

A

Tropic of Cancer

155
Q

A study of the world and its destinations, presenting what is relevant and practical to the travel professional.

A

Traditional Geography

156
Q

A study of the world and its destinations as seen through the eyes of a travel agent, about what is relevant and practical to the travel professional.

A

Tourism Geography

157
Q

The earth is divided into 24 zones, each with a width of 15 degrees longitude. Within each zone the time is one hour different than that in a neighboring time zone.

A

Time Zones

158
Q

All places on earth south of the equator.

A

Southern Hemisphere

159
Q

Indicates where various transportation systems travel, for example, airline and rail route maps.

A

Route Map

160
Q

Large natural inland streams of running water.

A

Rivers

161
Q

Shows natural features of the land: mountain ranges, peaks, valleys, rivers, and coastlines. Colors or shading are used to show elevation levels.

A

Relief Map

162
Q

Offshore ridges of land that rise to or just below the surface of the ocean.

A

Reefs

163
Q

The line of longitude running through Greenwich, England at zero degrees.

A

Prime Meridian

164
Q

Shows country, state boundaries, coastlines, island nations, major bodies of water, country names and capitals.

A

Political Map

165
Q

The study of the earth’s natural features and geography.

A

Physical Geography

166
Q

Land projections extending into the water that are longer than capes.

A

Peninsula

167
Q

Manor houses, castles, monasteries, and mansions that have been converted to hotels and inns; boast the local history and charm of the region. Located in Puerto Rico and Spain.

A

Paradores

168
Q

All places on earth north of the equator.

A

Nothern Hemisphere

169
Q

Land elevations that affect travel due to their effect on climate.

A

Mountains

170
Q

Tiny political units that are holdovers from medieval times. Some micro-states include Andorra, Gibraltar, Liechtenstein, Monaco, San Marino, and Vatican City (inside the city of Rome, Italy).

A

Micro-States

171
Q

Meridians or lines that are drawn north to south, converging at the poles, that measure degrees east and west of the prime meridian, which runs through Greenwich, England.

A

Longitude

172
Q

Found in various reference books; usually represent a small area (city or an island, for example) and identifies major hotels, attractions, and major streets.

A

Locator Maps

173
Q

The side of the mountain facing away from the wind.

A

Leeward

174
Q

Parallel lines of measurement drawn from east to west between the equator and north and south poles that measures degrees north and south of the equator.

A

Latitude

175
Q

Bodies of water that are encircled completely by land and are generally smaller than seas or gulfs.

A

Lakes

176
Q

Small bodies of land surrounded by water.

A

Islands

177
Q

An arbitrary line that is located halfway around the world from the prime meridian at which the date changes.

A

International Date Line

178
Q

Focuses on people and their patterns of settlement and activity.

A

Human Geography

179
Q

Large areas of the ocean water that penetrate into a land mass.

A

Gulf

180
Q

The time at the prime meridian that serves as the basis of all world time. Places to the east of GMT are later in time; places to the west of GMT are earlier in time.

A

Greenwich Mean Time

181
Q

The most accurate type of map because it represents the earth in three dimensions.

A

Globes

182
Q

Two-dimensional representation of a sphere.

A

Flat Map

183
Q

Inlets that are deeply indented into the coastline and are narrow with steep cliffs.

A

Fjords

184
Q

Active cattle ranches in South America that offer room and board at reasonable prices.

A

Estancias

185
Q

The portion of the earth including Europe, Asia, Africa, Australia, and the majority of the islands in the Pacific Ocean.

A

Eastern Hemisphere

186
Q

Portion of the surface of the earth in which there is little or no rainfall.

A

Desert

187
Q

Largest land masses on earth that include: North America, South America, Asia, Africa, Australia, Antarctica, Europe.

A

Continents

188
Q

Small and low islands comprised of sand and coral.

A

Cays

189
Q

Land projections extending into the water that are shorter than peninsulas.

A

Capes

190
Q

Deep, narrow valleys having high, steep cliffs.

A

Canyons

191
Q

Areas of ocean water, smaller than gulfs, that penetrate landmass but are less enclosed by land.

A

Bays

192
Q

A type of accommodation found throughout the jungle regions of the Amazon basin, some of which are extremely primitive; many lodges don’t have running water or electricity; only for the adventurous.

A

Amazon Safari Lodges

193
Q

Resorts found around the globe, offering resort living at one price that may include airfare, room, meals, tips, entertainment, and use of all sports equipment.

A

All-Inclusives

194
Q

Occurs when you fill the natural pauses in your speech patterns with sound.

A

Verbalized Pause

195
Q

Words or phrases tacked on to the end of statements that disrupt the flow from one thought to the next.

A

Verbal Disrupter

196
Q

Human responses expressed in words.

A

Verbal Communication

197
Q

Occurs when we end our sentences in a higher pitch, as if we are asking a question.

A

Uptalking

198
Q

A speaker-to-receiver zone of 4 to 12 feet that is usually used for impersonal message exchange.

A

Social Distance

199
Q

The first stage in the listening process, which occurs when sound waves reach our ears and we become aware that someone is trying to communicate with us.

A

Sensing

200
Q

The process of seeing what we want to see and hearing what we want to hear.

A

Selective Perception

201
Q

Ineffective listeners who hear remarks only of obvious interest to them and filter out those messages that are not of instant relevance.

A

Selective Listeners

202
Q

The fourth stage in the listening process, in which we take action as a result of the message.

A

Responding

203
Q

A speaker-to-receiver zone of 12 feet to limit of sight that is appropriate for public speaking situations.

A

Public Distance

204
Q

A speaker-to-receiver zone of 18 inches to 4 feet that represents the most common distance for communication in the workplace.

A

Personal Distance

205
Q

The way in which objective data are interpreted by individuals.

A

Perception

206
Q

Restating for the speaker what you believe is the essence of what has just been said; to reword the meaning of what was said.

A

Paraphrasing

207
Q

Questions that attempt to evoke a complex response that draws on the knowledge and experience of the person answering.

A

Open Questions

208
Q

All the kinds of human responses not expressed in words.

A

Nonverbal Communication

209
Q

Rules governing the proper, professional, and polite way to communicate with people online.

A

Netiquette

210
Q

A deliberate, mental process in which the physical messages are interpreted and understood by the person who receives them; psychological process in which meaning is assigned to what is heard.

A

Listening

211
Q

Specialized vocabulary used by people who share a similar profession.

A

Jargon

212
Q

A speaker-to-receiver zone from 0 to 18 inches that is typically reserved for those whom we know well.

A

Intimate Distance

213
Q

The second stage in the listening process, in which we assign meaning and importance to the sounds that we hear.

A

Interpreting

214
Q

The exchange of messages and meaning between two people.

A

Interpersonal Communication

215
Q

Ineffective listeners who hear only those messages that are pleasant, while blocking out messages that are negative or unpleasant.

A

Insulated Listeners

216
Q

Ineffective listeners who take everything they hear literally and ignore the tone of voice used by the speaker.

A

Insensitive Listeners

217
Q

A purely physical phenomenon in which sound waves are received by the eardrum.

A

Hearing

218
Q

All the verbal and nonverbal messages that we send out in response to our partners’ communication; any message, intentional or unintentional, sent by the listener to the speaker.

A

Feedback

219
Q

A communication style characterized by enthusiasm, humor, and liveliness.

A

Expressive

220
Q

The third stage in the listening process, in which we weigh the content of the message, sort fact from opinion, and render a judgment of the value of the message.

A

Evaluating

221
Q

The ability to imagine another person’s point of view, to project yourself into another person’s situation in an effort to understand his or her thoughts and feelings.

A

Empathy

222
Q

A communication style characterized by independence, efficiency, and decisiveness.

A

Driver

223
Q

Meaning that is objective and abstract, like the definitions that exist in the dictionary.

A

Denotative

224
Q

Ineffective listeners who take practically everything someone else says as a personal attack.

A

Defensive Listeners

225
Q

Meaning that is subjective and emotional, like the definitions that exist in the perceptions of our listeners.

A

Connotative

226
Q

Questions that limit the role of the person answering by seeking a brief answer such as “yes” or “no.”

A

Closed Questions

227
Q

A communication error that occurs when people interpret words or phrases differently.

A

Bypassing

228
Q

Nonverbal body actions such as gestures, body movements, facial expressions, eye behavior, and posture.

A

Body Language

229
Q

A communication style characterized by seriousness, logic, and precision.

A

Analytic

230
Q

A communication style characterized by friendliness, cooperation, and patience.

A

Amiable

231
Q

Ineffective listeners who cannot wait to jump into the conversation to disagree with the speaker.

A

Ambushers

232
Q

The level of listening that requires our highest degree of involvement; listening to help others by using verbal and nonverbal responses to express empathy for the speaker; listening for feelings and emotions.

A

Active Listening

233
Q

Principle of business writing that refers to the ability to write clearly.

A

Clarity

234
Q

Principle of business writing that involves presenting all the facts your reader will need to understand and respond to your message.

A

Completeness

235
Q

Principle of business writing that means writing the message in as few words as possible.

A

Conciseness

236
Q

The written component of various marketing communications, such as brochures and advertisements.

A

Copy

237
Q

Principle of business writing that means ensuring that what you’ve written is accurate.

A

Correctness

238
Q

Principle of business writing that means including remarks in your writing, showing consideration of your reader’s interests and feelings.

A

Courtesy

239
Q

An organizational format that begins with the most important information — usually the conclusion and perhaps a recommendation.

A

Direct order

240
Q

Cutting and rearranging text for final presentation.

A

Editing

241
Q

Electronic mail; refers to communications sent from one computer to another.

A

Email

242
Q

Refers to emotion icons or symbols resembling a face and used to express feelings in electronic messages.

A

Emoticon

243
Q

A special kind of short report that condenses a complex or lengthy subject into one concise page and may be attached to the complete report.

A

Executive summary

244
Q

An opening line that pulls the reader into the story.

A

Hook

245
Q

Includes any type of fact gathering short of a formal, controlled survey.

A

Informal research

246
Q

A style of writing in which key facts are up front, generally in the first paragraph, and sometimes in the lead sentence; supporting details follow in decreasing order of importance.

A

Inverted pyramid

247
Q

Refers to etiquette rules concerning the proper, professional, and polite way to communicate with people online.

A

Netiquette

248
Q

An organized method to disseminate news about your business (formerly called a press release).

A

News release

249
Q

The process of checking what you’ve written for changes or corrections that need to be made.

A

Proofreading

250
Q

A written document that presents a solution to fulfill a need.

A

Proposal

251
Q

An orderly, objective written message to assist in decision making or problem-solving.

A

Report

252
Q

Describes a problem to be solved and invites respondents to present their proposed solution.

A

Request for proposal (RFP)

253
Q

The attitude you convey about your written message.

A

Tone