Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 > GI > Flashcards

GI Flashcards

1
Q

What genetic defect is duodenal atresia associated with?

A

Down Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What exposure is associated to hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

A

Macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is derived from ventral pancreatic bud?

A

Uncinate process

Main pancreatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is derived from dorsal pancreatic bud?

A

Body
Tail
Isthmus
Accessory pancreatic duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is it called when the vetnral and dorsal buds of the pancreas fail to fuse?

A

Pancreas divisum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Falciform Ligagment

A
  • Liver –> anterior abdominal wall

- Ligamentum teres hepatis (derivative of fetal umbilical vein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hepatoduodenal Ligament

A
  • Liver –> duodenum

- Portal triad: proper hepatic a, portal v, common bile duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pringle Maneuver

A

Compress hepatoduodenal ligament during surgery to control bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gastrohepatic Ligament

A
  • Liver –> lesser curvature of the stomach
  • Gastric a
  • May be cut during surgery to access lesser sac
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Gastrocolic Ligament

A
  • Greater curvature and transverse colon
  • Gastroepiploic arteries
  • Part of GO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gastrosplenic Ligament

A

Greater curvature and spleen

  • Short gastrics, L gastroepiploic
  • Part of GO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Splenorenal Ligament

A

Spleen –> posterior abdominal wall

- Splenic artery and vein, tail of pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where are Brunner glands found and what do they secrete?

A

HCO3-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where are Peyer Patches found?

A

Ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where does celiac trunk come off aorta?

A

T12/L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where does SMA come off aorta?

A

L1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where does IMA come off aorta?

A

L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where does aorta bifurcate into left and right common iliac?

A

L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

SMA Syndrome?

A
  • Intermittent intestinal obstruciton sx (postprandial pain) when 3rd portion of duodenum (transverse) is compressed between SMA and aorta
  • Diminished fat (low body weight, malnutrition)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Above pectinate line - A, V, L, N

A 
A: IMA (superior rectal artery)
V: IMV (superior rectal vein)
L: internal iliac lymph nodes
N: visceral
- Internal hemorrhoids not painful
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Below pectinate line - A, V, L, N

A

A: inferior rectal artery (from internal pudendal)
V: inferior rectal v –> internal pudendal v –> internal iliac –> common iliac –> IVC
L: superficial inguinal nodes
N: inferior rectal branch of pudendal (somatic)
- External hemorrhoids (painful if thrombosed), anal fissures, SCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Femoral Sheath Contents

A
  • Femoral vein, artery, and canal (deep inguinal LN) but NOT femoral nerve
  • Lateral to medial: nerve, artery, vein, lymphatics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What structures do indirect inguinal hernias go through?

- Male infants

A

Internal (deep) inguinal ring, external (superficial) inguinal ring, into scorum
- Covered by all three layers of spermatic fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Indirect inguinal hernia relationship to inferior epigastric vessels?

A
  • LATERAL to inferior epigastric vessels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the cause of indirect inguinal hernia?

A

Failure of processus vaginalis to close (can form hydrocele)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What structures do direct inguinal hernias go through?

- Old men

A

Inguinal (Hesselbach) triangle directly through abdominal wall

  • Goes through external (superficial) inguinal ring only
  • Covered by external spermatic fascia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Direct inguinal hernia relationship to inferior epigastric vessels?

A

MEDIAL to inferior epigastric vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What structures do femoral hernias go through?

- Females

A
  • Femoral canal –> protrudes below inguinal ligament
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Femoral hernia relationship to pubic tubercle?

A

BELOW and LATERl to pubic tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Borders of inguinal (Hesselbach) triangle?

A

Inferior epigastric vessels, lateral border of rectus abdominis, inguinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What can cause increased levels of gastrin?

A

Chronic PPI use, chronic atrophic gastritis (H. pylori), ZE Syndrome (gastrinoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is octreotide used for?

A

Acromegaly, carcinoid syndrome, variceal bleeding

- Somatostatin analog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does erythromycin stimulate intestinal peristalsis?

A

Motilin R agonists –> produces migrating motor complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Loss of NO secretion implicated in what disorder?

A

Achalasia –> increases LES tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

AI destruction of parietal cells –>

A

Chronic gastritis

Pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which cells secrete pepsin?

A

Chief cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What E converts trypsinogen to trypsin?

A

Enterokinase/enteropeptidase (brush border E on duodenal and jejunal mucosa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Function of D-xylose absorption test?

A
  • Distinguishes GI mucosal damage from other causes of malabsorption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where is iron absorbed?

A
  • Duodenum as Fe2+
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where is folate absorbed?

A

Small bowel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Where is B12 absorbed?

A

Terminal ileum along with bile salts

Requires IF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

E responsible for conjugating bilirubin?

A

UDP-glucuronosyl-transferase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What infection can cause achalasia?

A

Chagas (T. cruzi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Boerhaave Syndrome

A
  • Transmural distal esophageal rupture with pneumomediastinum
  • Due to violent retching
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Candida esophagitis

A

White pseudomembrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

HSV-1 esophagitis

A

Punched-out ulcers

47
Q

CMV esophagitis

A

Linear ulcers

48
Q

Plummer-Vinson Syndrome

A
  • Dysphagia + Fe deficient anemia + esophageal webs

- Increased risk of SCC

49
Q

What does Barrett esophagus increase the risk of?

A

Adenocarcinoma

50
Q

Menetrier Disease

A
  • Gastric hyperplasia of mucosa –> hypertrophied rugae (looks like brain gyri)
  • Excess mucus production w/ protein loss and PC atrophy with decreased acid production
  • Precancerous
51
Q

What are skin manifestations of gastric cancer?

A 
Acanthosis nigricans (axillary region)
Leser-Trelat sign (seborrheic keratosis)
52
Q

Causes of intestinal type gastric cancer?

A 
H pylori
Dietary nitrosamines (smoked foods) - Japan
Tobacco smoking
Achlorhydria
Chronic gastritis
53
Q

Characteristics of diffuse gastric cancer?

A
  • Signet ring cells (mucin-filled cells with peripheral nuclei)
  • Grossly thickened and leathery (linitis plastica)
54
Q

Ulcer hemorrhage in duodenum?

A

Posterior

55
Q

Rupture gastric ulcer on lesser curvature of stomach is bleeding from..?

A

Left gastric a

56
Q

Ruptured gastric ulcer on posterior wall of duodenum is bleeding from…?

A

Gastroduodenal artery

57
Q

Ulcer perforation in duodenum?

A

Anterior

58
Q

What is Sudan stain for?

A

Fecal fat

59
Q

HLA associated with celiac?

A

HLA-DQ2 and DQ8

60
Q

Celiac antibodies?

A

IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase
Anti-endomysial
Anti-deamidated gliadin peptide

61
Q

Whipple DZ

  • Cardiac sx, arthralgias, neuro sx
  • Older men
A
  • Tropheryma whipplei (IC G-)
  • PAS+
  • Foamy macs in intestinal LP
62
Q

Increased risk of Hirschprung with what genetic defect?

A

Down syndrome

63
Q

Rectal suction bx for Hirschprung in what layer?

A

Submucosa –> lack of ganglion cells

64
Q

Currant jelly stools?

A

intussusception

65
Q

Intussusception in adults?

A

Mass/tumor

66
Q

Intussusception in adults?

A

Idiopathic, infection (Peyer patch hypertrophy)

67
Q

Intussusception associated iwth what pathologic lead point?

A

Meckel diverticulum

68
Q

Most common cause of small bowerl obstruction?

A

Adhesions ater surgery

69
Q

Meconium Ileus

A

CF - prevents stool passage at birth

70
Q

Necrotizing Enterocolitis

  • Premature, formula fed infants
  • Feeding intolerance, distended abdomen, bloody stools
A

Necrosis of intestinal mucosa w/ possible perforation –> pneumatosis intestinalis, free air in abdomen, portal venous gas

71
Q

Gardner Syndrome

A

FAP
Osseous and soft tissue tumors
Congenital hypertrophy of retinal pigment epithelium
Impacted/supernumerary teeth

72
Q

Turcot Syndrome

A

FAP + malignant CNS tumor

73
Q

Hyperpigmented mouth/lips/hands/genitalia?

A

Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome (AD)

  • Increased risk of breast and GI cancers
  • Hamartomas
74
Q

Genetic transmission of all polyposis syndromes

A

AD

75
Q

Bacterial infection associated with CRC?

A

Streptococcus bovis (also causes endocarditis)

76
Q

Tumor marker for CRC?

A

CEA

77
Q

Pathogenesis of Reye Syndrome

A

Histo: mt abnormalities, fatty liver (microvesicular fatty change)
Patho: aspirin metabolites decrease beta-oxidation by reversible inhibition of mt E

78
Q

When should you give children aspirin?

A

Kawasaki DZ

79
Q

Histo of hepatic steatosis

A

Macrovesicular fatty change

- Reversible with alcohol cessation

80
Q

Histo of alcoholic hepatitis

A 
Swollen & necrotic hepatocytes w/ neutrophils
MALLORY BODIES (intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions of damaged keratin)
81
Q

Which zone is alcohol cirrhosis seen in?

A

Zone III (around central vein)

82
Q

MOA of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Increased NH4+ generation

83
Q

MOA of rifamixin or neomycin in hepatic encephalopathy?

A

Decreased NH4+ producing gut bacteria

84
Q

Fungi associated with HCC?

A

Aflatoxin from Aspergillus (stored grains)

- Induces p53 mutations

85
Q

Tumor marker for HCC?

A

Alpha-fetoprotein

86
Q

Most common benign liver tumor?

A

Cavernous hemangioma

87
Q

Liver tumor associated with OCP and anabolic steroid use?

A

Hepatic adenoma

88
Q

Liver tumor associated with arsenic, vinyl chloride?

A

Angiosarcoma

89
Q

Nutmeg liver?

A

Budd chiari syndrome

90
Q

Pathogenesis of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency in liver vs. lugn

A

Liver: increased alpha1AT –> misfolded gene product protein aggregates in hepatocellular ER
Lung: decreased alpha1AT –> uninhibited elastase –> panacinar emphysema

91
Q

Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency genetics

A

Co-dominant trait

92
Q

Where does bilirubin deposit in neonates?

A

Basal ganglia

93
Q

Gilbert Syndrome and Crigler Najjar E

A

UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (increase in unconjugated bilirubin)

94
Q

Type II Crigler Najjar Rx

A

Phenobarbital (increases liver E synthesis)

95
Q

Dubin-Johnson Syndrome

A
  • Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia

- Defective liver excretion –> grossly black liver

96
Q

Rotor Syndrome

A

Without black liver

- impaired hepatic uptake and excretion

97
Q

Wilson DZ Gene

A

ATP7B gene on chromosome 13 –> heptocyte copper-transporting ATPase –> lack of Cu transport into bile –> lack of Cu incorporation into ceruloplasm
AR

98
Q

Rx of Wilson DZ

A

Chelation with penicillamine or trientine

Oral zinc

99
Q

Unique thing with Wilson DZ

A

Kayser-Fleishcer ring (deposits in Descemet membrane in cornea)

100
Q

Wilson DZ lab

A

Decreased serum cerruloplasmin, increased urine copper
Hemolytic anemia
Renal DZ
Liver DZ

101
Q

Hemochromatosis gene

A 
HFE gene (C282Y > H63D) on Chr 6 --> abnormal Fe sensing and increased intestinal absorption --> damage due to generation of free radicals
AR
102
Q

Hemochromatosis labs

A

Increased ferritin and iron
Decreased TIBC
Increased transferring saturation

103
Q

Special stain for hemochromatosis

A

Prussian blue stain

104
Q

Arthropathy in hemochromatosis caused by?

A

Calcium pyrophosphate

105
Q

Hemochromatosis rx

A

Repeated phlebotomy

Chelation with deferasirox, deferoamine, oral deferiprone

106
Q

Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis Path

- men with IBD

A
  • Onion skin bile duct fibrosis

- Beading of intra and extrahepatic bile ducts

107
Q

PSC associated with:

A
  • UC
  • pANCA +
  • increased IgM
  • Increased risk of cholangiocarcinoma and gallbladder cancer
108
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis path

- middle aged women

A

AI –> lymphocytic infiltrate and granulomas –> destruction of intralobular bile ducts

109
Q

PBC associated with:

A
  • Anti-mt Ab +

- Increased IgM

110
Q

Infection associated with cholecystitis

A

CMV

111
Q

Cause of porcelain gallbladder

A

Chronic cholecystitis

112
Q

Porcelain GB associated with increased risk of…?

A

Adenocarcinoma of gallbladder

113
Q

Tumor marker for pancreatic adenocarcinoma?

A

CA19-9

Step 1 (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions