Genetic Testing Flashcards

1
Q

Nomenclature for variants:
We have to specify a ___ and a ____ and indicate what the ____ to interpret is.

A

Location
Change
Reference

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2
Q

____ ____ ____ is the most common way to represent variance in clinical applications
___: counts in coding sequence from the first A of the start ATG as 1
__: numbers the amino acids with the first with methionine as 1

A

Coding sequence coordinates
c
p

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3
Q

For coding or protein locations note ___ ___ is used.

A

Which transcript

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4
Q

A ____ is a permanent change in DNA sequence. A ____ is a variant with a frequency in the population greater than 1%.

A

Variant
Polymorphism

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5
Q

Single nucleotide variants are changes at just ___ base. They can be missense or nonsense. Insertion or deletion, resulting in ____.

A

One
Frameshift

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6
Q

Insertion or deletion’s that are greater than 50 base pairs is called a ___ ___. Larger deletions are insertions above 1000 base pairs are sometimes called ___ ___ variants.

A

Structural variant
Copy number

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7
Q

Next generation sequencing (NGS) looks at ____ of sequences. They have ___ that look at sequences of lists of genes. And ____ which looks at coding regions and edges of introns/exons.

A

Thousands
Panels
Exome

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8
Q

Exome is a ____ driven analysis. It often as sent as trio with parents sequenced also.

A

Phenotype

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9
Q

Sanger sequencing looks at a _____ sequence of a few hundred base pairs out of time

A

Target

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10
Q

Chromosomal microarray analysis looks for _____ ____ variants.

A

Copy number

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11
Q

Methylation testing looks for DNA ____ changes.

A

Methylation

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12
Q

In Sanger,
_____ (ddNTPs) have a removal of a hydroxyl group from the ribose, and another base cannot be added to the chain, therefore ____ the sequence. This leads to a mix of sizes of DNA ____ matching the template sequence, but of varying lengths

A

Dideoxynucleotides
Terminating
Oligos

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13
Q

Next generation sequencing relies on making copies of ____ of small fragments of the template DNA. Each base ____ ___ when added, and a camera takes a picture of each addition. Each spot corresponds to a specific piece of template. This results in millions of short reads of sequence from the template all being sequenced at once.

A

Millions
Lights up

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14
Q

Next generation sequencing:
For tests looking at heterozygous or homozygous and alien type of variance the goal is to have at least ____ reads of each spot of interest

A

30

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15
Q

Next generation sequencing:
For tests looking at somatic, mosaic, or cancer variation, the goal is to have ____ of reads at each spot of interest

A

Hundreds

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16
Q

____ ____ means more reads at a given spot. It means higher accuracy calling bases and greater ability to call variants that are present at a low allele fraction

A

Higher coverage

17
Q

NGS overall process:

A
18
Q

_____ ____ is good for a targeted assessment of a known region or a series of known regions. It is often used as a ____ for variants found on NGS.

A

Sanger sequencing
Confirmation

19
Q

Sanger sequencing is efficient and ___ effective at a small scale. Mostly ____ assessment of mixes of alleles.

A

Cost
Qualitative

20
Q

Next generation sequencing can be used for ____ or ____ assessment of ___ or ____ genes.

A

Targeted
Untargeted
Known
Unknown

21
Q

___ ___ ___ is more likely to yield variance of uncertain significance

A

Next generation sequencing

22
Q

___/___ allows for precise gene editing. It is derived from bacteria. It includes a ____ endonuclease that cuts DNA as a double strand break in a known location based on target sequence. _____ ____ ____ of the breaks leads to a deletion.

A

CRISPR/Cas9
Cas9
Nonhomologous end joining

23
Q

____ makes many copies of a sequence between two primer sequences. DNA template is denatured by heat. Primers bind. DNA is denatured again. Primers bind again and start copying. Multiple cycles.

A

PCR

24
Q

____ ____: DNA is cut into smaller pieces by enzymes and separated on a gel by electrophoresis. Blot the separated DNA from gel to a membrane. Hybridize the membrane with labeled probe.

A
25
Q

____ ____: RNA gel electrophoresis and blotting. RNAs move though the gel by electric current.

A

Northern blot

26
Q

____ ___: protein gel electrophoresis and blotting. Relies on antigen-antibody interactions for detection.

A

Western blot

27
Q

____/____ microarray: A patient sample genomic DNA is compared to a pool of unaffected individuals genomes. More binding means duplications. Less binding means deletions.

A

CGH/Oligonucleotide

28
Q

____ microarray: probes are paired with different alleles of SNPs represented. Genotyping of thousands of SNPs at the same time.

A

Genotyping

29
Q

When do we get genetic tests?

A
30
Q

What type of testing when?

A
31
Q

A ___ variant effects both alleles. A ___ variant has two mutations on the same allele.

A

Trans
Cis

32
Q

If a mutation arises ____ it is more suspicious and more likely be cause disease

A

De Novo

33
Q

____, including nonsense, splice, or frameshift, are strong evidence of disease causing variations

A

Nulls

34
Q

A pathogenic variant will generally not be present in ____ frequency in healthy individuals

A

High

35
Q

Anything with a frequency greater than __% in any population is strong evidence of a benign variant

A

5

36
Q

_____ is the most widely used population database. Some populations are not well represented in this database

A

gnomAD

37
Q

Variants in under sampled populations are more likely to be reported as ___ ___.

A

Uncertain significance

38
Q

Trans versus cis:
Trans is more likely to be ____ because both alleles are affected

A

Pathologic