Genetics Flashcards

1
Q

what is the Difference between constitutive and regulated gene expression?

A

Constitutive :Products made by all cells all the time - often called ‘housekeeping’ genes. Expression is constant.
Regulated: Time (developmental), place (cell type), amount, in response to signals. Can be under very tight control

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2
Q

~20,000 genes but many more (millions??) proteins. Protein diversity is increased and can occur because?

A

Many genes have more than one promoter.

Alternative splicing

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3
Q

mechanisms for chromatin remodelling using epigenetic marks (5)?

A

o histone modifications (acetylated in euchromatin; methylated or hypo-methylated depending on histone variant).
o DNA methylation (NB methylation of CpGs (often around promoters)lead to silencing of genes).
o nucleosome positioning.
o non-coding RNAs.
o nuclear location of chromatin.

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4
Q

Differences between euchromatin and heterochromatin?

A

eu = open, relaxed. Hetero = closed, condesned

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5
Q

what percentage of the human genome is responsible for protein coding seqeunces

A

1-2%

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6
Q

Factors involved in basal gene expression (3)?

A

open chromatin, RNA polymerase, basal transcription

factors that interact with promoters (DNA) and various proteins.

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7
Q

Factors involved in regulated gene expression (6)?

A

same as above (open chromatin, RNA polymerase, basal transcription factors that interact with promoters (DNA) and various proteins.) + enhancers/silencers (DNA), more
transcription factors, long non-coding RNAs

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8
Q

• Basic steps in gene expression

A
open conformation of chromatin.
Transcription.
Post-transcription processing.
Translation.
Post Translation processing.
Protein targeting and transport.
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9
Q

what does biallelic mean?

A

gene is expressed from both maternal and paternal copy

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10
Q

consequenes of monoallelic expression?

A

for some genes its sufficient. Others its not. Some it IS ESSENTIAL (X inactivation)

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11
Q

Inactivation of genes on the X chromosome and genomic imprinting is mostly determined by epigenetic mechanisms. name them (3)

A

Histone modifications, DNA methylation and Non-codingRNAs

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12
Q

what is the inactived X chromosome called

A

Barr Body

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13
Q

describe X chromosome inactivation

A

occurs in early embryogenesis and starts with expression of Xist – a long non-coding RNA, leading to heterochromatin formation spreading along the chromosome; DNA methylation also plays a role.

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14
Q

is the whole chromosome switched off in x inactivation

A

no, Some genes on the X chromosome escape X inactivation because they need to be expressed biallelically

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15
Q

definition of genomic imprinting

A

a phenomenon by which certain genes can be expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific manner

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16
Q

Genomic imprinting involves which epigenetic mechanisms (3)?

A

DNA methylation, Chromatin condensation (including histone modifications), Non-Coding RNAs

17
Q

• Mechanisms that can give rise to disorders of imprinting (4)

A
Deletion or duplications of regions of imprinted genes (Loss of Heterozygocity).
Uniparental Disomy (UPD) - both chromosomes from mother or father.
Epimutations - loss of imprinting
DNA mutations in imprinted genes
18
Q

how does UPD occur (4)?

A

1: Meiotic non- disjunction in both gametes (egg has 2 chromosome and sperm has none. or vice versa).
2: Meiotic non- disjunction in one gamete followed by duplication in zygote (egg has 1 chromosome, sperm has none and egg is duplicated. or vice versa).
3: Loss of one chromosome in zygote and duplication of other chromosome.
4: Meiotic non-disjunction in one gamete followed by loss of chromosome in zygote (egg has 2 chromosome, sperm has one, sperm is lost in zygote. or vice versa).

19
Q

what is BW syndrome? what is the majority of causes?

A

Beckwith-Weidemann syndrome is an imprinting disorder linked to imprinted genes on chr 11p15.5.
Majority caused by epimutations on maternal allele.

20
Q

what are PW syndrom and Angelmann syndrome? what are their causes.

A

are imprinting disorders linked to imprinted genes on chr 15q. PWS due to deficiency of paternally expressed genes (P or paternal). AS essentially due to a deficiency of maternally expressed genes

21
Q

pattern of inheritance for Mutations in an active paternal/inactive maternal?

A

male carriers and affected males can have affected children but not carrier children.
Female carriers and affected females can have carrier children but not affected children

22
Q

Pattern of inheritance for Mutations in an active maternal/inactive paternal?

A

female carriers and affected females can have affected children but not carrier children.
Male carriers and affected females can have carrier children but not affected children.

23
Q

what percentage of babies have a birth defect?

A

4%

24
Q

what are the most common autosomal and sex chromosomal defects respectively?

A

Trisomy 21 and Klinefelter Syndrome (XXY).

25
Q

describe the relationship b/w age of a woman and risk of child having T21.

A

increases with age, especially in late 30s and 40s

26
Q

questions in an ideal family history?

A

get up to 2nd degree history, inherited family condition, recurrent miscarriages, unexplained perinatal deaths, consanguinity, ethnic background

27
Q

• Reasons why a woman/couple choose to have prenatal testing? (4)

A

provides risk information.
Termination option.
Allows couple to psychologically prepare.
Allow medical and allied health staff plan management and care of baby

28
Q

dif b/w prenatal screening and diagnostic testing.

A

Prenatal screening tests give a risk figure and are non-invasive (to the pregnancy), diagnostic
tests give a more definitive result and are (currently) invasive. NB BUT non-invasive prenatal testing can give a definitive result, and chromosomal microarrays can give results of uncertain clinical significance.

29
Q

• Currently 2 prenatal screening tests in major use are?
what conditions these tests give a risk for? what is measured? when tests are carried out? what other factors are used in providing the risk figure? the cut-off for T21?

A

First trimester combined screening. Tests for T21 and T18 defect. Blood taken at 10 weeks (measure analytes), ultrasound at 13 weeks. In ultrasound measure neuchal translucency (oedema behind head) and crown rump. other factors are maternal age, weight. Cut off for T21 is 1/300.

Second trimester maternal serum screening. Test for T21, 18 and neural tube defect. Blood taken at 16 week (measure analytes). also use maternal age, weight. Cut of for T21 is 1/250.

30
Q

NIPT – what is analysed? What technology is used? What can be detected?

A

Non-Invasive Prenatal Test. Cell free fetal DNA/RNA in maternal blood

31
Q

• Fetal sampling procedures: CVS vs amniocentesis – how they differ?

A

CVS (Chorionic villus sampling) - 11 weeks, placental tissue, ultrasound, invasive - risk of miscarriage 1%.

Amnio - 15 weeks, amniotic fluid, ultrasound, invasive - risk of miscarriage half of above (.5%). if TOP requested - labour induced.

32
Q

Types testing for chromosomes (3)?

A

o FISH – fluorescent tags for specific chromosomes, interphase, fast result, looks for aneuploides.
o Karyotype – requires dividing (metaphase) cells, chromosomes stained, aligned and counted, result takes 2 weeks, looks for aneuploides and chromosomal rearrangements (but can’t see microdeletions/microduplications – resolution too low).
o Chromosomal microarray –a molecular test – looks for copy number variation (some also include SNPs) – can detect microdeletions/microduplications because resolution is higher – BUT can also get results of uncertain clinical significance.

33
Q

causes of Down Syndrome?

A

95% cases due to standard trisomy 21 caused by non-disjunction. 5% due to unbalanced translocations. 1-2% inherited.

34
Q

Differences between balanced and unbalanced translocations?

A

Translocations can be balanced (in an even exchange of material with no genetic information extra or missing, and ideally full functionality) or unbalanced (where the exchange of chromosome material is unequal resulting in extra or missing genes).

35
Q

how is termination of pregnancy performed if requested in a CVS

A

dilatation & curettage (D&C) under general anaesthetic.

36
Q

what 4 analytes are measured in 2nd trimester screening?

A

10 AFP.
Oestriol.
HcG.
Inhibin A.

37
Q

in 2nd trimester screening what are the analyte results that give an increased risk of T21?

A

↓ AFP, Oestriol ↓, Hcg↑, Inhibin A↑

38
Q

Robertsonian translocation?

A

translocation between two ACROCENTRIC (only) chromosomes (13, 14, 15, 21, 22)