Glossary Flashcards

Glossary terms used

1
Q

Acceptance Criteria

A

A set of conditions that is required to be met before deliverables are accepted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Accuracy

A

Within the
quality management system, accuracy is an assessment of correctness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Activity List

A

A documented tabulation of schedule activities that shows the activity description, activity identifier, and a sufficiently detailed scope of work description so project team members understand what work is to be performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Actual Cost (AC)

A

The realized cost incurred for the work performed on an activity during a specific time period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Adaptive Approach

A

A development approach in which the requirements are subject to a high level of uncertainty and volatility and are likely to change throughout the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Affinity Diagram

A

A diagram that shows large numbers of ideas classified into groups for review and analysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Affinity Grouping

A

The process of classifying items into similar categories or collections on the basis of their likeness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Agile

A

A term used to describe a mindset of values and principles as set forth in the Agile Manifest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Alternatives Analysis

A

A method used to evaluate identified options in order to select the options or approaches to use to perform the work of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ambiguity

A

A state of being unclear, having difficulty in identifying the cause of events, or having multiple options from which to choose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Analogous Estimating

A

A method for estimating the duration or cost of an activity or a project using historical data from a similar activity or project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Artifact

A

A template, document, output, or project deliverable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Assumption

A

A factor in the planning process that is considered to be true, real, or certain, without proof or demonstration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Assumption and Constraint Analysis

A

An assessment that ensures assumptions and constraints are integrated into the project plans and documents, and that there is consistency among them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Assumption Log

A

A project document used to record all assumptions and constraints throughout the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Authority

A

The right to apply project resources, expend funds, make decisions, or give approvals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Backlog

A

An ordered list of work to be done.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Backlog Refinement

A

Progressive elaboration of the content in the backlog and (re)prioritization of it to identify the work that can be accomplished in an upcoming iteration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Baseline

A

The approved version of a work project, used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Basis of Estimates

A

Supporting documentation outlining the details used in establishing project estimates such as assumptions, constraints, level of detail, ranges, and confidence levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Benchmarking

A

The comparison of actual or planned products, processes, and practices to those of comparable organizations to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Benefits Management Plan

A

The documented explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing and sustaining the benefits provided by a project or program.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Bid Documents

A

All documents used to solicit information, quotations, or proposals from prospective sellers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Bidder Conference

A

The meetings wit prospective sellers prior to the preparation of a bid or proposal to ensure all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. AKA Contractor Conference, Vendor Conference, or Pre-bid Conference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Blocker

A

AKA Impediment. An obstacle that prevents the team from achieving its objectives.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Budget

A

The approved estimate for the project or any work breakdown structure (WBS) component or any schedule activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Budget at Completion (BAC)

A

The sum of ALL budgets established for the work to be performed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Burn Chart

A

A graphical representation of the work REMAINING in a timebox or the work completed toward the release of a product or project deliverable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Business Case

A

A value proposition for a proposed project that may include financial and nonfinancial benefits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Business Model Canvas

A

A one-page, visual summary that describes the value proposition, infrastructure, customers, and finances. These are often used in Lean Startup situations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Business Value

A

The NET quantifiable benefit derived from a business endeavor that may be tangible, intangible, or both.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cadence

A

A rhythm of activities conducted throughout the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cause-and-Effect Diagram

A

A visual representation that helps trace an undesirable effect back to its root cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Change

A

A modification to any formally controlled deliverable, project management plan component, or project document.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Change Control

A

A process whereby modifications to documents, deliverables, or baselines associated with the project are identified, documented, approved, or rejected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Change Control Board (CCB)

A

A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Change Control Plan

A

A component of the project management plan that establishes the change control board, documents the extent of its authority, and describes how the change control system will be implemented.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Change Control System

A

A set of procedures that describes how modifications to the project deliverables and documentation are managed and controlled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Change Log

A

A comprehensive list of changes submitted during the project and their current status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Change Management

A

A comprehensive, cyclic, and structured approach for transitioning individuals, groups, and organizations from a current state to a future state with intended business benefits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Change Request

A

A formal proposal to modify a document, deliverable, or baseline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Charter

A

AKA Project Charter. A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Check Sheet

A

A tally sheet that can be used as a checklist when gathering data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Closing Process Group

A

The process(es) performed to formally complete or close a project, phase, or contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Communications Management Plan

A

A component of the project, program, portfolio management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Complexity

A

A characteristic of a program or project or its environment that is difficult to manage due to human behavior, system behavior, and ambiguity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Confirmation Bias

A

A type of cognitive bias that confirms preexisting beliefs or hypotheses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Conformance

A

The degree to which the results meet the set quality requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Constraint

A

A limiting factor that affects the execution of a project, program, portfolio, or process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Contingency

A

An event or occurrence that could affect the execution of the project, which may be accounted for with a reserve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Contingency Reserve

A

Time or money allocated in the schedule or cost baseline for known risks with active response strategies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Continuous Delivery

A

The practice of delivering feature increments immediately to customers, often through the use of small batches of work and automation technology.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Contract

A

A mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified product, service, or result and obligates the buyer to pay for it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Control

A

The process of comparing actual performance with planned performance, analyzing variances, assessing trends to effect process improvements, evaluating possible alternatives, and recommending appropriate corrective action as needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Control Chart

A

A graphic display of process data over time and against established control limits, which has a centerline that assists in detecting a trend of plotted values toward either control limit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Cost Baseline

A

The approved version of the time-phased project budget, EXCLUDING any management reserves, which can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Cost-Benefit Analysis

A

A financial analysis method used to determine the benefits provided by a project against its costs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Cost Management Plan

A

A component of a project or program management plan that describes how costs will be planned, structured, and controlled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Cost of Quality (COQ)

A

ALL costs incurred over the LIFE of the project by investment in preventing nonconformance to requirements, appraisal of the product or service for conformance to requirements, and failure to meet requirements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Cost Performance Index (CPI)

A

= EV/AC - A measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as the ratio of earned value to actual cost; an earned value management measure that indicates how efficiently the work is being performed with regard to the budgeted cost of the work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

A

A category of contract that involves payments to the seller for all legitimate actual costs incurred for completed work, plus an award fee representing seller profit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

A

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for he seller’s allowable costs (allowable costs are defined by the contract) plus a fixed amount of profit (fee).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

A

A type of cost-reimbursable contract where the buyer reimburses the seller for the seller’s allowable costs and the seller earns its profit if it meets defined performance criteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Cost-Reimbursable Contract

A

A type of contract involving payment to the seller for the seller’s actual costs, plus a fee typically representing the seller’s profit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Cost Variance (CV)

A

= EV - AC –> The amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, expressed as the difference between the earned value and the actual cost.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Crashing

A

A method used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Criteria

A

Standards, rules, or tests on which a judgement or decision can be based or by which a product, service, result, or process can be evaluated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Critical Path

A

The sequence of activities that represents the LONGEST PATH through a project, which determines the SHORTEST POSSIBLE DURATION.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Critical Path Method (CPM)

A

A method used to estimate the minimum project duration and determine the amount of schedule flexibility on the logical network paths within the schedule model.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cumulative Flow Diagram (CFD)

A

A chart indicating features completed over time, features in other states of development, and those in the backlog.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Cycle Time

A

The TOTAL ELAPSED TIME time from the start of a particular activity or work item to its completion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Cycle Time Chart

A

A diagram that shows the average cycle time of the work items completed over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Daily Standup

A

A brief, daily collaboration meeting in which the team reviews progress from the previous day, declares intentions for the current day, and highlights any obstacles encountered or anticipated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Dashboard

A

A set of charts and graphs showing progress or performance against important measures of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Data Gathering and Analysis Methods

A

Methods used to collect, assess, ad evaluate data and information to gain a deeper understanding of a situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Decision Tree Analysis

A

A diagramming and calculation method for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Decomposition

A

A method used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Definition of Done (DoD)

A

A checklist of all the criteria required to be met so that a deliverable can be considered ready for customer use.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Deliverable

A

Any unique and verifiable product, result, or capability to perform a service that is required to be produced to complete a process, phase, or project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Delivery Performance Domain

A

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with delivering the scope and quality that the project was undertaken to achieve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Development Approach

A

A method used to create and evolve the product, service, or result during the project life cycle, such as a predictive, adaptive, or hybrid method.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Development Approach and Life Cycle Performance Domain

A

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with the development approach, cadence, and life cycle phases of the project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

DevOps

A

A collection of practices for creating a smooth flow of deliveries by improving collaboration between development and operations staff.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Digital Product

A

A product or service that is delivered, used, and stored in an electronic format.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Discretionary Dependency

A

A relationship that is based on best practices or project preferences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Duration

A

The total number of WORK UNITS required to complete an activity or work breakdown structure component, expressed in hours, days, or weeks. CONTRAST WITH EFFORT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Earned Value (EV)

A

The measure of work performed expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Earned Value Analysis (EVA)

A

The analysis method that uses a set of measures associated with scope, schedule, and cost to determine the cost and schedule performance of a project.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Effort

A

The number of LABOR UNITS required to complete a schedule activity or work breakdown structure component, often expressed in hours, days, or weeks. CONTRAST WITH EFFORT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Emotional Itelligence

A

The ability to identify, assess, and manage the personal emotions of oneself and other people, as well as the collective emotions of groups of people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF)

A

Conditions, not under the immediate control of the team, that influence, constrain, or direct the project, program, or portfolio.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Epic

A

A large, related body of work intended to hierarchically organize a set of requirements and deliver specific business outcomes.

93
Q

Estimate

A

A quantitative assessment of the likely amount or outcome of a variable, such as project costs, resources, effort, or durations.

94
Q

Estimate at Completion (EAC)

A

The expected total cost of completing all work expressed as the sum of the actual cost to date and the estimate to complete.

95
Q

Estimate to Complete (ETC)

A

The expected cost to finish all the REMAINING project work.

96
Q

Estimating Methods

A

Methods used to develop an approximation of work, time, or cost on a project.

97
Q

Executing Process Group

A

Those PROCESSES PERFORMED to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project requirements.

98
Q

Expected Monetary Value (EMV)

A

The estimated value of an outcome expressed in monetary terms.

99
Q

Explicit Knowlege

A

Knowledge that can be codified using symbols such as words, numbers, and pictures.

100
Q

External Dependency

A

A relationship between project activities and non-project activities.

101
Q

Fast Tracking

A

A schedule compression method in which activities or phases normally done in sequence are performed in parallel for at least a portion of their duration.

102
Q

Feature

A

A set of related requirements or functionalities that provides value to an organization.

103
Q

Firm Fixed Priced Contract (FFP)

A

A type of fixed price contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount (as defined by the contract) regardless of the seller’s costs.

104
Q

Fixed Duration

A

A type of activity where the length of time required to complete an activity remains constant regardless of the number of people or resources assigned to the activity.

105
Q

Fixed-Price Contract

A

An agreement that sets the fee that will be paid for a defined scope of work regardless of the cost or effort to deliver it.

106
Q

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF)

A

A type of contract where the buyer pays the seller a set amount and the seller can earn an additional amount if the seller meets defined performance criteria.

107
Q

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FPEPA)

A

A fixed-price contact but with a special provision allowing for predefined final adjustments to the contract price due to changed conditions, such as inflation changes, or cost increases (or decreases) for specific commodities.

108
Q

Flow

A

The measure of how efficiently work moves through a given process or framework.

109
Q

Flowchart

A

The depiction in a diagram format of the inputs, process actions, and outputs of one or more processes within a system.

110
Q

Forecast

A

An estimate or prediction of conditions and events in the project’s future based on information and knowledge available at the time of the forecast.

111
Q

Function Point

A

An estimate of the amount of business functionality in an information system, used to calculate the functional size measurement of a software system.

112
Q

Gantt Chart

A

A bar chart of schedule information where activities are listed on the vertical axis, dates are shown on the horizontal axis, and activity durations are shown as horizontal bars placed according to start and finish dates.

113
Q

Governance

A

The FRAMWORK for directing and enabling an organization through its established policies, practices, and other relevant documentation.

114
Q

Grade

A

A category or rank used to distinguish items that have the same functional use but do not share the same requirements for quality.

115
Q

Hierarchy Chart

A

A chart that begins with high-level information that is progressively decomposed into lower levels of detail.

116
Q

Histogram

A

A bar chart that shows the graphical representation of numerical data.

117
Q

Hybrid Approach

A

A combination of two or more agile and nonagile elements, having a nonagile end result.

118
Q

Impact Mapping

A

A strategic planning method that serves as a visual roadmap for the organization during product development. It is used to establish and visualize the relationship between a specific business goal and the means for achieving it. This includes identifying the actors (aka, key stakeholders) involved, the unique role each actor plays (and the impact they make), and what deliverables they use to drive that impact.

119
Q

Impediment

A

An obstacle that prevents the team from achieving its objectives. AKA a blocker.

120
Q

Incremental Approach

A

An adaptive development approach in which the deliverable is produced successively, adding functionality until the deliverable contains the necessary and sufficient capability to be considered complete.

121
Q

Indefinite Delivery Indefinite Quantity (IDIQ)

A

A contract that provide for an indefinite quantity of goods or services, with a stated lower and upper limit, within a fixed time period.

122
Q

Influence Diagram

A

A graphical representation of situations showing causal influences, time ordering of events, and other relationships among variable sand outcomes. (flowchart)

123
Q

Information Radiator

A

A visible, physical display that provides information to the rest of the organization, enabling timely knowledge sharing.

124
Q

Initiating Process Group

A

Those processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.

125
Q

Internal Dependency

A

A relationship between two or more project activities.

126
Q

Interpersonal Skills

A

Skills used to establish and maintain relationships with other people.

127
Q

Issue

A

A current condition or situation that may have an impact on the project objectives.

128
Q

Issue Log

A

A project document where information about issues is recorded and monitored.

129
Q

Iteration

A

A timeboxed cycle of development on a product or deliverable in which all of the work that is needed to deliver value is performed.

130
Q

Iteration Plan

A

A detailed plan for the current iteration.

131
Q

Iteration Planning

A

A meeting to clarify the details of the backlog items, acceptance criteria, and work effort required to meet an upcoming iteration commitment.

132
Q

Iteration Review

A

A meeting held at the end of an iteration to demonstrate the work that was accomplished during the iteration.

133
Q

Iterative Approach

A

A development approach that focuses on an initial, simplified implementation then progressively elaborates adding to the feature set until the final deliverable is complete.

134
Q

Kanban Board

A

A visualization tool that shows work in progress to help identify bottlenecks and over commitments, thereby allowing the team to optimize the workflow.

135
Q

Kickoff Meeting

A

A gathering of team members and other key stakeholders at the outset of a project to formally set expectations, gain a common understanding, and commence work.

136
Q

Knowledge

A

A mixture of experience, values and beliefs, contextual information, intuition, and insight that people use to make sense of new experiences and information.

137
Q

Lag

A

The amount of time whereby a successor activity will be delayed with respect to a predecessor activity.

138
Q

Last Responsible Moment

A

The concept of deferring a decision to allow the team to consider multiple options until the cost of further delay would exceed the benefit.

139
Q

Lead

A

The amount of time whereby a successor activity can be advanced with respect to a predecessor activity.

140
Q

Lead Time

A

The time between a customer request and the actual delivery.

141
Q

Lead Time Chart

A

A diagram showing the trend over time of the average lead time of the items completed in work.

142
Q

Lean Startup Canvas

A

A one-page template designed to communicate a business plan with key stakeholders in an efficient and effective manner.

143
Q

Lessons Learned

A

The knowledge gained during a project, which shows how project events were addressed or should be addressed in the future, for the purpose of improving future performance.

144
Q

Lessons Learned Register

A

A project document used to record knowledge gained during a project, phase, or iteration so that it can be used to improve future performance for the team and the organization.

145
Q

Life Cycle

A

AKA Project Life Cycle. A series of phases that represent the evolution of a product, from concept through delivery, growth, maturity, and to retirement.

146
Q

Life Cycle Assessment (LCA)

A

A tool used to evaluate the total environmental impact of a product, process, or system.

147
Q

Log

A

A document used to record and describe or denote selected items identified during execution of a process or activity. Usually used with a modifier, such as issue, change, or assumption.

148
Q

Make-or-Buy Analysis

A

The process of gathering and organizing data about product requirements and analyzing them against available alternatives including the purchase or internal manufacturing of the product.

149
Q

Management Reserve

A

An amount of the project budget or project schedule held outside of the performance measurement baseline for management control purposes that is reserved for unforeseen work that is within the project scope.

150
Q

Mandatory Dependency

A

A relationship that is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work.

151
Q

Measurement Performance Domain

A

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with assessing project performance and taking appropriate actions to maintain acceptable performance.

152
Q

Measures of Peformance

A

Measures that characterize physical or functional attributes relating to system operation.

153
Q

Method

A

A means for achieving an outcome, output, result, or project deliverable.

154
Q

Methodology

A

A system of practices, techniques, procedures, and rules used by those who work in a discipline.

155
Q

Metric

A

A description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it.

156
Q

Milestone

A

A significant point or event in a project, program, or portfolio.

157
Q

Milestone Schedule

A

A type of schedule that presents milestones with planned dates.

158
Q

Minimum Viable Product (MVP)

A

A concept used to define the scope of the first release of a solution to customers by identifying the fewest number of features or requirements that would deliver value.

159
Q

Modeling

A

Creating simplified representations of systems, solutions, or deliverables such as prototypes, diagrams, or storyboards.

160
Q

Monitor

A

Collect project performance data, produce performance measures, and report and disseminate performance information.

161
Q

Monitoring and Controlling Process Group

A

Those processes required to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate corresponding changes.

162
Q

Monte Carlo Simulation

A

A method of identifying the potential impacts of risk and uncertainty using multiple iterations of a computer model to develop a probability distribution of a range of outcomes that could result from a decision or course of action.

163
Q

Mood Chart

A

A visualization chart for tracking mood or reactions to identify areas for improvement.

164
Q

Multipoint Estimating

A

A method used to estimate cost or duration by applying an average or weighted average of optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates when there is uncertainty with the individual activity estimates.

165
Q

Net Promoter Score

A

An index that measures the willingness of customers to recommend an organization’s products or services to others.

166
Q

Network Path

A

A sequence of activities connected by logical relationships in a project schedule network diagram.

167
Q

Objective

A

Something toward which work is to be directed; a strategic position to be attained, a purpose to be achieved, a result to be obtained, a product to be produced, or a service to be performed.

168
Q

Opportunity

A

A risk that would have a positive effect on one or more project objectives.

169
Q

Organizational Process Assets (OPA)

A

Plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases that are specific to and used by the performing organization.

170
Q

Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)

A

A hierarchical representation of the project organization, which illustrates the relationship between project activities and the organizational units that will perform those activities. (org chart)

171
Q

Osmatic Communication

A

Means of receiving information without direct communication by overhearing and through nonverbal cues.

172
Q

Outcome

A

An end result or consequence of a process or peoject.

173
Q

Parametric Estimating

A

An estimating method in which an algorithm is used to calculate cost or duration based on historical data and project parameters.

174
Q

Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB)

A

Integrated scope, schedule, and cost baselines used for comparison to manage, measure, and control project execution.

175
Q

Phase Gate

A

A review at the end of a phase in which a decision is made to continue to the next phase, to continue with modification, or to end a project or program.

176
Q

Plan

A

A proposed means of accomplishing something.

177
Q

Planned Value (PV)

A

The authorized budget assigned to scheduled work.

178
Q

Planning Performance Domain

A

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with the initial, ongoing, and evolving organization and coordination necessary for delivering project deliverables and results.

179
Q

Planning Process Group

A

Those processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve.

180
Q

Portfolio

A

Projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives.

181
Q

Portfolio Management

A

The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.

182
Q

Precision

A

Within the quality management system, precision is an assessment of exactness.

183
Q

Predictive Approach

A

A development approach in which the project scope, time, and cost are determined in the early phases of the life cycle.

184
Q

Prioritization Matrix

A

A scatter diagram that plots effort against value so as to classify items by priority.

185
Q

Prioritization Schema

A

Methods used to prioritize portfolio, program, or project components, as well as requirements, risks, features, or other product information.

186
Q

Probability and Impact Matrix

A

A grid for mapping the probability of occurrence of each risk and its impact on project objectives if that risk occurs.

187
Q

Probabilistic Estimating

A

A method used to develop a range of estimates along with the associated probabilities within that range.

188
Q

Procurement Management Plan

A

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside of the performing organization.

189
Q

Product

A

An artifact that is produced, is quantifiable, and can be either an end item in itself or a component item.

190
Q

Product Breakdown Structure (PBS)

A

A hierarchical structure reflecting a product’s components and deliverables. It’s a product-based planning technique that breaks down a product into its components, sub-components, and tasks.

191
Q

Product Life Cycle

A

A series of phases that represent the evolution of a product, from concept through delivery, growth, maturity, and to retirement.

192
Q

Product Management

A

The integration of people, data, processes, and business systems to create, maintain, and evolve a product or service throughout its life cycle.

193
Q

Product Owner

A

A person responsible for maximizing the value of the product and accountable for the end product.

194
Q

Product Scope

A

The features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result.

195
Q

Program

A

Related projects, subsidiary programs, and program activities that are managed in a coordinated manner to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually.

196
Q

Program Management

A

The application of knowledge, skills, and principles to a program to achieve the program objectives and obtain benefits and control not available by managing program components individually.

197
Q

Progressive Elaboration

A

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information and more accurate estimates become available.

198
Q

Project

A

A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

199
Q

Project Brief

A

A high-level overview of the goals, deliverables, and processes for the project.

200
Q

Project Calendar

A

A calendar that identifies working days and shifts that are available for scheduled activities.

201
Q

Project Charter

A

A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

202
Q

Project Governance

A

The framework, functions, and processes that guide project management activities in order to create a unique product, service, or result to meet organizational, strategic, and operational goals.

203
Q

Project Lead

A

A person who helps the project team to achieve the project objectives, typically by orchestrating the work of the project.

204
Q

Project Life Cycle

A

The series of phases that a project passes through from its start to its finish.

205
Q

Project Management

A

The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

206
Q

Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK)

A

A term that describes the knowledge within the profession of project management.

207
Q

Project Management Office (PMO)

A

A management structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques.

208
Q

Project Management Plan

A

The document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed.

209
Q

Project Management Process Grouping

A

A logical grouping of project management inputs, tools, and techniques, and outputs. The Project Management Process Groups include initiating processes, planning processes, executing processes, monitoring and controlling processes, and closing processes.

210
Q

Project Management Team

A

The members of the project ream who are directly involved in project management activities.

211
Q

Project Manager

A

The person assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives.

212
Q

Project Phase

A

A collection of logically related activities that culminates in the completion of one or more deliverables.

213
Q

Project Review

A

An event at the end of a phase or project to assess the status, evaluate the value delivered, and determine if the project is ready to move to the next phase or transition to operations.

214
Q

Project Schedule

A

An output of a schedule model that presents linked activities with planned dates, durations, milestones, and resources.

215
Q

Project Schedule Network Diagram

A

A graphical representation of the logical relationships among the project schedule activities.

216
Q

Project Scope

A

The work performed to deliver a product, service or result with the specified features and functions.

217
Q

Project Scope Statement

A

The description of the project scope, major deliverables, and exclusions.

218
Q

Project Team

A

A set of individuals performing the work of the project to achieve its objectives.

219
Q

Project Vision Statement

A

A concise, high-level description of the project that states the purpose and inspires the team to contribute to the project.

220
Q

Project Work Performance Domain

A

The performance domain that addresses activities and functions associated with establishing project processes, managing physical resources, and fostering a learning environment.

221
Q

Prototype

A

A working model used to obtain early feedback on the expected product before actually building it.

222
Q

Quality

A

The degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.

223
Q

Quality Management Plan

A

A component of the project or program management plan that describes how applicable policies, procedures, and guidelines will be implemented to achieve the quality objectives.

224
Q

Quality Metrics

A

A description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it.

225
Q

Quality Policy

A

The basic principles that should govern the organization’s actions as it implements its system for quality management.

226
Q

Quality Report

A

A project document that includes quality management issues, recommendations for corrective actions and a summary of findings from quality control activities and may include recommendations for process, project, and product improvements.

227
Q

Register

A

A written record of regular entries for evolving aspects of a project, such as risks, stakeholders, or defects.

228
Q

Regression Analysis

A

An analytical method where a series of input variables are examined in relation to their corresponding output results in order to develop a mathematical or statistical relationship.

A set of statistical methods used for the estimation of relationships between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables. It can be utilized to assess the strength of the relationship between variables and for modeling the future relationship between them.

229
Q
A